2011 MT

MT : METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Write your name and registration number in the space provided at the bottom of this page.

2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal.

3. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.

4. Write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre at the specified
locations on the right half of the ORS. Also, using HB pencil, darken the appropriate bubble under
each digit of your registration number and the letters corresponding to your test paper code (MT).

5. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After opening the
seal at the specified time, please check all pages and report discrepancy, if any.

6. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type.
Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble
(marked A, B, C, D) using HB pencil against the question number. For each question darken the
bubble of the correct answer. In case you wish to change an answer, erase the old answer
completely. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.

7. Questions Q.I- Q.25 carry I-mark each, and questions Q.26 - Q.55 carry 2-marks each.

8. Questions Q.48 - Q.5I (2 pairs) are common data questions and question pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and
(Q.54, Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer
questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair
is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be
evaluated.

9. Questions Q.56 - Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 - Q.60 carry I-mark each,
and questions Q.6I - Q.65 carry 2-marks each. The GA questions begin on a fresh page starting from
page 10.

10. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
For Q.l - Q.25 and Q.56 - Q.60, ~ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For Q.26 - Q.51
and Q.6I - Q.65, * mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, Q.53),
and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong
*
answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair, i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, mark will be
deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.

11. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

12. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Additionally, blank pages are provided at the
end of the question paper for rough work.

I Name

MT 1116
2011 MT
Useful data
-1 -1
Universal gas constant (R) = 8.314 J mol K
1 Faraday (F) = 96500 Coulombs

Q. 1 - Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Which one of the following methods is NOT used for numerically solving an ordinary differential
equation (ODE)?
(A) Euler's method (B) Runge-Kutta method
(C) Adam-Bashforth method (D) Newton-Raphson method

Q.2 If two systems P and Q are in thermal equilibrium with a third system M, then P and Q will also be
in thermal equilibrium with each other. This is following
(A) First law of Thermodynamics (B) Second law of Thermodynamics
(C) Third law of Thermodynamics (D) Zeroeth law of Thermodynamics

Q.3 Humidification of the blast in the iron blast furnace leads to

(A) lowering of the raceway temperature
(B) increase in raceway temperature
(C) difficulty in pulverized coal injection (PCI)
(D) decrease of the oxygen content in the hot metal

Q.4 Which one of the following refractory materials is NOT used in the BOF (LD) working lining?
(A) Tar-bonded dolomite (B) Pitch-bonded magnesite
(C) Fired and pitch-impregnated magnesite (D) Graphite-alumina composite

Q.5 In the eutectoid steel, which one of the following structures DOES NOT form during continuous
cooling?
(A) Fully pearlitic (B) Pearlitic + bainitic
(C) Fully bainitic (D) Martensitic

Q.6 Which one of the following is a ferrite stabilizer in steels?

(A) Ni (B) Cu (C) Cr (D)Mn

Q.7 The angle between the line vector and the burgers vector of an edge dislocation is
(A) 0 degree (B) 90 degrees (C) 120 degrees (D) 180 degrees

Q.8 In fracture toughness characterized by K IC or J IC , I in the subscript indicates loading by

(A) crack opening mode (B) forward shear mode
(C) parallel shear mode (D) perpendicular shear mode

Q.9 In a brazing process the liquid metal fills the gap by which one of the following means?
(A) Capillary infiltration (B) Gravity infiltration
(C) Pressure infiltration (D) Vacuum infiltration

MT 2116
2011 MT
Q.lO Which one of the following expands upon solidification?
(A) Low carbon steel (B) High carbon steel
(C) White cast iron (D) Gray cast iron

Q.11 For a simple cubic unit cell with unit vectors i, j and k, the angle between lattice vectors [100] and
[111] in degrees is
(A) 35.2 (B) 54.7 (C) 60 (D) 90

Q.12 The inflection point of a nonlinear function U(r) is at

(A) U =0 (B) In U =0 (C) dU/dr = 0

Q.13. One mole of element P is mixed with one mole of element Q. The entropy of mixing at 0 K is
(A) 0 (B) -R In 0.5 (C) infinity (D) -R In 2

Q.14 Zinc rod is immersed in dilute HCl (pure). If a very small amount of FeCl 3 is added to the solution,
the corrosion rate of zinc
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) remains constant (D) is zero (passivation)

Q.15 A metal is electrochemically polarized to a potential which is higher than the standard reduction
potential of the metal. The overvoltage will be
(A) zero (B) negative
(C) positive (D) initially negative, then positive

Q.16 Aluminum is NOT commercially produced by carbo-thermic reduction primarily because

(A) aluminum metal will have excessive dissolved oxygen
(B) it melts at too Iowa temperature
(C) it does not vaporize at reasonable temperatures
(D) AI-Ah03 line is too low in the Ellingham diagram and needs excessively high temperatures

Q.17 VOD process is preferred over AOD process for making extra-low carbon stainless steels beca~se

(A) Pco can be lowered to a much lower level in the VOD than in the AOD
(B) AOD does not have adequate stirring
(C) free-board needed for such operation is not available in the AOD
(D) AOD refractory is not stable in contact with extra low carbon steel

Q.18 In froth flotation, collector refers to a reagent which primarily

(A) promotes bubble break-up and stabilizes the foam
(B) adsorbs on the surface of the mineral, and makes it hydrophobic
(C) promotes separation of the particles from the froth
(D) absorbs on the unwanted mineral and makes it sink
MT 3/16
WI] MT

Q.19 With the increase in the degree of supercooling, the growth rate of a nucleus follows which one of
the following trends?
(A) First increases and then decreases (B) First decreases and then increases
(C) Only increases (D) Only decreases

Q.20 For a fcc unit cell, the ratio of the number of tetrahedral voids to the number of atoms is
(A) 2:1 (B) 3: 1 (C) 4: 1 (D) 5:1

Q.21 The material in which there is conduction primarily by holes is

(A) conductor (B) insulator
(C) p-type semiconductor (D) n-type semiconductor

Q.22 When load is applied to a material, 'instantaneous' strain develops with

(A) the speed of light (B) half the speed of light
(C) the speed of sound (D) infinite speed

Q.23 For a given ductile material, which one of the following tensile properties obtained with non-
standard specimen is NOT comparable to that obtained with standard specimen?
(A) Elongation to fracture (B) Tensile strength
(C) Uniform elongation (D) Yield strength

Q.24 The nature of submerged arc welding flux with basicity index of 0.5 is
(A) neutral (B) basic (C) semi-basic (D) acidic

Q.25 Which one of the following carbon equivalent in steel is considered good for weldability?
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.8 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.4

Q. 26 to Q. SS carry two marks each.

Q.26 A box contains 5 white balls and 3 red balls. Two balls are withdrawn from the box randomly, one
after another (without replacement). The probability that the two balls withdrawn are of different
color is
(A) 15/64 (B) 25/64 (C) 25/56 (D) 30/56

Q.27 For a reaction A~B, if the rate of change in concentration of A (C A ), can be written as
dCA = k .C A'
--- 2
th en the change III
. concentratIOn
.. WIt h·tIme from ...
IllltIa I concentratIon
. 0 fA , C Ao, IS
.
dt
given by
(A) (11 C A ) - (lIC Ao ) = k.t (B) (C Ao - C A) = k.t
2 (D) In (CAo/CA) = k.t
(C) (C Ao - C A ) = k.t
2

MT 4/16
2011 MT

Q.28 Y ~ k, [ 1 - exp ( - k~~ ) 1

where k/. k, and k, are constants. If k,iI.X«k,x. the value of Y up to

first order of approximation would be

(A) Y = kl [1- k/1X ]

k3X
(B) Y=k1 [1+ k/:1X]
k3 X
(C) Y =k k/:J( k!1X
(D) Y=-k _2_
lkX 1 k3 X
3

Q.29 A large set of data for a given measurement has been found to be normally distributed around a
mean 11, with standard deviation 0. Which of the following limits would have about 95% of the data
points around the mean and rest outside?
(A) 11- 0.50 and 11 + 0.50 (B) 11 - 0 and 11 + 0
(C) 11- 20 and 11 + 20 (D) 11- 30 and 11 + 30

Q.30 During fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe, the velocity profile is parabolic, and
symmetric around the axis. The velocity at the tube wall is zero. The ratio of the average velocity to
the maximum velocity is
(A) 113 (B) 112 (C) 2/3 (D) 3/4

Q.31 If k is the rate constant for a reaction and T is the absolute temperature in the given figure, the
activation energy for the reaction is
-8

In k
I
1

!
-9 -------T-------------------------
I

!I

(A) 1000 J/mol (B) 2000 J/mol (C) 4155 J/mol (D) 8314 J/mol
o
Q.32 2Cu (s) + 0.50 2 (g) = CU20 (s) ~G = -162200 + 69.24T ,J
o .
2Cu (I) + 0.50 2 (g) = CU20 (s) ~G =-188300 + 88.48T ,J

The molar free energy change at l300 K for the transformation of solid Cu to liquid Cu will be
(A) 1050 J (B) 960 J (C) 544 J (D) 445 J

Q.33 Ah0 3 + 6H+ + 6e = 3H20 + 2AI ~d = 897.3 kJ

where, hydrogen ion concentration is unity. The reduction potential of the above reaction under
standard state will be
(A) -1.55 Y (B) -1.40 V (C) 1.65 V (D) 1.75 V

MT 5/16
2011 MT

Q.34 G=U+PV-TS
Then which one of the following is CORRECT?

(A)
aT =(as)
(av) ap
p T
(B)
aT =_(as)
(av) pap T

()C (av)
aT _(ap)
as p - T
(D) (av) = _(ap)
aT p as T

Q.35 Match the metals in Group I with the corresponding ores in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Lead 1. Columbite
Q. Zinc 2. Cassiterite
R. Uranium 3. Galena
S. Niobium 4. Pitchblende
5. Sphalerite
(A) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

Q.36 For the following reactions, the standard free energy change is given at 1773 K as follows

2/3 Cr203 (s) = 4/3 Cr (s) + O 2 (g) : LlGO = 447800 J

2 H2 (g) + O 2 (g) = 2 H 20 (g): Lld = -297000 J
If chromium oxide powder has to be reduced by hydrogen in a fluidized bed, the minimum
PH, /PH,O ratio that has to be maintained at the exit of the reactor is

(A) 8.5 (B) 10.6 (C) 100.2 CD) 166.5

Q.37 The hydrogen content of steel in equilibrium with hydrogen gas at 1 bar pressure is 28 ppm at some
temperature. Hydrogen content in the metal at the same temperature gets reduced to 1 ppm, when
the equilibrium PH, changes to

(A) 28 bar (B) 1128 bar (C) (1128)15 bar (D) (l/28l bar

Q.38 A furnace wall consists of two layers. The inside layer of 450 mm is made of light weight bricks of
thermal conductivity 1 W/m.K and the outside layer of 900 mm is made of refractory of thermal
conductivity 2 W/m.K. The hot face of the inside layer is at temperature 1300 K and the cold face
of the outer layer is at 400 K. The temperature at the interface between the two layers is
(A) 1000 K (B) 850 K (C) 700 K (D) 600 K

Q.39 Match the heat treatment processes in Group I with resultant microstructure of steel in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Martempering 1. Coarse Pearlite
Q. Normalising 2. Fine Pearlite
R. Subcritical annealing for long time 3. Tempered martensite
S. Full annealing 4. Spheroidised cementite in the matrix of ferrite

(A) P-l, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-l, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-l, R-2, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
MT 6/16
2011
MT

Q.40 In case of homogeneous nucleation, the critical edge length for a cube shaped nucleus is
(y : Energy per unit area of the interface between the product and the parent phase;
~g : Gibbs free energy change per unit volume)

(A) -4y/~g (B) -2y/~g (C) y/~g (D) -3y/~g

Q.41 For a cubic metal with lattice parameter of 3.92 A, the first four diffraction peaks from the X-ray
powder diffraction pattern taken with CuKa radiation (A. = 1.5405 A) occur at 28 values of 39.7,
46.2,67.5, and 81.3 degrees. The crystal structure of the metal is
(A) simple cubic (B) fcc (C) bcc (D) diamond cubic

Q.42 The largest size of immobilized segment of dislocation in a Frank Read (FR) source contained in a
polycrystalline material is of the order of grain size. In a metal of 10 /lm grain size, the shear stress
required to operate such a FR source is 100 MPa. If the grain size in the same metal is reduced to
10 nm, the shear stress required to operate such FR source would be
(B) 103 MPa (C) 105 MPa (D) 106 MPa

Q.43 Which one of the following reactions in fcclbcc crystals with lattice parameter '0' is energetically
favorable?

o - a-
(A) -[110]+-[011] (B) ~(f10]+ 0[110]
2 2 2 2
o
(D) ~[111] + a [111]
0-
(C) -[111]+-[111]
2 2 2 2

Q.44 Match the hardness test methods in Group I with the indenter used in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Brinell hardness 1. Brale indenter

Q. Vickers hardness 2. Square base diamond pyramid
R. Rockwell C hardness 3. 10 mm diameter steel ball
S. Rockwell B hardness 4. 1.6 mm diameter steel ball
(A) P-l, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-l, S-4
(C) P-l, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (D) P-l, Q-2, R-4, S-3

Q.45 Assertion 'a' : During casting of aluminium, grain refinement can be achieved by addition of
certain alloying elements.

Reason 'r' : The addition of the alloying element may result in the formation of deoxidation
products or intermetallic compounds which may act as nucleation sites for grain refinement.
(A) Both 'a' and 'r' are true but 'r' is not the reason for 'a'
(B) Both 'a' and 'r' are true and 'r' is the reason for 'a'
(C) 'a' is true but 'r' is false
(D) 'a' is false but 'r' is true

MT 7/16
2011 MT

Q.46 Match those listed in Group I with the NDT methods listed in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Penetrameter I. Ultrasonic test

Q. Differential coil probe 2. Dye-penetrant test
R. Piezo-electric probe 3. X-Ray radiography
S. Developer 4. Acoustic emission test
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-I, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-I, R-3, S-4
(C) P-I, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-I

Q.47 Match the manufacturing process of Group I to be used for producing the product in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Drawing I. Large curved disc

Q. Forging 2. Tube
R. Rolling 3. Crank shaft
S. Stretch forming 4. Plate
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-I (B) P-I, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-I, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-I, R-2, S-3

Common Data Questions

Common data for Questions 48 and 49:

An aluminium billet of 300 mm diameter is extruded with an extrusion ratio of 16.

Q.48 What is the diameter of the final product?

(A) 150mm (B) 75 mm (C) 59 mm (D) 19 mm

Q.49 What is the ideal extrusion pressure if the effective flow stress in compression is 250 MPa?
(A) 693 MPa (B) 346 MPa (C) -346 MPa (D) -703 MPa

Common data for Questions 50 and 51:

A binary phase diagram of components P and Q displays an eutectoid reaction with terminal solid solutions
a on the P rich side and p on the Q rich side. At the eutectoid temperature, the solubilities of Q in a and P
are 5 and 90 wt%, respectively. The densities of a and p phases are 9.5 and 2.49 g/cm3, respectively.
Q.50 At the eutectoid point, the alloy has a and Pin the weight ratio I: 1. The eutectoid point occurs at
composition

(A) 46 wt % Q (B) 47.5 wt % Q (C) 50 wt % Q (D) 52.5 wt % Q

Q.51 At the eutectoid temperature, the ratio of a and P phases in the specimen observed under
microscope is
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.40 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.20
MT 8/16
2011 MT
Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

In an ideal blast furnace, the input and output are as follows:

Input:
Ore : Pure Fez03, no gangue 1357 kg/ THM#
Coke: Pure C, no ash 400kgITHM
Blast air: dry: Oz 293 kglTHM
Nz 964 kglTHM
Flux: nil
Output:
Hot Metal 5 wt% C, rest iron
Slag nil
Top gas CO, CO 2 ,N2

# THM refers to 1 ton hot metal (liquid pig iron); Atomic weights: C-12, 0-16, Fe-56

Q.52 The amount of oxygen in CO and COzleaving with the top gas is

(A) 293 kg (B) 407 kg (C) 700 kg (D) 1050 kg

Q.53 The CO/COz molar ratio in the top gas is

(A) 0.9 (B) 1.0 (C) l.1 (D) 1.5

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

Shear modulus of copper is 45 GPa. Lattice parameter of copper is 3.61 A

Q.54 The magnitude of burgers vector in copper is

(A) 2.54 A (B) 2.39 A (C) 2.20 A (D) 2.18 A

Q.55 The elastic strain energy per unit length of dislocation line in copper is
(A) 34.8 x 10- 10 N (B) 28.8 x 10-10 N (C) 24.8 X 10- 10 N (D) 14.5 x 10- 10 N

MT 9116
2011 MT
General Aptitude (GA) Questions
Q. S6 - Q. 60 carry one mark each.
Q.56 Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given
word:
Frequency
(A) periodicity
(B) rarity
(C) gradualness
(D) persistency

Q.57 Choose the most appropriate word from the options gIven below to complete the following
sentence:
It was her view that the country's problems had been - - - - - - by foreign technocrats,
so that to invite them to come back would be counter-productive.
(A) identified
(B) ascertained
(C) exacerbated
(D) analysed

Q.58 There are two candidates P and Q in an election. During the campaign, 40% of the voters promised
to vote for P, and rest for Q. However, on the day of election 15% of the voters went back on their
promise to vote for P and instead voted for Q. 25% of the voters went back on their promise to vote
for Q and instead voted for P. Suppose, P lost by 2 votes, then what was the total number of voters?
(A) 100 (B) 110 (C) 90 (D) 95

Q.59 The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the
pair that best expresses the relation in the original pair:
Gladiator : Arena
(A) dancer: stage
(B) commuter: train
(C) teacher: classroom
(D) lawyer: courtroom

Q.60 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Under ethical guidelines recently adopted by the Indian Medical Association, human genes
are to be manipulated only to correct diseases for which treatments are
unsatisfactory.
(A) similar
(B) most
(C) uncommon
(D) available

Q. 61 to Q. 6S carry two marks each.

Q.61 Given that fey) = I y 1/ y, and q is any non-zero real number, the value of I f(q) - f(-q) I is
(A) 0 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 2

MT lOll 6
2011 MT
rd
Q.62 Three friends, R, Sand T shared toffee from a bowl. R took 1I3 of the toffees, but returned four to
the bowl. S took 1I4th of what was left but returned three toffees to the bowl. T took half of the
remainder but returned two back into the bowl. If the bowl had 17 toffees left, how many toffees
were originally there in the bowl?
(A) 38 (B) 31 (C) 48 (D) 41

Q.63 The fuel consumed by a motorcycle during a journey while traveling at various speeds is indicated
in the graph below.
120 ~-------------------------------------------.

90
c:
=E ~Q;
0
0-
::J 0-
m m
c: ~ 60
0
'-' Q)
(j) E
::J ..Q
LL g
30

o +-----~------~------~------~----~------~
o 15 30 45 60 75 90
Speed
(kilometres per hour)

The distances covered during four laps of the journey are listed in the table below
Distance Average speed
Lap (kilometres) (kilometres per hour)
p
15 15
Q
75 45
R 40 75
S 10 10
From the given data, we can conclude that the fuel consumed per kilometre was least during the lap
(A)P (B) Q (C)R (D) S

Q.64 The horse has played a little known but very important role in the field of medicine. Horses
were injected with toxins of diseases until their blood built up immunities. Then a serum was
made from their blood. Serums to fight with diphtheria and tetanus were developed this way.
It can be inferred from the passage, that horses were
(A) given immunity to diseases
(B) generally quite immune to diseases
(C) given medicines to fight toxins
(D) given diphtheria and tetanus serums
Q.65 The sum of n terms of the series 4+44+444+ .... is
(A) (4/81) [lOn+l_ 9n - 1]
(B) (4/81) [lOn-l_ 9n - 1]
(C) (4/81) [lOn + 1 _ 9n - 10]
(D)(4/81) [lOn - 9n - 10]

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

MT 11116
 GATE 2011 - Answer Key - Paper : MT

Paper Question no. Key Paper Question no. Key

MT 1 D MT 41 B
MT 2 D MT 42 C
MT 3 A MT 43 A
MT 4 D MT 44 B
MT 5 C MT 45 B
MT 6 C MT 46 A
MT 7 B MT 47 A
MT 8 A MT 48 B
MT 9 A MT 49 A
MT 10 D MT 50 B
MT 11 B MT 51 C
MT 12 D MT 52 C
MT 13 B MT 53 B
MT 14 B MT 54 A
MT 15 C MT 55 D
MT 16 D MT 56 B
MT 17 A MT 57 C
MT 18 B MT 58 A
MT 19 A MT 59 D
MT 20 A MT 60 D
MT 21 C MT 61 D
MT 22 C MT 62 C
MT 23 A/C MT 63 B
MT 24 D MT 64 A
MT 25 D MT 65 C
MT 26 D
MT 27 A
MT 28 C
MT 29 C
MT 30 B
MT 31 D
MT 32 C
MT 33 A
MT 34 B
MT 35 C
MT 36 D
MT 37 D
MT 38 B
MT 39 D
MT 40 A