criminology board exam reviewer
Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions
1. Berto, with evident premeditation and
treachery killed his father.
What was the crime committed?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Qualified Homicide
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy
against the latter’s will
on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed
firearms
in his home. What was the crime committed
by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. Forcible Trespassing
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more
than 6 months.They
live together with the children of Lea from her
first husband.
Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14
year old daughter of
Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was
the crime committed
by Charlie?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape
4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his
students, Lito. When
the two met the following day, Lito slapped
Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime
committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for
the killing of his parents. When PO2 Tapang
tried to arrest him,Fred gave him 1 million pesos
to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in
arresting Fred. What was the crime committed
by PO2 Tapang?
A. Indirect Bribery
B. Direct Bribery
C. Corruption of Public Officials
D. Qualified Bribery
6. Which of the following is the exemption to the
hearsy rule made
under the consciousness of an impending
death?
A. Parol Evidence
B. Ante mortem statement
C. Suicide note
D. Dead man statute
7. Factum probans means __.
A. preponderance of evidence
B. ultimate fact
C. evidentiary fact
D. sufficiency of evidence
8. It refers to family history or descent
transmitted from one
generation to another.
A. inheritance
B. heritage
C. pedigree
D. culture
9. The authority of the court to take cognizance
of the case in the
first instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction
D. Exclusive Jurisdiction
10.A person designated by the court to assist
destitute litigants.
A. Counsel de officio
B. Attorney on record
C. Attorney at law
D. Special counsel
11. Which of the following is not covered by the
Rules on Summary Procedure?
A. Violation of rental laws
B. Violation of traffic laws
C. The penalty is more than six months of
imprisonment
D. The penalty does not exceed six
months imprisonment
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power
of the court is to be exercised.
A. jurisdiction
B. jurisprudence
C. venue
D. bench
13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.
A. RA 6425
B. RA 8353
C. BP.22
D. RA 6975
14. The taking of another person’s personal
property, with intent to gain, by means of force
and intimidation.
A. qualified theft
B. robbery
C. theft
D. malicious mischief
15. Felony committed when a person compels
another by means of
force, violence or intimidation to do
something against his will,
whether right or wrong.
A. grave threat
B. grave coercion
C. direct assault
D. slander by deed
16. These are persons having no apparent means
of subsistence but
have the physical ability to work and neglect
to apply himself or
herself to lawful calling.
A. Pimps
B. prostitutes
C. gang members
D. vagrants
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock
serenade of discordant
noises designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous
B. charivari
C. sedition
D. scandal
18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who
compels another
person to change his residence.
A. violation of domicile
B. arbitrary detention
C. expulsion
D. direct assault
19. The deprivation of a private person of the
liberty of another
person without legal grounds.
A. illegal detention
B. arbitrary detention
C. forcible abduction
D. forcible detention
20. An offense committed by a married woman
through carnal
knowledge with a man not her husband who
knows her to be
married, although the marriage can be later
declared void.
A. concubinage
B. bigamy
C. adultery
D. immorality
21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the
commission of a crime.
A. 15-18 years old
B. 18-70 years old
C. 9 years old and below
D. between 9 and 15 years old
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in
the execution of
the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the
government to execute
the final sentence after the lapse of a
certaintime fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the
execution of penalty
is suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience
designed to secure a
more orderly regulation of the affairs of the
society.
A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes
26. Felony committed by a public officer who
agrees to commit an
act in consideration of a gift and this act is
connected with the
discharge of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery
B. direct bribery
C. estafa
D. indirect bribery
27.
The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood
under oath of
affirmation, administered by authority of law
on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
D. slander
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.
A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C. ignominy
D. cruelty
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors
shall have acted
together in the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which
one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act
31. Ways and means are employed for the
purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of
his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation
32. Those where the act committed is a crime
but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment there is no
penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. Complex Crimes
33. One of the following is an alternative
circumstance.
A. Insanity
B. intoxication
C. passion or obfuscation
D. evident premeditation
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make
conditional plea of guilty,
what shall be entered for him?
A. a plea of not guilty
B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy
D. a plea of surrender
35. At what time may the accused move to
quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning
36. The process whereby the accused and the
prosecutor in a
criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory
disposition on the case subject to court
approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial
37. The security given for the release of a person
in custody,
furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned
upon his
appearance before any court as required
under the conditions
specified by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
C. bail
D. warrant
38. The examination before a competent
tribunal, according to the
laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case,
for the purpose
of determining such issue.
A. Trial
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial
D. judgment
39. The adjudication by the court that the
accused is guilty or is not
guilty of the offense charged, and the
imposition of the proper
penalty and
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose
of determining
whether there is sufficient ground to
engender a well founded
belief that an offense has been committed
and the offender is
probably guilty thereof and should be held
for trial.
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment
C. preliminary investigation
D. plea bargaining
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the
same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained
or uncontradicted is
sufficient to maintain the proposition
affirmed.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence
43. A form of evidence supplied by written
instruments or derived
from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material
substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence
44. When the witness states that he did not see
or know the
occurrence of a fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence
45. Personal property that can be subjects for
search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means
in committing an
offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other
proceeds or fruits of the
offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving,
can make known
their perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing
forth prematurely, of
human fetus before the natural time of birth
which results in
death.
A. abortion
B. infanticide
C. murder
D. parricide
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or
wounded during the
confusion attendant to a quarrel among
several persons not
organized into groups and the parties
responsible cannot be
ascertained.
A. alarm and scandal
B. mysterious homicide
C. death under exceptional
circumstances
D. tumultuous affray
49. A question which arises in a case the
resolution of which is the
logical antecedent of the issue involved in said
case and the
cognizance of which pertains to another
tribunal.
A. legal question
B. juridical question
C. prejudicial question
D. judicial question
50. The RPC was based on the
A. Spanish penal code
B. English penal code
C. American penal code
D. Japanese penal code
51. An act or omission which is a result of a
misapprehension of facts
that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. impossible crime
B. mistake of facts
C. accidental crime
D. complex crime
52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not
more than….
A. 36 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from
compliance therewith.
A. ignorantia legis non excusat
B. parens patriae
C. res ipsa loquitur
D. dura lex sed lex
54. An act which would be an offense against
persons or property if
it was not for the inherent impossibility of its
accomplishment.
A. compound crime
B. impossible crime
C. complex crime
D. accidental crime
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.
A. RA 5425
B. RA 8553
C. RA 7659
D. RA 8551
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or
discernment and
freedom of the will at the time of the
commission of the crime.
A. discernment
B. insanity
C. epilepsy
D. imbecility
57. The quality by which an act may be
subscribed to a person as its
owner or author
A. responsibility
B. duty
C. guilt
D. imputability
58. Something that happen outside the sway of
our will, and
although it comes about through some acts of
our will,
lies beyond the bound s of humanly
foreseeable consequences.
A. fortuitous event
B. fate
C. accident
D. destiny
59. A sworn written statement charging a person
with an
offense,subscribed by the offended party, any
peace
officer or other public officer charged with the
enforcement of
the law violated.
A. subpoena
B. information
C. complaint
D. writ
60. This right of the accused is founded on the
principle of justice
and is intended not to protect the guilty but
to prevent as far as
human agencies can the conviction of an
innocent person.
A. right to due process of law
B. presumption of innocence
C. right to remain silent
D. right against self-incrimination
61. Known in other countries as the body of
principles,
practices,usages and rules of action which are
not
recognized in our country.
A. penal laws
B. special laws
C. common laws
D. statutory laws
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence
in the agent of the
crime any of all the conditions that would
make
an act voluntary and hence, though there is
no criminal liability
there is civil liability.
A. Exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the
person are in accordance
with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal
and civil liability.
A. exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating
64. When the offender enjoys and delights in
making his victim
suffers slowly and gradually, causing him
unnecessary physical
pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
A. Ignominy
B. cruelty
C. treachery
D. masochism
65. One, who at the time of his trial for one
crime shall have been
previously convicted by final judgment of
another crime embraced
in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism
B. habitual delinquency
C. reiteracion
D. quasi-recidivism
66. Alevosia means
A. Craft
B. treachery
C. evident premeditation
D. cruelty
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds
upon inquiry and
render judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law
B. equal protection of the law
C. rule of law
D. due process of law
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from
the date of his
release or last conviction of the crime of
serious or less serious
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or
falsification, he is
found guilty of any of the said crimes a third
time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent
D. hardened criminal
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted
or overcome.
A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive
70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted
or overcome.
A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive
71. These questions suggest to the witness the
answers to which an
examining party requires.
A. leading
B. misleading
C. stupid
D. hearsay
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension
and prosecution of
persons alleged to have committed a crime,
and
or their punishment in case of conviction
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Criminal Jurisprudence
73. The period of prescription of crimes
punishable by death.
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 40 years
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution
of a crime.
A. Accomplices
B. Accessories
C. Instigators
D. Principals
75. A crime against honor which is committed by
performing any act
which casts dishonor, discredit, or
contempt upon another
person.
A. libel
B. slander by deed
C. incriminating innocent person
D. intriguing against honor
76. The improper performance of some act
which might lawfully be
done.
A. misfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. nonfeasance
D. dereliction
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon
oath before an
authorized magistrate or officer.
A. subpoena
B. writ
C. warrant
D. affidavit
78. Any other name which a person publicly
applies to himself
without authority of law.
A. alias
B. common name
C. fictitious name
D. screen name
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a
person, after having
been convicted by final judgment, shall
commit a new felony
before beginning to serve such sentence, or
while serving
the same.
A. quasi-recidivism
B. recidivism
C. reiteracion
D. charivari
80. Which of the following is not a person in
authority?
A. Municipal mayor
B. Private School Teacher
C. Police Officer
D. Municipal Councilor
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of
commotions or
disturbances in the State.
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Treason
D. Coup d’ etat
82. The length of validity of a search warrant
from its date.
A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 60 days
83. The detention of a person without legal
grounds by a public
officer or employee.
A. illegal detention
B. arbitrary detention
C. compulsory detention
D. unauthorized detention
84. A breach of allegiance to a government,
committed by a person
who owes allegiance to it.
A. treason
B. espionage
C. rebellion
D. coup d’ etat
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for
rest and comfort.
A. sanctuary
B. prison
C. jail
D. dwelling
86. The mental capacity to understand the
difference between right
and wrong.
A. treachery
B. premeditation
C. recidivism
D. discernment
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is
punishable under the law.
A. Estafa
B. Murder
C. Rebellion
D. Rape
88. It means that the resulting injury is greater
than that which is
intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
C. Dura Lex Sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem
89. It means mistake in the blow.
A. Aberratio Ictus
B. Error in Personae
C. Dura lex sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem
90. A stage of execution when all the elements
necessary for its
execution and accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished
91. An act or omission which is the result of a
misapprehension of
facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. Absolutory Cause
B. Mistake of facts
C. Conspiracy
D. Felony
92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
A. Material
B. Formal
C. Seasonal
D. Continuing
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the
offender are
malicious.
A. Culpable
B. Intentional
C. Deliberate
D. Inculpable
94. It indicates deficiency of perception.
A. Negligence
B. Diligence
C. Imprudence
D. Inference
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special
penal laws.
A. Offenses
B. Misdemeanors
C. Felonies
D. Ordinances
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it
binding upon all persons
who live or sojourn in the Philippines.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment
without judicial trial.
A. Bill of Attainder
B. Bill of Rights
C. Ex Post Facto Law
D. Penal Law
98. The taking of a person into custody in order
that he may be
bound to answer for the commission of an
offense.
A. Search
B. Seizure
C. Arrest
D. Detention
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the
crime committed?
A. Robbery
B. Farm Theft
C. Qualified Theft
D. Simple Theft
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual
intercourse with her 11 year
old girlfriend without threat, force or
intimidation. What was
the crime committed?
A. Child rape
B. Qualified Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. None of these
