CLUSTER V: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY

ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY

alveoloplasty?
1. The ideal bone graft should do each of the a. Undercuts that interferes with the
following, except; seating of the dentures should be
a. Induce osteogenesis removed
b. Withstand mechanical forces b. The remaining ridge should be as
c. Produce an immunologic response broad as possible, even if some
d. Become replaced by host bone undercuts exist
c. Sharp bony projections need not be
2. Which of the following describes the use of smooth as they will roll in a few days
hydroxylapatite for alveolar ridge d. Both A & B
augmentation? e. Both B & C
a. Hydroxylapatite is considered to be
osteoinductive (bone forming) 7. Excisional biopsy is most appropriate for
b. Granule migration and excessive which of the following conditions?
augmentation are common problems a. A1 -cm exophytic mass on the buccal
with hydroxylapatite materials mucosa
c. Compaction or compression of b. A2 -cm painless ulcer of ten week’s
hydroxylapatite after augmentation duration
generally does not occur c. A3 -cm submucosal indurated lump
d. Patients with hydroxylapatite d. A leukoplakic area covering most of
augmentation to the anterior maxilla the buccal mucosa
should be without their maxillary
prosthesis for a minimum of one 8. A freeze-dried decalcified bone graft taken
month from a human donor and placed in a
periodontal defect in another patient is
3. The success of a free gingival graft termed an:
procedure depends upon which of the a. Allograft
following? b. Autograft
a. The graft being immobilized at the c. Isograft
recipient site. d. Alloplastic Graft
b. The donor tissue being as thick as
possible and containing periosteum. 9. Which of the following bone donor grafts
c. A thick blood clot remaining between has the greatest osteogenic potential?
the recipient and donor tissue. a. Freeze-dried bone
d. A periosteal fenestration being b. Hemopoietic marrow
resorption. c. Heretogenous marrow
d. Corticancellous block
4. Which of the following will most likely
cause an autogenous tooth transplant to 10. A dentist surgically removes a maxillary
fall during the third year? first molar, fracturing a large portion of the
a. Development of root caries palatal root. The root is forced into the
b. Ankylosis of the tooth antrum and cannot be visualized. Adjacent
c. An inflammatory resorption of teeth and bone are normal. The
supporting bone. appropriate approach to recover the root is
d. An idiopathic chronic progressive root through the:
resorption. a. Hard palate in the canine area
5. When removing an impacted third molar, a b. Maxillary incisive fossa medial to the
dentist divides (sections) the tooth for each canine
of the following reasons, EXCEPT; c. Maxillary canine fossa above the level
a. To shorten the surgical procedure of the premolar roots
b. To minimize the amount of bone to be d. Nasoantral wall above the middle
removed concha or turbinate
c. To allow the tooth to be delivered to e. First molar alveolus by enlarging the
the occlusal aspect antral opening
d. To minimize exertion of force
necessary to remove the tooth
1

11. In the treatment of localized alveolar

osteitis, the primary purpose of the
6. Which of the following is a principle of dressing is to:
CLUSTER V: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY

a. Provide a vehicle for obtudent b. Place a suture through the intended

medication specimen before removing it
b. Promote the growth of the adjacent c. Obtain some adjacent normal tissue if
epithelium possible
c. Prevent saliva from containing the d. Place the specimen in saline, if 10%
alveolus formalin is unavailable
d. Stimulate the formation of a blood
clot 18. Replacement resorption is characterized
by:
12. A paroxysmal and intermittent intense a. Pain
pain usually confined to specific nerve b. Ankylosis
branches and is most commonly present in c. Apical pathosis
maxillofacial region: d. Rapid progression
a. Neuritis e. Acute inflammation
b. Hyperethesia
c. Neuralgia 19. Which of the following is the most
d. Paralysis commonly used surgical procedure to
e. None of these correct maxillary retrognathia?
a. C-osteotomy
13. It is also known as decompression, b. LeFort 1 osteotomy
partsch operation: c. Inverted L osteotomy
a. Enucleation d. Anterior maxillary osteotomy
b. Marsupialization
c. Enucleation with marsupialization 20. Which of the following describes
d. Enucleation with curettage osseointegrated implants?
e. None of these a. They have a direct structural and
functional connection with bone only
14. Which of the following is necessary to at the radiographic level of detection
allow for apically positioning a flap margin b. They are anchored directly to living
on the palatal surface of molar teeth? bone as determined by radiographic
a. Use only a sulcular incision for the and light microscopic analyses
initial incision c. They form a junction epithelium with
b. Trim the flap margin to the proper the surrounding tissue
length during the procedure d. They form a pseudo-periodontal
c. Avoid making the initial incision deep ligament
enough to reach bone
d. Extend vertical releasing incision 21. A patient who is on dicumarol therapy
beyond the mucogingival junction requires a tooth extraction. Which
laboratory test is most valuable in
15. Because of its root structure, which of the evaluating this patient’s surgical risk?
following teeth is the least responsive to a. Clotting time
rotation forces during extraction? b. Bleeding time
a. Mandibular canine c. Prothrombin time
b. Maxillary central incisor d. Sedimentation rate
c. Maxillary first premolar e. Complete blood cell count
d. Mandibular first premolar
e. Mandibular second premolar 22. Bone marrow for grafting defects in the
jaws is generally obtained from:
16. During surgical correction of mandibular a. A rib
prognathism, the position of the b. The tissue bank
mandibular condyle should be: c. The iliac rest
a. Unaltered d. Maxillary tuberosity
b. Retruded e. The mandibular para symphysis
c. Advanced
d. Intruded

23. Surgical blade which is used mainly for

2 incision and drainage:
17. In obtaining an incisional biopsy of soft
tissue, the dentist should do each of the a. #11
following, except: b. #12
a. Infiltrate local anesthetic solution c. #15
around the intended site d. #10
CLUSTER V: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY

e. None of these b. Anterior and inferior

c. Inferior only
24. The Z-plasty procedure may be used to d. Posterior
correct:
a. Ankyglossia 31. Of the following bone grafts, the greatest
b. Interfering labia frena osteogenic potential occurs with:
c. Oroantral fistula a. A xenograft
d. Sharp mylohyoid ridges b. A freeze-dried bone
a. 1, 2 c. An autogenous cortical graft
b. 2,3,4 d. An autogenous cancellous graft
c. 1,2,3
d. All of the choices 32. A compound fracture is characterized by:
a. Many small fragments
25. A type of implant that are surgically b. A “star” shaped appearance
inserted into the jaw bone penetrating the c. An incomplete break in the bone
entire jaw emerging opposite the entry site d. Bleeding into the masticatory space
usually at the bottom of the chin. e. Communication with the oral cavity
a. Transosseous
b. Subperiosteal 33. The surgical procedure most frequently
c. Endosseous performed to correct a skeletal mandibular
d. Osteointegration retrognathia is bilateral
e. None of these a. Body osteotomy
b. Oblique subcondylar osteotomy
26. The primary purpose of splinting c. “C” type osteotomy of the ramus
procedure: d. Horizontal osteotomy of the ramus
a. Stabilized repositioned tooth e. Sagittal split osteotomy of the ramus
b. Minimize traumatic stress on the
organizing clot 34. A patient presents with continuous,
c. Minimize traumatic effect into injury spontaneous pain associated with the
d. Both A & B maxillary right central incisor. The tooth
e. Both B & C has a large Class V composite restoration.
Cold testing produces lingering pain. There
27. During removal of a torus palatinus, the is no sensitivity to percussion or palpation.
midportion of the palatine process of the The most likely diagnosis is:
maxilla is inadvertently removed. One a. Necrotic pulp, chronic apical
should expect to see: periodontitis
a. An opening into the nasal cavity b. Reversible pulpitis, normal periapex
b. A vertical fracture of the maxilla c. Irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex
c. An opening into the maxillary antrum d. Irreversible pulpitis, acute apical
d. A horizontal fracture of the maxilla periodontitis

28. Neuralgia that affects the 7th cranial nerve 35. A diagnostic test failed to identify five
resulting to pain of the external auditory cases of true disease. This type of failure is
canal, auricles and soft palate. known as a:
a. Tic doloureux a. False negative
b. Atypical facial neuralgia b. False positive
c. Ramsay Hunt’s syndrome c. Positive predictive value
d. Post herpetic neuralgia d. Negative predictive value
e. Vasoglossopharyngeal neuralgia
36. On the basis of diagnostic test results, a
29. The application of microsurgical dentist correctly classifies a group of
technique procedure in the treatment of patients as being free from disease. These
maxillofacial nerve injuries are: results possess high:
a. Brain and peripheral nerve a. Sensitivity
b. Nerve grafting and anastomoses b. Specificity
c. Nerve decompression c. Generalizability
d. Both A & C d. Repeatability
e. Both B & C
37. Oral cytology smears are most
3
30. In a fracture involving the angle of an appropriately used for diagnosis of which
edentulous mandible, the proximal of the following?
segment is usually displaced in which a. Pseudomembranous candidiasis
direction? b. Lichen Planus
a. Anterior and superior c. Squamous cell carcinoma
CLUSTER V: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY

d. Benign mucous membrane adjacent control teeth test within normal

pemphigoid limits. A radiograph reveals that the
maxillary right central incisor has a deep
38. The routine examination of a healthy 20- unbased restoration and a widened apical
year old discloses a round, brown lesion, periodontal ligament space. Which of the
3mm in diameter, on his lower lip. The ff. is the best emergency treatment for this
lesion is solitary, asymptomatic and flat. Its patient?
duration is unknown. Which of the a. Extracting the maxillary right central
following is the most likely diagnosis? incisor
a. Blue nevus b. Administering an antibiotic and
b. Focal melanosis analgesic and initiating root canal
c. Compound nevus therapy when symptoms subside
d. Malignant melanoma c. Debriding the root canal of the
e. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome maxillary right central incisor and
prescribing antibiotics and analgesics
39. A 33-year old female patient states that d. Incising and draining the swelling and
her mandibular first molar has been prescribing antibiotics and analgesics.
hurting since the recent placement of an
amalgam restoration. She describes the 42. A change in continuity of the occlusal
pain as mild-to-moderate, which is not plane is often observed after ankylosis of a
spontaneous, but is provoked by cold, heat tooth. This change is caused by:
and sweets. These symptoms most likely a. Differential eruption sequences
correspond with: b. The ankylosed teeth sinking into the
a. Pulp necrosis alveolar bone
b. Reversible pulpitis c. Localized growth inhibition of the
c. Internal resorption alveolar process
d. Irreversible pulpitis d. Continued eruption of non-ankylosed
teeth and growth of the alveolar
40. A high flow 100% O2 is indicated for process
treating each of the following types of
syncope, except: 43. If multiple myeloma is suspected because
a. Vasovagal of a patient’s medical history and intraoral
b. Neurogenic radiographs, which radiograph projection is
c. Orthostatic best confirm the suspected diagnosis?
d. Hyperventilation syndrome a. Lateral skull
b. Lateral oblique
c. Anterior-posterior
d. Posterior-anterior
e. Temporomandibular survey

44. For five days, a 25-year old man has had

painful oral ulcerations. Several reddish
macular lesions are present on his face and
hands, most of which have a ring-like bull’s
eye appearance. He had “cold sores” two
weeks earlier. Tentative diagnosis is:
a. Lichen planus
b. Aphthous ulcers
c. Pityriasis rosea
d. Verruca vulgaris
e. Erythema multiforme

45. Physical examination of a 28-year old

man reveals an extensive, smooth
41. An adult healthy patient has marked enlargement has been present for two
indurated swelling. He has a temperature years and has slowly and steadily increased
4
of 100oF and has been in considerable pain in size. The most probable clinical diagnosis
for 24 hours. Percussion of the maxillary is:
right central incisor causes discomfort as a. Osteosarcoma
does palpitation at its apex. Pulp vitality b. Ameloblastoma
tests are negative for this tooth, while c. Osteomyelitis
CLUSTER V: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY

d. Osteitis deformans 52. A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with

an increased pulse rate, fine skin and hair
46. A 56-year old man has had a lesion on the and loss of body weight. He is probably
floor of his mouth for six weeks without suffering from:
significant clinical change. Examination a. Diabetes
shows a 2-cm lesion in the area of the b.Hypothyroidism
submandibular duct. Which of the c. Hyperthyroidism
following should be performed to confirm d. Hyperpituitarism
the clinical diagnosis? e. Hyperparathyroidism
a. Punch biopsy
b. Incisional biopsy 53. A swelling on the anterior floor of the
c. Excisional biopsy mouth is soft and painless. It has been
d. Exfoliate cytology present for months, the overlying mucosa
has a bluish tinge. The most likely diagnosis
47. A patient on prophylthiouracil therapy is:
requires oral surgery. A routine a. A retention cyst
preoperative laboratory report indicates a b. A mixed salivary gland tumor
hemotocrit value of 45%, severe c. An infected periodontal abscess
neutropenia, reduced myeloblasts in the d. A carcinoma of the floor of the mouth
bone marrow and a coagulation time of 8 e. An obstructed sublingual gland duct
minutes. The primary hazard to this patient
is: 54. Differential white blood cell counts in the
a. Hypoxia laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:
b. Infection a. Anemia
c. Hemorrhage b. Eosinophilia
d. Thyroid crisis c. Spherocytosis
e. Uremic poisoning d. Vitamin deficiency
e. Thrombocytopenia purpura
48. A patient gives a history of bruising easily,
nocturia, excessive thirst and a low 55. Bell’s palsy is a condition is a associated
resistance to infections. This patient is with:
likely to be suffering from: a. An impacted teeth
a. Diabetes insipidus b. A submaxillary gland
b. Diabetes mellitus c. The seventh cranial nerve
c. Glomerulonephritis d. The glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Lupus erythematous e. A temporomandibular joint
e. Thrombocytopenic purpura
56. A tender swelling in the soft tissues of the
49. A patient who has spider telangiectatic submandibular triangle is most likely
spots on the skin should have an caused by.
examination to determine the condition of a. A lipoma
his: b. Lymphadenopathy
a. Lungs c. An obstruction of Stensen’s duct
b. Liver d. An infected thyroglossal duct cyst
c. Kidneys e. Any of the choices
d. Pancreas
e. Gallbladder 57. A complete blood count does not include:
a. Hemoglobin
50. A patient who has a white blood cell b.Lymphocytes
count of more than 100,000/cc most likely c. White blood cell count
is suffering from: d.Differential white blood cell
a. Leukemia e.Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b. Leukopenia 58. An increased erythrocytes sedimentation
c. Polycythemia rate (ESR):
d. Pernicious anemia a. Is specific for rheumatic fever
51. An asthmatic patient is characterized by b.Is the result of high blood pressure
having all of the following, except: c. Is due to an increase in the size and
a. A history of allergy weight of the RBC
b. Inspiratory wheezes d.Suggests the presence of an infection
5
c. Hyperactive bronchi somewhere in the body
d. Bronchi that rapidly and e.None of these
spontaneously change caliber in
response to various irritants 59. Rumpel-Leede, or the tourniquet test, is a
measure of:
CLUSTER V: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY

a. Blood pressure b. Sickle cell anemia

b.Capillary fragility c. Polycythemia
c. Factor IX deficiency d. Pernicious anemia
d.Clotting time
67. Collimation of a beam refers to be:
60. When the uvula curtain does not rise a. Selective removal of soft radiation
symmetrically when the patient say “ah”, it from the beam
suggest which one of the following cranial b. Selective removal of hard radiation
nerves may be damaged? from the beam
a. A glossopharyngeal nerve c. Reduction of the beam diameter
b.Superior alveolar branch of the d. None of these
trigeminal nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerve 68. The techniques that show upper and
d.Vagus nerve lower crowns on the same radiograph, is
e.None called the:
a. Bisecting angle technique
61. Brown to black pigmentation caused by b. Bite wing technique
adrenal insufficiency is commonly c. Paralleling technique
associated with: d. Occlusal technique
a. Angular chelitis
b.Perleche 69. A symmetrically widened periodontal
c. Candidiasis ligament space around one or two adjacent
d.Addison’s disease teeth is reported to be earliest
e.Syphylytic lesion radiographic sign of:
a. Osteosarcoma
62. The earliest sign of hemorrhagic shock is: b. Osteitis deformans
a. Dyspnea c. Florid osseous dysplasia
b.Hypotension d. Sclerosing cemental masses
c. Tachycardia e. Craniofacial fibrous dysplasia
d.Vasoconstriction
70. The density of a radiograph is reduced by
63. The x-ray beam is filtered to increasing:
a. Soften the beam a. Kilovoltage
b.Restrict the beam size b. Milliamperage
c. Remove long wavelength x-rays c. Exposure Time
d.Remove short wavelength x-rays d. Source-film distance
e. Diameter of the aperture
64. The speed with which electron travel
from the filament of the cathode to the 71. The component of developer that gives
target of the anode depends upon the. detail to the radiographic image is
a.Potential difference between the two a. Hydroquinone
electrodes b. Sodium carbonate
b.Number of milliamperes in the tube c. Sodium sulfite
circuit d. Potassium bromide
c. Angle between the filament and the e. None of these
target
d.Voltage in the filament circuit
e.Size of the electron cloud

72. If a dried radiograph were processed a

65. Occlusal radiograph are useful in locating second time, its appearance would show:
a. The hyoid bone a. Increased contrast and density
b. The mental foramen b. Decreased contrast and density
c. Maxillary sinus mucoceles c. Increased contrast only
d. Sialolithis in Stensen’s duct d. Increased density only
e. Sialolithis in Wharton’s duct e. No change in contrast or density

66. Salient radiographic findings6showing 73. Which of the following radiographic

perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating feature is commonly associated with a
outwardly describe as “hair-on-end” effect traumatic bone cyst?
and generalized osteoporosis: a. Divergence of the roots of teeth
a. Aplastic anemia b. Unilocular radiolucency with focal
CLUSTER V: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY

radiopacity d. Lateral oblique of the mandible

c. Dome-shaped radiopacity of the e. Lateral skull projection
maxillary sinus
d. Scalloped radiolucency extending 81. If the intensity of a beam of radiation is
between the roots of teeth 12 at a point 12 inches from the target, the
intensity of the beam at 24 inches is
74. Cone cutting on a radiograph is caused a. 2
by: b. 3
a. Underexposure c. 4
b. Improper exposure techniques d. 6
c. A damaged cone e. 9
d. Improper coverage of the film with
the beam of radiation 82. A long cone is used in the
paralleling/right-angle radiographic
75. Which of the following diseases does not technique to:
cause changes in the lamina dura: a. Reduce secondary radiation
a. Gaucher’s disease b. Avoid magnification of the image
b. Sickle cell anemia c. Avoid distortion of image shape
c. Thyroid disease d. Avoid superimposition of anatomic
d. Paget’s disease structures
e. None of these e. Facilitate correct vertical angulation of
the cone
76. Radiographs of an asymptomatic 19-year
old patient disclose a well demarcated, 83. Which electron has the greatest binding
biloculated, 3x2cm radiolucency in the energy to the nucleus?
area of left mandibular molars. Each of the a. J-shell electron
following should be included in the b. K-shell electron
differential diagnosis, except: c. L-shell electron
a. Ameloblastoma d. Q-shell electron
b. Cementoblastoma e. Both B&C
c. Traumatic Bone Cyst
d. Odontogenic Keratocyst 84. In object localization, if the tube is shifted
e. Central Giant Cell Granuloma mesially and the object in question appears
to move distally, then the object is said to
77. Image sharpness on a radiograph is be on the:
increased by: a. Buccal
a. Increasing film speed b. Lingual
b. Using a small focal spot size c. Mesial
c. Using a large focal spot size d. Distal
d. Increasing object-film distance e. None of these
e. Decreasing object-film disease
85. Which of the following components of an
78. When taking extraoral radiographs, x-ray unit determines quality of the x-ray
double intensifying screen films are used to beam?
reduce: a. Autotransformer
a. Density b. X-rat timer switch
b. Contrast c. Step-down transformer
c. Exposure time d. Cathode filament temperature
d. Secondary radiation e. Milliamperage control switch
e. Target-skin disease
86. In a normal dental diagnostic procedures,
79. The first clinically observable reaction to the principal hazard to the operator is
radiation overexposure is: produced by what type of radiation?
a. Loss of hair a. Gamma
b. Erythema of the skin b. Primary
c. Agenesis of blood cells c. Secondary
d. Loss of alimentary epithelium d. Both A&B
e. Both B&C
80. The radiographic view that best
7
demonstrates a mediolaterally-displaced 87. Which of the following units of radiation
subcondylar fracture is the: measurements is 100ergs/gm of tissue?
a. Panoramic projection a. Rad
b. Maxillary occlusal view b. Gray (G)
c. Postero-anterior projection c. Roentgen
CLUSTER V: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY

d. Rem (Roentgen Equivalent Man) d. Penetrating power of radiation

e. Rbe (Radiobiologic Equivalent)
95. Which of the following is an indicator of
88. Which of the following cells is least the quality of an x-ray beam?
radiosensitive? a. Milliamperage
a. Red Blood Cell b.Exposure time
b. Epithelial Cell c. H and D curve
c. Endothelial Cell d.Machine output
d. White Blood Cell e.Half-value layer
e. Connective Tissue Cell
96. How should proper subject contarst be
89. Which of the following is a major maintained when taking radiograph of a
radiographic finding in ectodermal patient with thick, heavy bones?
dysplasia? a. Increase mA
a. Osteoporosis b. Increase kVp
b. Hutchinson’s teeth c. Use a high-contrast film
c. Congenitally missing teeth d. Increase exposure time
d. A ground-glass appearance of bone e. Increase development time
e. Calcification of the falx cerebri
97. Which of the following are examples of
90. Which of the following tissue is most nonparticulate radiation energy?
sensitive to radiation-induced cancer? 1. X-rays
a. Skin 2. Electron
b. Nerve 3. Gamma rays
c. Thyroid 4. Beta rays
d. Adult bone a. 1 & 2
e. Female breast b. 1 & 3
c. 1 & 4
91. A radiograph of a 25-year old man reveals d. 2 & 3
a luscent and opaque mass attached to and e. 2 & 4
destroying a still vital mandibular firs
molar. The mandible in this region is 98. Radiograph signs of trauma from
expanded. The most likely diagnosis is: occlusion include each of the following,
a. Fibrous dysplasia except:
b. Sclerosing osteitis a. Hypercementosis
c. Aneurysmal bone cyst b. Root resorption
d. Benign cementoblastoma c. Alteration of the lamina dura
e. Paget’s disease of bone d. Alteration of the periodontal space
e. Vascular infiltration of the
92. Which of the following appears as a periodontal ligament
radiolucency associated with the apex of a
single vital tooth?
a. Residual cyst
b. Periapical cyst
c. Traumatic bone cyst
d. Periapical granuloma
e. None of these
99. In performing normal dental diagnostic
93. High quality radiographs involve procedures, the operator receives the
positioning films nearly parallel with the greatest hazard from which type of
long axes of teeth. This generally places radiation?
the films some distance from the teeth and a. Direct primary beam
cause distortion. To compensate, one b. Secondary
should: c. Scatter
a. Decrease kVp to below 60 d. Gamma
b. Increase kVp to above 60 e. Secondary and scatter
c. Process films at 85 degrees
d. Decrease target-film distance 100. Ameloblastoma of the mandible is
e. Increase target-film distance similar radiograpically to which of the
8
following conditions?
94. In radiology, mA primarily controls a. Osteoblastoma
a. Exposure time b. Pinborg tumor
b. Electron speed c. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
c. Number of electrons produced d. Central giant cell granuloma
CLUSTER V: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY