FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER - 2015 for students presently in

Class 6
Paper 1
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 435
Code 6000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. This Question paper consists of 2 sections. All questions will be multiple choice single correct out of four
choices with marking scheme in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question

Section Question no.
correct answer wrong answer

1 to 16,21 to 28 +3 0
SECTION – I IQ 17 to 20,29 to 32,36 to 39 +4 0
33 to 35,40 to 45 +5 0
46 to 51, 53 to 55 +3 0
PHYSICS 52, 56, 58 +4 0
57, 59, 60 +5 0
61 to 66, 68 to 70 +3 0
CHEMISTRY 67, 71, 73 +4 0
SECTION – II
72, 74, 75 +5 0
(SCIENCE &
MATHEMATICS) 76 to 87, 90 to 95 +3 0
88 to 89, 96 to 97, 100 to 101 +4 0
MATHEMATICS
98 to 99, 102 to 105 +5 0
106 to 111, 113 to 115 +3 0
BIOLOGY 112, 116, 118 +4 0
117, 119, 120 +5 0

2. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
4. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test Centre
in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 120 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

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Section-I IQ
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 45 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 45. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (Q. 1 to 3): In each of the following questions a number series is given with one of the term
missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark
(?) in the given series.

1. 97, 90 ,76, 55, ?

(A) 28 (B) 27
(C) 26 (D) 25

2. 0, 2, 8, 14, ?, 34
(A) 20 (B) 23
(C) 24 (D) 25

3. BZA, DYC, FXE, ?, JVI

(A) HUG (B) HWG
(C) UHG (D) WHG

Direction (Q. 4 to 5): In the following questions given below is a sequence in which some letters are
missing. From the choices, select the choice that gives the letters that can fill the blanks in the given
sequence.

4. nc _ ln _ clncc _ nc _ l _ ccl
(A) cclcc (B) ccncc
(C) clclc (D) cclcn

5. _ stt _ tt _ tts _
(A) tsst (B) sstt
(C) ttst (D) tsts

6. If in a certain code language, BROWSER is coded as RESWORB, then how TEACHER be coded
in the same language?
(A) REHCEAT (B) REHCAET
(C) REHCTEA (D) AHRCTEA

7. In a certain code, BAKE is written as 5796 and FIRE is written as 3146. How is FEAR written in
that code?
(A) 3564 (B) 3674
(C) 3574 (D) 3654

8. If LINGER is 123456 and FORCE is 98675, then FIERCE will be

(A) 345667 (B) 456678
(C) 345677 (D) 925675

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9. If Z = 26 and ACT = 24, then BAT will be equal to

(A) 23 (B) 26
(C) 30 (D) 40

10. If + means ÷, – means ×, ÷ means + and × means –, then 36 × 12 + 4 ÷ 6 + 2 – 3 = ?

(A) 2 (B) 18
(C) 42 (D) 24

11. If a means +, b means –, c means ÷ and d means ×, then 18 a 12 c 6 d 2 b 5 = ?

(A) 15 (B) 25
(C) 17 (D) 45

 36  4   8  4
12. If ÷ means +, – mean ÷, × means – and + means ×, then ?
4  8  2  16  1
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 24

13. If  means +, means ×,  means ÷ and  means –, then what is the value of 64816 43 = ?
(A) 69 (B) 75
(C) 78 (D) 93

14. You go North, turn right, then right again and then go to the left. In which direction are you now?
(A) North (B) South
(C) East (D) West

15. In a row of girls facing to the North, A is 16th from the left end and 21th from the right end. How
many girls are there in the row?
(A) 39 (B) 40
(C) 41 (D) 36

16. Shyam ranks from upper side of the row is 25th and Mohan’s ranks 25th from right if the total
number of students in this row 40 then how many students in between Shyam and Mohan?
(A) 10 (B) 8
(C) 7 (D) Can’t be determined

Directions (Q. 17 to 20): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below:
(i) A, B, C, D and E, five men are sitting in a line facing to South – while M, N, O, P and Q are five ladies
sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing to North.
(ii) B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q.
(iii) C and N are diagonally opposite to each other.
(iv) E is opposite to O who is just to the right of M.
(v) P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D.
(vi) M is at one end of the line.

17. Who is sitting third to the right of O?

(A) Q (B) N
(C) M (D) Data inadequate

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18. If B shifts to the place of E, E shifts to the place of Q, and Q shifts to the place of B, then who will
be the second to the left of the person opposite of O?
(A) Q (B) P
(C) E (D) B

19. Which of the following pair is diagonally opposite to each other?

(A) EQ (B) BO
(C) AN (D) AM

20. If O and P, A and E and N and Q interchange their positions, then who will be the second person
to the right of the person who is opposite to the person second of the right of P?
(A) D (B) A
(C) E (D) O

21. If A is son of Q, Q and Y are sisters, Y’s mother is Z, P is son of Z, then which one is definitely
true?
(A) A and P are cousin (B) A is uncle of P
(C) A is maternal uncle of P (D) None of these

22. Factory : Production : : School : ?

(A) Teacher (B) Education
(C) Building (D) Discipline

Directions (Q. 23 to 25): In each of the following questions, a word has been given, following by four other
words. One of which can be formed by using the letters from the given word. Find that word.

23. REMEMBERING
(A) NEGRO (B) AGREE
(C) RAIN (D) GREEN

24. ARISTOCRATIC
(A) CREATION (B) STATIC
(C) SECRET (D) ARREST

25. CORRESPONDING
(A) DISCERN (B) RESPONSE
(C) REPENT (D) CORRECT

Directions (Q. 26 to 28): Which number will replace the question mark?

26. 17 5 18 9 15 ?

85 162 180
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) 12 (B) 18
(C) 20 (D) 25

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27. 343 1
7 1
? 3
5 27
(A) 125 (B) 27
(C) 25 (D) 23

28. 5 6 5

8 9 7

10 7 ?

400 378 315

(A) 7 (B) 5
(C) 9 (D) 12

Directions (Q. 29 to 31): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below:
(i) A + B means A is the daughter of B.
(ii) A – B means A is the husband of B.
(iii) A × B means A is the brother of B.

29. If P + Q – R, then which of the following is true?

(A) R is the mother of P (B) P is the uncle of R
(C) P is the son of R (D) P is the father of R

30. If P × Q + R, then which of the following is true?

(A) P is the brother of R (B) P is the daughter of R
(C) P is the cousin of R (D) P is the son of R

31. If P + Q × R, then which of the following is true?

(A) P is the niece of R (B) P is the daughter of R
(C) P is the cousin of R (D) P is the daughter-in-law of R

32. Introducing a man woman said, that he is the son of my mother’s brother’s father’s son. Then how
is woman related to that man?
(A) Nephew (B) Brother
(C) Son (D) None of these

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Directions (Q. 33 to 35): In all the following questions have different relations between different element
according to statement there are two conclusion are given:
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I is true (B) If only conclusion II is true
(C) If either conclusion I or II is true (D) If conclusion I and II both are true

33. Statement :A>B<C<D<F=H

Conclusion I :H>B
II :A>D

34. Statement :P>Q>R<S=T>G

Conclusion I :R<P
II :T>R

35. Statement :Z<X<C=V>B

Conclusion I :Z<V
II :C=X

Directions (Q. 36 to 39): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below:
E%3R5#A6BIJ@29HU4MI*F7$W8PND

36. What will come at the place of question mark (?) in the following series based on above
arrangement?
35A, I@9, 4M*, ?
(A) 7WP (B) 7W8
(C) $8N (D) FWP

37. Which of the following will be Eighth from right to the Twentieth from right end in the above
arrangement?
(A)  (B) @
(C) 3 (D) P

38. How many such consonant are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three

39. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three

40. Manoj is 24th from the right in a row of 40 boys. What is position from the left end?
th th
(A) 18 (B) 16
th
(C) 17 (D) None of these

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41. Deepak walks 9 m towards South then he turns to his right and moved 5 m then he turns to his
right and moves 4 m. Then he turns to his left and moves 7 m. Now how far is he from starting
point and in which direction?
(A) 15 m South-West (B) 7 m South-West
(C) 15 m West (D) 13 m South-West

42. In the given question, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which one placed in the
blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

?
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (Q. 43 to 45): Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G applied for three Banks P, Q and R. Out of
these at least two have applied for each Bank. There is only one girl who has applied only for one Bank. Out
of seven friends three were selected one for one Bank, out of these was only one girl. B is sister of G and
both have applied for the same Bank but not for Q. A applied for the Bank R only with E who is a girl. F
applied for the Bank P but he was not selected. C who is the wife of D, has been selected.

43. Which of the following combination represents girls?

(A) B, C, E (B) B, C, G
(C) C, E, G (D) None of these

44. For which bank, three persons applied?

(A) R (B) P or Q
(C) Q or R (D) P

45. Which of the following combination of friends, represents for the Bank?
(A) Only B and F (B) Only F and G
(C) Only B, F and G (D) Only B, F and C

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Section-II Science & Mathematics

Physics (Part – A)
Straight Objective Type
Physics contains 15 multiple choice questions numbered 46 to 60. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
46. FPS is :–
(A) Force pressure second (B) Foot pound second
(C) Force power second (D) Foot power second

47. 14000 cm equals to-

(A) 14 km (B) 0.14 km
(C) 1.4 km (D) 140 km.

48. How many years are there in one decade?

(A) 5 years (B) 10 years
(C) 100 years (D) 1000 years

49. While measuring the length of a pencil the reading of the scale at one end is 3.0 cm and at the
other 15.2 cm. What is the length of the Pencil?
(A) 13.2 cm (B) 12.2 cm
(C) 11.8 cm (D) 14.2 cm

50. The motion of a hanging bell is an example of :–

(A) Periodic (B) Oscillatery
(C) Random (D) Circular

51. The motion of Wheel of a moving car is-

(A) Rectilinear motion (B) Circular motion
(C) Combined motion (D) Periodic motion

52. Which of the following is a uniform motion:–

(A) (B)
Distance
Distance

time time

(C) (D)
Distance

Distance

time time

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53. 10 quintals equals to.

(A) 100 kg (B) 10 kg
(C) 1000 kg (D) 1 kg

54. 1 micro second is equal to :–

(A) 106 s (B) 10-6 s
(C) 103 s (D) 10-3 s

55. If the image cannot be taken on the screen, it must be

(A) real (B) virtual
(C) real or virtual (D) none of these

56. Soldiers in march past is an example of

(A) Periodic (B) Rotational
(C) Rectilinear (D) Circular
A
57. A body travels from A to B in a circular path having radius 5m
as shown in the figure in 2 seconds. Calculate its average 5m
velocity ?
(A) 3 m/s (B) 5 m/s
(C) 0 m/s (D) 6 m/s.

58. When light bounces off from a surface, we say it has been : –
(A) Reflected (B) Absorbed
(C) Transmitted (D) Refracted.

59. Shape & size of a shadow depends on

(A) The shape and size of the object
(B) The position of the source of light
(C) The distance between the source of light and object
(D) All the above.

60. An object is placed at a distance of 2 m from a plane mirror.

Find the distance of the image formed by the mirror from
object.
(A) 10 m (B) 4 m
2m
(C) 6 m (D) 2 m

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Chemistry ( P ar t – B )
Straight Objective Type
Chemistry contains 15 multiple choice questions numbered 61 to 75. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. In which climate are cotton crops grown
(A) Winter (B) Warm
(C) Spring (D) Rainy

62. Which types of cloths burn slowly?

(A) Nylon (B) Polyester
(C) Cotton (D) Silk

63. The process of pulled out cotton seeds from cotton is called _________?
(A) Pat sun (B) Ginning
(C) Bobbins (D) Spinning

64. Silk is obtained from

(A) Banana tree (B) Jute stem
(C) Silk worm (D) Mango tree

65. Unspun cotton is used for

(A) Adsorbent (B) Filling mattress
(C) Cleaning (D) None of these

66. Find the odd one out from the following

(A) Aluminium (B) Iron
(C) Copper (D) Sand

67. Which one is liquid metal?

(A) Mercury (B) Bromine
(C) Silicon (D) Germanium

68. Wax and plastics are ________ in water

(A) Soluble (B) In soluble
(C) Miscible (D) None of these

69. All gases are __________ conductor of heat

(A) Good (B) Bad
(C) Neutral (D) None of these

70. The process of settling of suspended particles is

(A) Evaporation (B) Filtration
(C) Sedimentation (D) Sublimation

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71. Husk is separated from rice by

(A) Winnowing (B) Hand picking
(C) Sublimation (D) Distillation

72. The purity of a substance is determined by

(A) Its colour (B) Quantity
(C) M.P. and B.P. (D) Source

73. Vinegar is a mixture of

(A) CH3COOH + H2O (B) NH4Cl + HCl
(C) HCl + HNO3 (D) CO2 + H2O

74. Loading is done by using a piece of

(A) Stone (B) Alum
(C) Chalk (D) Sugar

75. A mixture of petrol and water can be separated by

(A) Sublimation (B) Evaporation
(C) Separating funnel (D) None of these
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Mathematics ( P ar t – C )
Straight Objective Type
Mathematics contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 76 to 105. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
76. Which set of the following number will make the number sentence true?
. .............  ..............  .............  12
(A) 6,8,12 (B) 6,8,16
(C) 16,8,10 (D) 6,8,10

77. The HCF and LCM of two number is 16 and 192 respectively. If one of the number is 64, the
other one is
(A) 48 (B) 24
(C) 72 (D) None

78. In the figure, ADF and BEF are two triangles and EDC  DCE . Find y.
B
62o
A
y C

28o D
F E

(A) 90o (B) 91o

(C) 92o (D) 93o

79. The price of commodity x increases by 20 paisa every year, while the price of commodity y
decreases by 20 paisa every year. If present price of x is Rs. 23.50 and that of y is Rs. 40.30,
find the total price of x and y after 10 years.
(A) Rs. 21.50 (B) Rs. 38.30
(C) Rs. 59.80 (D) Rs. 63.80

80 Circumference of a circle, whose area is 3850 cm2 , is :

(A) 220 cm (B) 70 cm.
(C) 110 cm (D) 140 cm

81. Subtract  x 4  x 2 y 2  3x 2 y  y 4  from  y 4  3x 2 y 2  x 4 

(A) 2x 4  2x 2 y 2  3x 2 y (B) 2x 2 y2  3x 2 y  2x 4
(C) 2y 4  4x 2 y 2  3x 2 y (D) x 2 y 2  2y 4

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82. The diagram shows an isosceles triangle ABC, such that AB = AC. B 50º C
The value of x is
(A) 100º (B) 80º
(C) 50º (D) 20º
4x

83. In the given figure, ACD is a straight line. ABC is an B

isosceles triangle. The value of x is
(A) 65º (B) 70º 28º
(C) 72º (D) 83º

x 138º
A
C D

84. Which of the relation of the sides showing the condition of scalene A
triangle?
(A) AB = BC = CA (B) AB  BC = AC
(C) AB  BC  CA (D) AB = BC  AC
B C

85. In the given figure, ACD and BCE are straight lines and B
CED = 90°. The value of x is
(A) 22º (B) 29º 58º
(C) 31º (D) 34º
A C x D

86. In given figure lines , m and n are called


(A) Collinear lines
(B) Parallel lines
(C) Concurrent lines
O
(D) None of these m
n

87. Measure of POQ in the following figure is P S

(A) 90º (B) 20º
(C) 70º (D) 110º
O 110°

Q R

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88. Supplementary angle of 108.5° is

(A) 70.5° (B) 71.5°
1 1
(C) 21 (D) 77
2 2

89. At 3 O’clock, the angle formed between the hands of a clock is

(A) Reflex angle (B) Right angle
(C) Straight angle (D) Acute angle

90. Measure of x° in the figure is P

(A) 60º (B) 70º
(C) 80º (D) 55º x°

50°
Q S
120°
R

91. Measure of angle y in the given figure is C

(A) 65º (B) 85º
(C) 75º (D) 80º
115° y
A D
B

92. Which of the following figure is not a polygon?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

93. Hexagon is a polygon which consists of

(A) 7 sides, 7 angles and 7 vertices (B) 6 sides, 6 angles and 6 vertices
(C) 8 sides, 8 angles and 8 vertices (D) 4 sides, 4 angles and 4 vertices

94. Which of the following is not true?

A triangle can have
(A) Two acute angles (B) One right angle
(C) Two obtuse angles (D) Each angle equal to 60°

95. Value of 976 × 237 + 976 × 763 is

(A) 968000 (B) 976000
(C) 100000 (D) 900000

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96. Roman numeral for the greatest three digit number is

(A) IXIXIX (B) CMXCIX
(C) CMIXIX (D) CMIIC

97. Using 5, 4, 0, 3 without repetition, make the greatest and smallest 4-digit numbers respectively
(A) 5403, 0345 (B) 5430, 3045
(C) 5430, 0345 (D) 5304, 3450

98. If the product 4868 × 9P2 is divisible by 12, then the value of P is
(A) 2 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) None of these

99. The representation of the smallest 5-digit number using three different digit is
(A) 10002 (B) 11002
(C) 100000 (D) 12300

100. The round off of the number 346578 to its nearest lakh is
(A) 400000 (B) 300000
(C) 340000 (D) 346000

x 4 x2  y2
101. If  , then value of 2 is
y 3 x  y2
25 61
(A) (B)
7 11
11 7
(C) (D)
61 25

102. Find the L.C.M. of 84, 126 and 288.

(A) 2016 (B) 12
(C) 84 (D) 288

1
103. If 2  x  , then value of x is
1
1
1
3
5
13 3
(A) (B)
21 5
26 5
(C) (D)
21 3

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104. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

i. Whole numbers are closed under addition
ii. Whole number are closed under subtraction
iii. Whole number are closed under multiplication
iv. Whole number are closed under division
(A) All of these (B) only (i) and (iii)
(C) only (ii) and (iv) (D) None of these

105. A school canteen charges Rs. 25 and Rs. 5 for biscuits and milk, respectively. How much money
is spent by a student in 6 days on both the items if he has one of each on all the six days ?
(A) 180 (B) 150
(C) 120 (D) 100

Space for Rough Work

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Biology (Part – D)
Straight Objective Type
Biology contains 15 multiple choice questions numbered 106 to 120. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
106. Which one among the following is an omnivore?
(A) Lion (B) Deer
(C) Cockroach (D) None of these

107. Which one of the following is not an animal product?

(A) Cheese (B) Butter
(C) Honey (D) Rice

108. The food which is mainly eaten by majority of people is known as:
(A) Non staple food (B) Fermented food
(C) Staple food (D) Fast food

109. Oil contain………………………. contents which is an essential component of food.

(A) Proteins (B) Fats
(C) Carbohydrates (D) Minerals

110. Match the statements in column A with those of column B

Column – A Column – B
(a) Maize (p) Herbivore
(b) Some plants and animals (q) Curd
(c) Milk (r) Carbohydrate
(d) Deer (s) Source of food to human beings.
(A) (a  p), (b  q), (c  r), (d  s) (B) (a  r), (b  s), (c  q), (d  p)
(C) (a  r), (b  p), (c  s), (d  q) (D) (a  s), (b  p), (c  q), (d  r)

111. Deficiency of iron leads to:

(A) Goitre (B) Marasmus
(C) Anaemia (D) All of these

112. Vitamin C is also known as:

(A) Ascorbic acid (B) Asboric acid
(C) Citric acid (D) Acetic acid

113. Which of the following will provide maximum roughage to our diet, if taken in equal mass?
(A) Rice (B) Tomato
(C) Cabbage (D) Egg

114. Lipids in the diet:

(A) Makes the food less tasty (B) Increase the bulk
(C) Enable the absorption of some vitamins (D) All of the above

Space for Rough Work

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115. Which of the following minerals are required for the formation of bones and teeth?
(A) Sodium and potassium (B) Iron and calcium
(C) Calcium and cobalt (D) Calcium and phosphate

116. Water is absorbed by the ……….of a plant.

(A) root (B) stem
(C) flower (D) seed

117. In monocots, ………………..root system is observed.

(A) tap root (B) fibrous root
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these

118. Root that develops from the lower nodes of stem is called:
(A) stilt roots (B) nodulated roots
(C) tuberous roots (D) fibrous roots

119. The buds that are present at the tip of stem or a branch are called:
(A) apical bud (B) axillary bud
(C) vegetative bud (D) floral bud

120. A stem grows from the …………..of the seed.

(A) bud (B) axil
(C) plumule (D) vegetative bud

Space for Rough Work

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FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER – 2015

for students presently in

Class 6
Paper 1

ANSWERS
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D
5. A 6. B 7. B 8. D
9. A 10. C 11. C 12. A
13. A 14. C 15. D 16. B
17. B 18. A 19. D 20. B
21. D 22. B 23. D 24. B
25. A 26. A 27. A 28. C
29. A 30. D 31. A 32. D
33. A 34. D 35. A 36. C
37. A 38. B 39. C 40. C
41. D 42. B 43. A 44. D
45. C 46. B 47. B 48. B
49. B 50. B 51. C 52. B
53. C 54. B 55. B 56. C
57. B 58. A 59. D 60. B
61. B 62. C 63. B 64. C
65. B 66. D 67. A 68. B
69. B 70. C 71. A 72. C
73. A 74. B 75. C 76. C
77. A 78. A 79. D 80. A
81. B 82. D 83. B 84. C
85. B 86. C 87. D 88. B
89. B 90. B 91. A 92. D
93. B 94. C 95. B 96. B
97. B 98. D 99. A 100. B
101. D 102. A 103. C 104. B
105. A 106. C 107. D 108. C
109. B 110. B 111. C 112. A
113. C 114. C 115. D 116. A
117. B 118. A 119. A 120. C

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