Module 7 (B2)
Maintenance Practices
1. How many strokes per minute should be used with a hacksaw?
# a) 30
b) 55
c) 60
3. Unused holes in an electrical multi-pin connector should be
a) fitted with pins
# b) fitted with blanks
c) left open
4. In a front release connector the pin will be :
# a) released from the front and extracted from the rear
b) released from rear and extracted from the front
c) released from the front and extracted from the front
5. Mandatory Warning Plagues and symbols :
# a) must be displayed on all flights
b) must be displayed in the cabin only if they are legible
c) need not be displayed if they are incorporated in the flight
manual
6. A dry joint in soldering is caused by
a) flux not used
# b) components not hot enough
c) wrong solder used
7. Following a major defect the C of A:
# a) will be suspended until the defect is rectified.
b) will be invalidated and needs renewing.
c) is not affected, however may run out on a time basis.
8. A control cable that has been contaminated with acid should be:
a) cleaned
b) cleaned, inspected, and reinspected after a period of time
# c) rejected
9. The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and:
# a) borax powder
b) hydrochloric acid
c) zinc chloride
10. The type of flux to be used When soft soldering on aircraft is:
a) active
# b) non-active
c) either active or non-active
11. When carrying out a pressure test on a pipe it should be :
a) twice the working pressure for two minutes
b) three times the working pressure for five minutes
# c) 1.5 times the working pressure
12. When weighing an aircraft the hydrostatic weighing units are
positioned :
a) one under each jack
# b) one on top of each jack
c) either under or on top of each jack
13.To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be
sprayed with:
# a) aluminum paint
b) ferrous paint
c) polyurethane paint
14. When using a moving coil as an ammeter the greatest amount of
current flows through the :
a) coil
# b) shunt
c) bushes
15. A dry joint when soldering is caused by :
a) too much flux
# b) too little heat
c) too large an iron
16. What elements is silver solder made from?
# a) Tin, lead and silver
b) Tin, lead and copper
c) Tin and lead only
17. After the normal function test of an individual circuit has been
completed and the circuit switched off :
a) a second function test must be carried out to verify the first
# b) the fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to
check the isolation of the circuit concerned
c) a duplicate check must be carried out in accordance with AWN 3
18. A drill and wire gauge has holes numbered:
a) 1 to 50
# b) 1 to 80
c) 10 to 60
19. A 250 volt megger should not be used :
a) in fuel tanks
# b) on electronic equipment
c) on radio aerials
20. What does GA stand for on a drawing?
a) General arrangement
# b) General assembly
c) Gradient Axis
21. If the leads of a megger are held apart:
a) the spring will return the needle to the zero stop
# b) if the handle was turned the metre would read infinity
c) the spring will return the needle to infinity
22. The leads of a bonding tester :
# a) have critical lengths and the resistance of the leads is accounted
for
b) are supplied in 60 foot and 6 foot lengths but can be varied due to
wear
c) are interchangeable, one 60 foot long having two prongs and a 6
foot one with a single prong
23. he number of the dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated
connectors during crimping indicates that :
a) the crimp is properly formed
# b) the correct tool was used to effect the connection
c) the correct connector has been used
24. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool
can be changed by :
a) varying the torque applied to the handles
# b) changing the position of the pins
c) sing different coloured crimping pliers and terminations
25. When referring to fuses, HRC means:
a) hot running capacity
b) high running current
# c) high rupture capacity
26. ATA specification 100 is:
a) the American FAA specification controlling the manufacture of
aluminum and its alloys
b) the procedures which must be complied with before an aircraft can
be given a Certificate of Airworthiness in the Transport Category
(Passenger)
# c) the International standardization of maintenance manuals,
illustrated parts catalogues, overhaul and repair manuals, service
bulletins and letters
27. When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is coloured
a) green and yellow
b) blue
# c) brown
28. When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the component
can be protected from damage by the sling by
a) using a suitably shaped sling
# b) using spreader bars and packing
c) fabricating alternative lifting points
29. A dry powder extinguisher is coloured :
a) red
b) green
# c) blue
30. High temperature solder is used where the operating temperature is
high. It is an alloy of:
a) lead / copper / antimony
b) tin / zinc / antimony / silver
# c) tin / lead / antimony / silver
31. A flux is used in soldering to:
a) etch the metal surface for more adhesion
# b) dissolve oxides
c) prevent solder spikes
32. What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrant inspection?
a) It is drawn to the crack by electrostatic attraction
b) It seeps into the crack and makes it show up
# c) It acts a s a blotter to draw out the penetrant that has seeped into
the crack
33. The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an
electrical cable is:
a) a high tension circuit tester
# b) a low reading ohmmeter
c) an ammeter
34. If all three prongs on a bonding tester were shorted together, the metre
would read :
# a) zero
b) FSD
c) off-scale high
35. An aircraft should carry at least the following number of spare fuses:
a) 3
b) 10
# c) 3 or 10%, whichever is greater
36. Which pictorial projection shows one face in true elevation and line of
depth normally draw at 30o or 45o to the horizontal :
# a) oblique
b) perspective
c) isometric
37. if a design amendment is made on a drawing:
a) the old issue number is retained, with the amendment date added
# b) a new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing
c) no change in issue number or date is necessary
38. The main advantage of dye penetrant inspection is:
a) the part to be inspected does not require cleaning
# b) the penetrant solution works on any non-porous material
c) the defect must be opened to the surface
39. When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method,
circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to:
# a) reveal all possible defects
b) evenly magnetize the entire part
c) ensure uniform current flow
40. Drawing numbers are:
# a) unique to each drawing
b) changed after each drawing amended after May 28, 1999
c) the same as serial numbers
41. Hatching lines are usually drawn at:
# a) 45o
b) 30o
c) 60o
42. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection
using either circular or longitudinal magnetisation :
# a) 45o
b) longitudinal
c) transverse
43. Who approves Maintenance Manuals:
# a) The CAA
b) The Board of Trade
c) The Department of Trade and Industry
44. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and forgings may usually be
detected by:
# a) the use of dye penetrants and suitable developers
b) gamma ray inspection
c) submerging the part in a solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsing
with clear water
45. The scale of an engineering drawing is shown as 1:4. This indicates it
Is:
a) drawn to scale
# b) drawn to a quarter
c) drawn four times larger
46. A Certificate of Release to Service must be issued after:
a) a Re-fuel has been done
# b) a repair has been carried out in accordance with an approved
repair scheme
c) engine runs
47. An orthographic projection usually shows:
a) three, two-dimensional views of an object
# b) one, three-dimensional view of an object
c) a pictorial view of the object
48. When dimensioning a drawing, the dimension lines should be
# a) the minimum number of dimensions necessary to enable the
component to be manufactured
b) as many dimensions as possible
c) only size dimensions
49. Which of these metals is inspected using the magnetic particle
inspection method?
a) magnesium alloys
b) aluminum alloys
# c) iron alloys
50. A hole is placed in the lowest point of electrical cable conduit
a) to allow for pull-through of the cables
# b) to allow for drainage of moisture
c) to secure the conduit to a piece of aircraft structure
51. What non-destructive testing method requires little or no part preparation,
is used to detect surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may
also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat-treat conditions:
# a) eddy current inspection
b) ultrasonic inspection
c) magnetic particle inspection
52. Which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the
inspection of most metals, plastics and ceramics for surface and
subsurface defects:
a) magnetic particle inspection
b) eddy current inspection
# c) ultrasonic inspection
53. Ultra sonic flaw detectors use:
# a) high frequency sound waves
b) x-rays
c) a magnetic field
54. S.W.G. is an abbreviation for :
# a) Standard Wire Gauge
b) Screw Width Gauge
c) Standard Water Gauge
55. A Certificate of Release to service states that:
a) the aircraft has been maintained to an approved schedule
b) an operator has satisfied the CAA of his competence
# c) a task has been carried out in accordance with the ANO
56. NDT using colour dye process at temperatures below 15C will :
a) mean choosing alternative NDT method
b) not be affected by the temperature
# c) retard the penetrant action of the dye and penetration time is extended
57. What solder should be used to solder aluminum?
a) 90% tin and 10% zinc
# b) wire flux cored solder
c) D.T.D. 685 lead-silver-tin solder
58. The soldering method where molten solder is pumped from the bottom of
a bath through a slot so that a stationary wave of solder appears on the
surface is known as the
# a) standing wave bath method
b) stationary wave method
c) rotary bath method
59. When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the dye penetrant should be
Applied:
a) on the inside, with developer on the outside
b) on the outside with developer on the outside
# c) on the inside with the developer on the inside
60. In order for dye penetrant inspection to be effective, the material being
checked must :
a) be magnetic
b) be non-magnetic
# c) have surface cracks
61. The international marking for an instrument air pipe line is a :
# a) zig zag line
b) wavy band
c) series of dots
62. When making a small soldered electrical connection, using flux-cored
solder
a) the soldering iron should be loaded with solder and then applied to
the connection
b) the connection should be heated first and then solder applied
# c) the soldering iron and solder should be applied simultaneously to the
connection
63. In a torque wrench of handle length, L = 12 in. and an extension E = 3 in,
the desired torque value is 300 lbs.in. the dial should read:
a) 280 lb.ins.
# b) 375 lb.ins.
c) 240 lb.ins.
64. After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece must
Be:
a) allowed to cool to room temperature as slowly as possible
b) allowed to lose any residual magnetism over as long a period possible
# c) de-magnetised before returning to service
65. When mixing acid and water:
a) the water should always be added to the acid
# b) the acid should always be added to the water
c) it does not matter which way the two are mixed
66. An aircraft should not be refueled when:
a) the APU is running
# b) within 10 meters (30 feet) of radar operating
c) navigation and landing light in operation
67. Silver solder melts within the range:
a) 200 C - 400 C
b) 400 C - 550 C
# c) 600 C - 850 C
68. On completion of soldering a non-activated flux:
a) must be cleaned off with a selected solvent
b) must be cleaned off with an acid solution
# c) need not be cleaned off
69. How should a dead weight tester be used?
a) The pressure increasing handle should be screwed in before the
addition of fluid and screwed out when fluid is added
b) The platform should be removed and fluid poured into the hole
# c) The outlet should not be connected to the instrument until the
required weights are raised by the platform
70. General purpose solders are graded by
a) a colour coding
# b) a letter coding
c) a numerical coding
71. What action is taken when soldering flux residue may have lodged in deep
crevices of an assembly:
a) it must be thoroughly rinsed with a weak solution of sulphuric acid
and washed in cold water
b) it must be immersed in a weak solution of phosphoric acid and rinsed
in water
# c) it must be immersed in a weak solution of hydrochloric acid and
rinsed thoroughly in running water
72. When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed:
# a) in series with the circuit
b) in parallel with the circuit
c) in series with the shunt
73. Liquid penetrant tests can be used to detect:
a) internal porosity in castings
b) corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes
# c) fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy parts
74. Which electrical measuring device needs a power source:
a) a voltmeter
b) an ammeter
# c) an ohmmeter
75. When measuring voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the indication
Is:
a) peak values
# b) RMS values
c) Average values
76. On a multimeter, what colour lead is connected to the Common socket:
a) red
# b) black
c) green
77. A phosphate based flux paste is for soldering :
a) aluminum
b) brass
# c) stainless steel
78. To neutralize spilled battery acid on aluminum alloy, use:
a) caustic soda
# b) bicarbonate of soda
c) sulphuric acid
79. A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing the meter in
# a) parallel with the component
b) series with he component
c) series with the power source
80. Which of the following reamers would you use in a hole having a keyway?
a) Parallel reamer
b) Expanding reamer
# c) Spiral fluted reamer
81. A tolerance given on a dimension is indicated:
# a) by a plus and minus sign preceding the permitted tolerance
b) by the prefix TOL with the permitted tolerance
c) by enclosing the permitted tolerance within a triangle
82. When a piece of metal is bent, the surface of the metal on the outside of
the bend is:
a) in compression
# b) in tension
c) neither in tension or in compression
83. The resistance between a flexible hose and a component should not
exceed
# a) 0.05 ohm
b) 0.5 ohm
c) 1 ohm
84. When related to aeronautical engineering , the term Inspection" is
defined in the publication
a) ANO article 11
# b) Airworthiness Notice (AWN) 3
c) BCAR Section L
85. 10:1 on an engineering drawing indicates.
a) the drawing is one tenth full size
# b) the drawing is ten times full size
c) the drawing is full size
86. Civil Aircraft Airworthiness Information Procedures:
a) contain information of a mandatory nature
# b) are a guide to the general maintenance of aircraft
c) contain approved inspection schedules
87. What work has to be recorded and signed for:
# a) all work carried out
b) only work involving replacements
c) only work which entails a duplicate inspection
88. Variable load is weight of:
# a) crew, their baggage and equipment relevant to role
b) fuel, oil and non-expendable equipment relevant to role
c) basic weight plus operating weight
89 .Lines known as short dashes (thin) are used on drawings to indicate
a) visible outlines
# b) hidden detail
c) cutting revolved
90. Cargo placed aft of the datum will produce a :
# a) positive moment
b) negative moment
c) neutral moment
91. If the C of G of an aircraft with a full complement of fuel is calculated
# a) the C of G must be recalculated with zero fuel to ensure it will still be
within limits
b) the C of G will always be within limits if it was within limits with full
fuel tanks
c) the C of G will only need to be recalculated if the fuel weight is behind
the aircraft C of G position
92. How are files classified?
a) By length, grade and material
# b) By length, grade, cut and section
c) By length, grade, cut, section and material
93. Hammers are classified by:
a) shape of head and length of shaft
b) weight and length of shaft
# c) weight and type of head
95. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is required by :
a) all aircraft regardless of weight
# b) all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA
c) all aircraft not exceeding 2730 kg MTWA
96. When using a reamer, in which direction should it be turned?
a) Anti-clockwise when Cutting and removing
# b) Clockwise when cutting and removing
c) Clockwise when cutting and anti-clockwise when removing
97. Break lines are used:
a) to show where components are expected to break
b) in sectional drawing
# c) where it would be inconvenient (because of limited space) to draw
long lengths of the same section
98. An oblique projection :
a) is the same as an isometric projection
# b) has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing
depth drawn at a constant angle
c) has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing
depth drawn at 90o
99. Aircraft must be reweighed
a) after two years from manufacture only
# b) after two years from manufacture then at periods not exceeding five
years
c) at periods not exceeding five years
100. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule must be signed by:
a) the pilot
b) the CAA
# c) a Licensed aircraft engineer
101. A load sheet:
# a) is always carried on the aircraft
b) need not be carried on the aircraft if one remains at base
c) is never carried on the aircraft
102. A load Sheet must be signed by:
a) the Commander of the aircraft
# b) the Loading Officer
c) a licensed aircraft engineer
103. Variable Load is:
a) weight of fuel and oils
b) weight of passengers
# c) weight of crew, their baggage and their equipment
104. When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches + 0.005
0.002. Which statement is true?
a) The maximum acceptable size is 4.385 inches
# b) The minimum acceptable size is 4.385 inches
c) The maximum acceptable size is 4.389 inches
105. A hydraulic system schematic drawing would indicate the:
a) specific location of the individual components within the aircraft
b) direction of fluid flow through the system
c) type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid
106. An aircraft which has its C of G forward of the Forward Limit:
# a) will have a longer take-off run
b) will have a shorter take-off run
c) the take-off run will not be affected
107. Which statement is true regarding an orthographic projection?
a) There are always at least two views
b) It could have as many as eight views
# c) One-view, two-view, and three-view drawings are the most common
108. One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the:
# a) functional location of components within a system
b) physical location of components within a system
c) size and shape of components within a system
109. This type of break line represents:
a) square tube
b) round tube
# c) round bar
110. What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or blueprint to
represent an edge or object not visible to the viewer?
# a) Medium-weight dashed line
b) Light solid line
c) Alternate short and long light dashes
111. A specific measured distance from the datum or some other point
identified by the manufacturer, to a point in or on the aircraft is called a:
a) zone number
b) specification number
# c) station number
112. To check the structure of a wing, which NDT is used?
# a) Radiographic
b) Dye penetrant
c) Magnetic Flaw
113. In a first angle orthographic projection the plan view is placed
# a) below the front elevation
b) below the side elevation
c) above the front elevation
114. 2 microns is
a) 0.002
# b) 0.002 mm
) 0.000 002
115. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables
# a) avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric
constant
b) distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is
not affected
c) the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart
116. What is the licensed engineer responsible for when fitting a new
component to an aircraft?
a) That is has a green serviceable tag
b) That the paperwork is signed by an approved signatory
# c) The correct part number, the modification state and the serviceability
of the component
117. The term 'reaction' used in weighing an aircraft refers to
# a) the individual loads on each landing gear
b) the sum of the loads on all of the landing gear
c) the sum of the loads on the main landing gear only
118. When inspecting a weld, you should make sure that
# a) the parent (or basis) materials are fully fused together
b) the weld has inclusions inside the bead
c) there are voids either side of the weld
119. Refueling should not take place when
a) APU running
b) Nav. lights and landing lights on
# c) within 30 m (100 ft) of radar equipment being operated
120. When Ground Power is connected to aircraft, the generators are
a) paralleled to supply
b) paralleled to supply for ground starting only
# c) never be parallel
121. Electronic test equipment for fuel tank contents systems usually
incorporate variable
a) inductors
b) resistors
# c) capacitors
122. When using a megger to test insulation resistance, capacitive filters
should be disconnected for what reason?
a) Remove the risk of damage to the megger
b) Remove the spurious readings caused by the capacitors charging
and discharging
# c) Prevent damage to the filters
123. Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage
should be protected by
a) Shielding each individual conductor
b) Connecting all conductors to a common earth
# c) Earthing each alternate conductor to separate points
124. On a long co-axial cable how would you check for discontinuities and
shorts in situ?
a) Safety ohmmeter
# b) Time domain reflectometer
c) Continuity tester
125. What is the minimum bend radius of a loom adequately supported at a
terminal block?
a) 8 x diameter
# b) 3 x diameter
c)10 x diameter
126. If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress the di-
electric, how will the capacitance change?
a) ncrease
# b) Decrease
c) Stay the same
127. What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable?
a) 3xdiameter
# b) 8 x diameter
c) 10 x diameter
128. What is the maximum resistance between the main earth system and a
metal plate on which the earthing device (tire) is resting?
a) 1 megohm
# b) 10 megohms
c) 100 megohms
129. What is the primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of an aircraft?
a) To prevent lightening strikes
b) To carry provide a return path for electrical two-wire system
# c) To prevent high potential differences between metallic parts from
building up
130. What is the reason for a primary bonding connections large cross-
sectional area?
# a) To carry lightening discharge current should the need arise
b) To maintain the airframe at the same potential throughout
c) To carry the static discharge current to the conducting nose wheel
131. When an earth-return terminal assembly has to be replaced which of the
following checks must be carried out?
# a) Bonding and milli-volt drop tests
b) Bonding and insulation resistance tests
c) Bonding and continuity tests
132. When carrying out milli-volt drop checks on a circuit, what is an
approximate guide for a correct reading?
a) 10 milli-volts for every 15 amps flowing
# b) 5 milli-volts for every 10 amps flowing
c) 10 milli-volts for every 5 amps flowing
133. When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a known resistance
exists, what instrument would you use?
# a) A multimeter
b) A high resistance insulation tester
c) A lamp and battery
134. Effective continuity is not possible unless which of the following
conditions exists?
a) All circuit earths are disconnected
# b) The portion of the circuit under test must constitute a simple series
circuit with no parallel paths
c) All manually operated switches must be off
135. Why is a low voltage supply used for continuity testing?
a) To avoid damage to the wiring
b) To avoid breaking down a high resistance film that might exist
between contacting surfaces
# c) To prevent fuses blowing and lamps burning out
136. If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are suspended
in free air, what will the meter read?
# a) Infinity
b) Zero
c) Mid scale - it is a ratiometer movement and there is no current flowing
in the external circuit
137. When replacing a bonding connection and the original conductor cannot
be matched exactly, which of the following replacements would you use?
# a) One manufactured from the same type of material, but of greater
cross sectional area should be selected
b) One manufactured from any conducting material of the same cross
sectional area be used
c) One manufactured from any piece of Nyvin cable having the correct
current capacity may be used
138. How do you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which may build up
on fiber glass surfaces?
a) The surface is impregnated with copper strips
# b) The surface is treated with a special conductive paint
c) No special treatment is necessary because fiber glass is an insulator
139. If bridging strips or bonding cords are fractured, what action may be
taken?
# a) A new conductor should be fitted
b) The broken ends can be soldered
c) The broken ends can be repaired with an in-line splice
140. Whenever possible a functional test should be carried out on an aircraft
using which power supply?
# a) An external supply
b) The aircraft battery
c) The aircraft generators
141. Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of the following
applies?
a) A continuity check must be carried out before switching on the circuit
for the first time
# b) The readings observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time
should be noted and compared to previous readings
c) The observed readings should be noted and an independent check
carried out by another engineer
142. When using a digital meter to test a diode , a correct operation of the
diode is indicated by a volt drop of
# a) 0.3v to 0.7v
b) 1.5v to 2v
c) 2.5v to 2.8v
143. When using a strip board , the tracks on a PCB are etched
# a) before component fitment
b) after fitment but before soldering the components
c) after fitment and soldering of components
144. The recommended insulation resistance of a DC motor is
# a) 0.5 megohms
b) 2 megohms
c) 5 megohms
145. Silver soldering is suited for
a) general soldering work
# b) high temperature applications
c) electronic component soldering
146. Soft solder is suited for joints, which are
# a) subjected to small forces
b) subjected to strong forces
c) subjected to fatigue
147. To check that the ident pulse is being generated from an ATC
transponder,
# a) press the ident and monitor the indication on the ramp test set
b) select ident and check the indication on the instrument panel
c) select an ATC channel and check the morse code
148. A millivolt drop check is to be carried out on a heavy duty relay. The
Millivolt meter would be connected to the relay
a) when contacts are open and power is on
# b) when contacts closed and power is on
c) when contacts open and power off
149. When fitting a hydraulic component, the hydraulic seal should be
lubricated with
a) with a specified hydraulic oil
# b) the same fluid that is used in the hydraulic system (e.g. skydrol)
c) grease
150. To ensure protection against HIRF affecting audio and navigation aids
# a) ensure that the correct number of static wicks are fitted
b) inspect and check all bonding leads to ensure their serviceability and
replace if defective
c) ensure that all audio and navigation equipment is adequately
screened
151. BITE systems to be used on the ground only is deactivated by
a) the parking break
# b) on take off
c) by the undercarriage retraction
152. The intervals for calibration of test equipment
a) are every year
b) are as specified in JAR 145
# c) are different from one appliance to another
153. A multiplier resistance is used to extend the working range of the
a) ammeter
# b) voltmeter
c) ohmmeter
154. The minimum 'no smoking' zone around an aircraft when refueling is
# a) 6m
b) 15m
c) 10m
155. A CO2 extinguisher is used on
# a) solid, liquid and electrical fires
b) solid, liquid, hot metal and electrical fires
c) solid and liquid fires
156. The Sine Bar is used to
a) check accuracy of slip gauges
b) by itself to calculate angles
# c) roduce angles using slip gauges
157. A pressure gauge is fitted to a Dead Weight Tester. The piston area is
0.25 sq.in. and the total mass of the mass carrier and masses is 5lb. If the
pressure gauge is accurate what pressure in pounds per square inch
(PSI) will it read?
a) 1.25psi
# b) 20psi
c) 200psi
158. Block cumulative maintenance means that
a) each check usually involves an increased aircraft down time
# b) all the checks require the same man hour input except for the major
inspections
c) all the maintenance is carried out in blocks
159. Sector record pages from the Tech Logs, must be
# a) at least duplicated
b) retained for two years from the date of issue
c) retained for four years from the last effective date
160. When mooring an aircraft what type of rope should be used?
# a) Nylon
b) Fiber, tied tight due to stretch when wet
c) Fiber, with some slack due to shrinkage when wet
161. Which of the following can dye penetrant be used on
# a) non ferrous metals
b) plastics
c) honeycomb panels
162. An AC voltmeter reads
a) peak value
b) peak to peak value
# c) average value
163. Minimum equipments to be carried is given by
# a) JAR OPS
b) JAR 145
c) JAR 25
164. A hydrometer is used to
a) check battery electrolyte density
b) take humidity reading
# c) check battery electrolyte specific gravity
165. A pyrometer is a
a) pyramid shaped altimeter
# b) thermometer for use at high temperature
c) foam/granule fire extinguisher
166. A hygrometer is used to
a) check battery electrolyte relative density
b) check battery electrolyte specific gravity
# c) take humidity reading
167. On a coaxial cable, cable impedance is
a) proportional to length
b) inversely proportional to length
# c) not effected by length
168. HIRF interference occurs when
a) in use on mid frequencies
# b) in use on all frequencies
c) in use on low frequencies
169. A fuel calibration test set when used to check an aircraft with half a fuel
load is connected
a) to gauge with fuel level capacitance
# b) to gauge with fuel level in series
c) to gauge with fuel level in parallel
170. To measure AC with a moving coil, it
a) is rectified and measures peak value
# b) is rectified and measures average value
c) can be directly connected
171. 'E' on a wire, under ATA 100 is a
a) phase indication
# b) system ID code
c) cable size
172. Calibration of aircraft hydro static weighing equipment is
a) carried out every time before an aircraft is weighed and adjusted by
operator
# b) done once a year
c) not required
173. Rubber components should be stored
a) in warm and humid conditions
b) in a well lit room
# c) in a cool dark area
174. An aircraft should not be refuelled when
a) the APU is running
# b) with radar and electrical equipment operating
c) navigation and landing lights are operating
175. When splicing a cable with a soldered joint, the operation is finished
when
a) the solder has melted
# b) the solder and insulation have formed
c) the solder sleeve disappears
176. Co-axial cable is preferred to airframe cable in which application?
a) High frequency interference
b) Low frequency interference
# c) Where the diameter of cable is not important
177. What should be done if a tool is found not to be working to its calibrated
requirements?
# a) It should be removed from service, marked as unserviceable and sent
away for overhaul
b) A mechanic should adjust it to restore it to the correct operation
c) It should be placed back into stores and kept in service until the next
calibration is due
178. How do you prevent earth loops forming on screened cables?
a) Do not earth the screen
b) Earth both ends of the screen
# c) Earth one end of the screen
179. When inspecting an aircraft after a lightning strike, you should observe
a) entry damage
b) entry and exit damage
# c) all signs of burning
180. The internal resistance of a voltmeter is
# a) high
b) low
c) no more than 0.05 ohms
181. The internal resistance of an ammeter is
a) high
# b) low
c) 1 ohm
182. When crimping wires, the wires should be
# a) lightly twisted
b) twisted
c) straight
183. Wire are copper wires used in electrical systems?
a) They do not give off a magnetic field
b) They have high permeability
# c) They have a low resistance to current
184. When crimping wires, the wire should
# a) extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp
b) be flush with the crimp
c) be beneath the crimp
185. A capacitive fuel contents system should be tested with
a) a ratio-meter
b) a decade box
# c) a bridge rectifier test box
186. Continuity of a fiber optic cable is tested with a
a) multi-meter
b) light source and optometry
# c) calibrated light generator and opto-power meter
187. When using transistorized test equipment, what should the output be?
a) High impedance
# b) Low impedance
c) Not affected by impedance
188. On an ATC transponder transmitting altitude, how do you get the code?
a) Convert it to binary
b) Read off the ATC-600 test set
# c) Read off the transponder itself
189. In aircraft control cables, when a lock is fitted to the control surface
a) it will prevent the control surface and the control column movement
# b) it will not prevent the control surface movement but will lock the
control column
c) it will prevent the control surface movement but not the control
column movement
190. Neither oil nor grease should be used as a lubricant on couplings or
pipelines carrying
a) Nitrogen
b) Kerosene
# c) Oxygen
191. Which type of extinguisher can be sued for electric fire
a) Water
b) Foam
# c) CO2
192. The color of CO2 type fire extinguisher is
a) red
b) green
# c) black
193. Which type of extinguisher can be used for engine fire'
a) Water
b) BCF
# c) CO2
194. Fire on landing gear brake should be extinguished
a) carbon dioxide extinguisher
b) water extinguisher
# c) dry powder extinguisher
195. Which type of fire extinguishers can be used in the cabin?
a) M.B.
b) C.T.C.
# c) water or B.C.F.
196. A fitness for flight is issued for an aircraft after a major modification by
a) the pilot, type rated on that particular aircraft
# b) a appropriate licensed aircraft engineer
c) a CAA surveyor or person approved within the CAA
197. Risk assessments should only be carried out for
a) tasks carried out above the height of 6 foot
# b) all tasks and processes that are performed
c) tasks using hazardous chemicals
198. The most appropriate fire extinguisher for an aircraft wheel and brake fire
would be
# a) dry powder
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
199. Once a person has been disconnected from the source of an electrical
shock the next step should be
a) seek assistance immediately
# b) check for breathing start AR if necessary
c) check for pulse start cardiac massage if necessary