why 5A Fa — 21-08-2016 MOC-2016 set gtr / QUESTION BOOKLET are cope: 06 giea # gat @ den Number of Pages in Booklet : 32 (gfe & seat at Ae / Number of Questions in Booklet ; 160. aon eT / Ni SR.No. \ 100689 ‘yp / Maximum Marks: 480 INSTRUCTIONS Answer all questions, All questions carry equal marks. Only one answer isto be given for each question. If more than one answers are marked, it would be treated as wrong answer. Each question has four alternative responses marked serially as 1, 2, 3, 4. You have to darken only one cele or habble insiating the corect answer on the Ansiver Sheet using BLUE BALL POINT PEN. 6. 1/3 part of the marks) of each question will be deducted for each wrong answer. (A wrong answer means an incorteet answer of more than one answers for any question. Leaving all the relevant circles or ‘bubbles of any question blank will nat be considered as wrong answer) 7. Aller opening the envelope the candidate should ‘ensue that Serial Number ofthe Question Paper snd AAnciver Sieet must be same. Inease they ae different, 4 candidate must obtain Envetop of Question paper & OMLR. Sheet the saune Serial Number. Candidate himself shall be responsible for ensuring this. 8. Mobile Phone/Bluetooth Devices or any other electronics gadget in the examination hall is strictly ‘dealt as per rules. 9. Please correctly fill your Roll Number in O.MR. Sheet, § Marks will be deducted for filling wooag or incomplete Roll Nunber. 10, If there is any sort of ambiguity/mistake either of printing o facial mture in Hindi and English Version fof the question, the English Version will he treated as standard Warning : Ifa candidate is found copying or if any ‘unauthorised material is found in his/uer possession, F.LR. would be lodged against him/her in the Police Station and he/she would liable to be prosecuted under Section 3 of the R.P-E. (Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992 Board may also debar him/her permanently from ll future examination of the Board te wa seit & ort tm wh set 8 oie oor By ss ma sw AL | ed afte one 8 ae Ber Soe a TT am sorte mer 8 are fre ae RE tf, PF me 1.2.3.4 oe fem a bi eed a) ek Sue Pe TRG tae Hea eRe Te a8 Oe ae OB aT TT aL 6. ape ee Be we fe 13 LT BR mit age oa Pete wa te oe 2b Rach A mer 2 the A en SET se et rr one 7 meee gtr ore wae & Pros ath ae oe sen ae gt fe Se TC re Te ah teen fea 8 a ete err fen Eee fear a at dew 8 gets A Ar ten ar ET ee ron ae 1 en Tah radi ee Soe devege ftaen oem Sects a ot vier veg Ast pie ala Bat Ral aod & aa te ‘Se shia wat ah fo oat Pres ae a ea ear weak & eH) 8 ert Oa ra SOR OR. a HE FRE agi a Tat sc we 5 oe BT ft oR 10, St Peel ae & Rett ed ot ered Rt ae1. The word Statistics’ is derived from the Latin word: 1) Strata 2) Status 3) Statics 4) Sample 1, wife rex fans fer ez @ aa & ? 1) wae (el) 2) fala (en) 3) eaiaat Geen) 4) fas (aM) 2. Statistics facilitates: 1) Collection of data 2) Organisation of data 3) Comparison of data 4) Disposal of data 2. aifterat gar gem wer art @ 7 1) aaa eae 2) Beat oI ae 3) aHal #1 Gear 4) Waar ar Pert 3. Statistics can best be considered as 1) Anant 2). Science 3) Both art as well as science 4) None of these 3. wifaeet a) Awe AIT a BeAT & - 1) Fat | 2 fan 3) an oa fas ert 4) sate 8 Se ai 4, The representation of statistical data by maps is called - 1) Pictagtam 2) Bar diagram 3) Histogram 4) Cartogram 4. ufeat & are aifteetta arta ar sfattires arena & e 1) feet ae 2) vedi (am) area 3) ferry 4) anéiara 5. Units of statistical analysis and interpretation includes 1) Ratios and Percentages 2) \ Rates 3) Coefficients 4) All the above 5. vifeaaita fasta a caren at gangal 4 ener @ - 1) agua 4 afaert 2» e 3) De 4) sate at 6. Classification is the process of arranging data in: 1) Different 1uws 2) Differeut columns and rows 3) Grouping of related facts in different classes 4) None of these 6. eg ee eee ae 1) fers eval 7 fats dari aan abit % 3) on ne Re ke aad 8 8 ar Tet 06-4 a7. Which of the following divides a group of data into four sub-groups? 1) Median 2) Quartites 3) Percentiles 4) Standard deviation 7. fr 8 or wiel & we aye at ay oo age A atom & 1) ater 2) aguia 3) mata 4) gary frre 8. Classification of data is the: 1) Ist stage of tabulation 2) nd stage of tabulation 3) 3rd stage of tabulation 4) Final stage of tabulation 8. Beat at arffener & - 1) arene aft ery tee 2) arf at facia steer 3) arisen at dra sre 4) arofer & af sear 9. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency? 1) Mean 2) Median 3) Variance 4) Mode 9, Fre H aire eta wafer ar are iE? 1) ary 2) FETE 3) wae 4) aENE 10. If a data set has an even number of observations, the median, 1) Can not be determnined 2) Isitfe average value of the two middle items 3) Must be equal to the mean : 4) Is the average value of the two middle items when all items are arranged in ascending order 10. aft writ & ayE a ee saci a Sal HET - 1) fauifte adi 1 aed 2) dma deni ar staat ya eT 3) ara & awe et tele 4) a ey densi a chee yea en wa aa ena at aad EC a AF Tee ainsiail 11, The value that has half of the observations above it and half the observations below it is called the. 1) Range 2) Median 3) | Mean oe Mode RET i. ae yea, Grete ee ae crac @ cen Ata ait oe cracias 2, spect & - 1) = 2) ReRET 3) ary yo), EE 12, The variance of a sample of 81 observations equals 64. The standard deviation of the sample equals. 1) 1 2) 4096 3» 8 4) 6561 12. ua widest & 81 stacterat ar wearer 64 & | ga ofaest wr waa facet & - yt 2) 4096 ye 4) 6561 06-413. Which average can be used for studying phenomena like intelligence and honesty: 1) Mean 2) Median 3) Mode 4) Standard deviation 13. afeant @ darert Set errs & seas @q Sr aI aitaa van far at aaa ze - 1) wer 2) wera 3) Fee 4) mary frat 14, Sub-divided bar diagrams are also known as: 1) Percentage Dar diagram 2) Component Dar diagram 3) Histogram 4) Deviation Bar diagram 14. oeRrafia veal arte a Fret & vit oT ora & - 1) star eet one 2) wow weet onter 3) feet ame 4) Prat weet sie 15, Secondary data are generally : 1) More reliable than pnmary data 2) Less reliable than primary data 3) Depends on the agency collecting data 4) _ None of the above 15, feditoas wes waa: ea & - 1) metres weet & Sa TE 2) mate aren a or ee O° 8) ake Tatar aeraRht dem ae Pri arr 4) cata A a ae et 16. From the information given below choose the correct answer : Factory A Factory B Mean daily wage Rs.300 Rs. 50 No. of workers 50) 300 1) Factory A pays larger amount as daily wages 2) Factory B pays larger amount as daily wages 3) Both factories pays equal amount as daily wages 4) Cannot be determined 16, #8 oh qa & ae oe GRA weit | fata aha ura wagii = 300 250 wet a FT 50 300 1) beet ‘at pa ahep aeA a STeT TAM wet F | 2) Rect a pe Ae ag aa aT Ga ae FI 3) art ect car oe the rah a ET sett eI 4) frsifta vet fear or geet & 1 17. If Mean is 5 and Variance is 9 , the coefficient of variation will be: 1) 60% 2) 90% 3) 30% 4) 50% 17, aft wea 5 cen reaeor 9 8 ch Peat at win @ifLee le afer) ee - 1) 60% 2) 90% 3) 30% 4) 50% 06-4 a ee er18. ‘The number of observations corresponding to @ particular class is known as’ 1) Frequency 2) Cumulative frequency / 3) Class interval 4) Mid point | 18, feet fade mar a arabe areca a1 een at aT ST = - 1) aaa 2) dee areareat 3) aT orereet 4) nerfrg 19. If QL =5, Q2 = 10 aid Q3 = 20, the quartile deviation will be: 1s 2) 25 3) 75 4) 30 | 19. af Ql =5,Q2= 1081 Q3 = 20% at aquie fram een - 1) 18 2) 25 a 78 4) 30 20. The following table gives the result of an examination taken by 120 students. How many students received at least 70 marks in the examination: Marks Less than 50_| 50-59 | 60-69 | 70-79 | 80-89 | 90-100 ‘Cumulative 15% 10% | 30% | 25% | 15% | 5% Frequency 1) 94 2) 45 | Bye) 4) None of the above i i 20. er uty 120 Fama iar wr ter en Lea rita Fao Faeries ee wa 70 of ara fina | ae. aa aH 50-59 | 60-69 [-70-79 [78089] "9O'100 aaa 15% 10% | 30% ' 5% : ararat ‘ ov 1 54 2) AS oy snninces, wee “A Ct 3) 25 4) sutad A atang at wel 21. Exclusive method of classification should: : " 1) Not be preferred to inclusive method 2) Be preferred to inclusive method tiny 3) Both inclusive and exclusive methods are saute 4) None of the above Be store re een ural Paha 6) geval A wren 42) BN eae Ft werestt fafa at gern A praesent, ef safer, 3) det eraait a orra fatty om war & 4) Sater 8 a ag at 22. Histogram is used to find: 1) Mean 2) Median 3) Mode 4) Variance 22, Feretnrs a sueien war Framer % fore fear aren 8 ? 1) are 2) are 3) agra 4) RO 06-4 e er23. 24, 25. 26. 26. 21. 27. 28. 28, 29. 29. If Arithmetic mean is 48 and Median is 47, Mode value will be: 1) 44 2) 45 3) 49 4) 95 cafe Serer are 48 Boca Pe 47 & cH age ETT 1) 44 2 45 3 49 4) 95 In chronological classification data are classified on the basis of: 1) Location 2) Class interval 3) Time 4) Attributes . rere altar Hach a aclterrm Fear orene nz ta & - 1) BI 2) wt srr 3) AAT 4) fas ‘The number of questions in a questionnaire should be; I) Ww 2) 20 3) 40 4) Depends on the purpose of the survey ara: feat serait i fet wet et afer ? 1) 10 2» 2 3) 40 4) dt wee w Pek a | The median of the data; 16,18,20,28,°30,32,40 is: 1H 14 2) 30 3) 18 4) 28 WHAT; 16,18,20,28, 30,3240 ar Fea ® : Db 14 2) 30 3) 18 4) 28 While editing primary data our focus should be on information given in the questionnaire is; 1) Complete 2) Consistent 3) Accurate 4) All the above ora rafts wees aa ares eee & at ear eas Sar ened fe aera Fat wt ge - b we 2) wae 3) wee @ 4) ora ef If X is 30, the sum of deviations from X in the series 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 then will be: 1) Zero 2) 60 3) 30 4) 15 af X ar A 30% Ach 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 HX & Fert 7a Feaertt a art eT now 2) 60 3) 30 4) 15 Ina distribution of 10, which of the following would be an appropriate average for determining the most common size of shoes? 1) Arithmetic mean 2) Geometrie mean 3) Median 4) Mode 10 errand & Facreor H, Fret 3 a aa er iter wae enfees oar sea ot Sper Prater sae Be fare Pea Bd 1) ADR ATED 2) Tae AT 3) Here 4) Tere One 730, Which of the following is a positional average: 1) Arithmetic mean 2) Geometric mean 3) Mode 4) Harmonic mean 30. fra 4 & aia an Renta ita & - 1) FARR ara 2) ypiiee area 3) aERe 4) eee ar f 31. With increase in sample size, Non-sampling error usually : 1) Decreases 2) Increases 3) No effect 4) None of these 31. widest an oreare aga oy, Are - freer gfe aver: - i 1) vedi & z Dem oe 3) aE were Agi 4) watrad 4 8 and ae 32. Which of the following would you regard as discrete variables: 1) Height 2) Time j 3) Wages paid to workers 4) Number of persons in a family ! 32. Fer a 8 fea any saga ae ATT - 1) wag : 2, wa Leite 3) moe a ah eh watgdt 4) dian Ff aie a der 33. The sum,of the deviations of individual observations from. which of the following is zero: 1 1) Mode 2) Median . i 3) Geometric mean 4) None of these 33, Safar oractiest ar Pret a & free fare na reerst a a gee - vt 1) ager 2) weet 3) qeter arer 4) wea 4 4 ane ae esas ke 34, Simple Random sampling is not preferred when - rane 1) Population is homogeneous 2) Population is heterogeneous... 4 3) Both &2 4) None of the above ova, 34, wee arate after at malta ei ah art & - oa Ree 1) wren aardia a 2) wten sas et 3) 1 ud 2 ee 4) outed 9 8 aid adi DEI 1 35. The standard deviation of 30 items in a data set is 5/3. If every item inte date set multiplied by 3, then the variance of the group will be - 7 ei 2) 10 3) 25 4) 30 35. 30 nat at samt Fraert 5/3 & | afe ace ne at ‘3? om ae Rear one at aR aT sae ear eT - ns 2) 10 3) 25 4) 30 06-4 spsn 36. For dealing with qualitative data the best average is: 1) Arithmetic mean 2) Mode 3) Harmonic mean 4) Median 36. yore arial @ Five & few aaa orem sited Grr are - 1) Fara ae 2) Fare 3) Bree ay 4) Rea 37. The geometric mean of two numbers 8 and 18 shall be: nD 12 y 1B 3) 10 4) 26 37, & dealt 8 cen 18 a quiere are een - n 12 2» 1B 3) 10 4) 26 I 38. The quautile deviation of 10 items is 8. The standard deviation will be: ) 8 2) 10 3) 12 4) 80 38. 10 Nat ar agate Fras 8 & | gear way fee et - n 8 2) 10 a 2 4) 80 39. The range of the data set: 28,12,18,14,15,7,42,20 is: yb 8 2) 10 xR 12 4) 35 39, ati AE 28,12,18,14,15,7,42,20 4 tH aE - D8 2 10 3 12 4) 35 40. ‘Ogive' helps to locate - 1) Mean 2) Standard deviation 3) Mode 4) Median 40. ‘ahfita’ aan var eA A Hag sea e - 1) Arey 2) were Peer 3) age 4) se 41. Arithmetic mean of 20 values is 45. If one of these values is to be taken 35 instead of 55, the correct arithmetic mean is: 1) 44 2) 45 3) 46 4) 65 AL, 20 Heat emt were Hie 45 & Laie sere oa we wT 35 at ME SS a fever re ey at aT TATA Tea ET 1) 44 2) 45 3) 46 4) 65 42. The measure of variation that is least affected by extreme observations is: 1) Range 2) Mean deviation 3) Standard deviation 4) Quartile deviation: 42. ‘feaciistia at ae sit wen stavitat & aextt ae rae eit & - D ww 2) Hn Pare 3) sey Pract 4) agate fra 06-4 9 oe43. The collection of all possible observations of a specified characteristic of interest is called - 1) Population 2) Random sampling 3) Purposive sam pting 4) Convenience sampling 43. Ride ofa a fast was art ai denied aaceal oI catia Bor Kec 2 | ) wee» 2) agiees wide 3) vada afte 4) aaa afta 44. Mean +2 S.D. approximately covers an area in a normal distribution: 1) 59% 2) 68% 3) 95% 4 W% 44. Ua HATA ae Fey + 2 oT Paes oT feat Aa wae eT e | 1) 59% 2) 68% 3) 95% 4) 9% 45. Non- Random sampling is also referred as : 1) Probability sampling 2) Non-Probability sampling 3) Stratified sampling 4) Census 45. tragftea waar a Pe & af are cet & - 1) sifaerat ferret 2) Femme ofa 3) wate afer 4) TT 46. IfX is and the distribution is 2,3,4,5,8, 10 the sum of squares of deviations from the X will be: 1) 48 O12 3) 16 4) 2 46. aie X aT APT 5 & a Fare 2,3,4,5,8, 10 4 X & fee wa faaera & ait at arr ae - 1) 48 2) 12 3) 16 4) 2 47, Steatified sample is preferred where - 1) Random sampling is not possible 2) Small samples are required 3) _ The population is perfectly homogeneous 4) ‘The population is not homogeneous 47. etiga aire ot wafer a ort & oa - 1) angheae nfo aera sel & 2) Bie aitasl et ara 3) steer quien wonder 4) sereen quicen wartiert #t 48. ‘The purpose of sampling is 1) “Testing of hypothes 2) Estimation of population parameter 3) Both ‘I’ & 2 4) None of the above 48. afctaert ae Getsa & - 1) ater a site aT 2) SRT staat a aia ET 3) ‘1 ua 2! art ‘outer Ha are ae49. 49. 50. 50. Sl. 51. 52: 52, 53. 53, 54, 34, ‘Sampling saves: 1) Time 2) Money 3) Both '1' and "2 4) None of the above sleet rare & - 1) wa 2) oq 3) ‘Twa 2! ait 4) suid 4 4 ane ae ‘The measure based on only two values of the series is - 1) Range 2) “Quartile deviation 3) Mean deviation 4) Standard deviation Be aM a Meh & Sarat at yea ae cent ea EI ) 2) aaate fra 3) Aen freer 4) ary freert When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called: 1) Non-random sampling method 2) Quota sampling 3) Snowball sampling 4) Equal probability selection method aft wren & wae Fe H Ge SF aT SRT TA AT aT ae eA - 1) fv - argiewe ufteas fat 2) ate vier 3) Strait wfeeert 4) war uifaesat gare fate: Which of the following is not a non-random sampling technique? 1) Purpokive sampling 2) Quota sampling 3) Convenience sampling 4) Cluster sampling Fre 4 8 Or ah targieas mites carta ae & - 1) satire after 2) ater wie 3) gfauere ora 4) aye wire Which of the following is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules. 1) Sample 2) Population 3) Statistic 4) Element fre 8 are wet on aye & ot Peet aet omen Fo Poet & ame a fear oT a) aires 2) order 3) aifere (refefRem) 4) Ta Which of the following is the method of Random Sampling - 1) Stratitied sampling 2) Systematic sampling, 3) Multi-stage sampling 4) All of the above fae 4 8 ate arglese ufraas fata & - 1) eates wie 2) wafer vita 3) agararit sitar 4) oar ait 06-8 ll5S. 55. 56. 56. 57. 37. 58. 58. 59, 59. 60. ‘The important methods of collecting primary data are ~ 1) Direct personal investigation 2) By mailed questionnaires 3) Questions: setit through enumerator 4) All the these rate wa Tata ae att aeeaqet fate & 1) weet eaters yao 2) oe ara wera 3) eos gre sea Fora 4) oviad ait The important demerits of direct personal investigation is: 1) Less time 2) Accuracy 3) Personal prejudice 4) None of these sea aafacrr Tren at eer ait t - wT 2) wert 3) afer yare 4) sr a a ae ae The usage of which type of data saves time, money and energy? 1) Primary data 2) Secondary data 3) Both 'I' and '2" 4) None of these Fea var & wis aT STA aea, fet a Sat aT e : 1) wate a 2) fede om 3) airy wa 2 4) sated A a aie Tah ‘The important merit of census is - 1) Information on all items are collected 2)-_Data of information more accurate 3) Both ‘I’ and '2" 4) More expensive Spero a ree THe - 1) mh ag Bt Ge eee wait F 2) cee oe pw eter ort 3) ai 1 a2" 4) afte Hem et & Diagrams and graphs are tool of - 1) Collection of data 2) Anal 3) Summarization 4) Presentation iter ce Ft et - : 12) we der 2) faveigur a 3) frend fare & 4) wegen a In simple random sampling ~ @)__ Each possible sample to have an equal probability of being picked Gi) All n-items of sample are independent of each other in selections 1) Only (i) 2) Only Gi), 3) Both (i) and Gi) 4) None of the above ararer aefese afar 4 - (sere wenias afaest & a ae at wafer sae ert & | fe steed ep Sot SN Tag 2 FL 1) ee (i) 2) %aet (ii) 3) ai @) wd GD 4) Satan 9 8 ae Aer 6-0f6 2Ap a 61. The value of mean, median and mode in an ideal symmetrical curve of bell shape will be 1). Different 2) Heterogeneous 3) Identical 4) None of these 61. 1m Fer ore & rest amet aw A ae, wear ae age | yea eH - ne 1) fia 2) aeeT ay aT 4) outta 18 aiid igi 62. The characteristics of ideal measure of central tendency is - 1) Should be rigidly defined 2) Should not be affected by extreme value 3) Should be suitable for further mathematical treatment 4) All the above 62. oem ares Ste wafer a at aa Pactaar / Pasta & 2 1) waver @ ofeais ara safer 2) arr ARH A wmfea et ca aes : 3) aa afaftaa are aorta soe & fame sage ara afer 4) ore ait 63. The statistical tool which measures the degree of spread and variations refers to - 1) Dispersion 2) Regression 3) Correlation 4). None of the above 63, Ae Bitters gat oft Ferrera ea aftats & sist a ATT & - Sieh 1) afer 2) water 3) err A) artan a aig ae The following table shows the number of hours worked by 200 students. Answer questions 64 - 66 on the basis of this table Number of Hours Frequency 09 40 10-19 50 20-29 70 30-39 40 Fret ferRae rect 200 faentat ary are & fra wea det at carte & | Ske HET 64-66 & oer a anol & ara we Ay ak 09 . 40 10-19 50 20-29 70 30-39 40. 64, The class imterval for the above distribution is: p. 9 2 10 3 4) None of the above 64, Suita face ar ah arte & - Dog. 2) 10 3 4) owt Ha ant we 65. The number of students working 19 hours or less is: | 1) 40 2) 50 3) 90 4) can not be determined | 65, 3a frente at Heer oH 19 dé an saa aH art ara FI 1) 40 2) 50 3) 90 4) Praia 3a fen or aeat 06-4 os= nag 66. ‘The cumulative frequency for the class of 10-19 is; Dn 90 as 3) 45 4) None of the above 66. Bat 10-19 # diel arcane - 1) 90 2) 25 3) 45 67. How often does a complete population count takes place in India: 1) Every year 2) Every 5 years 3) Every 10 years 4) Every 11 years 67. area A Ga aE orien at cor Peay sie Ge eet EI 1) wae at 2) wep 5 7a 3) wae 10 7 4) wae ad 68. The data collected through Participatory Rural Approach (PRA) is an example of. 1) Primary Data 2) Secondary Data 3) Both Primary and Secondary 4) Can not say anything 68. wrtterét ameter fate aver wate fae a Hay face saree & - 1) wate wie . 2) fede aie 3) grafts @ fediass eri 4) He el Get GT Re 69. Sampling errors can occur only in : 1) Sample survey 2) Census 3) Both Sample survey and Census 4) None of these 69. sitaas gfe sant Fer 8 et ort ont & - 1) ofeeah ad es 2) RTO ‘ 3) sfeest ae a orrOTAT aT 4) cued 9 8 at AEF 70. A number calculated with sample data is called: 1) Statistic 2) Population 3) Parameter 4) None of the above 70. wferest wet ara ArT at Ta Heat wl ed e 1) Aherat (eter) Po ss 3) rer 4) water 8 8 ag eT 71. When did Planned development start in India ? 1) 1950-51 2) 1951-52 3) 1954-55 4) 1957-58 71, ara A dtsrrag fare we Fat Ea? 1) 1950-51 2) 1951-52 3) 1954-55 4) 1957-58 72. Until now how many five year plans have been started in India ? 1) 10 2a UW 3x) 12 4 139 72. ara A oa om fer dead dort ary at ae ze? 1) 10 yu 3) 12 4.3 06-4 a73. On the eve of Independence about percent of the country's population was dependent on agriculture 1) 60 2) 80 3) 85 4) 75 73, waa St Th eT ae TAT feared aie Bt eer Bla ae Prk ar 1) 60 2) 80 3) 85 4) 75 74, In Rajasthan's Eleventh Plan (2007-12) Maximum expenditure was done on which of the following ? 1) Rural Development 2) Power 3) Social Services 4) Inigation & Flood Control 74, Trem at rare atarAT (2007-12) 4 waters aaa fea ae eo flea var ? 1) anton Fare oe 2) Ta 3) waif Banal ae 4) iad a are friar oe 75. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Act was passed in Rajasthan on 1) 10 September 2003 2) 11 August 2002 3) 12 January 2004 4) 13 July 2004 75, seat A ste ons aa (SEZ) aafetera afte Fea Te - 1) 10 fee 2003 s 2) 11 Het 2002 3) 12 srarél 2004 4) 13 ets 2004 76. At constant prices (2004-05) what was the estimated per capita income in Rajasthan in 2014-15 1) Rs. 38,215 2) Rs. 33,186 3) Rs. 37,290 4) Rs. 38,790 76. 2014-15 § ware at fer ypdt 2004-05 wz nfe alta ara are Parti we? 1). 38,215 2) 33,186 3) %.37,290 4) % 38,790 77. In 2013 in Rajasthan the annual production of cement (all types) was approximately how much ? 1) 100.3 Lakh Tonne 2) (180.4 Lakh Tonne 3) 192.4 Lakh Tonne 4) 194.3 Lakh Tonne 77. waar 4 2013 4 dite (ast fee A) cer ails Gorey cera Peer ga ? 1) 100.3 etka 4 2) 180.4 ane Ct 3) 192.4 are ct 4) 194.3 ae ot 78. In 2013-14 in Rajasthan the share of Agriculture (including Animal husbandry) based on the year 2004-05, in the state's net domestic product (NSDP) was how much ? 1) 21% 2) 22% 3) 23% 4) 25% 78, 2013-14 % wore F wie ase B (ay oT fea) 2004-05 at sisal we eT H ye ae see * QNSDP) 4 fact Gist ter? 1) 21% 2) 2% 3) 2% 4) 25%Mewat regional Development plan is for the henefit af penple nf which two districts ? 1) Barmer and Jaisalmer 2) Sawaimadhopur and Bharatpur Alwar and Dholpur 4) Alwar and Bharatpur 79. Fara wafers Praca vititora Pe el red a ayerai a ary wear & fem & 7 1) eRe aan Sree 2) wanaratge war HITT 3) eae ae Hite 4) ame ae eA 80. In the Power Sector in Rajasthan, the Transmission & Distritvution lasses (T & D losses) in March 2014 were estimated to be ? 1) 30% 2) 35% 3) 275% 4) 38.2% 80. Toa F faga aa A gar s fader a TET (T & D losses) Hi 2014 H Fara citer a & 7 1) 30% 2) 35% 3) 275% 4) 38.2% 81. Which statement is True ? i) In Gross Domestic Product (GDP) the share of export of goods & services in 2000-01 was 14% fi) The share increased to 22% in 2010-11 1) i) True 2) ii) True 3) Both i) & ii) are True 4) Both i) & ii) are False 81. a at aren wer & ? i) sree 4 weet wee seme (GDP) 4 aeqaii site Barat % Frater ear feet 2000-01 4 14% a ii) oe feem aeee 2010-11 4 22% Ht TAT 1) Ora 2) i) Re 3) ert @ wear Gi) FI 4) ert @) wen (i) oT 82. Which Statement is True ? i) Second five year plan was based on Harrod-Domar Model ii) Second five year plan was based on Mahalanobis Model iii) Second five year plan was based on Solow Model 1) i) True 2) ii) True 3) iii) Truc 4) None of the above. 82. arr tt sare wee ? i) facta da adie dion te See Ate oe owenfea FI | ii) facta va adie ahaa merited nisat xx ements & 1 i iii) fetta da atta Story Stet aise we anita = | 1) jaa 2) i) aa 3) iii) wer 4) autea 8 8 ag wet 83. Which Statement is True ? i) The objective of Eleventh Five year Plan was 9% in growth rate. ii) Growth in manpower planning mn Eleventh hive year plan was Ks. 9.20 crore 1) i) True 2) ii) Te 3) Both i) & ii) True 4) Both i) & ii) False 0-4 16| | \ 83. 84, a4, 85. 457 86. 86. art at aren wa @ ? i) apedt da aie el Seer 9% BTA a aT | ii) Taredt ta ata dat Y arraates Prats ar fare 5.20 wate a | 1) we 2) ire 3) et @) Aer Gi) wea 4) ai aan Gi) ater Which Statement is True ? i) According to 2011 census, the population of Rajasthan was 6.86 crores. ii) On the basis of state domestic product based on constant prices (2004-05) it was computed that the maximum growth rate of the state was during Eighth Plan 1) i) True 2) ii) True 3) Both i) & ii) True 4) Both i) & ii) False ar ah aren ae & 7 i) 201 MOM & Aya WHAT Bt THEN 6.86 wis F | i) Ga Seg Sere & one fear Rit (2004.05) we orn wer or eT A Talfie gfe TET arora # | 1) jaa 2) ira 3) ai @ Far Gi) FT 4) et @) aa Gi) ove Which Statement is True ? . i) Until now Twelve Five year plans have been completed in India. 4i)_During plan period before implementing of fourth plan, three annual plans were implemented 1) i) True, 2) ii) True 3) Both i) & ii) True 4) Both i) & ii) False ata at aren wert ? i) una 4 aa oe ave sa atta dren gt at ate | ii) doar 4 eget dora ary eet & qe dts antl ctor ary, at as 1) dae 2) iw 3) et @ wa Gi) we 4) asi @ war Gi) oT Which Statement of Economic Survey 2016 is true ? i) Govt. Plans to change 77 crore bulbs and 3.5 crore conventional street lights with LED ii) This would save 21,500 mega watt of Electricity 1) i) True 2) ii) Tue 3) Both i) & ii) True 4) Both i) & ii) False ont 09 2016 at ort caren ae & ? i) aver a don 77 ats ave aa 3.5 was Teas wie Teal at L ii) 3a8 21,500 Fe aie fash ae ore | 1) aa 2) iia 3) dat @) FH Gi) Fa 4) ai @ ver @) seer a aeart | 6-4is 87, Which Pair is correctly matched ? A) Foodgrains Production in India (2012-13) : 25 crore tonne B) Death rate in India (2011) : 7.1 pet 1owsand C) Sex ratio in Rajasthan (2011) per thousand : 926 DA 2B aac 4) AIA,B,C 87. Fret oitst aire & sitet am Perens at & - A) AU A GTI SEA (2012-13) : 25 aS TH B) amet 9 Fey (2011): 7.1 aha EA C) Tera F Ferma (2011) wf eae : 926 nA 2B aC 4) wHAB.C 88. Which of the pair is correctly matched ? A). Density of population (2011) in Rajasthan ; 201 B) Panchayathi Raj started in Rajasthan in the city : Nagauir C) Rajasthan's position in India on the basis of area : Second 1) A&B 2) A&C 3) B&C 4) A 88. Fret tet FA ay A sitet an fens wet & 7 A) gore 4 order UAE (2011) : 201 B) Gaara dared wa at quane a awe: arte OQ aaa @ dt 4 cer wae 4 er: ga 1) ATIB 2 ATMC 3) Banc aa 89. Match the following Pairs A)_ Percapita power consumption (KWH) (2010-11) (India) (i) 843.75 B) Per capita Power consumption (KWH) (2010-11) Rajasthan (ii) 818.75 ©). Size of Agricultural holdings (2005-06) India Gil) 193 Hectare D) Size of Agricultural holdings (2005-06) Rajasthan ¥ Gvy3.38 Hectare 1) A-@) B - (ii) C- Gili) D- (iv) 2), A-Gi) B-Gi) C-Gv) D 3) A-@ B - Gi) C- Gy) D 4) AG) B-@ C- Gil). 1 D> Gy) 89, Fret sitet at Prony afin - A) sla eafty faga ear (KWH) (2010-11) rea (i) 843.75 B)_ ofa eats faa Sart (KWH) (2010-11) TIM (ii) 818.75 C) Bf Sire ar sree (2005-06) wirem (iii) 1.23 Bae D) EfY sie er cra (2005-06) asreM (iv) 3.38 taere 1) A-@ B-Gi) C- Gil) D- Gv) 2) A-Gid) B-@ C- (iv) D- (iii) 3) A-@) B- Gi) C-(iv) D- Gi) B-(i) C- Gili) D-(v) A-Gi)90, 90. 9 91. 92. 92. 93. 93. 94. 94. ‘Match the following Pairs A) Central Arid Zone Research Institute (CAZRI) B) According to 2011 census ms C) According to 2011 census maximur literacy rate (Rajasthan) D) According to 2011 census lowest Density (Rajasthan) 1) A- C- (ili) D- (ii) 2 A- c-@ D-(iv) 3) A- C-Gii) D- (iv) 4) A-() B- (ii) C- dil) D- (iv) fara sitet an fare Zifary - A) 33ra ae squat Heat (CAZRD B) 2011 amr & sryaR wad Sar aTaTET TAT Tee CTIA) ©) 2011 rrern & orgare serra a caftew CTT) ‘D) 2011 SFFCrT & agar Waa = WARN Ae TI) 1) A-Gv) C- di) D- Gi) 2) ii c-@ D- (iy) 3) B-@ C- Gi) D-(iv) 4) A-@ B-Gi) C- Gi) D-(y) ‘When 'Shahpura Prajamandal! was fouinded ? 1) 1934AD 2) 1936 A.D. 3) 1938. A.D, MEG Mose at eae er ee 7 1) 1934%, 2) 19368. 3) 19384 ‘Who was the author of ‘Lalit Vigrah Raj Natak’? 1) Vigrah raj TV 2) Somdev 3) Hatiraj ier Pest a eae BT at? 1) Pree age 2) area 3) efter ‘Gair’ dance style is popular in which place of Rajasthan ? 1) Shekhawati 2) Adiwasi 3) Danga oy qa ame & fee da oof & ? 1) Sereré 2) safer 3) st Where the BaL-kila is situated ? 1) Ajmer 2) Alwar 3) Dausa ‘aaftben’ wel faa ? 1) sare 2) Tere 3). atar Kota imum population the city (Rajasthan) (ii) Jaipur (iii) Jodhpur (iv) Jaisalmer @ er @) wae cy age Gv) Sere 4) 140A.D 4) 19404. = Prithviraj ILL 4) generat eta 4) "Mewat 4) Fart 4) Jaipur 4) sag9s. In which place ‘Bangri’ dialect is spoken ? 1) Kota - Bundi - Jhalawar 2) Hanumangarh - Sriganganagar 3) Dungarpur - Banswara 4) Sikar - Jhunjhunu 95. ‘anTet ae frm Ga H ate air & Y 1) rer - et - eras 2) eaarTg - Shere 3) erg - aieerer 4) tie - sie 96. When was coronation ceremany of Rana Sanga of Mewar held ? 1) 1508. AD. 2) 1509 A.D. 3) ISI0AD. 4) 1S AD. 96. Fare % faery ve aon APN aT Teta aa EST aT? 1) 15084, 2) 15092. 3) 15104. 4) sug J. How many Snush military Contonments were tere in Kajasthan at the period of 1857 mutiny 7 1) 03 2 04 3) 0s 4) 06 97, 1957 a reife Ae ATT ToTeNA i Peat fates orafat oft 7 1) 03 2) 04 3) 05 4) 06 98. When was Rajasthan Tourism Development corporation founded ? 1) Apnil1977» 2) April 1978 3) April 1979 4) April 1980 98. Tareas Wes faare fare at eT aa ae at? 1) eat 197 2) set 1978 3) ster 1979 4) arr 1980 99. Who was responsible for writing of genealogies in many successive generations ? 1) Jaga 2) Pujari 3) Mahajan 4) Allof above 99, senators ar drat ace creat we are ait aA aT? 1) ae 2) gare 3) Fen 4) aiid ott 100. Who is the following is popular as "Meera of Bangad” ? 1) Gavari Bai 2) Bhawanri Bai 3) Karma Bai 4) Gyanmati Bai 100, ‘arre aa er & avy & fr HB ai wie & ? 1) Tat a 2) wat ag 3) ae ae 4) aed ae 101. When Bharmal of Amer had accepted the dependency of Akbar ? 1) 1560 AD. 2) 1562 AD. 3) 1564 A.D. 4) 1566 A.D. 101, oe & UT AAS A ara St aie Ga eile BI At? 1) 1560 Sat 2) 1562 Set 3) 1564 Sit 4) 1566 eit 06-4 20— 102. When Panchayati Raj Act was promulgated in Rajasthan ? 1) 23 March 1994 2) 23 April 1994 3) 23 June 1995 4) 23 June 1996 102. care F ered wer exfefasy aq ery Pear var at 7 1) 23 and 1994 fat 2) 23 aie 1994 Se) 3) 23 qa 1995 sei 4) 23:3 1996 Fat 103.In which place marble made 'Batadu well’ is situated ? 1) Banswara 2) Badmer 3) Dungarpur 4) 103. ara & Faia “aterg at Hat” wel fete 7 1) atwarer 2) areae 3) Saye 4) 104. Who was the author of 'Eklinga Prashasti' ? 1) Ramkirti 2) Maheswar 3) Gunabhadra 4) 104. caeleiT TET BI THA SPT aT 7 1) wea 2) Hesae 3) ara 4) 105. Who established the Rajasthan Seva Sangh in 1919 ? 1) Vijayasingh Pathik 2) Jamna lal Bajaj 3) Manikya lal Verma 4) Moban Jal Sukhadia 105.7RraM Gan aa st ee 1919 F ferays era at we ? 1) fawafte ofae 2) SAT IT 3) afore art af 4) Hes ort genfzar 106. Who was popular as 'Mota Raja! in Rajasthan ? 1) Sursingh of Marwad 2) Udaisingh of Marwad 3) Jaswantsingh of Marwad 4) Gajasingh of Marwad 106. sr AH Ater War’ aT ara oes at ? 1) arais or agiae. 2) Anas a geafie 5 3) anars a sadafte 4) Was a Tate i | 107.In which place copper age Shadol is situated ? 1) Chittore 2) Nagaur 3) Udaipur 4) Jolore © 107. erargpier erat err at fora & 7 1) fade 2 arin 3) wage 4) seit Udaipur Amarkavi “tee a108. Which one of the following is not correct match ? + O.P Kachchwaha A) History of famines in Rajasthan, B) The last maharana a biograpiiy of Sawai Mansingh Second of Jaipur : Quentin crewe ©) Origin of Rajputs 2 LAAsopa D) History of Chahmans : RB. Singh DA 2B 3) None of the above 4) All of the above 108. fr ferfes grit a art ar ga wet ET e 7 A) fret ott ira ot et 2 oi, dh err B) = ae meron w aden aif went AMite dame ite rage > Beat trea ©) star ate Tay : au, waar D) feat ate area 2 gr. a fae DA 2B 4) autan anf ad 1 3) suttea ant wet aa I 109. Who was the author of Prabandh - Kosh ? 2) Someshwar 1) Rajshekhar 3) Merutunga 4) Umerdan 109, ‘awanT a ere Pr fees A a ar at ? 1) wader 2) aie 3) eT 4) ore 110, Which one of the following place in Rajasthan was not the centre of Copper Age culture ? 1) Noh 2) Gilund 3) Bagore 4) Rangamahal 110, Pre feet 4 & art at ert tora Hoo grit epi ar ae we aT ? 1» ate 2) Pras 3) air 4) cr 111. To whom 'Dalthambhan’ title has been given by Jahangeer ? 1) Gajasingh 2) Meghsingh 3) Karnasingh 4) Amarsingh LL aebie t aera at core feat at at? ee 1 watie 2) Fafie 3) autfie 4) mite 112. Governer General lord Bentick banned 'Sati Pratha’ in following places. Which onc of the follow: match is not correct ? 1) Alwar: 1830 3) Dungarpur : 1856 Li2 omar apres fea 9 Fe erat ae eet we ded Be one fee Fe A a aT gH BA 1) Seat : 1830 2) Baye: 1844 3) Seg: 1856 4) siege: 1848 06-4 5] 2) Jaipur : 1844 4) Jodhpur : 1848(A 113. Who was the propounder of 'Rasik - Sampradaya’ ? 1) Achaldas 2) Agradas 3) Iserdas 4) Girdhardas 113, ete ever a serene aT? 1) seer 2) amare 3) dre 4) fered 114. "Goovak" belonged to which dynasty ? 1) Chahman 2) Kachchwaha 3) Pratihar 4) Hada 114. "yam" fare ast or area a ? 1) aearE 2) aesarer 3) sirens 4) ear 115. Which one of the following is not the writing of Jinrajsuri ? 1) Shalibhadra Ras 2) Ras Kailash 3) Gajsukmal Ras 4) Kayvanna Ras 115. fae fafeer #8 airs ah cam forrermahe at ati @ 7 1) aiferas 1a 2) 7a eae 3) TREAT Te 4) Fa a 116. Who was popular as 'Roothi Rani’ in Rajasthan ? 1) Kodmade 2) Umade 3) Champade 4) Saitelde M6. tart ¥ edt wit wa Fait ah wht ofa a 7 1) wgae 2) sae, 3) aime 4) Same 117. Maluknath saint belonged to which sect ? 1) Garibdasi Panth 2) Charandasi Panth 3) Ramanand Panth 4) Ramsnehi Panth LI. aaera fea ta &% arg a? 1) vitae ia 2) werd va 3) ware de 4) aed da 118. In which language 'Padmani Chaupai’ is written ? 1) Prakerit 2) Dingal 3) Rajasthani 4) Apbhransh 118, ‘wei erzud’ fae we Hi feet sia & 2 1) wea 2) Sita 3) ear 4) amist ome119. Raika’ caste is associated with which animal ? 1) Camel 2) Goat 3) Sheep 4) Cow 119.7 A wor ofa Poa ae a aay & 7 ; Db Fe 2) re 3) as 4) 1a 120. Who was Giga Devi? 1) Queen of Parmar King Dharavarsha 2) Daughter of Parmar King Dharavarsha 3) Sister of Parmar King Pooranmall 4) Queen of Maharaja Raj Singh 120.*it at ar ft? 1) VaR Fat aad i aT 2) war wat erred Bt gt 3) FAR TO TET 4) Mererar aa Fite at att 121. Which district of Rajasthan is having common boundary with Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh ? 1) Sirohi 2) Banswara 3) Dungarpur 4) Pratapgach 121. erat at at at fSter astera aire Hea west A age de weaT e : 1) Ferré 2) | tears 3) Sra 4) WATE 122, Among the following, which is the highest mountain peak ? 1) +Achalgarh * 2) Sajjangarh 3) Kho, 4) Ragunathgarh 122. fara feafiaer # aire ar wate ada fara & 2 1) sree 2) FTE 3) 4) Tere 123, River Banas is originated from : 1) Sihor Area 2) Near Dewas 3) Khamnoor hills 4) Haripura Village 123.4 al at Sema eae B 1) Fae a 2) tare & Pree 3) wre at vefzat 4) eyn ata 124. Which of the following is not a correct match ? River ‘Tributary 1) Mahi - Anas 2) Lani - Badi 3) Kalisindh - Niwaj 4) Banas - Sagi124. freq fetaa a a adit at gaierd adi & 7 xa HEE Hal Aer ort 2) a ae 3) arte - Parr 4) sare art 125. Which of the following two districts of Rajasthan are having highest forest area ? 1) Sirohi and Banswara 2) Udaipur and Baran 3) Chittorgarh and Bundi 4) Thalawar and Kota 125. area 4 fara fafa a ae & St fart saftey aH dia vad & 7 1) fete aft atecrer 2) Se sik arr 3) facigng site #2 4) eran site wret 126. Which is not a correct match ? ‘Soil Type District 1) Red Loam - Dungarpur 2) Hilly Soil - Udaipur 3) Yellowish Brown - Bikaner 4) Deep medium Black - Kota 126.2 tere Tel 7 3a 1 wa + fat 1) te at Zany 2) wddia yer - Sage 3) tet - at area 4) Tel zea art arer 127. The correct sequence of dams / Barrage on River Chambal from its upper to lower course is ! 1) Gandhi Sagar, Rana Pratapsagar, Jawaharsagar, Kota Barrage 2) Jawaharsagar, Gandhisagar, Kota Barrage, Rana Pratapsagar 3) Gandhisagar, Jawaharsagar, Ranapratapsagar, Kota Barrage 4). Rana Pratapsagar, Gandhi Sagar, Kota Barrage, Jawahar Sagar 127. eae wat ae gaa oe a in ware F aa aba / Aer a ae we 1) wid arr, Goma EPR, sate APT, Ber BT 2) Ware BPR, wit AER, Ber ae, TOMI APT 3) ant ann, sare er, Tosa arr, Ber aT 4) commer err, wilt ane, ater dar, ares ae 128.In which district Bhim Sagar and Chapi irrigation projects are located ? 1) Sawai Madhopur 2) Kota 3) Tonk 4) Shalawar128.40 anne ait writ feng afeciornd fea fra aT fea = 7 1) Reng areige 2) eer 3) aie 4) areas 129, Which is not a breed of caule in Rajasthan ? 1) Malvi 2) Nali 3) Mewati 4) Nagori 129, 7a F art i eat at ae ee 7 1) Fred 2) att 3) aad 4) anit 130, Consider the following Statements : A) Desertification is the land degradation in arid and semi-arid regions. B) Desertification helps in stabilization of sand-dunes in Rajasthan. ©) Deforestation and over grazing are the main cause of desertification in Rajasthan Select the comect answer using code given below = Code 1) Aand B are correct 3) Band Care comrect 2) Aand C are correct 4) A, Band C are correct 130. fr ferfiae aerai wz fame air - A) reertieret gee wd ord-gen seait 9 g Py ar raat & | B) WRI F reece aga & eae A Ter E | ©) aap ait crafts sqarn are 4 apertioe & yea are E Se ee ee D AaB we 2 adie cad 3) Bait cw a) A, B,sie Comet 131. Which is not a correct match ? Sanetuary Location (District) 1) Keladavi - Karauli 2) Talchapur - Chun 3) Ramsagar Vanvihar - Dholpur 4) Tadgerh Ravali Bhilwara 131.34 ot Gite Fei & ? Saar fafa (fren) 1 aeneat - Biteit 2) ae oR - 5 3) wraPR a fae - tera 4) agTg Tet - itererer 06-4132. The causes of eco-crisis in Aravali region are: A) Deforestation B) Land degradation C) Water Pollution D) Mining Select the correct answer using code given below : Code : 1) A,BandC 2) B,CandD 3) A,BandD 4) A,CandD 132, arent a F orfeeataan sae H are Fs A) EER B) yt ara ©) wT eT D) aha at WE oe a1 a Ata fea are A aif - 1) AB aC 2) B.C aD 3) A,B ae D 4 AC aD 133. Which group of districts is included in II B, Transitional Plain of Luni Basin agro-climatic region of Rajasthan ? 1). Jalore, Pali and Sirohi 2) Nagour, Sikar and Junjhunu 3) Pali, Jodhpur and Barmer 4) _Jalore, Barmer and Jodhpur \ 133. zeny % Ble Gar west ULB, AT ate ar ie Fears A ait & foreit ar ae after & ? 1) omer, sre site Fereer 2) anit, dar site a 3) ae, stage site ats 4) sete, erst site te 134. The first rail route in Rajasthan was started between : 1) Delhi to Alwar 2) Agra Fort to Bandikui 3) Ahamdabad to Ajmer 4) Bina to Kota 134. rere Hater et a ee Fer Teo - ; 1) tet a aor & Fe 2) arn we a atdigs & wa 3) sremerere & annie & Hy 4) ar are & ae 135. The total length of National Highways in Rajasthan in 2013 - 14 was : 1) 3650 km 2) 3425 km 3) 3056 km 4) 3228 km 135, cere H aresta TTA Bt 2013-14 H Be AE At: 1) 3650 fe. 2) 3425 far. Ht. 3) 3056 ft. 4) 3228 fe. a 136, The Jast Indian Railway Station of Thar Express in'Barmer distrist is 1) Pachpadra 2) Balotia 3) Ramsar 4) Munabao 136. are Gaeta ar arty faret Harta afer ter art & : 2) va 2) areinert 3) THT 4) AR 137. The two leading Asbestos producing districts of Rajasthan aro : 1) Chittorgarh and Rajsamand 2) Udaipur and Dungarpur 3) Pratapgarh and Kota 4) Bhilwara and Tonk 137. Ta & UReete sree % a oral fart F 1 1) feeitetg ote aor 2) Tea ai SE 3) wamenrg, sfx @itet 4) soar ae138. Which is not a correct match ? Mineral Mining Area 1) trou Ore ~ Nathara-ki-Pal i 2) Copper - Pur-Benada-Dariba ' 3) Asbestos - Thamar-Kotada 4) Gypsum - Jamsar 138.31 aL gale iB ? aia wr aa 1 Ae ae ARR @ Ure 2) aia - We ate - ater 3) Genet aOR ace 4) fares 139. The four main rice producing districts of Rajasthan are : 1) Hanumangarh, Banswara, Bundi and Dungarpur 2) Ganganagar, Hanumangarh, Ajmer and Banswara 3) Kota, Bundi, Dungarpur and Tonk 4) Ajmer, Bhilwara, Tonk and Bundi aa ES eee a: 1) preg, aivarer, a1 ote Sree 2) Tarer, eParTg, sae chy areas 3) wie, di, Sree site Fis 4) soir, viens, ca sit gat 140. The two leading cotton producing districts of Rajasthan are : 1) Alwar and Bharatpur 2) Kota and Baran 3) Jaipur and Dausa 4) Ganganagar and Hanumangarh Lao. arse siatt were cere Fa & > i : 1) aera aire FATT 2) Bret aie ant 3) wage air eat 4) in aR oft ea 141. Assertion (A) Chambal is the only perennial river in Rajasthan. Reason (R) ‘The water of river Chambal is only used for irrigation purpose. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true but R is not a comect explanation of A 3) Ais tue, Kis false 4) Ais false, R is tue 141.3 (A) Fra Fa Te BT UH A ad hs aes aT aE were (R) Fae Ta a oer Hae eens | aut H ferar aaa & | 1) ASR Sef wel fai RA a Bl ata BI 2 A ait R arate € fra R, A ar wet ener aE & | 3) Aw? Raa EI 4) ATT e, RW EL142. Shivpur Ghat, Sura Ghat and Debari are the : 1) River Vallies of Aravalli 2) Passes of Aravalli 3) Mining centres 4) Souree of rivers 142. rage, AI are oie tar B : 1) serail ai ad) enfeat 2) atch & at 2) wre 4) aia = oer 143.‘The highest peak of Jalore hilly area is : 1) Israna Bhakar —2)-«-Roja Bhakar 3) SJharola Pahad = 4)_‘Satur 143. cme werét Ga an eater fora & : 1) ae are 2) ta sr 3) aia vere 4) ag 1AA.1n Jaipur, Metro Railway runs between : | 1) Jawahar Nagar to Railway Station 2) Mansarovar to Chandpol 3) Pratapnagar to Chandpol 4) Mansarovar to Ajmeri Gate Lado # Ag te went Bs 2 ware aR oie eS aH dha 2) arratitar sik, aiattet % da 3) wae site siete & dtr 4) Aer six aot te & dtr 145. The Bap arca near Phalodi is known for : 1) Limestone Production 2) Graphite Production 3) Silver Production 4) Salt Production 145 cpt Pepe ah Ba aT a : 1) aa sey sere & fre 2) Tease sere & fer 3) wid Serre & fer A) sr Seaver fora 146. The length of the international border of Rajasthan is 1) 1250km 2) 980 km 3) 1070 km 4) 1148 km 146. eres wl oreiefia ater Bt evans E : 1) 1250 fa. a. 2 980 fas. Ht. 3) 1070 f&. Hf. 4) 1148 fm. a 39. 147,In which, part of Rajasthan Dry Teak forests are found : 21) Central Rajasthan 2) Southern Rajasthan Eastern Rajasthan 4) North eastern Rajasthan & fea am Y qe arian & aa a ana & 7 a a 2) eet ase wear 4) safe wer Bajaj Sagar is a Joint Project of - han and Gujarat 2) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh 4) Only a Rajasthan Project148.518 - at ATE Ua aH Vitara & - 1) TRE ait IE ST 2) Taam ai Fer wet aT 3) TaREM, Goria ite wea weet Zt 4) Fae Te a aT 149. Assertion (A) Rainwater harvesting is an effective measure of water conservation. Reason (R) In Westem Rajasthan, Traditional methods of water conservation are still effective 1) Both And R are true and R is the correct explanation of A | 2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. 1 | 3) Ais tue, R is false i 4) Ais false, R is true | 149.2241 (A) aSf ret aioem ster ae at eH THTashier Fate & | arent (R) Sera ave A Tere are zero at Farah anit vit orator & 1 1) A sit R dit a8 & site R, A ar ad aint 8 | | 2) A ait R art att @ farg R, A an wet ecto EEE | | 3) AWE R vera & | | 4) Avett ® Re | 150. The shaded area on the map shows areas having : 1) More than 80 cm rainfall 2) 601070 cm rainfall 3) $0 to 60 cm rainfall 4) Less than $0 cm rainfall 150.nrrfas Ff wrnfasd aa weftfa wear & : 2 80%. Ff, 8 after auf & az 2) 60% 708. Ht. aut & aa 3) 50% 60 &. Hh. aut & ata 4) 50%. a Tom wate ar 151. What is the number of bit patterns yield by 8 bits code 2 1) 64 2) 256 3) 128 4) 512 151.8 fae ate ara war Yet wt tie Fare ? 1) 64 2) 256 3) 128 4) 512 152. Find the odd one out. 1) Mouse’ 2) Keyboard 3) Printer 4) Central Processing Unit 1s2.ga% & ay a A aA ae ? 1 Re 2) athe 3) flex 4) See deer care 153. A terabyte comprises 1) 1024 gigabyte 2) 1024 kilobyte 3) 1024 megabyte 4) 1024 byte 153.0% trae # sutra & 7 " 1) 1024 virenge = 2) 1024 Farritarge © 3) 1024 HEC 4) «1024 aE 06-6 30154. Full form of TCP is \j 1) Transmission control program 2) Totaling control program i 3) Transmission control protocol 4) Total control Protocol ; 1s). TCP an ot are is 1) grater ager sta 2) Bret aoe sta 3) graft eet atcrener 4) Great agit sterner 155. What does HTTP stands for ? 1) Head Tail Transfer Protocol 2) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol 3) Hyper Text Transfer Plotter 4) Hyper Text Transfer Plot 155.HTTP # Bet eit aa & 7 is 1) Be ba ghar steraie 2) wer tre ciae scree 3) BEN Sate cia wet 4) BER eae ciawT wile 156. Which command line utility can be used to check if the host is alive or not 1) PING 2) Telnet 3) IPConfig 4) NIP 156. Host Fiat @ a1 sat St sits a & fg cere feet oo weet, se erie ares afer t 7 1) PING 2) Telnet 3) IPConfig 4) NIP 157-1f you need to send same massage to multiple person ({or information), through e-mail best way is 1) Mail each one individually again 2) Use forward option in email 3) Use CC option in email 4) None of these 157.240 & ara @ a afarai at we & daa Ao a Te = (are). 3 al aad stom after & 2 1) daa hee at ae a 2) Gig a ote fees 3) Ste dit fees 4) a a oe Te 158. Which of the following is not an output device ? 1) Monitor 2). Printer 3) Plotter 4) Joystick 158. Fr fete @ @ art ar we aTeege fearga ei & 7 | 1D after 2) Bier 3) ier 4) atten | 159. Email includes all of the following basic element except 1) Header 2) Footer 3) Message 4) Signature ee SRS Pee wit afi & 2) Ber 3) daa 4) ETE 160. The term ‘Pentium’ is related to 1) DVD 2) Microprocessor 3) Input 4) Output 160. sr fear Hae | i 1) sagt 2) Hremireee 3) Be 4) aIScye oe 06-4 2