Study Material SCI
Study Material SCI
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Term-
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SCI
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Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Regional Office
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Content Creators
NAME OF THE NAME OF THE TEACHER NAME OF THE
CHAPTER SCHOOL
CARBON AND ITS Mr. PRAVEEN KUMAR.V (In- KV KANHANGAD
COMPOUNDS Charge)
Ms. SUCHITRA KV KANJIKODE
Mrs.BEENA RANI KV NO.1 KOCHI
PERIODIC Mrs.SWAPNA SASIKALA (In- KV NO.1 KASARAGOD
CLASSIFICATION OF Charge)
ELEMENTS Mr. AJIT KUMAR KV ADOOR SHIFT I
Mrs.SUCHITRA SURENDRAN KV ADOOR SHIFT II
HOW DO Mrs.BINDU VINOD ( In-Charge) KV OTTAPALAM
ORGANISMS Mrs.DEEPA KUMARI KV THRISSUR
REPRODUCE Mrs.SWAPNA SUDHAKARAN KV PORT TRUST
KOCHI
Mrs.SUDHA T V KV PAYYANNUR
HEREDITY AND Mrs. INDIRA T K (In-Charge) KV KAVARATI
EVOLUTION Mr.T.P. Varghese KV ADOOR SHIFT II
Mrs.Sheeja T KV NO.2 CALICUT
ELECTRICITY Mrs. MEERA V (In-Charge) KV OTTAPALAM
Mr. SAJI R KV ADOOR SHIFT I
Mr. SYAM T S KV
RAMAVARMAPURAM
MAGNETIC EFFECT Mrs.SHAMEENA (In-Charge) KV KANNUR
OF CURRENT Mrs.DOLLY DEVASSY KV THRISSUR
Mrs.ANITHA ELIZABETH KV PANGODE
KURIEN
OUR ENVIRONMENT Mr. SANTHOSH KUMAR (IN- KV ADOOR (SHIFT 1)
Charge)
Mrs.RENJINI S KV PORT TRUST
KOCHI
Mrs. VIDYA. V KV CRPF
PALLIPURAM
Mrs.SHEEJA P KV OTTAPALAM
SAMPLE PAPER 2 Mrs.SHEEJA MENON KV KADUTHURUTHY
EVALUATION SCHEME
THEORY
Units Term - I Marks
I Chemical Substances-Nature and Behaviour: Chapter 16
1,2 and 3
II World of Living: Chapter 6 10
III Natural Phenomena: Chapter 10 and 11 14
Units Term - Marks
II
I Chemical Substances-Nature and Behaviour: Chapter 4 10
and 5
II World of Living: Chapter 8 and 9 13
IV Effects of Current: Chapter 12 and 13 12
TERM – II
Theme: Materials
Unit I: Chemical Substances -
Nature and Behaviour
3
Octaves, Mendeleev’s Periodic Table), Modern periodic table, gradation in
properties, valency, atomic number, metallic and non-metallic properties.
Unit II: World of Living.
4
Theme: Natural Resources
Unit: V Natural Resources
Chapter – 15 Our Environment
Our environment: Eco-system, Environmental problems, Ozone
depletion, waste production and their solutions. Biodegradable and non-
biodegradable substances.
*****
Note: Learners are assigned to read the below listed part of Unit V. They can
be encouraged to prepare a brief write up on any one concept of this
Unit in their Portfolio. This may be an assessment for Internal
Assessment and credit may be given (Periodic assessment/Portfolio).
This portion of the Unit is not to be assessed in the year-end
examination.
Chapter – 16 Management of natural resources: Conservation and judicious use of
natural resources. Forest and wild life; Coal and Petroleum conservation. Examples
of people’s participation for conservation of natural resources. Big dams:
advantages and limitations; alternatives, if any. Water harvesting. Sustainability of
natural resources.
5
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
CONCEPT MAPS
CONCEPT AREAS
*REASON FOR FORMATION OF COMPOUNDS
*REASON FOR VERSATILITY OF CARBON
*ALLOTROPES OF CARBON
*ELECTRON DOT STRUCTURE
*BASE FOR CLASSIFICATION AND NOMENCLATURE OF CARBON
COMPOUNDS
CONCEPT MAP 1 : REASON FOR FORMATION OF COMPOUNDS
ELEMENT
ELEMENT B
A
COMBINE
COMPOUNDS
IONIC COVALENT
*charged particles *no charged particles
*ionic bond *covalent bond
*high melting & boiling points *low melting & boiling points
*good conductors of *poor conductors of
Electricity electricity
6
CONCEPT MAP 2 : REASON FOR VERSATILITY OF CARBON
*transparent *opaque
*high melting point
*high melting point
7
*bad conductor of electricity and good conductor of heat
*unreactive *reactive
CARBON
FULLERENES
FULLERENES: - Contains even number of carbon atoms ranging from 60 - 350 or above.
C 60 fullerene is the most stable form in the shape of a football.
ELECTRON DOT STRUCTURES
Covalent compounds are formed by mutual sharing of electrons. They do so as to attain
stability by gaining nearest noble gas electronic configuration. It is expressed as electron
dot structures. In electron dot structures only valance electrons are shown as dots. In a given
molecule, atoms are arranged in such a way that each of the atoms can share electrons to
attain octet(for hydrogen it is duplet).Steps to write electron dot structures(also called Lewis
structure of molecules) is explained below under the sub title ‘KEY POINTS’
molecule Valence Electron dot structure number of bond
electrons pair(Shared pair
Of of electrons)
constituent
atoms
Hydrogen H2 H=1 H:H 1(each hydrogen
atom shares two
electrons to attain
near by noble gas
configuration(He)
Oxygen(O2) O=6 2
Each atom
completes the
octet
8
Nitrogen(N2) N=5 3
Ammonia(NH3) N=5 3
H=1 Hydrogen
completes duplet
and nitrogen
attains octet
Here two
electrons on
nitrogen is not
shared with
others. This
electron pair is
called lone pair.
In this molecule
there is one lone
pair.
Methane(CH4) C=4 4
H=1 There are no lone
pairs in methane
molecule.
9
CONCEPT MAP 5:- BASE FOR CLASSIFICATION AND NAMING OF CARBON
COMPOUNDS
HYDROCARBONS
TYPE SATURATED UNSATURATED
FAMILY ALKANES ALKENES ALKYNES
GENERAL C nH2n+2 CnH2n CnH2n-2
FORMULA
BONDS SINGLE DOUBLE TRIPLE
MEMBERS -CH2- -CH2- -CH2-
DIFFER BY
KEY POINTS
1.Carbon is a non-metal
2. It belongs to 14th group of periodic table.
3.Other elements of the group are silicon, germanium, tin and lead
4.Tin and lead are metals.
5. Atomic number of carbon is 6
6.Its electronic configuration is 2, 4
7. Valency of carbon is 4.
8.Valence electrons of carbon is also 4.
9.Stable isotope of carbon is carbon12.
10.There are 6 protons and 6 neutrons in it.
11.Carbon-14 is another isotope of carbon which has 6 protons and 8 neutrons in its nucleus.
12.Carbon 14 is used to determine the age of fossils (Carbon dating)
10
13.Carbon exists in different physical forms (Allotropes).
14.Main allotropes of carbon are diamond, Graphite, carbon black and fullerenes.
15.Chemical property of elements depends on valence electrons.
16.Carbon forms covalent compounds with other elements.
17.Due to small size and the 4 valence electrons carbon exhibits self-linking
property(catenation).
18.Catenation helps carbon to form long chains and also cyclic compounds.
19.Hydrocarbons are compounds that contains carbon and hydrogen. They are of petroleum
origin. Derivatives of hydrocarbon may contain other elements also.
20.Petroleum is a fossil fuel. Various components of petroleum are separated by the process
of fractional distillation. It is done in petroleum refineries.
21.Hydrocarbons are classified into aliphatic saturated, unsaturated hydrocarbons (open
chain or closed chain).
22.If all the carbon bonds are satisfied by single covalent bonds, they are said to be saturated.
23.In saturated hydrocarbons no more atoms can be ADDED.
24.If at least one carbon-carbon bond in a hydrocarbon is satisfied by double or triple bonds,
they are said to be unsaturated hydrocarbons.
25.Saturated, aliphatic hydrocarbons are called alkanes. They can be expressed by a general
formula CnH2n+2
26.Unsaturated, aliphatic hydrocarbons with at least one carbon double bond are called
Alkenes. They can be expressed by a general formula CnH2n
27.Unsaturated, aliphatic hydrocarbons with at least one carbon triple bond are called
Alkynes. They can be expressed by a general formula CnH2n-2
28.If a hydrocarbon is cyclic, and if it contains carbon-carbon single bond only, it is a cyclic
saturated hydrocarbon. If the ring has double or triple bonds, they are unsaturated cyclic
hydrocarbons.
29.To form a ring at least three carbon atoms are required.
30.Series of hydrocarbons in which the consecutive members differ by an atomic mass of
14u is called homologous series.
31.Members of a given homologous series are referred as homologues.
32.Homologues of a particular series exhibit gradation in physical properties and similarities
in chemical properties. They may have a common method of preparation. A given
11
homologous series can be denoted by a general formula and adjacent members differ by -
CH2-
33.Examples of homologous series: Alkanes, Alkenes, Alkynes, Alcohols, Aldehydes and
carboxylic acids.
34.General formula of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes are CnH2n+2, CnH2n, CnH2n-2 respectively.
35.Cyclo alkanes have the general formula of CnH2n
36.Cyclic compounds are again classified into aromatic hydrocarbons. Benzene with
molecular formula C6H6 is an aromatic compound. It has alternative single and double bonds
in the carbon ring.
4. Three of the four compounds belong to a homologous series. Identify the odd one out.
(a) C4H10 (b)C2H4 (c) C3H8 (d) C5H12
12
7. Which among the following is an unsaturated molecule that has the molecular formula of
a cycloalkane.
a) C3H6 b) C8H18 c) C5H12 d) C3H4
8. which of the following statements is correct about the given electron dot structure
13
13. Which of the statement regarding homologous series is wrong?
a) only alkanes have homologous series
b) consecutive members of a homologous series differ by an atomic mass of 14u
c) A given homologous series can be expressed by a general formula
d) Homologues of a given series show gradation in physical properties.
14.. Which of the following homologue does not belong to a given homologous series
a) C5H12 b)C8H18 c)CH4 d)C2H4
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
2. Assertion(A): Carbon compounds can form chain, branched and ring structures.
Reason (R): Carbon exhibits the property of catenation.
14
Reason (R): It is the same group as present in water, hence water and alcohol have similar
properties.
1. An element of group 14 has two common allotropes, A and B. A is very hard and is bad
conductor of electricity while B is soft to touch and good conductor of electricity. Identify
the element and its allotropes. 3M
3. A hydrocarbon molecule contains 3 carbon atoms. What would be its molecular formula
in case it is (i) an alkane (ii) an alkene (iii) an alkyne? 3M
4. A hydrocarbon molecule has 4 carbon atoms. What would be its molecular formula in
case it is (i) an alkane (ii) an alkene (iii) an alkyne? 3M
10. Atom of an element contains 5 electrons in the valence shell. This element 3M
exists as diatomic molecules, and is a major component of air.
(a) Identify the element.
(b) Show the bond formation between two atoms of this element.
(c) What is the nature of bond formed between the 2 atoms.
11. An element X found in nature in solid form has 4 electrons in valence shell of 5M
its atom. Its allotrope Y has properties that allows it to be used as a dry lubricant,
as also as a part of pencil lead.
(a) Identify the element.
(b) What is this allotrope Y?
15
(c) Write any 1 other use of this allotrope other than those mentioned here.
(d) Predict the ability of this allotrope to conduct electricity. Give reason.
(e) Name two other allotropes of this element other than Y.
12. Two elements A and B have the property C by which they can combine with 5M
more atoms of their same type. Element A is a component of the gas D that is a respiratory
byproduct, while element B is the second most abundant element in
the crust.
(a) Identify the elements A and B.
(b)What is the property C?
(c) Identify the gas D.
(d) Among A and B, which one shows the property C to a greater extent? Why?
13. A and B are two organic compounds with the same molecular formula C5H10. 5M
Write their names and structural formulae in case
(a) A is a cyclic compound.
(b) B is a straight chain compound.
(c) Among A and B, which one will have only single bonds?
(d) Will it be A or B that has both single and double bonds?
14. In the electron dot structure of hydrogen molecules, each individual atom is 2M
not satisfying the octet. Justify.
15. How many saturated hydrocarbons can be made using three carbon atoms? 2M
and hydrogen atoms? Name them.
17. Give the general formula of alkanes. Write the name, structural formula and 3M
physical state of the compound containing:
(i) 3-carbon atoms
(ii) 8-carbon atoms.
16
23. Draw the electron dot structure of O2 and N2 molecules
24. Define homologous series of organic compounds. List its two characteristics. 5M
Write the name and formula of the first member of the series of alkenes.
25. Why homologous series of carbon compounds are so called? Write chemical formula of
two consecutive members of a homologous series and state the part of these compounds that
determines their
(i) physical properties, and (ii) chemical properties. 5M
26. (a) State two characteristic features of carbon which when put together give rise 5M
to a large number of carbon compounds.
(b) Catenation is the ability of an atom to form bonds with other atoms of the
Same element. It is exhibited by both carbon and silicon. Compare the ability
Of catenation of the two elements. Give reasons.
27. a) How can you prove that butene and propane are not in a given homologous 5M
Series?
a) Name the first four homologues of alkene series?
b) How many covalent bonds are there in propene?
17
2. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v 5M
The compounds which have the same molecular formula but differ from each other in
physical or chemical properties are called isomers and the phenomenon is called isomerism.
When the isomerism is due to difference in the arrangement of atoms within the molecule,
without any reference to space, the phenomenon is called structural isomerism. In other
words. Structural isomers are compounds that have the same molecular formula but different
structural formulas, i.e., they are different in the order in which different atoms are linked.
In these compounds, carbon atoms can be linked together in the form of straight chains,
branched chains or even rings.
(i) Which of the following sets of compounds have same molecular formula?
(a) Butane and iso-butane
(b) Cyclohexane and hexene
(C) Propanal and propanone
(d) All of these
3. Read the following and answer any four questions from 1(i) to 1(v). 5M
A series of organic compounds having the same functional group, with similar or almost
identical chemical characteristics in which all the members can be represented by the same
18
general formula and the two consecutive members of the series differ by -CH2 group or 14
mass unit in their molecular formulae is called a homologous series. For example, all the
members of the alcohol family can be represented by the general formula, C nH2n+1OH
where n may have the values 1, 2, 3, etc. The various members of a particular homologous
series are called homologues. The physical properties such as density, melting point, boiling
point, solubility etc. of the members of a homologous series show almost regular variation
in ascending and descending the series.
(i) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of members of a homologous series?
(a) They possess varying chemical properties.
(b) Their physical properties vary in a regular and predictable manner.
(c) Their formulae fit the general molecular formula
(d) Adjacent members differ by one carbon and two hydrogen atoms
(ii) All the members of homologous series of alkynes have the general formula
(a) CnH2n
(b) CnH2n+2
(c)CnH2n-2
(d) CnH2n-4
(iii) Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A common functional group is present in different members of a homologous series.
(b) Two consecutive members of a homologous series differ by a -CH3 group.
(c) The molecular mass of a compound in the series differs by 14 a.m.u. from that of its
neighbour.
(d)All the members of a homologous series have common general methods of
preparation.
(iv) Identify the correct statements:
(a) As the molecular mass increases in any homologous series, a gradation in physical
properties is seen.
(b) The melting and boiling points decrease with increasing molecular mass.
(c) As the molecular mass increases in any homologous series, variation in chemical
properties is observed a gradation in physical properties is seen.
(d) Adjacent members in a homologous series differ by 18u.
19
Answers
SECTION-1(MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS):
1 (b)
Explanation: 4 C-C bonds, 12 C-H bonds = 16 covalent bonds
2 (a)
Explanation: Chemicals in a homologous series have same functional group and
therefore have similar chemical properties.
3 (d)
Explanation: Alkanes are saturated with general formula CnH2n+2
4 (b)
Explanation: C2H4is an alkene (general formula CnH2n). All the other 3 are alkanes
with general formula CnH2n+2
6 c)
7 a) C3H6 propene is an unsaturated molecule and cyclopropane(saturated) also has
the same chemical formula
8 b
9
b
10 c
11 a
12 c
13 a
14 d(others are alkanes)
1 (a)
Explanation: The phenomenon of existence of an element in 2 or more forms which
have different physical structure, but similar chemical properties is called allotropism.
20
2 (a)
Explanation: The unique property of self- linking of carbon atoms through covalent
bonds to from long straight or branched chains and rings of different sizes is called
catenation.
3 (a)
Explanation: In graphite, each carbon atom is covalently bonded with three other
carbon atoms. So, only 3 valence electrons are used in bond formation and the 4 th
valence electron is free to move. Due to the presence of these free electrons (1 per
carbon atom), graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
4 (a)
Explanation: In a diamond crystal, each carbon atom is linked to four other carbon
atoms by covalent bonds. So, all 4 valence electrons are used up in bond formation.
Due to the absence of any free electron, diamond cannot conduct electricity.
5 (a)
Explanation: The various layers formed of flat hexagonal rings of carbon atoms in
graphite are quite far apart so that no covalent bond exists between them. The layers
are held together by weak Van der Waals forces and so can slide over one another,
making them slippery to touch
6 a)
Explanation: Covalent compounds are formed by sharing of electrons. Since there is
no loss or gain of electrons, there is no ion formation.
7 (c)
Explanation: Water does not have -OH as functional group. So, reason statement is
false.
3 Ans. (i) General formula of alkanes = CnH2n+2; if n=3, formula will be C3H8
(ii) General formula of alkanes = CnH2n; So, if n=3, formula will be C3H6
(iii) General formula of alkanes = CnH2n-2. So, if n=3, formula will be C3H4
4 Ans. (i) General formula of alkanes = C H ; if 2n+2 =10, n=4; so, formula will be
n 2n+2
CH
4 10
(ii) General formula of alkanes = C H ; So, if 2n=8, n=4; so, formula will be C H
n 2n 4 8
(iii) General formula of alkanes = C H . So, if 2n-2=6, n=4; so, formula will be C H
n 2n-2 4 6
21
6 a) two electrons(1 pair) b) 0 c) 4(two pairs)
7 Unsaturated molecules have carbon carbon double bonds or triple bonds.Alkenes and
alkynes contain double or triple bond between carbon atoms, hence they are
unsaturated. Unsaturated molecules are those in which more atoms can be
added.(They undergo addition reaction)
10 (a) Nitrogen
(b)
11 (a) Carbon
(b) Graphite
(c) Used for making electrodes in dry cells.
(d) It is a good conductor of electricity.
Reason: In graphite, each carbon atom is covalently bonded with three other carbon
atoms. So, only 3 valence electrons are used in bond formation and the 4 th valence
electron is free to move. Due to the presence of these free electrons (1 per carbon
atom), graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
(e) Diamond, Buckminsterfullerene.
13 (a) A is Cyclopentane.
22
(b) B is Pentene.
(Note: the double bond can be between any 2 of the 5 carbon atoms)
(c) A (Cyclopentane).
(d) B (Pentene)
14 For hydrogen atom as there is only a K shell,it can occupy a maximum of two
electrons.
15 Ans. Two.
Propane and cyclopropane.
16 Due to small size and high effective nuclear charge, carbon cannot lose electrons to
form C4+ ion and as carbon with 6 protons cannot afford four more electrons in its L
shell, it cannot form C4- ions, As carbon cannot form an anion or cation, it cannot
make ionic bonds.
18 Carbon atoms have 4 valence electrons in their valence shell, it needs to gain or lose
4 electrons to attain the noble gas configuration.
(i) It could gain four electrons forming C4- anion. But it would be difficult for the
nucleus with six protons to hold on to ten electrons.
(ii) It could lose four electrons forming C4+ cation. But it would require a large amount
of energy to remove four electrons from its outermost shell. Therefore, carbon shares
its valence electrons to complete its octet with other atoms to form covalent bonds.
19 They have covalent bonds between their atoms therefore they do not form ions. So
they are poor conductors of electric current. These compounds have low melting and
23
low boiling points. They are generally insoluble in water but soluble in the organic
solvents like ether, carbon- tetrachloride, etc.
20. In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms forming a rigid
three dimensional structure.
In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms in the same plane
giving a hexagonal array. One of these bonds is a double bond.
Aldehyde Alkanal
Ketone Alkanone
22.
23
24. The series of organic compounds having same functional group and similar chemical
properties is called homologous series.
Each member differs from successive member by —CH2— group. The difference in
molecular weight between two successive members is 14 u.
Characteristics:
(i) It has same general formula, from which, all members can be derived.
(ii) They have similar chemical properties.
C2H4, CH2=CH2, Ethene is first member of alkene series.
25 The series consists of members of same family with similar physical and chemical
properties, therefore, called homologous series
(i) CH3OH, and (ii) CH3CH2OH are two consecutive members of homologous series.
Alkyl group —CH3 and —CH3CH2 part determines physical properties.
Functional group —OH determines chemical properties of the compounds.
24
26 (a) The size of carbon atom is very small (Atomic radius = 77 pm)
The strength C—C bond is quite high (355 kJ mol-1)
Therefore, any number of carbon atoms can be linked by covalent bonds, This self-
linking property is called catenation.
(b) Carbon shows catenation to large extent as compared to silicon as well as any other
element due to smaller size of carbon. C—C bond is stronger than Si-Si bond because
Si is larger in size, forms weaker bond.
27 a) Propane has the formula C3H8 and butene is C4H8. C3H8 is of the form CnH2n+2
and belongs to alkane homologous series and C4H8 has the general formula
CnH2n+2 which shows that it is an alkene. Hence those molecules are not in the
same homologous series. Mention their chemical formula
b) Ethene(C2H4),Propene(C3H6), Butene(C4H8),Pentene(C5H10)
7 single covalent bond and one double bond
1
CASE STUDY BASED
a) Z is CO2 its electron dot structure is
b)C2H2,ethyne
c) Acetylene
d) 15
e)
C5H10
25
(iv) (C) 2-methylpentane
(v) (b) 3
26
CHAPTER 5
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
CONCEPT MAP
EARLIER ATTEMPTS OF
CLASSIFICATION
CHAOS
METALLIC AND
NON-METALLIC PROPERTIES
27
CHEMICAL REACTIVITY
Limitation: It fails to arrange all the known elements in the form of triads, even having
similar properties.
28
2. NEWLAND’S LAW OF OCTAVES: According to this ‘when elements are placed in
order increasing atomic masses, the physical and chemical properties of every 8th
element are a repetition of the properties of the first element.’
Limitations
• Law of octaves was applicable only up to calcium (only for lighter elements).
• Newland adjusted two elements in the same slot (e.g. Co and Ni), having different
properties. For example; Co and Ni with Fluorine, Chlorine, Bromine and Iodine.
• According to Newland, only 56 elements existed in nature and no more elements would
be discovered in future.
a. Mendeleev’s left vacant places in his table which provided an idea for the discovery of new
elements. Example: Eka-boron (Scandium), Eka-aluminium (Gallium) and Eka-silicon
(Germanium).
b. Mendeleev’s periodic table was predicted properties of several undiscovered elements on the
basis of their position in Mendeleev’s periodic table.
c. It is useful in correcting the doubtful atomic masses of some elements.
29
d. Noble gases could accommodate in the Mendeleev’s periodic table without disturbing the
periodic table after discovery.
(b) Isotopes of an element have different atomic masses. Each isotope was not given separate place
in the periodic table.
Example: Cl-35 and Cl-37.
(c) Position of some elements with lower atomic masses were placed before with higher atomic
mass.
Example: Ni-58.7 before Co-58.9.
30
• Modern periodic table is based on atomic number of elements.
• Atomic number (Z) is equal to the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom of an
element.
• Modern periodic table contains 18 vertical columns known as groups and 7 horizontal rows
known as periods.
• All elements present in a group have the same number of valence electrons.
• The number of shells increases down a group.
• On moving from left to right in a period, the number of valence electrons increases from 1 to
8 in the elements present.
• On moving from left to right in a period, number of shells remains same.
• All the elements of a group of the periodic table have the same number of valence electrons.
• The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a shell depends on the
formula 2n2 where ‘n’ is the number of the given shell from the nucleus.
Eg: No of elements in K shell – 2x12=2
No of elements in L shell – 2 x 22 = 8
31
Trends in Modern Periodic Table:
Periodic properties: Valency, Atomic size, metallic and non-metallic characters, and Chemical
reactivity.
(i) Valency: The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons
present in the outermost shell of its atom (i.e. the combining capacity of an element is known as
its valency).
In Period: On moving from left to right in a period, the valency first increases from 1 to 4 and
then decreases to zero (0).
32
In Groups: On moving from top to bottom in a group, the valency remains same because the
number of valence electrons remain the same.
• Atomic size refers to radius of an atom. It is a distance between the centre of the nucleus
and the outermost shell of an isolated atom.
• In Period: On moving from left to right in a period, atomic size decreases because nuclear
charge increases.
Example: Size of second period elements: Li > Be > B > C > N > O > F
• The atomic size of noble gases in corresponding period is largest
due to presence of fully filled electronic configuration (i.e. complete octet).
• In Group: Atomic size increases down the group because new shells are being
added in spite of the increase in nuclear charge.
Example; Atomic size of first group element: Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs < Fr
Atomic size of 17th group elements: F < Cl < Br < I
• Chemical reactivity of metals increases down the group because tendency to lose electrons
increases.
Example; Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (1st group)
• Chemical reactivity of non-metals decreases down the group because tendency to gain
electrons decreases.
Example: F > Cl > Br > I (17th group)
S No Property Down the group From left to right across the period
1 Valency*(Groups 3 to Remains the same Increases till group 14 and then
12 not included) decreases
2 Atomic size Increases Decreases
3 Metallic character Increases Decreases
4 Non-metallic character Decreases Increases
5 Chemical reactivity Increases for metals Decreases for metals
Decreases for non-metals Increases for non-metals
QUESTION BANK
(i) Multiple choice questions
1. According to Mendeleev’s Periodic Law, the elements were arranged in the periodic table in the
order of
(a) increasing atomic number
(b) decreasing atomic number
(c) increasing atomic masses
(d) decreasing atomic masses
2. Which of the following statement(s) about the Modern Periodic Table are incorrect
(i) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their decreasing atomic
number
(ii) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic
masses
34
(iii) Isotopes are placed in adjoining group (s) in the Periodic Table
(iv) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic
number
(a) (i) only
(b)(i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iv) only
3. On the basis of electronic configuration of 5X, the group number and period of the element ‘X’
is:
(a) Group 15 period 2
(b) Group 13 period 2
(c) Group 19 period 5
(d) Group 13 period 5
4. An element ‘X’ is forming an acidic oxide. Its position in modern periodic table will be
(a) Group 1 and Period 3
(b) Group 2 and Period 3
(c) Group 13 and Period 3
(d) Group 16 and Period 3
5. Elements P, Q, R and S have atomic numbers 11, 15, 17 and 18 respectively. Which of them are
reactive non-metals?
(a) P and Q
(b) P and R
(c) Q and R
(d) R and S
6. Which of the following elements has 2 shells and both are completely filled?
(a) Helium
(b) Neon
(c) Calcium
(d) Boron
7. Which of the following are the characteristics of isotopes of an element?
(i) Isotopes of an element have same atomic masses
(ii) Isotopes of an element have same atomic number
(iii) Isotopes of an element show same physical properties
(iv) Isotopes of an element show same chemical properties
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
35
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
8. Three elements B, Si and Ge are
(a) metals
(b) non-metals
(c) metalloids
(d) metal, non-metal and metalloid respectively
9. Which of the given elements A, B, C, D and E with atomic number 2, 3, 7, 10 and 30
respectively belong to the same period?
(a) A, B, C
(b) B, C, D
(c) A, D, E
(d) B, D, E
10. Where would you locate the element with electronic configuration 2, 8 in the Modern Periodic
Table?
(a) Group 8
(b) Group 2
(c) Group 18
(d) Group 10
11. Newlands relation is called
(a) Musical Law
(b) Law of Octaves
(c) Periodic Law
(d) Atomic Mass Law
12. The properties of Eka-aluminium predicted by Mendeleev are the same as the properties of
later discovered element:
(a) Scandium
(b) Germanium
(c) Gallium
(d) Aluminium
13. The arrangement of elements in the Modem Periodic Table is based on their
(a) increasing atomic mass in the period
(b) increasing atomic number in the horizontal rows
(c) increasing atomic number in the vertical columns
(d) increasing atomic mass in the group
36
14.Element ‘X’ forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with high melting point. X
would most likely be in the same group of the periodic table as:
(a) Si
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Na
15. What is the atomic number of element of period 3 and group 17 of the Periodic Table?
(a) 10
(b) 4
(c) 17
(d) 21
16.An element X from group 2 of the Periodic Table reacts with Y from group 17 to form a
compound. Give the formula of the compound.
(a) XY2
(b) XY
(c) X2Y
(d) (XY)2
17. A metal ‘M’ is in the first group of the Periodic Table. What will be the formula of its oxide?
(a) MO
(b) M2O
(c) M2O3
(d) MO2
18.An element X has mass number 40 and contains 21 neutrons in its atom. To which group of the
Periodic Table does it belong?
(a) Group 1
(b) Group 4
(c) Group 2
(d) Group 3
19.What is the other name for group 18th elements?
(a) Noble gases
(b) Alkali metals
(c) Alkali earth metals
(d) Halogens
20. The atom of an element has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7. To which of the following
elements would it be chemically similar?
(a) 7N
(b) 15P
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(c) 11Na
(d) 9F
Q1 Today, 118 elements are known, the first 94 of which occur in nature. Of the 94 natural
elements, eighty are stable.The periodic table is a graphic description of the periodic law, which
states that the properties and atomic structures of the chemical elements are a periodic function of
their atomic number.
Elements are placed in the periodic table by their electron configurations, which exhibit periodic
recurrences that explain the trends of properties across the periodic table. As we go across a period
from left to right, we add a proton to the nucleus and an electron to the valence shell with each
successive element. As we go down the elements in a group, the number of electrons in the valence
shell remains constant, but the principal quantum number increases by one each time.
An understanding of the electronic structure of the elements allows us to examine some of the
properties that govern their chemical behavior. These properties vary periodically as the electronic
structure of the elements changes.
They are
(1) size (radius) of atoms and ions,
(2) ionization energies, and
(3) electron affinities.
1. Which of the following set of elements is written in order of their increasing metallic character?
(a) Na, Li, K
(b) C, O, N
(c) Mg, Al, Si
(d) Be, Mg, Ca
2. Which of the following is the correct order of the atomic radii of the elements oxygen, fluorine
and nitrogen?
(a) O < F < N
(b) N < F < O
(c) O < N < F
(d) F < O < N
3. What happens to tendency to gain electron in a period?
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(a) Increases,
(b) Decreases,
(c) Remaining same,
(d) First increases then decreases.
4. Which of the following elements would lose an electron easily?
(a) Mg
(b) Na
(c) K
(d) Ca
5. Atomic size decreases from left to right in a period because
(a) Effective nuclear charge increases
(b) Number of shells remains the same
(c) Force of attraction between the nucleus and valence electrons increases
(d) All of these
Q2. Atoms of eight elements A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have the same number of shells but
different number of electrons in their outermost shell. It was found that elements A and G combine
to form an ionic compound. This compound is added in a small amount to almost all vegetable
dishes during cooking. Oxides of elements A and B are basic in nature while those of E and F are
acidic. The oxide of D is almost neutral.
Based on the above information answer the following questions:
(1) To which group or period of the Periodic Table do the listed elements belong?
(2) What would be the nature of compound formed by a combination of elements B and F?
(3) Which two of these elements could definitely be metals?
(4) Which one of the eight elements is most likely to be found in gaseous state at room
temperature?
(5) If the number of electrons in the outermost shell of elements C and G be 3 and 7 respectively,
write the formula of the compound formed by the combination of C and G.
(iii)Assertion Reason type Questions
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(E) Assertion is false but reason is true.
1.Assertion: Properties of an atom and its corresponding ion remains the same.
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Reason: Electronic configurations of both atom and ion remain same.
Reason: The properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
5.Assertion: Isotopes of an element were given separate places in Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Reason : Effective nuclear charge decreases as the atomic number increases resulting
40
DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS OF 1 MARK (PART A- ANSWER THE FOLLOWING
QUESTIONS IN ONE SENTENCE)
1.What is the basis for arrangement of elements in the Mendeleev periodic table?
2.If Lithium, sodium and potassium form a Dobereiner’s triad, and if the atomic masses of Li and
K are 7 and 39, respectively, Predict the atomic mass of sodium?
3.Name the two elements for which temporary names were given as Eka-aluminium and
Eka-silicon and spaces were left by Mendeleev in his table even before their discovery.
4 Write the formulae of chlorides of Eka-silicon and Eka-aluminium, the elements predicted by
Mendeleev.
5 State Mendeleev periodic law
6 How does atomic size vary from left to right in a period?
7. State one reason for placing Mg and Ca in the same group of the periodic table.
8. Name any three metalloids.
9. State the modern periodic law of classification of elements.
10. Write the number of groups or vertical columns and periods or horizontal rows in the modern
periodic table.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [2 MARKS]
11(a). On moving from left to right in the second period when happens to the number of valence
electrons?
(b). How does reactivity of metals vary down a group?
12. The elements of the second period of the Periodic Table are given below: Li Be B C N O F
(a) Give reason to explain why atomic radii decrease from Li to F.
(b) Identify the most (i) metallic and (ii)non-metallic element.
13. The elements of the third period of the Periodic Table are given below:
Na, Mg, Al, Si, P,S, Cl, Ar
(a) Which atom is bigger, Na or Mg? Why?
(b) Identify the most (i) metallic and (ii) non-metallic element in Period 3.
14. Mention three achievements of Mendeleev’s periodic table and one defect.
15.How can the valency of an element be determined if its electronic configuration is known?
What will be the valency of an element of atomic number 9 (nine)?
41
17.The atomic numbers of three elements, X, Y and Z are 9,11 and 17 respectively. Which two of
these elements will show similar chemical properties? Why?
18 How does the metallic character of elements change along a period of the periodic table from
the left to the right and in a group from top to bottom .why?
19. How does the valency of elements vary (a) in going down a group, and (b) in going from left
to right in a period of the periodic table
20(a) In the Mendeleev’s Periodic table, why does Argon with atomic mass 39.9 appear before
Potassium having atomic mass 39.1? (b) Why is atomic number a more important property than
atomic mass?
5 MARK QUESTIONS
21. a. Calcium is an element with atomic number 20.
(i) Is it a metal or non-metal?
(ii) Will its size be more or smaller than that of potassium?
(iii) Write the formula of its chloride.
b. An element ‘X’ has mass number 35 and number of neutrons 18. Write atomic number and
electronic configuration of ‘X’. Also write group number, period number and valency of ‘X’.
22. From the part of the periodic table given, answer the following questions.
1 18
14 16 17
Lithium 2 13 15 Neon
Carbon Oxygen L
X
S P Q
Y R
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Z
T
23. Two elements X and Y belong to group 1 and 2 respectively in the same period of periodic
table. Compare them with respect to:
(i) the number of valence electrons in their atoms;
(ii) their valencies;
(iii) metallic character;
(iv) the sizes of their atoms;
(v) the formulae of their oxides;
(vi) the formulae of their chlorides.
24. An element is placed in 2nd Group and 3rd Period of the Periodic Table, burns in presence of
oxygen to form a basic oxide.
(a) Identify the element
(b) Write the electronic configuration
(c) Write the balanced equation when it burns in the presence of air
(d) Write a balanced equation when this oxide is dissolved in water
(e) Draw the electron dot structure for the formation of this oxide
25. An element X (atomic number 17) reacts with an element Y (atomic number 20) to form a
divalent halide.
(a) Where in the periodic table are elements X and Y placed?
(b) Classify X and Y as metal (s), non-metal (s) or metalloid (s)
(c) What will be the nature of oxide of element Y? Identify the nature of bonding in the compound
formed
(d) Draw the electron dot structure of the divalent halide
26. Atomic number of a few elements are given below 10, 20, 7, 14
43
(a) Identify the elements
(b) Identify the Group number of these elements in the Periodic Table
(c) Identify the Periods of these elements in the Periodic Table
(d) What would be the electronic configuration for each of these elements?
(e) Determine the valency of these elements
27. Mendeleev ′ predicted the existence of certain elements not known at that time and named two
of them as Eka-silicon and Eka-aluminum.
(a) Name the elements which have taken the place of these elements
(b) Mention the group and the period of these elements in the Modern Periodic Table.
(c) Classify these elements as metals, non-metals or metalloids
(d) How many valence electrons are present in each one of them?
28. (a) Electropositive nature of the element(s) increases down the group and decreases across the
period
(b) Electronegativity of the element decreases down the group and increases across the period
(c) Atomic size increases down the group and decreases across a period (left to right)
(d) Metallic character increases down the group and decreases across a period.
On the basis of the above trends of the Periodic Table, answer the following about the elements
with atomic numbers 3 to 9.
(a) Name the most electropositive element among them
(b) Name the most electronegative element
(c) Name the element with smallest atomic size
(d) Name the element which is a metalloid
(e) Name the element which shows maximum valency
29. An element X which is a yellow solid at room temperature shows catenation and allotropy. X
forms two oxides which are also formed during the thermal decomposition of Ferrous sulphate
crystals and are the major air pollutants.
(a) Identify the element X
(b) Write the electronic configuration of X
(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the thermal decomposition of Ferrous sulphate
crystals?
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(d) What would be the nature (acidic/ basic) of oxides formed?
(e) Locate the position of the element in the Modern Periodic Table.
30. An element X of group 15 exists as diatomic molecule and combines with hydrogen at 773 K in
presence of the catalyst to form a compound, ammonia which has a characteristic pungent smell.
(a) Identify the element X. How many valence electrons does it have?
(b) Draw the electron dot structure of the diatomic molecule of X. What type of bond is formed in
it?
(c) Draw the electron dot structure for ammonia and what type of bond is formed in it?
31. a) In this ladder (Figure 5.2) symbols of elements are jumbled up. Rearrange these symbols of
elements in the increasing order of their atomic number in the Periodic Table.
(b) Arrange them in the order of their group also.
45
They belong to 3rd period of the Periodic Table because AG is NaCl, added in a small amount
to almost all vegetable dishes during cooking and Na and Cl belong to 3rd period.
2. Ionic compounds will be formed because ‘B’ is metal and ‘F’ is non-metal. ‘B’ can lose two
electrons and ‘F’ can gain two electrons.
3. A and B are definitely metals as they form basic oxides.
4. G and H are gaseous at room temperature.
5. CG3 is the formula of the compound formed by combination of C and G.
Answers to section (iii) – Assertion Reason based qns
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B C A E C D A C A
Section (iv) – one mark questions (Descriptive)
1. Increasing order of atomic mass and similarity in chemical properties
2. Sum of atomic masses of extreme elements=7+39=46. Average at mass =46/2 =23.So sodium
will have atomic mass =23
3.Gallium and Germanium
4. Formula of Chloride of Eka Silicon is GeCl4 and that of Eka Aluminium is GaCl3
5. Properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic masses.
6.Atomic size decreases from left to right in a period.
7. They have same number of valence electrons and similar chemical properties.
8. Boron, Silicon and Germanium.
9. It states that “the properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.”
10. There are 18 vertical columns or groups and seven horizontal rows or periods in the modern
periodic table.
Section (iv) – 2 marks questions (Descriptive)
11 a. Number of valence electrons increases from left to right in the second period
b. Reactivity of metals goes on increasing down a group.
12 (a) It is because nuclear charge increases due to increase in atomic number, therefore, force of
Attraction between nucleus and valence electrons increases, i.e. effective nuclear charge
increases, hence atomic radii decrease from Li to F.
(b) (i) Most metallic element is ‘Li’ as it can lose electrons easily due to larger atomic size.
(ii) Most non-metallic element is ‘F’ because it can gain electrons easily due to smallest atomic
size.
13. (a) Sodium is bigger than magnesium as it has lesser nuclear charge so there is less force of
attraction between nucleus and valence electrons and less effective nuclear charge. It is, therefore,
bigger in size.
(b) (i) Sodium is the most metallic as it can lose electrons easily due to its larger atomic size,
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(ii) Chlorine is the most non-metallic element because it can gain electrons easily due to its
smallest atomic size.
14. Merits (a) It could classify all the elements discovered at that time.
(b) It helped in discovery of new elements.
(c) It helped in correction of atomic mass of some of the elements.
Defect;1. All isotopes of an element do not find position in this table.
18.The metallic character goes on decreasing along a period from left to right because atomic size
goes on decreasing therefore, tendency to lose electrons decreases. But in a group from top to
bottom metallic character goes on increasing due to increase in size from top to bottom giving a
tendency to lose electrons which are loosely held.
20.(a).It is because Mendeleev arranged elements giving more importance to the similarity in
chemical properties of an element with the remaining members of the group .So Argon ,being an
inert gas was placed along with inert gases and Potassium being an alkali metal is placed along
with the other alkali metals. So Argon and Potassium are examples of anomalous pair
47
(b)Atomic number gives us the electronic configuration which gives the number of valence
electron which decides the chemical nature of the element.
21. a.The electronic configuration of calcium (Z = 20) is 2, 8, 8, 2.
(i) Since it has only two valence electrons, it is present in group 2. It is a metal.
(ii) Both potassium (K) and calcium (Ca) are present in fourth period. Since atomic size decreases
along a period, calcium is smaller in size.
(iii) The valency of calcium is 2. The formula of its chloride is CaCl2.
b. Atomic number of the element ‘X’ = 35 – 18 = 17
Gp17, period-3
22. (a) The element Z is the most reactive metal.
(b) The elements are present in group 17. The family is that of halogens.
(c) One element belonging to group 2 is calcium (Ca) while one present in group 15 is nitrogen
(N).
(d) The element argon (Ar) is also present in group 18.
(e) The element is silicon (Si)
23. X and Y belong to same period, X belongs to group ‘1’. Y belongs to group ‘2’.
24.
48
25.
26.
49
(d) Boron (5)
(e) Carbon (6). Its valency is 4.
29.
30
31. (a) H, He, Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F, Ne, Mg, Al, Si, P, S, Cl, Ar, K, Ca
(b) Group 1:H, Li, Na, K
Group 2: Be, Mg, Ca
Group 13: B. Al
Group 14: C, Si
Group 15: N. P
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Group 16: 0, S
Group 17: F. U
Group 18: He, Ne, Ar
*******************************************
51
CHAPTER: 8 HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE
CONCEPT MAP
REPRODUCTION
DIVISION IN
ASEXUAL SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
BINARY FISSION ANY PLANE
REPRODUCTION
MALE FEMALE
BIRTH CONTROL MEASURES
BARRIER METHOD
TESTES OVARY
EG: CONDOMS
SCROTUM OVIDUCT/FALLOPIAN
TUBE
VAS DEFERENS
CHEMICAL METHOD
UTERUS
SEMINAL VESICLES
EG: HORMONAL PILLS,
CERVIX
PROSTATE GLAND COPPER-T/LOOP
VAGINA
SURGICAL METHOD
URETHRA
EG: MALE –VASECTOMY
FEMALE - TUBECTOMY
52
REPRODUCTION
ASEXUAL SEXUAL
PLANTS ANIMALS
IN PLANTS
IN ANIMALS
BUDDING
FEMALE MALE
SPORE
FORMATION
REGENERATION TESTIS
OVARY
VEGETATIVE
PROPAGATION STAMEN
SPERM
FISSION CARPEL
EGG
FRAGMENTATION
MULTIPLE OVARY
BINARY POLLEN
ZYGOTE
ZYGOTE
EMBRYO
Reproduction is the process by which living organisms produce new individuals similar to
themselves. It ensures continuity of life on earth.
Nucleus of the cell contains DNA (Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid) which is the heredity material
DNA replicates and forms new cells causing variation. So, these new cells will be similar but
may not be identical to original cell.
Variations are useful for the survival of the individual and species over time as well as basis
for evolution.
Types of Reproduction
(a) Asexual Reproduction
• A single individual give rise to new individual.
• Gametes are not formed.
• New individual is identical to parent.
• It is extremely useful as a means of rapid multiplication.
• Adopted by lower organisms.
(b) Sexual Reproduction
• Two individuals i.e., one male and one female are needed to give rise to new
individual.
53
• Gametes are formed.
• New individual is genetically similar but not identical to parents.
• It is useful to generate more variations in species.
• Adopted by higher organisms.
Asexual Reproduction
Fission
• Fission is an asexual reproduction that is common in most of the unicellular organisms.
The parent cell divides into daughter cells
• When the fission results in two daughter cells, it is binary fission (e.g. paramecium).
When fission results in many daughter cells, it is called multiple fission (e.g.
Plasmodium).
Planes of fission may be different for different organisms.
(i) Fragmentation: The organism breaks-up into smaller pieces; upon maturation, each
piece develops into new individual. E.g., Spirogyra.
Fragmentation in Spirogyra
(ii) Regeneration: If an organism is somehow cut or broken into many pieces, each piece
grows into a complete organism. E.g., Planaria, Hydra.
MCQ
1) In the list of organisms given below, those that reproduce by the asexual method are
(i) banana
(ii) dog
(iii) yeast
(iv) Amoeba
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2) Offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction have greater similarity among
themselves because
(i) asexual reproduction involves only one parent
(ii) asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(iii) asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction
(iv) asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction
3) The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is
called
(a) budding
(b) reduction division
(c) binary fission
(d) multiple fission
DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS
4) Can you consider cell division as a type of reproduction in unicellular organism? Give one
reason.
6) Colonies of yeast fail to multiply in water, but multiply in sugar solution. Give one reason
for this.
ASSERTION REASON :
Click Here!
8) Assertion(A) : Asexual reproduction is a primitive type of reproduction.
Reason (R) : Asexual reproduction involves only mitotic cell division.
ANSWERS
4) Yes, we can because in unicellular animals there is only one cell, when it will divide to
form a new cell and hence new organisms.
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5) A clone refers to the offspring of an organism which is formed through asexual
reproduction. Since they possess exact copies of the DNA from their parent, so clones exhibit
remarkable similarity.
6) Colonies of yeast fail to multiply in water but multiply in sugar solution because sugar
provides energy for sustaining all life activities in yeasts. In water, it fails to reproduce
because of inadequate energy in its cells.
(ii)It also helps organisms to adapt to their environment as well as to changes which do occur
in the environment.
8)B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
BUDDING
Budding in biology, a form of asexual reproduction, in which a new individual develops from
some generative anatomical point of the parent organism. In some species buds may be
produced from almost any point of the body, but in many cases budding is restricted to
specialized areas.
E.g.: Hydra, for reproduction through budding, uses regenerative cells where a bud expands
as an outgrowth because of repeated cell division at one specific location. These buds then
develops into new small individuals, which when completely matures, detach from the parent
body.
VEGETATIVE PROPAGATION
A mode of reproduction in plants in which a vegetative part, like the stem, root, leaves
develop into a new plant under favourable conditions. It is also considered as a type of
asexual reproduction as long as one parent is involved.
The main advantage of vegetative propagation is that the new plants contain the
genetic materials of only one parent so; they are essentially clones of the parent plant. This
can also help to maintain consistent quality and taste in products made from plants or crops.
This process is very helpful in case of plants where they have lost the capacity to produce
seeds.
E.g.: Rose (stem, branch), Bryophyllum (leaves) etc.
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Few more examples in Vegetative Propagation
SPORE FORMATION
Spore, a reproductive cell, capable of developing into a new individual without fusion with
another reproductive cell. Spores are agents of asexual reproduction, whereas gametes are
agents of sexual reproduction. Spores are produced by bacteria, fungi, algae and Plants.
Rhizopus (Bread mould) grows as filamentous, branched structure. The
filamentous structure that grows above it is called Hyphae, which are not the reproductive
parts. Hyphae give rise to a Globular structure called Sporangia, which contains spores. The
spores are covered by thick wall that protect them from any adverse conditions and the spores
are lighter so they get dispersed to another places easily. It will provide better chances for
them to survive and grow up.
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
It is the production of new organisms by the combination of genetic information of two
individuals of different sexes. In most species the genetic information is carried on
chromosomes in the nucleus of the reproductive cells called Gametes (haploid) which then
fuse to form a Zygote (diploid). The zygote develops into a new individual. Sexual
reproduction is the dominant form of reproduction in living beings.
WHY THE SEXUAL MODE OF REPRODUCTION?
Sexual reproduction causes more viable variations due to the following reasons:-
* Error in copying DNA, which are not highly significant
* Random segregation of Father and Mother Chromosomes at the time of Gamete
formation
* It’s a source of genetic variation among a population of organisms.
* It gives rise to individuals more adapted to the environment
* It helps in survival of species
* It helps in evolution of organisms.
During sexual reproduction Meiosis generates genetic variations in offspring because the
process randomly shuffles genes across chromosomes and randomly separates half of those
chromosomes into each gamete which fuses to form the new organism (zygote)
In lower form of multicellular organisms there doesn’t appear much difference
between the germ cells but in higher multicellular organisms the difference exist, one germ
cell will be smaller and motile while the other will be storing food in it and non-motile. In
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male body the germ cells are called Sperm cells and in females Ova, both having half set of
chromosomes.
QUESTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) Variations occur as a result of
(a) Asexual reproduction
(b) Vegetative propagation
(c) Sexual reproduction
(d) Regeneration
2) The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species remains
constant due to
(a) doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) halved of chromosomes during gamete formation
(c) doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation
(d) halving of chromosomes after gamete formation
3) Factors responsible for the rapid spread of bread mould on slices of bread are
(i) large number of spores
(ii) availability of moisture and nutrients in bread
(iii) presence of tubular branched hyphae
(iv) formation of round shaped sporangia
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
5) In rhizopus tubular structure bearing sporangia at their tips are called __________.
(a) Filaments
(b) Rhizoids
(c) roots
(d) Hyphae
6) Cloning is a mode of :
(a) sexual reproduction
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) both a and b
(d) none
7) Vegetative propagation refers to formation of new plants from———-.
(a) stem, roots, flowers
(b) stem, roots, leaves
(c) stem, flowers, fruit
(d) stem, leaves, flowers
8) Priya was writing some statements; help her to choose the correct one. m:
(a) The existing organisms are called parent and the new organisms produced by them
are called offspring.
(b) The production of new organisms from a single parent without the involvement of
sex cells or gametes is called sexual reproduction.
(c) The production of a new organism from two parents by making use of their sex
cells or gametes is called asexual reproduction.
(d) All the above
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9) In the last year board examination Rahul was asked a question where he had to choose the
statement which was /were incorrect. Will you be able to answer the questionnswer This
Question?
(a) In vegetative propagation, new plants are obtained from the parts of old plants
without the help of any reproductive organs.
(b) It is necessary to plant the whole potato tuber in the ground to produce the new
potato plants.
(c) Bryophyllum plants can be reproduced by vegetative reproduction by using either a
piece of its stem or its leaves.
(d) The green grass grows in the fields after range from the dry, old stems of grass
plants present in the fields, by the method of vegetative propagation.
10) Plants like banana, rose ,jasmine ,orange have lost the capacity to produce
(a) Seeds
(b) Buds
(c) Flowers
(d) Roots
Descriptive questions
ANSWERS:
1. (c), 2. (b) , 3. (c) , 4. (a) , 5. (d) , 6. (b) ,7. (b) , 8. (a) ,9. (b), 10. (a)
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14. a) A spore is a small microscopic structure with a thick wall.
b) Spores are generally formed in a structure called sporangium which reassembles formed in
a structure called sporangium which resemble blob on – a – stick.
c) Sporangia are formed at the tip of erect fungal hypha.
d) In each sporangium, a nucleus divides several times producing a large number of nuclei.
Nuclei get surrounded by a little cytoplasm and develop into thick – walled cells or spores.
e) The wall of sporangium breaks to release the spores in air.
f) On germination in the presence of moist surface, each spore gives rise to a new organism.
15. DNA contains information for the inheritance of features from parents to next generation.
DNA presents in nucleus of cells are the information source for making protein. If
information is different, different protein will be made that lead to altered body design.
16. In asexual reproduction very little variation occurs within generation. Asexual
reproduction has a lesser significance for evolution of species.
Asexual reproduction involves only a single individual. It does not require two sexes.
Sexual reproduction involves two different individuals, male and female sexes. The offspring
is produced due to fission of male and female gametes.
17. The various types of vegetative propagation are
• Cutting
• Layering
• Grafting
• Parthenogenesis
• Micro-propagation in vitro
• Grafting
• It is a method in which two parts of different plants are joined together in
such a way that they unite and grow as one plant.
• The portion of the plant that is grafted onto another plant is known as the scion, and the
plant on which grafting is performed is known as the stock.
• The stock and the scion are tied in such a way that the cambium of the scion and the stock
come in contact with each other.
• The stock is so chosen that it possesses qualities like disease resistance, high water
absorbing capacity, deep penetrating roots for a firm hold, etc. The scion is so chosen
that it possesses qualities like high yield of pulp or seeds (as desired) from a single fruit,
etc.
• For example, citrus-root stock is used for a variety of grafts like sweet orange, lime, grape,
etc.
21.Which of the following plants can propagate vegetatively through leaves like Bryophyllum?
(a) Guava (b) Begonia (c) Ginger (d) Mint
22.Do you think any other vegetative part of Bryophyllum can help in propagation? If yes, then
which part?
(a) Roots (b) Stems (c) Flowers (d) Fruits
23.Which of the following plant is artificially propagated (vegetatively) by stem cuttings in
horticultural practices?
(a). Potato (b) Snake plant (c) Rose (d) Water hyacinth
ANSWERS:
18. (c) , 19. (a) 20. (d), 21. (b), 22. (b), 23. (c).
• The typical structure of flower contains essential whorls and non-essential whorls.
• Sepals and Petals are called non-essential whorls as they do not directly take part in
reproduction.
• Sepals protect the inner delicate whorl during bud condition and also perform
photosynthesis if they are green in colour.
• Petals, when they are coloured, attract insects for pollination.
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• Male reproductive structure is called a stamen and consists of anther and filament.
• Anther produces haploid pollen grains.
• Female reproductive structure is called pistil and consists of stigma, style and ovary.
STRUCTURE OF A FLOWER
Pollination: The process of transfer of pollen grains from an anther to the stigma of the
flower is pollination. Two types of pollination are:
(i) Self-pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same
flower or another flower of the same plant.
(ii) Cross-pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another
flower or another flower of a different plant of the same species. It generally takes place with
the help of some agents like insects, birds, wind and water.
Fertilization
Fusion of male and female gametes is known as fertilization.
• The male germ-cell produced by pollen grain fuses with the female gamete present in
the ovule. This fusion of the germ-cells or fertilisation gives us the zygote which is
capable of growing into a new plant.
• After fertilization, ovary becomes fruit and ovules turn into seeds. All other parts
wither away.
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Post-fertilisation changes: After fertilisation the following changes takes place in the flower.
Zygote divides several times and forms an embryo inside the ovule.
• The ovule develops a tough coat and changes into the seed.
• The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.
• Petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma shrivel and fall off.
Seed and its parts: The advantage of seed is that it protects the future plant i.e. embryo.
Seed has two parts: Cotyledons and Embryo Cotyledons store food for the future plant.
Embryo has two parts: plumule and radicle. Plumule develops into shoot and radicle develops
into root.
The process of development of a seedling from the embryo under appropriate conditions is
known as germination.
(iv)Associated glands
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Seminal vesicles and prostate gland add their secretion to the sperms. This fluid provide
nourishment to sperms and make their transport easy.
Sperm along with secretion of glands form semen.
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Questions
MCQ
2.Along the path of the vas-deferens the secretions of which gland provide
nutrition to the sperms?
(a) Prostate glands (b) Seminal vesicles(c) Scrotum(d) Urinary bladder
1.Define the terms unisexual and bisexual giving one example of each.
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(ii)Part that transfers male gametes to the female gametes.
(iii) Part that is sticky to trap the pollen grain.
(iv) Part that develops into a fruit.
Answers MCQ
1.c. pollination
2.a. prostrate glands
3.c.ovary
4. pollination, fertilisation,embryo, seedling
5.b.pollengrain on upper surface of stigma and ovule.
Descriptive Questions
1.The flowers which contain only the male or female reproductive organs are
called unisexual flowers. They are called incomplete flowers. To reproduce they
undergo cross-pollination. Examples: Papaya, White mulberry and Watermelon.
The flowers which contain both male and female reproductive organs are
known as full or bisexual flowers. They will self-pollinate themselves.
Examples: Tulip, Sunflower and Lily.
2.a and b
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C. Zygote is formed when male gamete fuses with the egg.
3.
4 i)anther
ii)pollen tube
iii) stigma
iv)ovary
5. Female reproductive part of a flower is pistil. Ovary develops into fruit and
ovule into seed. Male germ cell is present in pollen grain and female germ cell
in the ovary.
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ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
2. Assertion (A): Unisexual flowers have separate male and female flowers
whereas a typical monocot embryo comprises an embryonal axis with single
cotyledon.
Reason (R): Cucumber, pumpkin and water melon are example of unisexual
flowers.
(ii) Select the correct sequence of acts that leads to pregnancy in a female.
A. Fertilisation of egg
B. Ovulation
C. Formation of zygote
D. Implantation
(a) (b)
D ⇒⇒C ⇒⇒B ⇒⇒A B⇒⇒ A⇒⇒C⇒⇒D
(c) (d)
A ⇒⇒ B⇒⇒ C⇒⇒ D D⇒⇒ C⇒⇒ A ⇒⇒B
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(iii) How is a zygote different from embryo?
(a) Zygote is formed by repeated division of embryo
(b) Zygote is formed by fusion of sperm and egg whereas embryo is formed by
fusion of zygote with other zygote
Answers
2. Answer: both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A.
• I-d
• II-b
• III-c
• IV-d
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• Two ovaries: Ovaries produce Ovum. When a girl is born, the ovaries
already contain thousands of immature eggs. On reaching puberty, some of
these start maturing. One egg is produced every month by one of the ovaries.
• Oviduct / Fallopian Tube: The egg is carried from the ovary to the womb
(uterus) through a thin oviduct or fallopian tube. It is the site for fertilization.
• Uterus: The two oviducts unite into an elastic bag-like structure known as
the uterus. The uterus opens into the vagina through the cervix.
FERTILISATION:
• The sperms enter through the vaginal passage during sexual intercourse.
• They travel upwards and reach the oviduct /Fallopian tube where one
sperm fuse with the egg.
IMPLANTATION:
The fertilized egg, the zygote, gets attached in the lining of the uterus, and starts
dividing.
GESTATION:
The period from fertilization to the parturition.
The development of the child inside the mother’s body takes approximately
nine months 280-290 days.
PREPARATION OF UTERUS:
• Uterus prepares itself every month to receive and nurture the growing
embryo.
• The lining thickens and is richly supplied with blood to nourish the growing
embryo.
PLACENTA:
• The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special
tissue called placenta.
• This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the
embryo’s side of the tissue.
• On the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This
provides a large surface area.
Functions of Placenta:
1. Transport glucose (nutrients) from the mother to the embryo.
2. Transport oxygen from the mother’s body to the embryo.
3. The developing embryo generate waste substances which are removed by
transferring them into the mother’s blood through the placenta.
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Parturition: The child is born as a result of rhythmic contractions of the
muscles in the uterus.
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
The process of sexual maturation is gradual and takes place along with general
body growth
Some degree of sexual maturation does not necessarily mean that the body or
the mind is ready for sexual acts or for having and bringing up children.
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CONTRACEPTIVE METHODS/BIRTH CONTROL METHODS:
The sexual act always has the potential to lead to pregnancy. Pregnancy will
make major demands on the body and the mind of the woman, and if she is not
ready for it, her health will be adversely affected. Therefore, many ways have
been devised to avoid pregnancy.
• For a healthy society, the female-male sex ratio must be maintained. Because
of reckless female foeticides, child sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate.
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PRENATAL SEX DETERMINATION:
• Prenatal sex determination has been prohibited by law. This is due to the
misuse of scanning.
QUESTION ANSWERS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
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6) In case the ova does not fertilise which of the following events will take
place?
a) Menstruation
b) Pregnancy
c) Implantation
d) ovulation
DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS
7) Name the male and female gametes in animals. What is fertilization and
where does it take place in human females ?
8) Surgical methods can be used to create a block in the reproductive system
for contraceptive purposes. Name such parts where blocks are created in
(a) Males and Females.
(b) State any two reasons for using contraceptive devices.
9) Prenatal sex determination has been prohibited by law. State two reasons.
10) What is placenta? State its two roles during pregnancy.
11) (a) Name the parts 1 to 5 of human female reproductive system.
(b) Name the part in which fertilization takes place in the system
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CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all people.
The rate of birth and death in a given population will determine its size.
Reproduction is the process by which organisms increase their population. The
process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual and takes place while
general body growth is still going on. Some degree of sexual maturation does not
necessarily mean that the mind or body is ready for sexual acts or for having and
bringing up children. Various contraceptive devices are being used by human
beings to control the size of population.
1) What are common signs of sexual maturation in boys
a) Broadening of shoulders
b) Development of mammary glands
c) Broadening of waist
d) High pitch of voice
2) Common sign of sexual maturation in girls is
a) Low pitch voice
b) Appearance of moustaches and beard
c) Development of mammary glands
d) Broadening of shoulders
3) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body
a) Condoms
b) Diaphragms
c) Oral pills
d) Both a) and b)
4) What should be maintained for healthy society
a) Rate of birth and death rate
b) Male and female sex ratio
c) Child sex ratio
d) None of these
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ANSWERS :
MCQ
1. B) Condoms
2. A) Placenta
3. C) Oviduct
4. C) Ovulation
5. B) Hepatitis
6. A) Menstruation
DESCRIPTIVE
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ASSERTION REASON
Answer -c A is true but R is false.
Answer Option A is correct
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CHAPTER -9 HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION (CONCEPT MAP)
HEREDITY
VARIATION
INHERITANCE
INHERITED TRAITS
MENDEL'S LAWS OF
INHERITANCE
Law of Law of
dominance Segregation
Law of Independent
Assortment
SEX DETERMINATION
Non genetic
Genetic
Chromosomes Environmental Individual
In human beings
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HEREDITY
KEY POINTS
Heredity – Transmission of characters from one generation to another or from
parents to offspring.
Variation – The occurrence of small differences or changes among the
individuals of a species is called variation.
Sexually reproducing individuals have two copies of genes for the same trait.
Traits - characteristic features of an organism, manifested in a physical form
that is visible or in a physiological aspect of the organism.
Dominant traits - The traits that express themselves in an organism in every
possible combination and can be seen are called Dominant traits.
Recessive traits - A trait which is not expressed in the presence of a dominant
allele is known as recessive.
Gene – It is the basic unit of inheritance. It consists of a sequence of DNA,
which is the genetic material. Genes can mutate and can take two or more
alternative forms.
Alleles – The alternative forms of genes. They affect the same characteristics or
traits in alternate forms. They are located on the same place of the chromosome.
Homozygous – Each organism has two alleles for every gene (Each
chromosome has one each). In homozygous, both the alleles are same. For
Example, “TT” is the homozygous expression for tallness trait.
Heterozygous – If the two alleles are different from each other, then they are
heterozygous in nature. For Example, “Tt” is the heterozygous expression for
tallness trait.
Chromosomes – These are thread-like structures made up of nucleic acids
(DNA) and proteins. They are mostly found in the nucleus of the cells. They
carry the hereditary or genetic information in the form of genes.
Genotype – It is the complete heritable genetic identity of an organism. It is the
set of alleles that are carried by the organism. It also includes non-expressed
alleles.
Phenotype – It is the description of the actual physical characteristics of an
organism or the expressed form of the genotype.
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Monohybrid cross - When only one character is considered while crossing two
organisms, then such a cross is known as monohybrid cross.
Dihybrid cross - When two characters are considered while crossing two
organisms, then such a cross is known as a dihybrid cross.
Laws of Mendel
•Law of Dominance says that a gene has two contrasting alleles and one always
expresses itself in the organism.
•Law of Segregation says that traits get segregated completely during the
formation of gametes without any mixing of alleles.
•Law of Independent Assortment says that the traits can segregate
independently of different characters during gamete formation.
Sex determination
The process of determining the sex of an individual, based on the composition
of the genetic material is called sex determination. In different animals, sex of
an embryo is determined by different factors.
In humans, sex determination happens on the basis of the presence or absence of
Y chromosome. XX is female and XY is male
An ovum always contains X chromosome. An ovum, upon fusion with Y
chromosome containing sperm, gives rise to a male child and upon fusion with
X containing sperm gives rise to a girl child.
Multiple choice questions
1. ___ is the observable set of characteristics of an organism
a. Phenotype
b. Genes
c. DNA
d. All of the above
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3. The process where characteristics are transmitted from parent to offspring is
called:
a. Variation
b. Heredity
c. Gene
d. Allele
5. If a round, green seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow
seeded pea plant (rr YY), the seeds produced in F1 generation are
(a) round and yellow
(b) round and green
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow
6. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop
into a
(a) boy
(b) girl
(c) X- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) either boy or girl
7. Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with
wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow
(RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the F2 progeny will have new
combination of characters. Choose the new combination from the following:
(i) Round, yellow, (ii) Round, green
(iii) Wrinkled, yellow (iv) Wrinkled, green
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
8. In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). The ratio of
pure tall plants to short plants in F2 is
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
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(c) 1 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 9 : 4 : 2 : 1
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15.The exchange in genetic material takes place in _____.
A) Vegetative propagation
B) Asexual reproduction
C) sexual reproduction
D) budding
16. The maleness of a child is determined by ___.
A) X chromosome in zygote
B) Y chromosome in zygote
C) The cytoplasm of germ cells which determines the sex
D) Sex is determined by chance
17. If a normal cell of human body contains 46 pairs of chromosomes then the
numbers of chromosomes in a sex cell of a human being is most likely to be:
(a) 60
(b) 23
(c) 22
(d) 40
18. What will be the number of chromosomes present in each gamete
produced by the plants if the palisade cells of a species of plant contain 28
chromosomes in all?
(a) 56
(b) 28
(c) 14
(d) 4
19. The following results were obtained by a scientist who crossed the
F1 generation of pure-breeding parents for round and wrinkled seeds.
Dominants trait Recessive trait No. of F2 offspring
Round seeds Wrinkled seeds 7524
From these results, it can be concluded that the actual number of round seeds
he obtained was:
(a) 1881
(b) 22572
(c) 2508
(d) 5643.
20. Which of the following determines the sex of a child?
(a) The length of the mother’s pregnancy
(b) The length of time between ovulation and copulation
(c) The presence of an X chromosome in an ovum
(d) The presence of a Y chromosome in a sperm
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21.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) type questions.
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
I. Assertion(A) : Variations are seen in offspring produced by sexual and
asexual reproduction.
Reason (R) : DNA molecule generated by replication is not exactly identical to
original DNA.
II. Assertion : When pea plants (pure line) having round yellow seeds are
crossed with pure line plants having wrinkled green seeds, then all pea
plants obtained in F1, generation bear wrinkled green seeds.
Reason: Round and yellow seeds are dominant to wrinkled and green seeds.
III. Assertion :Selfing of a plant for several generations helps plant breeders to
obtain pure breeding varieties.
Reason: Pure breeding plants are heterozygous for many traits.
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the traits − blood group A or O − is dominant? Why or why not?
7. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently?
8. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in
the progeny? Explain
9. What are monohybrid and dihybrid cross? Give one example of each.
10.The chromosome number of the sexually reproducing parents and their
offspring is same."" Justify the statement.
11.Genes controls traits ' . Explain this statement with an example.
15. A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is cross bred with that of white
colour flower plant denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if
flowers of F1 plants are self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny.
16. With the help of a flow chart explain in brief how the sex of a newborn is
genetically determined in human beings. Which of the two parents, the
mother or the father, is responsible for determination of sex of a child?
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Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]
19.(a) Why did Mendel choose garden pea for his experiments? Write two
reasons.
b) ‘Different species use different strategies to determine sex of a
newborn individual. It can be environmental cues or genetically
determined.’ Explain the statement by giving example for each strategy.
20. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plant with pure-bred dwarf
(recessive) pea plant we will get pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self-
cross the pea plant of F1 generation, then we obtain pea plants of
F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of F2 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F2 generation but appeared in
F2 generation, mentioning the reason for the same.
(d) State Mendel's laws of inheritance.
21.Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
.Pea plants can have smooth seeds or wrinkled seeds. One of the
phenotypes is completely dominant over the other. A farmer decides to
pollinate one flower of a plant with smooth seeds using pollen from plant
with wrinkled seeds. The resulting pea pod has all smooth seeds.
(1) Which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
(i) The allele for smooth seeds is dominated over that of wrinkled seeds.
(ii) The plant with smooth seeds is heterozygous.
(iii) The plant with wrinkled seeds is homozygous.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(ii) Which of the following crosses will give smooth and wrinkled seeds in
same proportion?
(a) RR X rr
(b) Rr X rr
(C) RRX Rr
(d) rr X rr
(iii) On crossing of two heterozygous smooth seeded plants (Rr), a total of
1000 plants were obtained in F1 generation. What will be the respective
number of smooth and wrinkled seeds obtained in F1 generation
(a) 750, 250
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(b) 500, 500
(C) 800, 200
(d) 950, 50
(iv)The characters which appear in the first filial generation are called
(a) recessive characters
(b) dominant characters
(c) lethal character
(d) non-mendelian characters.
(v) Which of the following crosses will give 100% smooth seeds ?
(a) RR X rr
(b) Rr X rr
(c) RrX Rr
(d) rr X rr
CASE STUDY
22. Read the passage and answer the given five questions
Pea plant is also tiny, easy to grow, and produces a big number of offspring.
Pea plants can have tall plants or dwarf plants. One of the phenotypes is
completely dominant over the other. A farmer decides to pollinate one flower
of a tall plant with using pollen from plant with dwarf plant. The resulting pea
pod has all tall plants.
1. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
(1) The allele for tallness is dominated over that of dwarfness.
(2) The plant with tallness is heterozygous.
(3) The plant with dwarfness is homozygous.
A. 1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3.
2. Which of the following crosses will give tall and dwarf plants in same
proportion?
A. TT x tt
B. Tt x tt
C. TT x Tt
D.tt x tt
3. Which of the following cross can be used to determine the genotype of a
plant with dominant phenotype?
A. TTXTT
B. Tt x Tt
C. Tt x TT
D. Tt x tt
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4. State the ratio of tall plant to dwarf plants in F2 genertion.
A. 2:2,
B.1:3
C.3:1,
D.4:0
5. The characters which does not appear in the first filial generation are called
A. Recessive characters
B. Dominant characters
C. Lethal characters
D. Non-mendelian characters.
ANSWERS –MCQ
11. B 12. D 13.D 14. A 15.C 16. B 17. B 18.C 19.D 20.D
4. The characters which always appear in two opposing conditions are called
contrasting characters. Tall and dwarf are two contrasting traits for the plant
height.
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group A or O – is dominant. In blood heredity, blood Type A is always
dominant and blood Type O is always recessive.
Here, father’s Blood group can be AA (homozygous) or AO (heterozygous)
genotypically, where as that of mother can only be OO. For daughter to be
born with blood group O, she must receive O type gene one each from
father and mother. For this father must have heterozygous AO blood group
and mother must have homozygous blood group OO.
7. Mendel performed an experiments in which he took a tall plant with round
seeds and a short plant with wrinkled-seeds. In F1, They were all tall and had
round seeds. Tallness and round seeds were thus dominant traits. When, he
used these F1 progeny to generate F2 progeny by self-pollination, he found
that some F2 progeny were tall plants with round seeds, and some were
short plants with wrinkled seeds. At the same time there tall plants, but had
wrinkled seeds, while others were short, but had round seeds. Thus,Mendel’s
experiments show that the tall/short trait and the round seed/wrinkled seed
trait are independently inherited.
8. During sexual reproduction, a female gamete or egg cell fuses with a male
gamete or sperm cell which are haploid to form zygote. Zygote is diploid
which contains 23 chromosomes from mother and 23 from father. In this
way, an equal genetic contribution of male and female parents is ensured in
the progeny.
9.Monohybrid cross- This is the simplest cross in which only one character's
inheritance is investigated. A cross is created by crossing two plants with one
contrasting characteristic, such as tall or dwarf.
Dihybrid cross- A dihybrid cross is a cross between two plants with two sets of
opposing characters. Round and green seed, for example, crossed with yellow
and wrinkled seed.
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13.Genotype – It is the complete heritable genetic identity of an organism. It
is the set of alleles that are carried by the organism. It also includes non-
expressed alleles.
Phenotype – It is the description of the actual physical characteristics of an
organism or the expressed form of the genotype.
F2 GG Gg Gg gg
(b) Based on the above cross, it can be concluded that
green colour is dominant and get expressed in F1
generation. The brown stem, which does not get
express itself in the F1 generation, is the recessive
character.
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15.
.
16. In human beings, the sex of the individual is genetically determined. Sex
chromosome of male is XY and of female is XX. Sex of a child depends on what
happens at fertilisation.
The woman produces eggs having X chromosome while the man produces 50%
sperms having X chromosome and 50% sperms having Y chromosome. Man
therefore,actually determines the sex of the new born baby.
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17.The differences in the traits shown by the individuals of a species and also
by the offsprings (siblings) of the same parents are referred to as variation.
New variation may arise during the process of DNA copying that already has
variations accumulated from previous generations.
Species having suitable variations have more chance of survival if there is
change in environmental conditions.
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eggs are kept determines whether the developing animal in egg is male or
female.
(ii) In some animals like snail, individual can change sex.
Genetical Cue: A child who inherits an X-chromosome from her father will be
a girl and one who inherits a Y- chromosome from the father will be a boy.
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CHAPTER 15 OUR ENVIRONMENT
MIND MAP
94
IMPORTANT DIAGRAM
95
FOCAL POINTS
Environment
Environment means anything that surrounds us. It can be living (biotic) or non-
living (abiotic) things. It includes physical, chemical and other natural factors. In
the environment there are different interactions between animals, plants, soil,
water, and other living and non-living things.
Ecosystem
All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non-living constituents
of the environment form an ecosystem. On the basis of nature, ecosystems may be
classified as
• Natural ecosystem: - They are naturally formed ecosystems like forests,
deserts, grasslands, mountains, ponds, lakes, rivers, oceans etc.
Components of an ecosystem:
Biotic components comprise of living organisms like plants, animals and
microorganisms. They consist of producers, consumers and decomposers.
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Foodchain:
A food chain is the flow of food energy from producers to consumers of different
trophic levels by eating and being eaten. In a food chain an organism gets food
from one group of organisms.
Food chain E.g.:-
Grass ------------------→ Deer -----------------→Tiger
(Producer) (Primary consumer) (Secondary consumer)
Food web
• Food web is a group of several interconnected food chains.
• It shows the interrelationship between organisms based on food.
• In a food web an organism gets food from more than one group of organisms.
Trophic Levels
• Based on the source of nutrition or food, organisms occupy a specific place in food
chain is called trophic level.
• Since the transfer of food energy decreases as we move from producers to
consumers at different trophic levels, the number of trophic levels in a food chain
are limited and they do not exceed four or five.
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Fourth trophic level-tertiary
consumers
Third trophic level- secondary
consumers
98
So, they get accumulated progressively at every trophic level and their
concentration increases at higher trophic levels.
Human activities affecting the environment:
Depletion of ozone layer
Ozone molecule contains three oxygen atoms (O3). At higher levels in the
atmosphere (stratosphere) the UV radiation splits some oxygen molecules (O 2)
into free oxygen atoms which combine with oxygen molecules (O2) to form
ozone.
UV radiation
O2------------------→O+O
O2+O-------------→O3 (ozone)
The ozone layer present in the higher layer of the atmosphere protects the earth
from the harmful UV radiation from the sun.
Reason for ozone layer depletion:
The ozone layer is being damaged by the use of chemicals like chlorofluoro
carbons (CFCs) used in refrigerators and fire extinguishers.
O3 -----Cl--------→ O2+O
The chlorine atoms found in CFC acts as a catalyst in the conversion of ozone to
oxygen molecule and nascent oxygen.
Effects
• UV radiation causes skin cancer in humans.
• Damage of eyes causing eye disease called cataract.
Prevention
In 1987, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) succeeded in
forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.
Steps adopted to minimize the CFC production are -
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• Reduce the use of CFC in refrigerators and air coolants.
• Use alternatives to CFC which are less harmful.
5. In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic
level to the next is in the form of :
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(a) heat energy (b) light energy
(c) chemical energy (d) mechanical energy
6. In the given Figure the various trophic levels are shown in a pyramid. At
which trophic level is maximum energy available?
101
14. Study the image given below and answer the following questions.
102
15. In 1987 the ---------------------- Succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze
CFC Production
(a) UNESCO
(b) UNEP
(c) UNCTED
(d) UNICEF
16. O2---------UV---------→O+O
O+O2---------→O3 (Ozone) The role of UV rays in this reaction is -----
----
(a) To Split Oxygen molecule
(b) To unite oxygen molecule
(c) To Destroy Ozone
(d) None
18. Study the image and answer the questions given below.
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(b) 10 KJ
(c) 1KJ
(d) . 5KJ
B. Which trophic level may have higher Biological Magnification :
(a) Grass
(b) Snake
(c) Bird
(d) Rabbit
C. What may happen if all the Rabbits disappear from the ecosystem :
(a) Bird population declines
(b) Snake population declines
(c) Bird and snake population declines
(d) Bird and snake population declines and grass grow
abundant
D. Which of the following chemicals cause Biological Magnification :
(a) DDT
(b) BHC
(c) All non biodegradable pesticides and chemicals
(d) Plastics
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II. ASSERTION REASON TYPE OF QUESTIONS
(a) If both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of assertion
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct
explanation of the Assertion
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
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Reason - Biodegradable materials are environment friendly and easily
degraded by the microbes in nature
9. Assertion-Enzymes are very essential for digestion of food materials in our
body. Specific enzymes are needed for the breakdown of a particular substance
Reason - We will not get energy if we try to eat coal
10. Assertion - Water, soil, temperature, light, minerals are the abiotic factors in
the ecosystem
Reason - Biotic factors interact with abiotic factors in an ecosystem to sustain
11. Assertion - Ozone layer is seen at the Stratosphere of atmosphere, which is
harmful to plants and animals.
Reason - The Ozone layer that is found in the troposphere of atmosphere is
good to the plants and animals
12. Assertion - A sparrow when feeds on seeds, it is a primary consumer, but
when it feeds on an insect, it belongs to secondary consumer.
Reason - The ecological pyramids (trophic levels) are not always reliable
13. Assertion - Only the green plants can prepare their own food by means of
photosynthesis
Reason - Some Bacteria derive their nutrition by autotrophic means
14. Assertion - Forests, Grass lands, Rivers, Meadows, Estuaries are natural
ecosystems
Reason - Artificial ecosystems are manmade ecosystems
15. Assertion - In Sea waters the number of Primary Producers is more than that
of Primary consumers
Reason - In Sea water the Primary consumers are more than that of Primary
Producers
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III. CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
POLLUTION OF RIVER GANGA
The belief the Ganga River is "holy" has not, however, prevented over-use,
abuse and pollution of the river. All the towns along its length contribute to the
pollution load. It has been assessed that more than 80 per cent of the total
pollution load (in terms of organic pollution expressed as biochemical oxygen
demand (BOD)) arises from domestic sources, i.e., from the settlements along the
river course. Due to over-abstraction of water for irrigation in the upper regions
of the river, the dry weather flow has been reduced to a trickle.
Rampant deforestation in the last few decades, resulting in topsoil erosion in the
catchment area, has increased silt deposits which, in turn, raise the river bed and
lead to devastating floods in the rainy season and stagnant flow in the dry season.
Along the main river course there are 25 towns with a population of more than
100,000 and about another 23 towns with populations above 50,000. In addition,
there are 50 smaller towns with populations above 20,000. There are also about
100 identified major industries located directly on the river, of which 68 are
considered as grossly polluting. Fifty-five of these industrial units have complied
with the regulations and installed effluent treatment plants (ETPs) and legal
proceedings are in progress for the remaining units. The natural assimilative
capacity of the river is severely stressed. The principal sources of pollution of the
Ganga River can be characterized as follows:
• Domestic and industrial wastes. It has been estimated that about 1.4 × 106 m3
d-1 of domestic wastewater and 0.26 × 106 m3 d-1 of industrial sewage are going
into the river.
• Solid garbage thrown directly into the river.
• Non-point sources of pollution from agricultural run-off containing residues
of harmful pesticides and fertilizers.
• Animal carcasses and half-burned and unburned human corpses thrown into
the river. • Defecation on the banks by the low-income people.
• Mass bathing and ritualistic practices.
1. Accumulation of toxic substances at higher trophic levels of an ecosystem
through the food chain in water bodies affects which of the following
organisms more?
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
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(c) Small fishes
(d) Large fishes
2. When toxic chemicals and nutrients get deposited in the water bodies,
which of the following gases get depleted in the water bodies?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrogen
3. Which of the following activities may pollute the river water more?
(a) Bathing using detergent and soap
(b) Discharging animals excreta
(c) Deposit flowers and leaves as the part of puja
(d) Bathing without soap and detergent
(e)
5 .Green Algae and Diatoms are the major producers of Aquatic ecosystem
.Which of the following will be more in the aquatic ecosystem:
(a) Small fishes
(b) Large fishes
(c) Algae and phytoplankton
(d) Tadpole
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(a) Algae
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Sun
(d) Moon
8. The harmful metals that get mixed with the water bodies from the industrial
units’ are :
(a) Iron and copper
(b) Mercury and lead
(c) Sodium and potassium
(d) Magnesium and cobalt
10. This will be the best method to protect our River water bodies-
(a) Grow trees along the bank of Rivers
(b) Grow small fishes in River water
(c) Permitted level of sand mining
(d) Making Flats or Malls near the River
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5. Define trophic level in a food chain? The first trophic level in a food
chain is always a green plant. Why?
6. Food web increases the stability of an ecosystem. Justify.
7. What is food chain? Construct an aquatic food chain showing four trophic
levels.
8. List two causes of depletion of ozone layer. Mention any two
harmful effects of depletion of this layer.
9. What are decomposers? Write any two consequences of decomposers are
removed from the ecosystem?
10. Pesticides like DDT which are sprayed to kill pests on crops are
found to be present in the soil, ground water, water bodies etc.
Explain. How do they reach these places?
11. List two environment friendly practices or habits which need to be
followed by every member of a family or community. Explain how these
practices will support the “save the environment” mission.
12. What are the by-products of fertilizer industries? How do they affect the
environment?
13. Make a diagrammatic representation showing various trophic levels.
110
16. Explain phenomenon of “biological magnification”. How does it affect
organisms belonging to different trophic levels particularly the tertiary
consumers?
VI. Long answer Questions (5M)
SOLUTIONS
111
8 D 15 B
9 C 16 A
10 B 17 A
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4) Sun is the ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem. Photosynthesis helps
to trap this energy in producers.
5) Each step or level of the food chain forms a trophic level. The autotrophs
or the producers are the first trophic level. They fix up the solar energy
and make it available for the heterotrophs or consumers. The first tropic
level in a food chain is always a green plant because only plants can utilize
the radiant energy of the sun and transform it to chemical form during
photosynthesis.
6) Food web shows food relationship in an ecological community. It
consists of many food chains. Thus, if any one organism becomes
endangered or extinct, the one dependent in it has an alternative option
available to him for survival. In this way food web increases stability in
the ecosystem.
7) Food chain is formed by a series of organisms feeding on one another.
Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small fish → Bird.
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Some of the consequences if decomposers are removed from soil are
a. Dead organisms will pile up.
b. There will be no replenishment of soil.
10) Soil: Pesticides are used to protect plants from insects. They consequently
get settled into soil particles, when used on plants.
Groundwater: Through irrigation in the fields, these pesticides present
in soil pass into lower layers of soil and reach ground water.
11) The below practices will support “Save the environment mission”
114
13)
O + O2 → O3 (Ozone)
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ultraviolet radiations of the Sun by absorbing them. The UV rays can
cause skin cancer, ageing, cataract, etc. to human beings if they are not
absorbed by ozone due to ozone depletion.
Since, the tertiary consumers are at the top of the food chain, so a higher
amount of these toxicants is present in them compared to the lower trophic
levels.
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a. Energy available to producers = 10,000 Joules.
Energy transfer to producer = 1% of 10,000 Joules = 100 Joules.
a. Planting of trees
c. Using cloth bags, jute bags or paper bags instead of plastic bags
20) Because the energy moves progressively through the various trophic
levels and is no longer available to the previous trophic level. The
energy captured by autotrophs does not revert to the solar input.
a. Pesticides, used for crop protection when washed down into
the soil/ water body, are absorbed by the plant along with
water and minerals
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b. Plants are consumed by animals and these chemicals get into
animal body
c. Being non-biodegradable, these chemicals get accumulated
progressively in the food chain and into our body
d. As we go into higher levels of food chain amount of harmful
substances will increase in the body of organisms as a result of
biomagnification.
*********************************************
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ELECTRICITY
CHAPTER MAPPING
q ne
Electric Current I= = Ampere 1A = 1 C/s
t t
V
Ohm’s law
I R
R= Resistivity ρ = RA/l
Combination of Resistors
I Same V Same
V Different I Different
Reff Increases Reff Decreases
Reff = R1 + R2 + R3
1 1 1 1
= + +
Reff R1 R2 R3
119
Heating Effects of Electricity
V2
H = I2Rt H= t H = VIT
R
Applications
V2
P = VI = I2R =
R
120
NOTES
➢ Electric current : The rate of flow of electric charges in unit time is called current.
➢ Electric Potential Difference :We define the electric potential difference between two
points in an electric circuit carrying some current as the work done to move a unit charge
from one point to the other.
Potential difference (V) between two points = Work done (W)/Charge (Q)
V = W/Q
The SI unit of electric potential difference is volt (V)
1 Volt = 1 Joule / Coulomb
➢ Ohm’s Law : Ohm’s law states that at constant temperature the current passing through
the conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference between the ends of the
conductor. i.e. VαI
V= IR
R=V/I
Where R is a constant known as the resistance of the conductor. Resistance is
something which opposes the flow of electric charges. The unit resistance is Ohm (Ω)
Graph
121
➢ Factors affecting resistance of conductor
(i) Nature of the conductor.
(ii) Length of the conductor :Resistance of the conductor is directly
proportional to the length of the conductor. (R α l)
(iii) Area of cross-section: Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional
to the area of cross-section. ( R α 1/A ).
Therefore R α l/A
R= ρ l/A. ρ- Resistivity
ρ = RA/l
When A=1sq.unit and l=1 unit, ρ = R. Resistivity of a material is defined as the
resistance of that material in unit length and unit area of cross-section.
Note: Resistivity of a given material does not changes with length or area of cross
section. ( i.e. there will not any change in resistivity when the area or length of the
conductor increases or decreases.)
➢ Combination of resistors
➢ Series combination: If resistors are connected in end to end connection then such
combination is known as series combination.
In series combination (i) effective resistance increases.
(ii) current (I) flows through all resistors are equal.
(iii) Potential difference across each resistor may different.
i.e. V = V1 + V2
I Reff. = I R1 + I R2
Reff. = R1 + R2 fig.
If ‘n’ equal resistors of resistance ‘R’ are connected in series then the effective
resistance is ‘nR’.
122
➢ Electric Power
The energy dissipated per unit time is called the Power dissipated.
Power P = V I = I2R = V2/R
Its unit is Watt (W). 1 W = 1 J/ s.Hence Ws is a unit of energy. The commercial
unit of electrical energy is kWh.
123
ELECTRICITY
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. When electric current is passed, electrons move from:
(a) high potential to low potential.
(b) low potential to high potential.
(c) in the direction of the current.
(d) against the direction of the current.
ANS -b
2. Electrical resistivity of any given metallic wire depends upon
(a) its thickness
(b) its shape
(c) nature of the material
(d) its length
ANS -c
3. What is the commercial unit of electrical energy?
(a) Joules
(b) Kilojoules
(c) Kilowatt-hour
(d) Watt-hour
ANS -c
4. The heating element of an electric iron is made up of:
(a) copper
(b) nichrome
(c) aluminium
(d) iron
ANS -b
5. A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of nichrome
wire with resistances R1 R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the following is true?
(a) R1 = R2 = R3
(b) R1 > R2 > R3
(c) R3 > R2 > R1
(d) R2 > R3 > R1
ANS -d
6. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 Ω and 4 Ω respectively are connected in series to a 6
V battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 Ω resistor in 5 s will be
(a) 5 J
(b) 10 J
(c) 20 J
(d) 30 J
ANS -c
7. Coulomb is the SI unit of:
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( a)charge
(b) current
(c) potential difference
(d) resistance
ANS-a
8. Work of 14 J is done to move 2 C charge between two points on a conducting wire. What is the
potential difference between the two points?
(a) 28 V
(b) 14 V
(c) 7 V
(d) 3.5 V
ANS -c
9. Calculate the current flow through the 10 Ω resistor in the following circuit.
(a) 1.2 A
(b) 0.6 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 2.0 A
ANS - d
10. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W, respectively operating 220 V,
then
(a) R1 < R2
(b) R2 < R1
(c) R1 = R2
(d) R1 ≥ R2
125
ANS- b
11. Two resistors connected in series give an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in
parallel, give 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance is
(a) each of 5 Ω
(b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω
(c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω
(d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω
ANS-b
12. The resistance of a wire of length 300 m and cross-section area, 1.0 mm² made of material of
resistivity 1.0 x 10⁻⁷ Ω is:
(a). 2 Ω
(b). 3 Ω
(c). 20 Ω
(d). 30 Ω
ANS d
13. Which of the given statements is true regarding ammeter and voltmeter?
(a). Ammeter is connected in series with the required device, Voltmeter in parallel
(b). Both ammeter and voltmeter are connected in series with required device
(c). The voltmeter is connected in series with the device, Ammeter in parallel
(d). They can be connected in any way
ANS -a
14. The obstruction offered by material of conductor to the passage of electric current is known as :
(a). Resistance
(b). Conductance
(c). Inductance
(d). None of these
ANS - a
15. The unit of potential difference is :
(a). Volt
(b) Ohm
(c) Ampere
(d) Faraday
ANS -a
16. The instrument used for measuring electric current is :
(a) Ammeter
(b) Galvanometer
(c) Voltmeter
(d) Potentiometer
ANS- a
17. While a cell is being charged, energy is converted into energy.
a. mechanical, electrical
b. electrical, chemical
126
c. heat, electrical
d. chemical, heat
ANS -b
18. Copper is not preferred to make fuse wire because it .
ANS -b
(a) i
(b) ii
(c) iii
(d) iv
ANS-d
20. The unit of resistivity is :
(a) V A
(b) V A
(c) V m /A
(d) VA/m
ANS-c
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
127
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A) : Longer wires have greater resistance and the smaller wires have lesser
resistance.
Reason (R) : Resistance is inversely proportional to the length of the wire.-
ANS - c
2. Assertion (A) : Tungsten metal is used for making filaments of incandescent lamps.
Reason (R) : The melting point of tungsten is very low.
ANS -c
3. Assertion (A) : Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electrical iron,
toasters etc.
Reason (R) : Alloys do not oxidise (burn) readily at high temperatures.
ANS -a
4. Assertion (A) : Bending a wire does not affect electrical resistance.
Reason (R) : Resistance of a wire is proportional to resistivity of material.
ANS - b
Explanation: In series arrangement, same current will flow through all the
appliances which is not required and the equivalent resistance becomes higher,
hence the current drawn becomes less.
2. In the given circuit, three identical bulbs B1, B2 and B3 are connected in
parallel with a battery of 4.5 V. Study the diagram and answer the questions given
below :
129
1. What will happen to the other two bulbs if the bulb B3 gets fused ?
(A) They will also stop glowing.
(B) Other bulbs will glow with same brightness.
(C) They will glow with low brightness.
(D) They glow with more brightness.
Ans. Option (B) is correct. Explanation: Other bulbs will glow with same
brightness because glowing of bulbs depend upon power and potential
difference, and resistance remain same for other bulbs
2.If the wattage of each bulb is 1.5 W, how much readings will the ammeter A
show when all the three bulbs glow simultaneously?
(A) 1.0 A (B) 2 A (C) 1.5 A (D) None of the above
Ans. Option (A) is correct. Explanation: When the bulbs are in parallel, wattage
will be added (4.5 W) and the ammeter reading would be,
I = P/V = 4 5 /4 = 1 A
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TWO MARKS QUESTIONS
1. Calculate the number of electrons that would flow per second through the
cross- section of a wire when 1 A current flows in it.
Ans :
Given: I = 1A , t = 1 s
Q = It , Q =1Ax 1s = 1C
But Q = ne or n = Q/e = 1 /1.6x10-19 = 6.25 x 108 electrons
2. Define the following terms:
(a) one ampere (b) 1 volt.
Answer:
Ampere: The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A). One ampere is the electric
current when one coulomb of charge flows through a conductor in one second.
Volt: The SI unit of potential difference is volt (V). One volt is the potential
difference between two points in an electric circuit when one joule of work is
done to move a charge of one coulomb from one point to the other.
4. How much work is done in moving a charge of magnitude 3 C across two points
having a potential difference of 12 V?
Answer:
Given : Q = 3 C, V = 12 V
To find: W
V = W/Q
W = VQ = 12 × 3 = 36 J
Ans. Electric power : It is the amount of electric energy consumed in a circuit per
unit time.
131
Expression :
Ans :
a. Tungsten is used in making the filament of electric lamp because it has high
resistivity and high melting point.
b. The copper and aluminium have low resistivity and high conductivity.
Voltmeter Ammeter
1 It is used to measure P.D. across It is used to measure electric
two points in an electric circuit. current in an electric circuit.
2 Its resistance is very high. Its resistance is very low.
3 An voltmeter is connected An ammeter is connected in
inparallel in an electric circuit. series in an electric circuit.
132
H = I2Rt joules
By Ohm’s law, we get H = VIt joules = V2t/R joules
Resistances in parallel:
10. What is the better way of connecting lights and other electrical appliances in
domestic wiring? Why?
Answer:
The better way of connecting lights and other electrical appliances in domestic
wiring is parallel connection because of the following advantages:
133
11. Two students perform experiments on series and parallel combinations of two
given resistors R1 and R2 and plot the following V-I graphs.
Which of the graphs is (are) correctly labelled in terms of the words ‘Series and
parallel’? justify your answer.
12. A bulb is rated at 5.0 V, 100 mA. Calculate its (a) power and (b) resistance.
Ans :
13.(a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a
wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad
conductor of electricity? Give reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.
Ans
134
a. Factors on which resistance of a wire depends:
R α l , R α 1/A
R α l/A
b. Metals are good conductors due to having large number of free electrons and
their low resistivity. Glass is a bad conductor because it has no free electrons and
its resistivity is higher.
c. Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices due to their high
resistivity and high melting point .
3 3 15
Or R2 = R1 = x 10 = Ω
4 4 2
135
15. State the formula co-relating the electric current flowing in a conductor and
the voltage applied across it. Also, show this relationship by drawing a graph.
What would be the resistance of a conductor, if the current flowing through it is
0.35 ampere when the potential difference across it is 1.4 volt?
Ans:
ie, V α l
136
16. Calculate the total cost of running the following electrical devices in the month
of September, if the rate of 1 unit of electricity is Rs. 6.00. (i) Electric heater of
1000 W for 5 hours daily. (ii) Electric refrigerator of 400 W for 10 hours daily
No. of days, n = 30
17.(i) Consider a conductor of resistance ‘R’, length ‘L’, thickness ‘d’ and resistivity
‘ρ’. Now this conductor is cut into four equal parts. What will be the new
resistivity of each of these parts? Why?
(ii) Find the resistance if all of these parts are connected in:
(iii) Out of the combinations of resistors mentioned above in the previous part,
for a given voltage which combination will consume more power and why?
Ans. (i) Resistivity will not change as it depends on the material of the conductor.
(ii) The length of each part become L/4 , ρ is constant and R = ρL/A
ρL/4 𝑅
Resistance of each part = Rpart = = Ω
𝐴 4
1 1 1 1 1
(a) In parallel the = + + +
Rp R1 R2 R3 R4
𝑅
Here R1 = R2= R3 =R4 = Rpart = Ω
4
1 4 4 4 4 16
ie, = + + + = Ω
Rp R R R R R
𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅
(b) In series the Rs = + + + =RΩ
4 4 4 4
(ii) P = V2/R
137
Ans :
Let their equivalent resistance be R1, then R1 = 1 Ω (by using the formula for
parallel combination)
Let their equivalent resistance be R2, then R2 = 0.5 Ω (by using the formula for
parallel combination)
Now all resistances are in series combination., then the resistance of the circuit
R = 3 Ω + 3 Ω + 1 Ω +0.5Ω = 7.5 Ω
18. Two bulbs A and B are rated as 90W–120V and 60W–120V respectively. They
are connected in parallel across a 120V source. Find the current in each bulb.
Which bulb will consume more energy?
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Current in second bulb I2 = V/R2 = 120 /240 = .50 A
Power of first bulb is more than second bulb, so first bulb will consume more
energy.
19. In the given circuit, A, B, C and D are four lamps connected with a battery of
60 V.
(i) What kind of combination are the lamps arranged in (series or parallel)?
(ii) Explain with reference to your above answer, what are the advantages (any
two) of this combination of lamps?
(iii) Explain with proper calculations which lamp glows the brightest?
(ii) Advantages: If one lamp is faulty, it will not affect the working of the
other lamps. They will also be using the full potential of the battery as they are
connected in parallel.
(ii) The lamp with the highest power will glow the brightest.
P=VI In this case, all the bulbs have the same voltage. But lamp C has the highest current.
Voltage = 60V
R = V/I = 60/15 = 4 Ω
139
CHAPTER 13.
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
KEY CONCEPTS & GIST OF THE LESSON
140
Magnet:
(i) Is an object that attracts objects made of iron, cobalt & nickel.(man
made)
(ii) Natural magnets are also available. (not man made)
(iii) Comes to rest in North-South direction, when suspended freely.
(iv) Has two poles, north and south.
Magnets are used:
(i) In radio & stereo speakers,
(ii) In refrigerator doors,
(iii) On audio & video cassettes players,
(iv) On hard discs & floppies of computers &
(v) In children’s toys and magnetic compass.
Magnetic field: The region of space around a magnet where a magnetic force is
experienced is called a magnetic field. The strength of magnetic force is also
called the magnetic field. Its symbol is B..It is a quantity that has both direction
& magnitude. Its unit is Tesla(T). Direction is from north pole to south pole.
Magnetic field lines: Magnetic field is represented by field lines. They are lines
drawn in a Magnetic field along which a North magnetic pole moves. Magnetic
field lines are called as Magnetic lines of force.
1. Magnetic field lines emerge from north pole and merge at the south
pole .Inside the magnet, the direction of field lines is from its south pole to its
north pole. Thus the magnetic field lines are closed curves.
2. The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness
of the field lines. The field is stronger, that is, the force acting on the pole of
another magnet placed is greater where the field lines are crowded .
3. No two field-lines are found to cross each other. If they did, it would mean
that at the point of intersection, the compass needle would point towards two
directions, which is not possible.
141
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT
142
Factors on which the magnitude of magnetic field due to straight current
carrying conductor depends
The magnitude of magnetic field produced is
a) Directly proportional to the current passing in the wire.If the magnitude
of the magnetic field produced at a given point increases as the current through
the wire increases.
b)Inversely proportional to the distance of that point from the wire. The
magnetic field produced by a given current in the conductor decreases as the
distance from it increases. From Fig. 13.6, it can be noticed that the concentric
circles representing the magnetic field around a current-carrying straight wire
become larger and larger as we move away from it.
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(iii) The strength of the current flowing in the coil: as the strength of the
current increases, the strength of the magnetic fields also increases.
Solenoid:
A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped closely in the
shape of a cylinder is called a solenoid.
In fact, one end of the solenoid behaves as a magnetic north pole, while the other
behaves as the south pole.
The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. This
indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid. That
is, the field is uniform inside the solenoid.
The strength of the magnetic field inside a solenoid depends on
1. The number of turns in the solenoid : Larger the number of turns in the
solenoid greater the magnetism
2. The strength of current in the solenoid :Larger the magnitude of current
passed through the solenoid greater the strength of magnetic field.
3. The nature of core material used in making solenoid: The use of soft iron core
inside the solenoid produces stronger magnetic field.
144
Electromagnet:
A device consisting of a coil of insulated wire wrapped around an iron core that
becomes magnetized when an electric current flows through the wire.
The strength of the magnetic field line The strength of the magnetic field lines
is constant i.e. it cannot be varied. can be varied according to our need.
145
• When current establishes in the conductor, it gets displaced which verifies
the existence of a force on the conductor.
Aim:
To show that a current carrying wire experiences a force when placed in a
magnetic field.
• Experimental Setup:
• 1. A conductor PQ is suspended horizontally from a stand.
• 2. A horse shoe magnet is placed in such a way that rod lies between that
two poles a magnet.
• 3. Conductor is connected with the battery and the key.
• Observations:
• 1. On closing the key, the conductor gets displaced towards right.
• 2. On reversing the direction of current, the conductor gets displaced
towards left.
• 3. On changing the polarity of horse shoe magnet, the direction of force
acting on the current carrying conductor gets reversed.
• 4. When current carrying conductor is placed perpendicular to the direction
of magnetic field, the maximum displacement occurs indicating the
maximum force on the conductor.
• 5. On placing the conductor parallel to the direction of magnetic field no
displacement is noticed.
• Conclusion:
• The displacement of the conductor shows that it experiences some force
when it carries some current and is placed in a magnetic field.
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Maximum and minimum force
Force is maximum when the conductor is perpendicular to the magnetic field
and minimum (zero ) when conductor is parallel to the magnetic field.
The direction of force is given by Fleming’s left hand rule
Electric motor:
An electric motor is a rotating device that converts electrical energy to
mechanical energy.
Principle: The principle of the electric motor is based on the fact that a current
carrying conductor produces a magnetic field around it. A current carrying
conductor placed perpendicular to an external magnetic field experiences a
force.
Electric motor is used as an important component in electric fans, refrigerators,
mixers, washing machines, computers, MP3 players etc.
Construction:
Parts of a Electric Motor
1.Insulated Copper wire: A rectangular coil of wire ABCD. The coil is
placed between the two poles of a magnetic field such that the arm AB and
CD are perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. The ends of the
coil are connected to the two halves P and Q of a split ring
2.Magnet Poles: A magnet as placed above ie North Pole and South Pole.
This creates a magnetic field .
3.Split Rings: Two disjoint C-shaped rings P and Q. It acts as a commutator
(which can reverse the direction of current)
4.Axle: The split rings are placed on the axle which can rotate freely.
5.Brushes: The outside of the split rings are connected to conducting brushes
X and Y.
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6.Source Battery: To source current.
Working
o When the current begins to flow, current flows through brush X, then A
to B, B to C, C to D and then to brush Y and into the battery.
o Now applying Fleming's Left Hand Rule to wire AB, Current is
along AB, Magnetic Field is as shown (North- South), the motion of the
wire is downwards.
o Now applying Fleming's Left Hand Rule to wire CD, Current is
along CD, Magnetic Field is as shown (North- South), the motion of the
wire is upwards.
o The rectangular coil begins to move in the anti-clockwise direction
o Note that during anti-clockwise motion, the split rings and axle also
move, whereas the brushes don't move.
o After half a rotation, Wire CD and Split ring Q moves to the
left. Wire AB and Split ring P moves to right. Brushes X and Y do
not move.
o Now applying Fleming's Left Hand Rule to wire CD, Current is
along DC.(Battery - Split ring Q – DC) Magnetic Field is as shown
(North- South), the motion of the wire is downwards.
o Now applying Fleming's Left Hand Rule to wire AB, Current is
along BA. (Battery - Split ring Q - DC -- CB - BA -- Split ring P),
Magnetic Field is as shown (North- South), the motion of the wire
is upwards.
o So, again the coil rotates in the anti-clockwise direction.
o The reversal of current in the coil results in the continuous rotation of
the coil. The reversal of current is achieved by the commutator rings
Applications
o Electric Fans,Refrigerators ,Mixers,Washing machines
Note:Commutator
148
A device that reverses the direction of flow of current through a circuit is
called a commutator. In electric motors, the split ring acts as a
commutator.
Ways to increase power of electric motor:
The commercial motors use
(i) an electromagnet in place of permanent magnet.
(ii) large number of turns of the conducting wire in the current
carrying coil
(iii) a soft iron core on which the coil is wound. The soft iron core, on
which the coil is wound, plus the coils, is called an armature. This
enhances the power of the motor.
Electromagnetic induction:
Phenomenon of generation of electricity as a result of changing magnetic
field in a conductor is called Electromagnetic induction.
Observations:
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i) the relative motion between the coil and the magnet
ii) the induced polarities of magnetism in the coil
iii) the direction of current through the galvanometer and hence the
deflection in the galvanometer
iv) that the induced current (e.m.f) is available only as long as there is
relative motion between the coil and the magnet
Note: i) coil can be moved by fixing the magnet
ii) both the coil and magnet can be moved ( towards each other or
away from each other) i.e. there must be a relative velocity between
them.
iii) magnetic flux linked with the coil changes relative to the positions
of the coil and the magnet
iv) current and hence the deflection is large if the relative velocity
between the coil and the magnet and hence the rate of change of
flux across the coil is more .
nd
Faraday 2 experiment
• When the primary circuit is closed current grows from zero to maximum
value.
• During this period changing, current induces changing magnetic flux
across the primary coil.
• This changing magnetic flux is linked across the secondary coil and
induces current in the secondary coil.
• Induced current and hence deflection in galvanometer lasts only as long as
the current in the primary coil and hence the magnetic flux in the
secondary coil change.
Fleming‘s Right hand rule: gives the direction of induced current. Stretch the
thumb, forefinger and middle finger of right hand such that they are mutually
perpendicular. Forefinger points in the direction of magnetic field , the thumb
gives the direction of motion of the conductor then the middle finger will give
the direction of induced current .
150
151
MCQ
2. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long
straight current carrying wire?
(A) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
(B) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
(C) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
(D) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
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(A) Directly above the wire.
(B) Directly below the wire.
(C) At a point located in the plane of the paper, on the north side of the
wire.
(D) At a point located in the plane of the paper, on the south side of the
wire.
(A)The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines
which indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points
inside the solenoid.
(B) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be
used to magnetise a piece of magnetic material like soft iron, when
placed inside the coil.
(C) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is
different from the pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet.
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5. The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight
solenoid is :
(A) More at the ends than at the centre
(B) Minimum in the middle
(C) Same at all points
(D) Found to increase from one end to the other
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(C) Producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between
a magnet and the coil.
(D) The process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
Ans.
11. What does the crowding of iron filings at the end of the magnet
indicate?
(A) Magnetic field is strongest near the poles of the magnet.
(B) Magnetic field is weakest near the poles of the magnet.
(C) There is no significant magnetic field at the poles of the magnet.
(D) The significance of polarity
155
Ans. Option (A) is correct. Explanation: Crowding of iron filings at
the ends of the magnet indicates that the magnetic field is strongest
near the poles of the magnet.
a. soft iron
b. hard iron
c. rusted iron
d. none of above
156
Ans. Option (b) is correct.
15. A plotting compass is placed near the south pole of a bar magnet. The
pointer of plotting compass will:
(a) point away from the south pole
(b) point parallel to the south pole
(c) point towards the south pole
(d) point at right angles to the south pole
17. A student learns that magnetic field strength around a bar magnet is
different at every point. Which diagram shows the correct magnetic field
lines around a bar magnet?
157
Correct Answer: Option (c)
18. Electric motor is a device which converts
20. A student inserts a bar magnet in the coil. The student observes
deflection in the galvanometer connected to the coil. What will happen if
the magnet is continuously getting in and out of the coil?
(a) the current induced in the coil will increase
(b) the current will change its direction continuously
(c) the magnetic field will create a motion in the coil
(d) the magnetic field of the bar magnet would keep decreasing
158
ASSERTION –REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Each of these questions contain two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Each of these questions also has four alternative choices, only one of
which is the correct answer. You have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) given below.
Ans : A
Reason: Fleming’s left hand rule is applied to measure the induced current.
Ans : C
3. Assertion: Magnetic Field due to a current carrying coil at its centre becomes
double if current in the coil is doubled.
Reason: Magnetic Field due to a current carrying coil at its centre is directly
Ans : A
159
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
1.A solenoid is a long helical coil of wire through which a current is run in
order to create a magnetic field. The magnetic field of the solenoid is the
superposition of the fields due to the current through each coil. It is nearly
uniform inside the solenoid and close to zero outside and is similar to the field
of a bar magnet having a north pole at one end and a south pole at the other
depending upon the direction of current flow. The magnetic field produced in
the solenoid is dependent on a few factors such as, the current in the coil,
number of turns per unit length etc. The following graph is obtained by a
researcher while doing an experiment to see the variation of the magnetic field
with respect to the current in the solenoid. The unit of magnetic field as given in
the graph attached is in milli-Tesla (mT) and the current is given in Ampere.
a. Mechanical to Magnetic
b. Electrical to Magnetic
c. Electrical to Mechanical
d. Magnetic to Mechanical
Ans:b
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(ii) What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside the solenoid?
Ans:b
iii)The magnetic field lines produced inside the solenoid are similar to that
of …
a. a bar magnet
b. a straight current carrying conductor
c. a circular current carrying loop
d. electromagnet of any shape
Ans: a
iv) After analysing the graph a student writes the following statements.
I. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is inversely proportional to
the current.
II. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to
the current.
III. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to
square of the current.
IV. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is independent of the
current.
Choose from the following which of the following would be the correct
statement(s).
a. Only IV
c. I and II
d. Only II
Ans:d
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c. For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 1.3 mT
d. There is not enough information to find the magnetic field corresponding to
0.8A current.
Ans: a
(a) electric fans (b) refrigerators (c) mixers (d) all of the above
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule (b) Fleming’s right hand rule
162
(5) The commercial motors use
(b) large number of turns of the conducting wire in the current carrying coil
2.Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar
magnet ?
Answer: The magnetic field of the magnet exerts force on both the poles of the
compass needle. The forces experienced by the two poles are equal and
opposite. These two forces form a couple which deflects the compass needle.
163
4.List the properties of magnetic lines of force.
Answer:The resultant force on a north pole of the compass needle at any point
can be only in one direction. But if the two magnetic field lines intersect one
another, then the resultant force on the north pole placed at the point of
intersection will be along two directions, which is not possible.
.
7.Consider a circular loop of wire lying on the plane of the table. Let the
current pass through the loop clockwise. Apply the right hand rule to find
out the direction of the magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
Answer:
By applying right hand thumb rule, we find that all the sections produce
magnetic field downwards at all points inside the loop while at the outside
points, the field is directed upwards. Therefore, the magnetic field acts normally
into the plane of the paper at the points inside the loop and normally out of the
plane of paper at points outside the loop.
164
8. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to
represent it.
.
9. A current through a horizontal power line flows in east to west direction.
What is the direction of magnetic field at a point directly below it and at a
point directly above it?
Answer:A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped closely
in the shape of a cylinder is called a solenoid.The magnetic field lines around a
current-carrying solenoid is similar to a bar magnet.One end of the solenoid acts
as North Pole, while the other behaves as the South Pole. The field lines inside
the solenoid are parallel straight lines, that is, the field is uniform inside the
solenoid.
165
11.What is an electromagnet?What are the factors that decide the strength
of the electromagnet?
Answer: The strong magnetic field produced inside a solenoid can be used to
magnetize a piece of magnetic material, like soft iron, when placed inside the
coil The magnet so formed is called an electromagnet.The strength of the
electromagnet depends on:
Answer: Fleming’s left hand rule : Stretch the first finger, the middle finger and
the thumb of your left hand mutually perpendicular to each other in such a way
that the first finger represents the direction of the magnetic field, the middle
finger represents the direction of the current in the conductor, then the thumb
166
will represent the direction of Force(motion of the conductor).
Answer: The split ring reverses the direction of current in the armature coil after
every half rotation, i.e., it acts as a commutator. The reversed current reverses the
direction of the forces acting on the two arms of the armature after every half
rotation. This allows the armature coil to rotate continuously in the same
direction.
Answer: The electric generator works on the principle that when a straight
conductor is moved in a magnetic field, then current is induced in the
conductor.In an electric generator, a rectangular coil is made to rotate rapidly in
the magnetic field between the poles of a horse-shoe type magnet. When the coil
167
rotates, it cuts the magnetic field lines due to which a current is produced in the
coil.
22.Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back to one wall.
An electron beam, moving horizontally from back wall towards the front
wall, is deflected by a strong magnetic field to your right side. What is the
direction of magnetic field ?
Answer: Here the electron beam is moving from our back wall to the front wall,
so the direction of current will be in the opposite direction, from front wall
168
towards back wall or towards us. The direction of deflection (or force) is towards
our right side.We now know two things :direction of current is from front towards
us, and direction of force is towards our right
side.
Let us now hold the forefinger, middle finger and thumb of our left hand at right
angles to one another. We now adjust the hand in such a way that our center finger
points towards us (in the direction of current) and our thumb points towards the
right side (in the direction of force). Now, if we look at our forefinger, it will be
pointing vertically downwards. Since the direction of the forefinger gives the
direction of the magnetic field, therefore, the magnetic field is in the vertically
downward direction.
After half rotation, the polarity of the commutator also changes, because now Q
makes contact with brush X and P with brush Y. Therefore, now the force exerts
downwards on the arm AB and upwards on the arm CD and thus again a couple
of forces is formed that rotates the coil in clockwise direction. This process is
repeated again and again and the coil rotates til! the current flows across it.
Function of split ring : Split ring in a motor acts as a commutator, i.e., it
reverses the flow of current in the circuit due to which the direction of the
forces acting on the arms also reverses.
169
Answer: Electric motors are used in the appliances like electric fans, washing
machine, mixers, grinders, blenders, computers, MP3 players, etc.
25. Magnetic field lines of two magnets are shown in fig. A and fig. B.
Select the figure that represents the correct pattern of field lines. Give
reasons for your answer. Also name the poles of the magnets facing each
other.
Answer. Figure B represents the correct pattern of field lines.
In figure A, field lines cross each other which is not possible because if they
cross each other, at the point of intersection, there would be two directions of
field lines.
In figure B, field lines are emerging in nature, so poles of magnet facing each
other are north poles while opposite faces will have south polarity
170
Blue print - Sample paper class X
SECTION TOTAL
SECTION SECTION
C
A B
*CASE
SA I SA II
BASED
2 MARKS 3 MARKS 4 MARKS
CHAPTERS EACH EACH EACH
SL NO
1 ELECTRICITY 3(2) *4(1) 10(3)
The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. All questions are compulsory. However
Internal choices have been provided in 3 questions of Section-A and 2 questions of Section –B.
A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions
* Section C has 02 case-based questions. Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (a, b and c).
Parts a and b are compulsory (1mark each). However, an internal choice has been provided in
part c. (2 marks)
171
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS X
Science (086)
Term 2 (2021-22)
Max. Marks:40 Time allowed: 2 hours
General Instructions:
i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. All questions are
compulsory.
iii) Section–A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section–B has 6 questions of 3
marks each; and Section–C has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each.
iv) Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
SECTION A
1.Study the table given below carefully and answer the questions.
GROUP 1 2 3 -12 13 14 15 16 17 18
2nd pd. A C D E
rd
3 pd. E B
2. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission? Give one difference
between the binary fission in amoeba and leishmania?
172
3.. Woman had undergone surgical method for preventing unwanted pregnancies.
Does this protect her from getting sexually transmitted diseases? Write any other 2
contraceptive methods.
4.Write any two limitations of Mendeleev’s periodic table and how these defects
are rectified in Modern periodic table?
5. Explain the mechanism by which the chromosome number is maintained
constant in human beings?
OR
With the help of suitable example, explain characters may be inherited, but may
not be expressed always.
7. Explain with the help of an example, why the number of trophic levels in a food
chain is limited?
OR
A food chain consists of fish, larvae, phytoplankton and birds. The level of
pesticides in water in which these organisms live is high.
(a) Which organism will have the maximum amount of pesticides accumulated
through the food chain and what is this process known as?
(b) Write the food chain comprising all the organisms mentioned above.
173
SECTION -B
8. Calcium is an element with atomic number 20. Answer the following stating
reasons.
(a) Is calcium a metal or non-metal?
(b) Will its atomic radius be larger or smaller than that of potassium with
atomic number 19?
(c) Write the formula of its oxide.
9. What is homologous series? List its any two characteristics. Write the name and
formulae of the next higher homologue of HCOOH.
(OR)
What are structural isomers? Write down the possible isomers of butane.
10. Name the plant Mendel used for his experiments. What type of progeny was
obtained by Mendel in F1 and F2 generations when he crossed the tall and short
plants? Write the ratio he obtained in F2 generation plants.
11. (a) An electric bulb is rated at 200 V and 100 W. What is its resistance?
(b) Calculate the energy consumed by 3 such bulbs if they glow for 10 hours
for the month of November.
(c) Calculate the total cost if the rate is Rs 6.50 per unit.
12. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 Ω so that the
equivalent resistance of the combination is: (i) 13.5 Ω (ii) 6 Ω? Represent the
above combinations in a circuit diagram.
OR
The values of current (I) flowing through a given resistor of resistance (R) for the
corresponding values of potential difference (V) across the resistor are as given
below.
13. List two main causes of the pollution of water of the river Ganga. State how
pollution of the river water proves harmful for the health of people? What steps
can be taken to solve this issue?
SECTION-C
This section has 2 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 3
sub-questions (a, b and c. Parts a and b are compulsory. However, an internal
choice has been provided in part c.
14. Inheritance from one generation to the next provides a common body design
with subtle changes. While some of these differences will be unique, others will be
inherited from their respective parents who were different from each other.
Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis for evolutionary
processes.
(a) If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species
and a trait B exists in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely to have
arisen earlier? (1mark)
(b) How does creation of variations in a species promote survival? (1 mark)
(c) Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times. Give reason (2mark)
(OR)
Which of the processes, sexual or asexual reproduction brings about maximum
variation in the off springs? Why?
15. A fuse is a safety device having a short length of a thin, tin-plated copper wire
having low melting point. The thickness and the length of the fuse wire depends on
175
the maximum current allowed through the circuit. The fuse for protecting our
domestic wiring is fitted just above our main switch on the switch board.
Sangeeta of class X used a fuse rated as 6 A in a circuit in which an electric heater
of 2.5 kW was connected with the main supply of 220 V. But the heater isn’t
working.
(a) Why Sangeeta's heater is not operating? Give reason. (1 mark)
(b) Will the heater work, if the given fuse is replaced by another fuse rated 16A?
(1 mark)
(c) Calculate how much current will flow in the circuit with the fuse rated 16 A?
(2 mark).
Or
Write, how the fuse is connected in the circuit and why?
****************
176
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS X
Science (086)
Term 2 (2021-22)
Marking Scheme
1. (a) D (b) B (c) E (d) 2,5
2. Binary fission- parent organism splits to form two new organism.
Multiple fission - parent organism splits to form many new organisms.
In amoeba fission can take place in any plane whereas in Leishmania splitting of
parent cell take place in a definite plane with respect to flagellum at its end.
3.No,it will not
Can use any other barrier methods such as condoms and diaphragm.
Can adopt chemical methods like the use of oral pills and vaginal pills by the
females. ( or any 2 suitable methods)
4. Two limitations of Mendaleev’s periodic table
(1) No fixed position was given to hydrogen in the Mendaleev’s periodic table.But
the atomic number of Hydrogen is 1 and hence it is placed in the first position in
group 1 of the Modern periodic table.
(2) No separate Position for isotopes was given in Mendaleev’s periodic table.
As the isotopes of an element have same atomic number there is no need of
separate place in the Modern periodic table.
(any 2 anomalies in the Mendaleev’s periodic table and how it is rectified in
Modern periodic table).
5. In human beings there are 22pairs of chromosomes along with sex
chromosomes. Chromosome number becomes half during gamete formation .
When the gametes fuse the original number of chromosomes is restored in the
zygote.
177
OR
In Mendel’s experiment when pure tall pea plants were crossed with dwarf pea
plants only tall plants were obtained in the F1 generation.
On selfing the pea plants of F1 generation both tall and dwarf pea plants were
obtained in F2 generation.
Reappearance of dwarf pea plants in the F2 generation proves that the trait
‘dwarfness’ was inherited but not expressed in F1 generation.
6. (a)When bar magnet is pushed into the coil galvanometer shows a momentary
deflection due to the flow of an induced current in the coil.
(b) When bar magnet is withdrawn from inside the coil galvanometer shows a
momentary deflection in the opposite direction due to the flow of an induced
current in the coil.
OR
The 2 factors on which the strength of the magnetic field produced by a solenoid
depends are
(1) directly proportional to the current flowing through the solenoid.
(2) directly proportional to the number of turns of the solenoid.
7. The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited because after that the
energy available for the next organism will be insufficient to sustain the life of that
organism.
10% 10% 10%
Eg. Grass → Mice → Snakes → Peacock
100J 10J 1J 0.1 J
OR
(a) Bird will have the maximum amount of pesticides accumulated through the
food chain.
This process known as Biological magnification
179
1/Rp = 1/R1 +1/R2 =1/9 +1/9 Rp= 9/2 = 4.5 Ω
( OR)
180
R=V/I 1/0.2 = 5 Ω
13. Causes: ( i) Disposal of industrial effluents (ii ). Human activities like
bathing, washing. (iii) disposal of dead bodies/ashes. (iv) disposal of untreated
sewage.
Effects on Human Health: (i) spread of water borne diseases. (ii) Consumption
of contaminated fishes lead to health issues. (iii) accumulation of chemicals by
biomagnification.
Prevention: (i) strict laws by government (ii) Fine /punishment to offenders
(iii) Awareness programs through media.
CASE STUDY
(OR)
181
Sexual reproduction would bring in maximum variation due to separation
and recombination of genes from two different parents.
15.
(1) The heater was not operating as fuse wire melted on switching.
(2) Yes
(3) I = P/V
= 2500/220
= 11.36 A
OR
The fuse is connected in series with the circuit because then only on
melting of fuse wire the whole circuit will be affected and the flow of current will
be stopped.
*******************
182
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS X
Science (086)
Term 2 (2021-22)
Max. Marks:40 Time allowed: 2 hours
General Instructions:
i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. All questions are
compulsory.
iii) Section–A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section–B has 6 questions of 3
marks each; and Section–C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
iv) Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions
SECTION-A
1. 1)An element ‘Z’ has four shells and same number of electrons in 2
the first and fourth shell as well as second and third shell.
a)Identify its group and period.
b)Write the electronic configuration of the element.
c)What type bond will it form with the element ‘X’(2,8,6)
4. Rahul noticed that buds in the notches along the leaf margin of a 2
plant fall on the soil and develop, into new plants.
a)Identify the plant and the specific mode of asexual reproduction.
183
b)List two advantages of this mode of propagation in plants
5 In the given Mendelian di hybrid cross 4 types of combinations were 2
seen in the F2 generation. Identify and classify these types as
parental types and new combinations.
ORd
When two purebred rabbits, a male with black fur and a female with
tan fur are crossed , all of the F1 generation had tan fur. Identify the
dominant and recessive trait .Justify your answer giving reason for
this identification.
6 How would the strength of magnetic field in a current carrying loop 2
be affected if
a)the radius of the loop is reduced to half of its original radius?
b)strength of current through the loop is doubled?
OR
P and Q shows the magnetic field lines of force between the poles of
the magnet. Identify the poles A,B,C and D
7 Food web increases the stability of an ecosystem. Justify 2
OR
State and explain any two possible consequences of elimination of
decomposers from the earth.
SECTION-B
8 i. How and why does the atomic size of the elements vary as we move
a) from left to right in a period and b) down a group?
ii. How does the tendency of the elements to lose electrons change in
the modern periodic table a) in a group and b) in a period?
184
9 Define the term isomers. Draw the structures of two isomers of
butane. Explain why we cannot have isomers of first three members
of alkane series
10 Explain with suitable example how Mendel proved that traits are
inherited independently
11 Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 ohm so
that the equivalent resistance of the combination is (i) 13.5 ohm (ii) 6
ohm
12 Calculate the total cost of running the following electrical devices in
the month of September, if the rate of 1 unit of electricity is Rs. 6.00
(i) Electric heater of 1000W for 5 hours daily
(ii) Electric refrigerator of 400W for 10 hours daily
13 (i)Write down the importance of ozone layer and mention how its
formed.
(ii)Explain the causes of depletion of ozone layer
SECTION-C
This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is
followed by 03 sub-questions (a, b and c). Parts a and b are
compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part
c.
185
15 A solenoid is long helical coil of wire through which a current is run 4
in order to create a magnetic field. The magnetic field of the solenoid
is the superposition of the field due to the current through each coil. It
is nearly uniform inside the solenoid and close to zero outside and is
similar to the field of a bar magnet having a north pole at one end and
a south pole at the other depending upon the direction of current flow.
The magnetic field produced in the solenoid is dependent on a few
factors such as, the current in the coil, number of turns per unit length
etc.
a) What decides the direction of magnetic field by a current carrying
solenoid? 1 mark
b) How can we compare a current carrying solenoid with a bar magnet?
1 mark
c)How can we increase the strength of the magnetic field produced by
a current carrying solenoid?
OR
How can we make an electromagnet with the help of a solenoid? 2
mark
186
ANSWER KEY
CLASS X
Science (086)
Term 2 (2021-22)
SECTION-A
187
Increase in complex organic substances causes land and water
pollution, may disturb the balance of ecosystem or any other
logically correct reason.
SECTION-B
9 Definition of isomers ½
Structure of isomers of butane - NCERT textbook page no. 65 1+1
,fig.4.8(b)
First three members of alkane do not have branched structure
½
10 Explanation of di hybrid crossing 1
or any other
example
11 Two 9 ohm resistors in parallel connected to one 9 ohm resistor in 1½
series
9 ohm 9ohm
1/R=1/9+1/9=2/9
9ohm R=9ohm+9/2= 13.5 ohm
Two 9 ohm resistors in series connected to one 9 ohm resistor in 1½
parallel connection
R= 9ohm+9ohm=18 ohm
188
1/R=1/18+1/9=3/18
R=6 ohm
SECTION-C
c)
189
)
OR
c)Gametes have half the number of chromosomes, thus ovum will
have 23 and sperm will have 23.Fusion of these gametes restores
46 chromosomes
190
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
ERNAKULAM REGION
SAMPLE PAPER
CLASS X MM 40 TIME 2 h
SL CHAPTER SA SA LA TOTAL
NO 2marks 3 marks 4marks
1 CARBON AND ITS 1 1 5
COMPOUNS
2 PERIODIC 1 1 5
CLASSIFICATION OF
ELEMENTS
3 HOW DO ORGANISMS 2 4
REPRODUCE?
4 HEREDITY AND 1 1 1 9
EVOLUTION
5 ELECTRICITY 2 6
6 MAGNETIC EFFECT 1 1 6
OF ELECTRIC
CURRENT
7 OUR ENVIRONMENT 1 1 5
TOTAL 14 18 8 40
191
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN ERNAKULAM REGION
Qn QUESTIONS MARK
no S
1 Elements forming ionic compounds attain noble gas configuration 2
by either gaining or losing electrons from their outermost shells.
Give reason to explain why carbon cannot attain noble gas
configuration in this manner to form its compounds.
2 i)Write the electronic configuration of two elements X and Y whose 2
atomic numbers are 20 and 17 respectively.
ii)Write the molecular formula of the compound formed when
element X reacts with element Y
3 Vegetative propagation is a technique being practiced widely to 2
propagate some kinds of plants.
Write any three advantages and one disadvantage of vegetative
propagation.
4 A student in viewing under a microscope a permanent slide 2
showing various stages of asexual reproduction of Hydra by
budding . Draw diagrams of what he observes (in proper sequence)
5 Name the plant Mendel used for his experiment. 2
How do Mendel’s experiment show that traits are inherited
independently?
OR
When organisms reproduce, variations are found among the
offsprings. What is the significance of these variations in a
population?
192
6 2
11 3
195
14 4
In pea plants, the traits round seed is dominant over the wrinkled
seed. A pure variety plant with round seed is crossed with a plant
that has wrinkled seeds.
a)Work out the cross and write the ratio of plants with round and
wrinkled seeds in F2 generation.
b)What is the trait shown by F1 progeny? Why do all plants of the
F1 progeny have same trait?
c)How is F2 generation raised from F1 plants?
OR
Differentiate between dominant and recessive traits.
15 4
196
a)Write the direction of displacement of the aluminium rod C. Is it
towards inside the magnet or outside the magnet?
b) What change do you make in this arrangement to make the rod
move in the opposite direction?
c)i)Why does the rod get displaced?
ii)Name a device in which this phenomenon is applied in our day
today life . OR
State the rule which help us to identify the direction of
displacement of the aluminium rod.
197
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN ERNAKULAM REGION
MARKING SCHEME
9 a) 1
b) i)covalent bond
ii)these molecules have covalent bond/bond formed by sharing of ½
electrons where as sodium chloride molecule has ionic bind ½
between the atoms/bond formed by transfer of electrons.
c)methane ---covalent compound—has low melting and boiling
point—interparticle force of attraction is less.
sodium chloride ---ionic compound—has high melting and
boiling point—inter ionic force of attraction is more.
OR
2
199
a)i) ii) iii) 1
iv)
12 1
i)At constant temperature , the potential difference across the ends 1
of a resistor is directly proportional to the current flowing through 1
it.
ii)a)R3
b)R3 produces more heat
Heat generated is directly proportional to the resistance for a
given current.
OR
a)
1
200
½
1
13 a) 1
14 a)
201
1
202
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS X
Science (086)
Term 2 (2021-22)
Max. Marks:40 Time allowed: 2 hours
General Instructions:
i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Section–A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section–B has 6 questions of 3 marks each; and
Section–C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
iv) Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of
the alternatives in such questions
SECTION-A
1. 1)An element ‘Z’ has four shells and same number of electrons in the first and fourth 2
shell as well as second and third shell.
a)Identify its group and period.
b)Write the electronic configuration of the element.
c)What type bond will it form with the element ‘X’(2,8,6)
2. In any homologous series there is a gradation in physical properties but the chemical 2
properties remain similar. Justify the given statement with valid reasons.
3 2
4. Rahul noticed that buds in the notches along the leaf margin of a plant fall on the soil 2
and develop, into new plants.
a)Identify the plant and the specific mode of asexual reproduction.
b)List two advantages of this mode of propagation in plants
5 In the given Mendelian di hybrid cross 4 types of combinations were seen in the F2 2
generation. Identify and classify these types as parental types and new
combinations.
203
ORd
When two purebred rabbits, a male with black fur and a female with tan fur are
crossed , all of the F1 generation had tan fur. Identify the dominant and recessive
trait .Justify your answer giving reason for this identification.
6 How would the strength of magnetic field in a current carrying loop be affected if 2
a)the radius of the loop is reduced to half of its original radius?
b)strength of current through the loop is doubled?
OR
P and Q shows the magnetic field lines of force between the poles of the magnet.
Identify the poles A,B,C and D
7 Food web increases the stability of an ecosystem. Justify 2
OR
State and explain any two possible consequences of elimination of decomposers
from the earth.
SECTION-B
8 i. How and why does the atomic size of the elements vary as we move a) from left
to right in a period and b) down a group?
ii. How does the tendency of the elements to lose electrons change in the modern
periodic table a) in a group and b) in a period?
9 Define the term isomers. Draw the structures of two isomers of butane. Explain
why we cannot have isomers of first three members of alkane series
10 Explain with suitable example how Mendel proved that traits are inherited
independently
11 Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 ohm so that the
equivalent resistance of the combination is (i) 13.5 ohm (ii) 6 ohm
12 Calculate the total cost of running the following electrical devices in the month of
September, if the rate of 1 unit of electricity is Rs. 6.00
(i) Electric heater of 1000W for 5 hours daily
(ii) Electric refrigerator of 400W for 10 hours daily
13 (i)Write down the importance of ozone layer and mention how its formed.
(ii)Explain the causes of depletion of ozone layer
204
SECTION-C
This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by
03 sub-questions (a, b and c). Parts a and b are compulsory. However, an
internal choice has been provided in part c.
205
ANSWER KEY
CLASS X
Science (086)
Term 2 (2021-22)
SECTION-A
206
Increase in complex organic substances causes land and water
pollution, may disturb the balance of ecosystem or any other
logically correct reason.
SECTION-B
9 Definition of isomers ½
Structure of isomers of butane - NCERT textbook page no. 65 1+1
,fig.4.8(b)
First three members of alkane do not have branched structure
½
10 Explanation of di hybrid crossing 1
or any other
example
11 Two 9 ohm resistors in parallel connected to one 9 ohm resistor in 1½
series
9 ohm 9ohm
1/R=1/9+1/9=2/9
9ohm R=9ohm+9/2= 13.5 ohm
Two 9 ohm resistors in series connected to one 9 ohm resistor in 1½
parallel connection
R= 9ohm+9ohm=18 ohm
207
1/R=1/18+1/9=3/18
R=6 ohm
SECTION-C
c)
208
)
OR
c)Gametes have half the number of chromosomes, thus ovum will
have 23 and sperm will have 23.Fusion of these gametes restores
46 chromosomes
209
TERM-2
CBSE - CLASS 10 -
SCIENCE
SAMPLE PAPER 5 –
BLUE PRINT
Total Marks-40
Time duration-2 hours
Total no of Questions - 15
Section A - 14 Marks 7 X 2 = 14
Section B - 18 Marks 6 X 3 = 18
Section C - 8 Marks 2 X 4 = 08
Total - 40 Marks
5 Periodic classification of 1 1 -
Elements
8 How do organisms Reproduce? 1 - -
TOTAL 14 18 8
210
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA ERNAKULAM REGION
CLASS X
Max. Marks : 40 Science
Time : 2 hour
General Instructions:
i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. All questions are
compulsory.
iii) Section–A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section–B has 6 questions of 3
marks each; and Section–C has 2 case based questions of 4 mark
iv) Internal choices have been provided in some questions.
A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
SECTION A
1. What are hydrocarbons? Give ONE point of difference between 2
saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
2. Two elements X and Y have atomic numbers 12 and 17 2
respectively. To which period of the modern periodic table
do these two elements belong? What type of bond is formed
between them?
3. The sex of the children is determined by what they inherit from their 2
father and not their mother.” Justify
4. Our food grains such as wheat and rice, vegetables and fruits, and even 2
meat are found to contain varying amounts of pesticide residues. State
the reason to explain how and why it happens?
211
.
6. The gene for red hair (bb) is recessive to the gene for black 2
hair BB). What will be the hair colour of a child if he
inherits a gene for red colour from his mother and a gene
for black hair from his father? Express with the help of
flow chart.
8. A covalent bond forms when the bonded atoms have a lower total 3
energy than that of widely separated atoms.
a. Why are covalent compounds generally poor conductors of
electricity?
b. Carbon does not form ionic compounds. Why?
c Explain the formation of covalent bonds in carbon dioxide
and methane OR
9. The elements of the third period of the Periodic Table are given 3
below:Which atom is bigger, Na or S? Why?Identify the most (i)
metallic and (ii) non-metallic element in Period 3.
212
10. In one of his experiments with pea plants Mendel observed that 3
when a pure tall pea plant is crossed with pure dwarf pea plant, in
the first generation F1, only tall plants appear.
a. What happens to the traits of the dwarf plants in this case?
b. What did Mendel conclude from this experiment?
c. Write the ratio he obtained in the F2 generation?
12. Find the current drawn from the battery by the network of resistors 3
shown in the figure.
OR
How does resistance of a wire depend on its length?
A given wire of resistance 1Ὡ is stretched to double its length. What
will be the new resistance?
13. What are trophic levels? In a food chain consisting of snake, insect, 3
grass, frog, assign an appropriate trophic level to frog.
SECTION C
14. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions 4
An electric motor is a rotating device that converts electrical energy
into mechanical energy. Electric motor is used as an important
component in electric fans, refrigerators, mixers, washing machines,
computers, MP3 players, etc.
213
a. Write the principle behind the working of electric motor.1
b.What is the role of split rings in an electric motor.1
c. Suggest when does a current carrying conductor kept in a
magnetic field experience maximum force. 2
Or
State and explain the rule that gives the direction of force in a
current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.
15. Gregor Mendel also known as the “Father of genetics” chose to use 4
pea plants for his experiments regarding the inheritance of hereditary
traits’
a. Why did Mendel select pea plant in his experiment?1
b. List two visible contrasting characters of garden pea Mendel
used for his experiment.1
c. A pure tall pea plant bearing violet flowers is crossed with
short pea plant bearing white flowers. There were all tall and
violet flowers in F1 generation. Show that the traits are
inherited independently in F2 generation by the F2 ratio.2
OR
The genotype of green stemmed tomato plants is denoted as
“GG” and that of purple stemmed tomato plants as “gg”.
When these two are crossed
i. What colour of stem would you expect in their F1
progeny?
ii. Differentiate between dominant and recessive traits.
214
SCIENCE SAMPLE PAPER 5 - MARKING SCHEME
1. a. Carbon compounds which contain just carbon and hydrogen. 1
b. Saturated hydrocarbons contain single bond, unsaturated +
hydrocarbons contain double / triple bonds or other relevant 1
points.
2. The elements belong to the 3rd period. The type of bond formed is Ionic 1
bond.
+
1
3. All children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother, despite 2
whether they are a boy or girl. Thus, the sex of the child will be
determined by the type of chromosome inherited from their father. Or
diag. rep.
4. This increase in the concentration of harmful chemicals with each step 2
of the food chain is called biomagnification. That is why meat contain
higher pesticide concentration than plant products since animals occupy
higher trophic level than plants.
5. Bacterial infections: Gonorrhoea , Syphilis 2
Viral infections: HIV-AIDS, Warts
OR
Any two methods
6. Given, Mother has red hair which is recessive, i.e.,bb Father has black 2
hair which is dominant, i.e., BB or Bb. The inheritance pattern can be
shown as follows
7. 2
3
215
OR
a. There will be a momentary deflection in the galvanometer
showing induced current.
b. There will be no deflection - no current is produced in the coil.
SECTION B
8. a. Covalent compounds lack free electrons or do not form ions so 3
they are poor conductors of electricity.
b. Carbon is tetravalent so to form ionic bonds, Carbon cannot gain
4 electrons because it would be difficult for nucleus with six
protons to hold 10 electrons similarly losing 4 electrons does not
happen as tremendous energy is required for it.
c.
Or
a. Alcohol
b. C5H11OH
c. C3H6 , C2H5CHO
a. Na. Atomic size goes on decreasing along a period from left to 3
9. right. It is due to increased nuclear charge due to increase in
number of protons and force of attractions between nucleus and
valence electrons.
b. Most metallic – Na
Non-metallic - Cl
216
Parents- (Tall)male TT X (dwarf) female tt
Gametes
T t
F1-
Tt (Hybrid tall)
On selfing:
Tt X Tt
Gametes
F2- TT Tt Tt tt
Phenotypic ratio- 3 tall: 1 dwarf
Genotypic ratio- 1 pure tall: 2 hybrid tall: 1 dwarf
217
So, equivalent resistance in the branch
FCE= R1 = 10 Ω + 10 Ω = 20 Ω
Resistance of lower branch FDE are in
series
So, equivalent resistance in the branch
FDE = R2 = 10 Ω + 10 Ω = 20 Ω
The two resistance R1 and R2 are parallel
to each other.
If R is the equivalent resistance of network, then
1/Rp = 1/20 + 1/20
or Rp = 10 Ω
Current, V = IR
or
R∝l
Resistance of a wire is directly proportional to the length of the
wire. Therefore, a longer conductor offers more resistance
b.
13 3
Trophic levels refers to the various steps in a food chain as per the
flow of energy. Each step of the food chain is known as a trophic
level. 10% of food taken by one trophic level is available for the next
trophic level.
218
Grass → Insect → Frog → Snake
219
d.
Or
The genotype of green stemmed tomato plant is GG and the
genotype of purple stemmed tomato plant is gg. A. When we
cross them to produce progeny in the F1 generation, we will find
that all the plants have green stems ( this shows us that green
coloured stem is dominant)
Parent male green stem female purple stem
GG X g g
G g
gametes
It is a trait or characteristic,
which is able to express itself
It is a trait which is unable to
over another contrasting trait.
express its effect in the
even if only one copy exists
presence of the dominant trait.
Trait that appears in F1
generation
220
The End
221