CCNA 1

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 Contents

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 1 – 3: Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam Answers....................3

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 4 – 7: Ethernet Concepts Exam Answers...................................................................26
CCNA 1 v7 Modules 8 – 10: Communicating Between Networks Exam Answers......................................41
CCNA 1 v7 Modules 11 – 13: IP Addressing Exam Answers Full.................................................................67
CCNA 1 v7 Modules 14 – 15: Network Application Communications Exam Answers................................83
CCNA 1 v7 Modules 16 – 17: Building and Securing a Small Network Exam Answers...............................93
Introduction to Networks (Version 7.0) – ITNv7 Practice Final Exam Answers........................................108
CCNA 1 (Version 7.00) ITNv7 Practice Final Exam Answers.................................................................108

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 CCNA 1 v7 Modules 1 – 3: Basic Network
Connectivity and Communications Exam
Answers

CCNAv7 System Test Course (Version 1.1) – System Test Exam

Answers

1. What two characteristics describe an FTP connection? (Choose two.)

 The server establishes the first connection with the client to control traffic that
consists of server commands and client replies.
 A large file requires more than two connections between the client and the server to
successfully download it.
 The first connection established is for traffic control and the second connection is
created to transfer a file.
 Files can be downloaded from or uploaded to the server.
 The client needs to run a daemon program to establish an FTP connection with a
server.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1.
What is a description of the default gateway address?

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 CCNA 1 System Test Course (Version 1.1) – System Test Exam PC1
 It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
 It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
 It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
 It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
3. Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.
What is the application layer service being requested from Server0 by PC0?

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 CCNA 1 System Test Course (Version 1.1) – System Test Exam PT

In the Simulation mode, capture the packets. What is the application layer service
being requested from Server0 by PC0?
Return to the assessment to answer the question.

 FTP
 DNS
 HTTPS
 HTTP
 SMTP

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 CCNA 1 System Test Course (Version 1.1) – System Test Exam PT Answer
4. Which statement describes the physical topology for a LAN?
 It defines how hosts and network devices connect to the LAN.
 It shows the order in which hosts access the network.
 It depicts the addressing scheme that is employed in the LAN.
 It describes whether the LAN is a broadcast or token-passing network.
5. Match the term to the value represented.

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CCNA 1 System Test Course (Version 1.1) – System Test Exam

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Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam
1. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was
installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited
by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?
 DoS attack
 identity theft
 spyware
 zero-day attack
2. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate
offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?
 Internet
 intranet
 extranet
 extendednet
3. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network
resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend
does this describe?
 cloud computing
 online collaboration
 bring your own device
 video conferencing
4. What is an ISP?
 It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
 It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
 It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the
Internet.
 It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different
networking devices in one.

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5. Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network
architecture. (Not all options are used.)

6. An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do

this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal
servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access?
 an intranet
 the Internet
 an extranet
 a local area network

7. Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

 New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.

 A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.
 A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing
electrical outlet.

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  Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home
LAN.
8. A networking technician is working on the wireless network at a medical clinic.
The technician accidentally sets up the wireless network so that patients can see the
medical records data of other patients. Which of the four network characteristics
has been violated in this situation?
 fault tolerance
 scalability
 security
 Quality of Service (QoS)
 reliability
9. Match each characteristic to its corresponding Internet connectivity type. (Not all
options are used.)

ITN (Version 7.00) – Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam 5

10. What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various
network media? (Choose two.)
 the types of data that need to be prioritized
 the cost of the end devices utilized in the network
 the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal
 the number of intermediate devices installed in the network
 the environment where the selected medium is to be installed
11. What type of network traffic requires QoS?
 email

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  on-line purchasing
 video conferencing
 wiki
12. A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions
would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)
 implementing a firewall
 installing a wireless network
 installing antivirus software
 implementing an intrusion detection system
 adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device
13. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select
the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
 VTY interface
 console interface
 Ethernet interface
 boot IOS mode
 privileged EXEC mode
 router configuration mode
14. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

 the AUX interface

 the console port interface
 the switch virtual interface
 the first Ethernet port interface
 Explanation: In a Layer 2 switch, there is a switch virtual interface (SVI)
that provides a means for remotely managing the device.

15. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in
IOS?
 It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
 It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
 It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
 It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.
16. While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the
current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were
not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work
with the file in NVRAM?
 Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.
 Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.
 Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.
 Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.
17. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing
the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

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  to restart the ping process
 to interrupt the ping process
 to exit to a different configuration mode
 to allow the user to complete the command

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to

switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch,
which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam

Answers 14
 letmein
 secretin
 lineconin
 linevtyin
19. A technician configures a switch with these commands:

SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the technician configuring?

 Telnet access
 SVI
 password encryption
 physical switchport access
20. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level
in the command hierarchy?
 end

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  exit
 Ctrl-Z
 Ctrl-C
21. What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
 RAM provides nonvolatile storage.
 The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.
 The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.
 RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
 RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.

22. Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco
IOS devices? (Choose two.)

 Branch2!
 RM-3-Switch-2A4
 Floor(15)
 HO Floor 17
 SwBranch799
23. How is SSH different from Telnet?
 SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access.
 SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and using user
authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext.
 SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be
used to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.
 SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is used
to connect to a device from a console connection.
24. An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what
order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to
reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not all
options are used.)

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 CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam
Answers 24
25. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)
 It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.
 It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.
 It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.
 It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.
 It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.
 It is associated with VLAN1 by default.
26. What command is used to verify the condition of the switch interfaces, including
the status of the interfaces and a configured IP address?
 ipconfig
 ping
 traceroute
 show ip interface brief

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27. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

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28. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all
options are used.)

29. In the show running-config command, which part of the syntax is represented by
running-config ?
 the command
 a keyword
 a variable

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  a prompt
30. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator
issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing
this command?
 The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
 The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
 The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
 The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be
restored.
31. What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain
text in a configuration file?
 (config)# enable password secret
 (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
 (config-line)# password secret
 (config)# service password-encryption
 (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password

32. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into

the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

 This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.
 This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration
passwords.
 This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password
command.
 This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are
currently stored in NVRAM.
 This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service
personnel who are required to do router maintenance.
 Explanation: The startup-config and running-config files display most
passwords in plaintext. Use the service password-encryption global config
command to encrypt all plaintext passwords in these files.

33. What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not
dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?
 encapsulation
 flow control
 access method
 response timeout
34. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a
PC is sending data to the network?
 Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
 Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.

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  Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.
 Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
35. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
(Choose three.)
 ARP
 DHCP
 DNS
 FTP
 NAT
 PPP
36. Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)

37. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

 bits
 data
 frame
 packet
 segment
38. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property
of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4
address?

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  DNS server address
 subnet mask
 default gateway
 DHCP server address
39. What process involves placing one PDU inside of another PDU?
 encapsulation
 encoding
 segmentation
 flow control
40. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the
TCP/IP model?
 internet
 transport
 network access
 session
41. For the TCP/IP protocol suite, what is the correct order of events when a Telnet
message is being prepared to be sent over the network?

CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam

Answers 41
42. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by
the NIC of a host?
 file
 frame
 packet

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  segment
 Explanation: When received at the physical layer of a host, the bits are
formatted into a frame at the data link layer. A packet is the PDU at the
network layer. A segment is the PDU at the transport layer. A file is a data
structure that may be used at the application layer.

43. Refer to the exhibit. ServerB is attempting to contact HostA. Which two
statements correctly identify the addressing that ServerB will generate in the
process? (Choose two.)

 ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

 ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchB.
 ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.
 ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterB.
 ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of HostA.
 ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.
44. Which method allows a computer to react accordingly when it requests data
from a server and the server takes too long to respond?
 encapsulation
 flow control
 access method
 response timeout
45. A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web server. From the
perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used
to decode the received transmission?
 Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
 HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
 Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

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  HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP
46. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of the
TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
 data link
 network
 physical
 session
 transport
47. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during
encapsulation?
 physical layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 transport layer
48. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?
 They are sent to a select group of hosts.
 They are sent to all hosts on a network.
 They must be acknowledged.
 They are sent to a single destination.
49. Which statement is correct about network protocols?
 Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in
racks.
 They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.
 They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
 They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote
networks.

Explanation: Network protocols are implemented in hardware, or software, or

both. They interact with each other within different layers of a protocol stack.
Protocols have nothing to do with the installation of the network equipment.
Network protocols are required to exchange information between source and
destination devices in both local and remote networks.
50. What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?
 Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the
same vendor.
 A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully
exchange data.
 Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.
 Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.
51. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages
should take through internetworks?
 a router
 a firewall

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  a web server
 a DSL modem
52. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.

What is the IP address of the switch virtual interface (SVI) on Switch0?

 192.168.5.10
 192.168.10.5
 192.168.10.1
 192.168.5.0
 Explanation: After the enable command is issued, the show running-
configuration command or the show ip interfaces brief command will
display the IP address of the switch virtual interface (SVI).

53. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

 to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
 to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
 to enable the switch to be managed remotely
 to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
54. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but
receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam

Answers 54
 The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
 The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
 The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the
command.
 The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration
mode.
55. What term describes a network owned by one organization that provides safe
and secure access to individuals who work for a different organization?
 extranet

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  cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service
56. What term describes storing personal files on servers over the internet to
provide access anywhere, anytime, and on any device?
 cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service
 converged network
57. What term describes a network where one computer can be both client and
server?
 peer-to-peer
 cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service
58. What term describes a type of network used by people who work from home or
from a small remote office?
 SOHO network
 BYOD
 quality of service
 converged network
59. What term describes a computing model where server software runs on
dedicated computers?
 client/server
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
61. What term describes a technology that allows devices to connect to the LAN
using an electrical outlet?
 powerline networking
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
62. What term describes a policy that allows network devices to manage the flow of
data to give priority to voice and video?
 quality of service
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
63. What term describes a private collection of LANs and WANs that belongs to an
organization?
 intranet
 internet

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  extranet
 peer-to-peer
64. What term describes the ability to use personal devices across a business or
campus network?
 BYOD
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
65. At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 network layer
 data link layer
 transport layer
 application layer
66. At which OSI layer is a destination port number added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 transport layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 application layer
67. At which OSI layer is data added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
 application layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 transport layer
68. At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 network layer
 data link layer
 application layer
 presentation layer
69. Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that
participate directly in network communication?
 Servers
 Intermediary device
 Host
 media
70. At which OSI layer is a destination IP address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 network layer
 application layer
 transport layer
 presentation layer

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71. At which OSI layer is a source MAC address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 data link layer
 application layer
 transport layer
 presentation layer
72. At which OSI layer is a source port number added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 transport layer
 application layer
 network layer
 presentation layer
 data link layer
73. At which OSI layer is a destination MAC address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 data link layer
 transport layer
 application layer
 network layer
74. When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit
the data?
 Wireless
 Fire optic cable
 Copper cable
75. Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)
 Host
 Router
 Switch
 Servers

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 CCNA 1 v7 Modules 4 – 7: Ethernet
Concepts Exam Answers
Introduction to Networks ( Version 7.00) – Modules 4 – 7:
Ethernet Concepts Exam
1. What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?
 controlling access to media
 transmitting bits across the local media
 performing error detection on received frames
 exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media
2. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
 The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
 They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
 They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
 They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
3. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?
 the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
 the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires
 the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
 the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point
4. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
 requiring proper grounding connections
 twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
 wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
 designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
 avoiding sharp bends during installation
5. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

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6. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company
backbone for a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that
the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three
factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)
 the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
 the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
 the type of traffic that is crossing the network
 the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
 the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
 the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

7. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

 It is not affected by EMI or RFI.

 Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
 It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.
 It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
 It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.

8. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

 create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
 provide physical addressing to the devices
 determine the path packets take through the network
 control data access to the media

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9. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes
crosstalk within the cable pairs?
 the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
 the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
 the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
 the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
10. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

 STP
 UTP
 coax
 fiber
11. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere with the
communication carried over UTP cables? (Choose two.)
 crosstalk
 bandwidth
 size of the network
 signal modulation technique
 electromagnetic interference
12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

 STP
 UTP
 coax
 fiber
13. Which two devices commonly affect wireless networks? (Choose two.)
 Blu-ray players
 home theaters

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  cordless phones
 microwaves
 incandescent light bulbs
 external hard drives
14. Which two statements describe the services provided by the data link layer?
(Choose two.)
 It defines the end-to-end delivery addressing scheme.
 It maintains the path between the source and destination devices during the data
transmission.
 It manages the access of frames to the network media.
 It provides reliable delivery through link establishment and flow control.
 It ensures that application data will be transmitted according to the prioritization.
 It packages various Layer 3 PDUs into a frame format that is compatible with the
network interface.
15. What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?
 to verify the integrity of the received frame
 to verify the physical address in the frame
 to verify the logical address in the frame
 to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame
16. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
 logical address
 physical address
 data
 error detection
17. Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header fields of the data
link layer?
 They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.
 Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and destination addresses.
 They vary depending on protocols.
 They include information on user applications.
 Explanation: All data link layer protocols encapsulate the Layer 3 PDU
within the data field of the frame. However, the structure of the frame and
the fields that are contained in the header vary according to the protocol.
Different data link layer protocols may use different fields, like
priority/quality of service, logical connection control, physical link control,
flow control, and congestion control.

18. A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote
sites to a headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and
connects some, but not all, remote sites?
 mesh
 partial mesh
 hub and spoke

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  point-to-point
19. Which two fields or features does Ethernet examine to determine if a received
frame is passed to the data link layer or discarded by the NIC? (Choose two.)
 auto-MDIX
 CEF
 Frame Check Sequence
 minimum frame size
 source MAC address
20. Which media communication type does not require media arbitration in the data
link layer?
 deterministic
 half-duplex
 full-duplex
 controlled access
21. Which statement describes an extended star topology?
 End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other
central intermediate devices.
 End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central
intermediate device.
 Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device.
 All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.
22. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
 It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
 It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of
the medium.
 It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the
same network interface and media.
 It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
23. What are three ways that media access control is used in networking? (Choose
three.)
 Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.
 Media access control provides placement of data frames onto the media.
 Contention-based access is also known as deterministic.
 802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.
 Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.
 Networks with controlled access have reduced performance due to data collisions.
 Explanation: Wired Ethernet networks use CSMA/CD for media access
control. IEEE 802.11 wireless networks use CSMA/CA, a similar method.
Media access control defines the way data frames get placed on the
media. The controlled access method is deterministic, not a contention-
based access to networks. Because each device has its own time to use
the medium, controlled access networks such as legacy Token Ring do not
have collisions.

30
24. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC
connected to an Ethernet network?
 An IP address is added.
 The logical address is added.
 The physical address is added.
 The process port number is added.
25. What three items are contained in an Ethernet header and trailer? (Choose
three.)
 source IP address
 source MAC address
 destination IP address
 destination MAC address
 error-checking information
26. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?
 access method
 flow control
 message encapsulation
 message encoding
27. Which three basic parts are common to all frame types supported by the data
link layer? (Choose three.)
 header
 type field
 MTU size
 data
 trailer
 CRC value
28. Which statement is true about the CSMA/CD access method that is used in
Ethernet?
 When a device hears a carrier signal and transmits, a collision cannot occur.
 A jamming signal causes only devices that caused the collision to execute a backoff
algorithm.
 All network devices must listen before transmitting.
 Devices involved in a collision get priority to transmit after the backoff period.
29. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
 the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
 the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover
Ethernet cable connection
 the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or
optical cable
 the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is
detected

31
30. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination MAC address of the Ethernet frame
as it leaves the web server if the final destination is PC1?

 00-60-2F-3A-07-AA
 00-60-2F-3A-07-BB
 00-60-2F-3A-07-CC
 00-60-2F-3A-07-DD
31. A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to
a port connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering
would work best for this task?
 port-based buffering
 level 1 cache buffering
 shared memory buffering
 fixed configuration buffering
 Explanation: With shared memory buffering, the number of frames stored
in the buffer is restricted only by the of the entire memory buffer and not
limited to a single port buffer. This permits larger frames to be transmitted
with fewer dropped frames. This is important to asymmetric switching,
which applies to this scenario, where frames are being exchanged
between ports of different rates. With port-based memory buffering, frames
are stored in queues that are linked to specific incoming and outgoing
ports making it possible for a single frame to delay the transmission of all
the frames in memory because of a busy destination port. Level 1 cache is
memory used in a CPU. Fixed configuration refers to the port arrangement
in switch hardware.

32. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

32
  store-and-forward switching
 fast-forward switching
 CRC switching
 fragment-free switching
 QOS switching

33. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC
check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

 cut-through switching
 store-and-forward switching
 fragment-free switching
 fast-forward switching
34. What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?
 to obtain the MAC address of the sending node
 to verify the logical address of the sending node
 to compute the CRC header for the data field
 to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception
 Explanation: The FCS field in a frame is used to detect any errors in the
transmission and receipt of a frame. This is done by comparing the CRC
value within the frame against a computed CRC value of the frame. If the
two values do not match, then the frame is discarded.

35. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

 cut-through
 store-and-forward
 fragment-free
 fast-forward
36. A network administrator is connecting two modern switches using a straight-
through cable. The switches are new and have never been configured. Which three
statements are correct about the final result of the connection? (Choose three.)
 The link between the switches will work at the fastest speed that is supported by both
switches.
 The link between switches will work as full-duplex.
 If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own fastest
speed.
 The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces eliminating the need for a
crossover cable.
 The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the cable to a
crossover cable.
 The duplex capability has to be manually configured because it cannot be negotiated.
37. Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared
with the cut-through switching method?
33
  collision detecting
 frame error checking
 faster frame forwarding
 frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information
38. When the store-and-forward method of switching is in use, what part of the
Ethernet frame is used to perform an error check?
 CRC in the trailer
 source MAC address in the header
 destination MAC address in the header
 protocol type in the header

39. Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?

 cut-through
 fast-forward
 fragment-free
 store-and-forward
40. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
 building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header
 using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address
table
 forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway
 utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address
 examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table
41. Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control
sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)
 Logical link control is implemented in software.
 Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.
 The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data.
 The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol
suite.
 The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off
the media.
42. What is the auto-MDIX feature?
 It enables a device to automatically configure an interface to use a straight-through
or a crossover cable.
 It enables a device to automatically configure the duplex settings of a segment.
 It enables a device to automatically configure the speed of its interface.
 It enables a switch to dynamically select the forwarding method.

43. What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the
store-and-forward switching method?

34
  has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames
 makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame
 has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications
 provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds
44. Which is a multicast MAC address?
 FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
 5C-26-0A-4B-19-3E
 01-00-5E-00-00-03
 00-26-0F-4B-00-3E
45. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

 The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

 The wrong type of connector is being used.
 The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
 The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.
46. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All
the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP
cables can be used to connect the devices?

1 - rollover, 2 - crossover, 3 - straight-through

1 - rollover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - crossover

1 - crossover, 2 - rollover, 3 - straight-through

1 - crossover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - rollover

35
47. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.

Which port does Switch0 use to send frames to the host with the IPv4 address
10.1.1.5?

 Fa0/1
 Fa0/5
 Fa0/9
 Fa0/11
48. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
 loss of signal strength as distance increases
 time for a signal to reach its destination
 leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
 strengthening of a signal by a networking device
49. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings?
(Choose three.)
 greater distances per cable run
 lower installation cost
 limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
 durable connections
 greater bandwidth potential
 easily terminated
 Explanation: Optical fiber cable transmits data over longer distances and
at higher bandwidths than any other networking media. Unlike copper
wires, fiber-optic cable can transmit signals with less attenuation and is
completely immune to EMI and RFI.

36
50. What OSI physical layer term describes the process by which one wave modifies
another wave?
 modulation
 IEEE
 EIA/TIA
 air
51. What OSI physical layer term describes the capacity at which a medium can
carry data?
 bandwidth
 IEEE
 EIA/TIA
 air
53. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the transfer of bits
across a medium over a given period of time?
 throughput
 bandwidth
 latency
 goodput
54. What OSI physical layer term describes the amount of time, including delays,
for data to travel from one point to another?
 latency
 bandwidth
 throughput
 goodput
55. What OSI physical layer term describes the amount of time, including delays,
for data to travel from one point to another?
 latency
 fiber-optic cable
 air
 copper cable
56. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of usable data transferred
over a given period of time?
 goodput
 fiber-optic cable
 air
 copper cable
57. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium which uses
electrical pulses?
 copper cable
 fiber-optic cable
 air
 goodput

37
58. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium that uses the
propagation of light?
 fiber-optic cable
 goodput
 latency
 throughput
59. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium for microwave
transmissions?
 air
 goodput
 latency
 throughput
60. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI data link
layer? (Choose two.)
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being
used for the frame.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical medium.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
Case 2:
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Communicates between the networking software at the upper layers and the device
hardware at the lower layers.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
Case 3:
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being
used for the frame.
Case 4:
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Communicates between the networking software at the upper layers and the device
hardware at the lower layers.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
Case 5:

38
  Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being
used for the frame.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical medium.
 Communicates between the networking software at the upper layers and the device
hardware at the lower layers.
Case 6:
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical medium
 Provides a mechanism to allow multiple devices to communicate over a shared
medium.
61. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI data link
layer? (Choose two.)
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being
used for the frame.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Implements a process to delimit fields within a Layer 2 frame.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical medium.
64. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI data link
layer? (Choose two.)
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is
being used for the frame.
 Performs data encapsulation.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical medium.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
66. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI data link
layer? (Choose two.)
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
 Provides data link layer addressing.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
68. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI data link
layer? (Choose two.)
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
71. What action will occur if a switch receives a frame with the destination MAC
address FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF?

39
  The switch forwards it out all ports except the ingress port.
 The switch shares the MAC address table entry with any connected switches.
 The switch does not forward the frame.
 The switch sends the frame to a connected router because the destination MAC
address is not local.
73. What action will occur if a switch receives a frame with the destination MAC
address 01:00:5E:00:00:D9?
 The switch forwards it out all ports except the ingress port.
 The switch does not forward the frame.
 The switch sends the frame to a connected router because the destination MAC
address is not local.
 The switch shares the MAC address table entry with any connected switches.
74. What action will occur if a host receives a frame with a destination MAC
address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF?
 The host will process the frame.
 The host forwards the frame to the router.
 The host sends the frame to the switch to update the MAC address table.
 The host forwards the frame to all other hosts.
75. What action will occur if a switch receives a frame and does have the source
MAC address in the MAC table?
 The switch refreshes the timer on that entry.
 The switch adds it to its MAC address table associated with the port number.
 The switch forwards the frame to the associated port.
 The switch sends the frame to a connected router because the destination MAC
address is not local.
76. What action will occur if a host receives a frame with a destination MAC
address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF?
 The host will process the frame.
 The host returns the frame to the switch.
 The host replies to the switch with its own IP address.
 The host forwards the frame to all other hosts.
78. What action will occur if a host receives a frame with a destination MAC
address it does not recognize?
 The host will discard the frame.
 The host replies to the switch with its own IP address.
 The host forwards the frame to all other hosts.
 The host returns the frame to the switch.
79. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?
 console
 rollover
 crossover
 straight-through

40
41
 CCNA 1 v7 Modules 8 – 10: Communicating
Between Networks Exam Answers
Introduction to Networks ( Version 7.00) – Modules 8 –
10: Communicating Between Networks Exam
1. Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its
destination?
 source IP address
 destination IP address
 source data-link address
 destination data-link address
2. A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will
the packet be sent?
 The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the
response from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.
 The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.
 The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default
gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host.
 The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.
3. A router receives a packet from the Gigabit 0/0 interface and determines that the
packet needs to be forwarded out the Gigabit 0/1 interface. What will the router do
next?
 route the packet out the Gigabit 0/1 interface
 create a new Layer 2 Ethernet frame to be sent to the destination
 look into the ARP cache to determine the destination IP address
 look into the routing table to determine if the destination network is in the routing
table
4. Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping the loopback interface?
 126.0.0.1
 127.0.0.0
 126.0.0.0
 127.0.0.1
5. A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on
other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?
 The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
 The computer has an invalid IP address.
 The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
 The computer has an invalid default gateway address.

42
6. Which statement describes a feature of the IP protocol?
 IP encapsulation is modified based on network media.
 IP relies on Layer 2 protocols for transmission error control.
 MAC addresses are used during the IP packet encapsulation.
 IP relies on upper layer services to handle situations of missing or out-of-order
packets.
7. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?
 Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of
internal networks.
 Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of
available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.
 The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6
header improves packet handling by intermediate routers.
 The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because
the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the
Internet.
8. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when
there are multiple routes available?
 the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
 the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
 the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
 the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network
9. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)
 performing error detection
 routing packets toward the destination
 encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer
 placement of frames on the media
 collision detection
10. Within a production network, what is the purpose of configuring a switch with a
default gateway address?
 Hosts that are connected to the switch can use the switch default gateway address to
forward packets to a remote destination.
 A switch must have a default gateway to be accessible by Telnet and SSH.
 The default gateway address is used to forward packets originating from the switch
to remote networks.
 It provides a next-hop address for all traffic that flows through the switch.
 Explanation: A default gateway address allows a switch to forward packets
that originate on the switch to remote networks. A default gateway address
on a switch does not provide Layer 3 routing for PCs that are connected on
that switch. A switch can still be accessible from Telnet as long as the
source of the Telnet connection is on the local network.

11. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?

43
  connectionless
 media dependent
 user data segmentation
 reliable end-to-end delivery
12. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a
network endlessly?
 Time-to-Live
 Sequence Number
 Acknowledgment Number
 Differentiated Services
13. What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?
 smaller-sized header
 little requirement for processing checksums
 smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses
 efficient packet handling
Explanation: The IPv6 simplified header offers several advantages over IPv4:
 Better routing efficiency and efficient packet handling for performance and
forwarding-rate scalability
 No requirement for processing checksums
 Simplified and more efficient extension header mechanisms (as opposed
to the IPv4 Options field)
 A Flow Label field for per-flow processing with no need to open the
transport inner packet to identify the various traffic flows

14. What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet?
 Protocol
 Identification
 Version
 Differentiated Services

44
15. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the
exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

Fa1/1

Fa1/0

Fa0/1

S0/0/0

Fa0/0

45
16. What information does the loopback test provide?
 The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.
 The device has end-to-end connectivity.
 DHCP is working correctly.
 The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
 The device has the correct IP address on the network.
17. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination
network?
 directly-connected routes
 local routes
 remote routes
 C and L source routes
18. How do hosts ensure that their packets are directed to the correct network
destination?
 They have to keep their own local routing table that contains a route to the loopback
interface, a local network route, and a remote default route.
 They always direct their packets to the default gateway, which will be responsible
for the packet delivery.
 They search in their own local routing table for a route to the network destination
address and pass this information to the default gateway.
 They send a query packet to the default gateway asking for the best route.
 Explanation: Hosts must maintain their own local routing table to ensure
that network layer packets are directed to the correct destination network.
This local table typically contains a route to the loopback interface, a route
46
 to the network that the host is connected to, and a local default route,
which represents the route that packets must take to reach all remote
network addresses.

19. When transporting data from real-time applications, such as streaming audio
and video, which field in the IPv6 header can be used to inform the routers and
switches to maintain the same path for the packets in the same conversation?
 Next Header
 Flow Label
 Traffic Class
 Differentiated Services
20. What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol?
 ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network.
 ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network.
 ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network.
 ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network.
21. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port
except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)
 The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.
 The destination address is unknown to the switch.
 The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.
 The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
 The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.
22. Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local link?
 They must be forwarded by all routers on the local network.
 They are received and processed by every device on the local network.
 They are dropped by all switches on the local network.
 They are received and processed only by the target device.
23. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
 0.0.0.0
 255.255.255.255
 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
 AAAA.AAAA.AAAA
 the physical address of the destination host
24. A network technician issues the arp -d * command on a PC after the router that
is connected to the LAN is reconfigured. What is the result after this command is
issued?
 The ARP cache is cleared.
 The current content of the ARP cache is displayed.
 The detailed information of the ARP cache is displayed.
 The ARP cache is synchronized with the router interface.

47
25. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the
contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to
PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

 The switch will discard the frame.

 The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
 The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
 The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
 The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
26. Which two types of IPv6 messages are used in place of ARP for address
resolution?
 anycast
 broadcast
 echo reply
 echo request
 neighbor solicitation
 neighbor advertisement
 Explanation: IPv6 does not use ARP. Instead, ICMPv6 neighbor discovery
is used by sending neighbor solicitation and neighbor advertisement
messages.

27. What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?

 to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts
 to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus addresses
 to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address
 to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests

48
  Explanation: In an ARP spoofing attack, a malicious host intercepts ARP
requests and replies to them so that network hosts will map an IP address
to the MAC address of the malicious host.

28. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends an ARP
request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address will PC1 receive
in the ARP reply?

 the MAC address of S1

 the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1
 the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2
 the MAC address of S2
 the MAC address of File_server1
29. Where are IPv4 address to Layer 2 Ethernet address mappings maintained on a
host computer?
 neighbor table
 ARP cache
 routing table
 MAC address table
30. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by a
Layer 2 device in order to forward the data onward?
 source MAC address
 source IP address
 destination MAC address
 Ethernet type
 destination IP address ramada12!

31. Match the commands to the correct actions. (Not all options are used.)

49
32. A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a
Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the
banner is properly configured?
 Reboot the device.
 Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
 Exit global configuration mode.
 Power cycle the device.
 Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.
33. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally
and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

50
34. Match the phases to the functions during the boot up process of a Cisco router.
(Not all options are used.)

35. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered.
(Not all options are used.)

51
36. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
 to store the routing table
 to retain contents when power is removed
 to store the startup configuration file
 to contain the running configuration file
 to store the ARP table
37. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
 The IOS image is corrupt.
 Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
 The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
 The POST process has detected hardware failure.
38. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to
a switch. What is the effect of this command?
 The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.
 The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
 The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
 The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway
172.16.100.1.
39. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch
vty lines?
 The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
 Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.

52
  The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
 The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.
40. Refer to the exhibit. A user PC has successfully transmitted packets to
www.cisco.com. Which IP address does the user PC target in order to forward its
data off the local network?

 172.24.255.17
 172.24.1.22
 172.20.0.254
 172.24.255.4
 172.20.1.18
41. Match the configuration mode with the command that is available in that mode.
(Not all options are used.)

42. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a
connection to the console interface? (Choose three.)

53
  interface fastethernet 0/0
 line vty 0 4
 line console 0
 enable secret cisco
 login
 password cisco
43. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1.
What is a description of the default gateway address?

 It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
 It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
 It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
 It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
44. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
 packet forwarding
 microsegmentation
 domain name resolution
 path selection
 flow control
45. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config
command on a router?
 The contents of ROM will change.
 The contents of RAM will change.
 The contents of NVRAM will change.
 The contents of flash will change.

54
46. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a
host?
 The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
 The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
 The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default
gateway.
 The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
 A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
47. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation?
(Choose two.)
 Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or
MAC address spoofing.
 On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data
communication delays.
 Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP
messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.
 Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table
to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.
 Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that
match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.
48. Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 8 – 10 Communicating Between Networks Exam

55
Which interfaces in each router are active and operational?

R1: G0/0 and S0/0/0

R2: G0/0 and S0/0/0
R1: G0/1 and S0/0/1
R2: G0/0 and S0/0/1
R1: G0/0 and S0/0/0
R2: G0/1 and S0/0/0
R1: G0/0 and S0/0/1
R2: G0/1 and S0/0/1
Explanation: The command to use for this activity is show ip interface brief in
each router. The active and operational interfaces are represented by the value
“up” in the “Status” and “Protocol” columns. The interfaces in R1 with these
characteristics are G0/0 and S0/0/0. In R2 they are G0/1 and S0/0/0.

49. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to identify the next
level protocol?
 protocol
 destination IPv4 address
 source IPv4 address
 TTL
50. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains an 8-bit
binary value used to determine the priority of each packet?
 differentiated services
 destination IPv4 address
 source IPv4 address
 protocol
51. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 32-bit
binary value associated with an interface on the sending device?
 source IPv4 address
 destination IPv4 address
 protocol
 TTL
52. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to detect corruption
in the IPv4 header?
 header checksum
 source IPv4 address
 protocol
 TTL

56
53.

RTR1(config)# interface gi0/1

RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Marketing LAN

RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.27.15.17 255.255.255.0

RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown

RTR1(config-if)# interface gi0/0

RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Payroll LAN

RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.27.14.148 255.255.255.0

RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown

RTR1(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.14.15.254 255.255.255.0

RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown

RTR1(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

RTR1(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.39 255.255.255.0

RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown

RTR1(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Payroll LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 10.27.14.148
 10.27.14.1
 10.14.15.254
 203.0.113.39
 10.27.15.17
54. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a unicast,
multicast, or broadcast address?
 destination IPv4 address

57
  protocol
 TTL
 header checksum
55. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to limit the lifetime
of a packet?
 TTL
 source IPv4 address
 protocol
 header checksum
56. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 4-bit
binary value set to 0100?
 version
 source IPv4 address
 protocol
 TTL
57. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to identify the next
level protocol?
 protocol
 version
 differentiated services
 header checksum
58. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 4-bit
binary value set to 0100?
 version
 differentiated services
 header checksum
 TTL
59. What property of ARP causes cached IP-to-MAC mappings to remain in
memory longer?
 Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
 A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be entered manually into an ARP table.
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on
the switch.
60. What property of ARP allows MAC addresses of frequently used servers to be
fixed in the ARP table?
 A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be entered manually into an ARP table.
 Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on
the switch.
62. What property of ARP allows hosts on a LAN to send traffic to remote
networks?

58
  Local hosts learn the MAC address of the default gateway.
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the
Ethernet frame.
 The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on
the switch.
63.

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.235.234 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.234.114 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.234.235.254 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.3 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Registrar LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 192.168.235.234
 192.168.235.1

59
  10.234.235.254
 203.0.113.3
 192.168.234.114
64. What property of ARP forces all Ethernet NICs to process an ARP request?
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the
Ethernet frame.
 The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.
65. What property of ARP causes a reply only to the source sending an ARP
request?
 The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the
Ethernet frame.
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.
66. What property of ARP causes the request to be flooded out all ports of a switch
except for the port receiving the ARP request?
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the
Ethernet frame.
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
 ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.
67. What property of ARP causes the NICs receiving an ARP request to pass the
data portion of the Ethernet frame to the ARP process?
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the
Ethernet frame.
 Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
 ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.
68. What property of ARP causes the NICs receiving an ARP request to pass the
data portion of the Ethernet frame to the ARP process?
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the
Ethernet frame.
 Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
 The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on
the switch.
69.

Main(config)# interface gi0/1

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Service LAN

60
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.29.157.156 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Engineering LAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.29.156.36 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Main(config-if)# ip address 10.156.157.254 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.177 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Service LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 172.29.157.156
 172.29.157.1
 10.156.157.254
 198.51.100.177
 172.29.156.36
70.

BldgA(config)# interface gi0/1

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Medical LAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.191.189 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
61
BldgA(config-if)# interface gi0/0

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Client LAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.190.70 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 10.190.191.254 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.213 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# end
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the
Medical LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 192.168.191.189
 192.168.191.1
 10.190.191.254
 198.51.100.213
 192.168.190.70
71.

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.225.223 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.224.103 255.255.255.0

62
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.224.225.254 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.246 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Registrar LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 192.168.225.223
 192.168.225.1
 10.224.225.254
 203.0.113.246
 192.168.224.103
72.

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.118.63.65 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.118.62.196 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

63
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.62.63.254 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 209.165.200.87 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Manager LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 10.118.62.196
 10.118.62.1
 10.62.63.254
 209.165.200.87
 10.118.63.65
73.

HQ(config)# interface gi0/1

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Branch LAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.19.99.99 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface gi0/0

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Store LAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.19.98.230 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

HQ(config-if)# ip address 10.98.99.254 255.255.255.0

64
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 209.165.200.120 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Store
LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address
would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 172.19.98.230
 172.19.98.1
 10.98.99.254
 209.165.200.120
 172.19.99.99
74.

HQ(config)# interface gi0/1

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Branch LAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.20.133.132 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface gi0/0

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Store LAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.20.132.13 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

HQ(config-if)# ip address 10.132.133.254 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

65
HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.156 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Store
LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address
would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 172.20.132.13
 172.20.132.1
 10.132.133.254
 198.51.100.156
 172.20.133.132
75.

Main(config)# interface gi0/1

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Service LAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 192.168.167.166 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Engineering LAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 192.168.166.46 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Main(config-if)# ip address 10.166.167.254 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.189 255.255.255.0

66
Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Service LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 192.168.167.166
 192.168.167.1
 10.166.167.254
 198.51.100.189
 192.168.166.46
76.

BldgA(config)# interface gi0/1

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Medical LAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.201.200 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface gi0/0

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Client LAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.200.80 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 10.200.201.254 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.222 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# end

67
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the
Medical LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 192.168.201.200
 192.168.201.1
 10.200.201.254
 203.0.113.222
 192.168.200.80

68
 CCNA 1 v7 Modules 11 – 13: IP Addressing
Exam Answers Full
Introduction to Networks ( Version 7.00) – Modules 11 –
13: IP Addressing Exam
1. What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
 /25
 /26
 /27
 /28
2. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured
with a /26 mask?
 254
 190
 192
 62
 64
3. Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.240
4. A network administrator subnets the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets with
/26 masks. How many equal-sized subnets are created?
 1
 2
 4
 8
 16
 64

69
5. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the
subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

6. An administrator wants to create four subnetworks from the network address

192.168.1.0/24. What is the network address and subnet mask of the second useable
subnet?
 subnetwork 192.168.1.64
subnet mask 255.255.255.192
 subnetwork 192.168.1.32
subnet mask 255.255.255.240
 subnetwork 192.168.1.64
subnet mask 255.255.255.240
 subnetwork 192.168.1.128
subnet mask 255.255.255.192
 subnetwork 192.168.1.8
subnet mask 255.255.255.224
7. How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to
accommodate a router with five connected networks?
 two
 three
 four
 five
8. How many host addresses are available on the 192.168.10.128/26 network?
 30
 32
 60

70
  62
 64
9. How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet
mask of 255.255.252.0?
 510
 512
 1022
 1024
 2046
 2048
10. Match each IPv4 address to the appropriate address category. (Not all options
are used.)

11. What three blocks of addresses are defined by RFC 1918 for private network
use? (Choose three.)
 10.0.0.0/8
 172.16.0.0/12
 192.168.0.0/16
 100.64.0.0/14
 169.254.0.0/16
 239.0.0.0/8
12. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the
router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

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  172.16.16.255
 172.16.20.255
 172.16.19.255
 172.16.23.255
 172.16.255.255
13. A site administrator has been told that a particular network at the site must
accommodate 126 hosts. Which subnet mask would be used that contains the
required number of host bits?
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.240
14. Refer to the exhibit. Considering the addresses already used and having to
remain within the 10.16.10.0/24 network range, which subnet address could be
assigned to the network containing 25 hosts?

 10.16.10.160/26
 10.16.10.128/28
 10.16.10.64/27
 10.16.10.224/26

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  10.16.10.240/27
 10.16.10.240/28
15. What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /26
mask?
 256
 254
 64
 62
 32
 16
16. Which address prefix range is reserved for IPv4 multicast?
 240.0.0.0 – 254.255.255.255
 224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255
 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255
 127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255
17. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix
that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network.

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18. A high school in New York (school A) is using videoconferencing technology to
establish student interactions with another high school (school B) in Russia. The
videoconferencing is conducted between two end devices through the Internet. The
network administrator of school A configures the end device with the IP address
209.165.201.10. The administrator sends a request for the IP address for the end
device in school B and the response is 192.168.25.10. Neither school is using a VPN.
The administrator knows immediately that this IP will not work. Why?
 This is a loopback address.
 This is a link-local address.
 This is a private IP address.
 There is an IP address conflict.
19. Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose three.)
 198.133.219.17
 192.168.1.245
 10.15.250.5
 128.107.12.117
 172.31.1.25
 64.104.78.227
20. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?
 limited broadcast
 multicast
 directed broadcast
 unicast
21. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain
10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that?
(Choose two.)
 192.168.1.16/28
 192.168.1.64/27
 192.168.1.128/27
 192.168.1.96/28

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  192.168.1.192/28
22. Which address is a valid IPv6 link-local unicast address?
 FEC8:1::FFFF
 FD80::1:1234
 FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1
 FE0A::100:7788:998F
 FC90:5678:4251:FFFF
23. Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:
3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB:0000:0000:0057?
 3FFE:1044::AB::57
 3FFE:1044::00AB::0057
 3FFE:1044:0:0:AB::57
 3FFE:1044:0:0:00AB::0057
 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB::57
 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB::0057
 Explanation: The rules for reducing the notation of IPv6 addresses are:
1. Omit any leading 0s (zeros) in any hextet.
2. Replace any single, contiguous string of one or more 16-bit hextets
consisting of all zeros with a double colon (::) .
3. The double colon (::) can only be used once within an address.

24. A network administrator has received the IPv6 prefix 2001:DB8::/48 for
subnetting. Assuming the administrator does not subnet into the interface ID
portion of the address space, how many subnets can the administrator create from
the /48 prefix?
 16
 256
 4096
 65536
25. Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the last subnet that is
created if the subnet prefix is changed to /52?
 2001:db8:0:f00::/52
 2001:db8:0:8000::/52
 2001:db8:0:f::/52
 2001:db8:0:f000::/52
 Explanation: Prefix 2001:db8::/48 has 48 network bits. If we subnet to a
/52, we are moving the network boundary four bits to the right and creating
16 subnets. The first subnet is 2001:db8::/52 the last subnet is
2001:db8:0:f000::/52.

26. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

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2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
…
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix-length for the range of addresses is 64.
Explanation: All the addresses have the part 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A in common.
Each number or letter in the address represents 4 bits, so the prefix-length is /60.

27. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?

 loopback
 link-local
 multicast
 global unicast
28. Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for its
network. The company design document indicates that the subnet portion of the
IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical network design, with the site
subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of the company, the sub-site
section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the subnet section to
indicate each network segment separated by routers. With such a scheme, what is
the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-site?

Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for its
network. The company design document indicates that the subnet portion of the
IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical network design, with the s ite
subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of the company, the s ub-site
section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the s ubnet section to
indicate each network segment separated by routers. With such a scheme, what is
the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-site ?
 0
 4
 16
 256
29. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6
enabled interface?

76
  the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface
 a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address
 an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server
 an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface
30. What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
 2001:DB8:BC15
 2001:DB8:BC15:A
 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1
 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12
31. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of
FF02::1. What is the target of this packet?
 the one IPv6 device on the link that has been uniquely configured with this address
 all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link or network
 only IPv6 DHCP servers
 only IPv6 configured routers
32. Match the IPv6 address with the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

33. Which IPv6 prefix is reserved for communication between devices on the same
link?
 FC00::/7
 2001::/32
 FE80::/10
 FDFF::/7
34. Which type of IPv6 address refers to any unicast address that is assigned to
multiple hosts?
 unique local
 global unicast
 link-local
 anycast
35. What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)
 multicast

77
  loopback
 link-local
 anycast
 broadcast
36. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices without
using a server that keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?
 stateful DHCPv6
 SLAAC
 static IPv6 addressing
 stateless DHCPv6
 Explanation: Using stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC), a PC
can solicit a router and receive the prefix length of the network. From this
information the PC can then create its own IPv6 global unicast address.

37. Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for

dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host?
 ARPv6
 DHCPv6
 ICMPv6
 UDP
38. Three methods allow IPv6 and IPv4 to co-exist. Match each method with its
description. (Not all options are used.)

39. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?
 the TCP/IP stack on a network host
 connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
 connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
 connectivity between two PCs on the same network
 physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

78
40. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity
between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on
the displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

 PC2
 R1
 SW2
 R2
 SW1
41. Which protocol is used by the traceroute command to send and receive echo-
requests and echo-replies?
 SNMP
 ICMP
 Telnet
 TCP
42. Which ICMPv6 message is sent when the IPv6 hop limit field of a packet is
decremented to zero and the packet cannot be forwarded?
 network unreachable
 time exceeded
 protocol unreachable
 port unreachable
43. A user executes a traceroute over IPv6. At what point would a router in the path
to the destination device drop the packet?
 when the value of the Hop Limit field reaches 255
 when the value of the Hop Limit field reaches zero
 when the router receives an ICMP time exceeded message
 when the target host responds with an ICMP echo reply message
44. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
 to inform routers about network topology changes

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  to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
 to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
 to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
45. What source IP address does a router use by default when the traceroute
command is issued?
 the highest configured IP address on the router
 a loopback IP address
 the IP address of the outbound interface
 the lowest configured IP address on the router
46. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are
used.)

47. A user issues a ping 192.135.250.103 command and receives a response that
includes a code of 1. What does this code represent?
 host unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 port unreachable
 network unreachable
48. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?
 192.168.1.64/26
 192.168.1.32/27
 192.168.1.32/28
 192.168.1.64/29
49. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.

80
 CCNA 1 v7 Modules 11 – 13 IP Addressing Exam Answers Full
What are the three IPv6 addresses displayed when the route from PC1 to PC2 is
traced? (Choose three.)
 2001:DB8:1:1::1
 2001:DB8:1:1::A
 2001:DB8:1:2::2
 2001:DB8:1:2::1
 2001:DB8:1:3::1
 2001:DB8:1:3::2
 2001:DB8:1:4::1
50. A host is transmitting a broadcast. Which host or hosts will receive it?
 all hosts in the same subnet
 a specially defined group of hosts
 the closest neighbor on the same network
 all hosts on the Internet
51. A host is transmitting a unicast. Which host or hosts will receive it?
 one specific host
 a specially defined group of hosts
 all hosts on the Internet
 the closest neighbor on the same network
52. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command and receives a response
that includes a code of 3. What does this code represent?
 address unreachable
 network unreachable
 host unreachable

81
  protocol unreachable
53. A host is transmitting a multicast. Which host or hosts will receive it?
 a specially defined group of hosts
 the closest neighbor on the same network
 one specific host
 directly connected network devices
60. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:a0b0:0008:0001?
 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1
 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000
 2001:db80:0:1::80:1
 2001:db80:::1::80:1
61. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
fe80:09ea:0000:2200:0000:0000:0fe0:0290?
 fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
 fe80:9:20::b000:290
 fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290
 fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290
62. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2002:0042:0010:c400:0000:0000:0000:0909?
 2002:42:10:c400::909
 200:420:110:c4b::910:0:90
 2002:4200::25:1090:0:99
 2002:42::25:1090:0:99
63. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0ab8:0001:0000:1000?
 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000
 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1
 2001:db8:1::ab8:0:1
 2001:db8:0:1::8:1
64. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2002:0420:00c4:1008:0025:0190:0000:0990?
 2002:420:c4:1008:25:190::990
 2002:42:10:c400::909
 2002:4200::25:1090:0:99
 2002:42::25:1090:0:99
65. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:a0b0:0008:0001?
 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1
 2001:db8:1::ab8:0:1
 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000
 2001:db8:0:1::8:1

82
66. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
fe80:0000:0000:0000:0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029?
 fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29
 fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
 fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290
 fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290
67. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:a0b0:0008:0001?
 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1
 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000
 2001:db80:0:1::80:1
 2001:db8:0:1::8:1
68. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2002:0042:0010:c400:0000:0000:0000:0909?
 2002:42:10:c400::909
 2002:4200::25:1090:0:99
 2002:420:c4:1008:25:190::990
 2002:42::25:1090:0:99
69. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
fe80:09ea:0000:2200:0000:0000:0fe0:0290?
 fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
 fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290
 fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29
 fe80::0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029
70. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command and receives a response
that includes a code of 2 . What does this code represent?
 beyond scope of the source address
 communication with the destination administratively prohibited
 address unreachable
 no route to destination
71. A user issues a ping 192.135.250.103 command and receives a response that
includes a code of 1 . What does this code represent?
 host unreachable
 beyond scope of the source address
 address unreachable
 communication with the destination administratively prohibited
72. A user issues a ping fe80:65ab:dcc1::100 command and receives a response that
includes a code of 3 . What does this code represent?
 address unreachable
 communication with the destination administratively prohibited
 beyond scope of the source address
 no route to destination

83
73. A user issues a ping 10.10.14.67 command and receives a response that includes
a code of 0 . What does this code represent?
 network unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 port unreachable
 host unreachable
74. A user issues a ping fe80:65ab:dcc1::100 command and receives a response that
includes a code of 4. What does this code represent?
A user issues a ping fe80:65ab:dcc1::100 command and receives a response that
includes a code of 4 . What does this code represent?
 port unreachable
 host unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 network unreachable
75. A user issues a ping 198.133.219.8 command and receives a response that
includes a code of 0 . What does this code represent?
 network unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 port unreachable
 host unreachable
76. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:3040:114::88 command and receives a response
that includes a code of 4 . What does this code represent?
 port unreachable
 host unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 network unreachable
77. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command and receives a response
that includes a code of 2. What does this code represent?
 beyond scope of the source address
 host unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 network unreachable

84
 CCNA 1 v7 Modules 14 – 15: Network
Application Communications Exam Answers
Introduction to Networks ( Version 7.00) – Modules 14 –
15: Network Application Communications Exam rezolvat
online (92%)
1. Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a server
via the use of UDP at the transport layer?
 The client sets the window size for the session.
 The client sends an ISN to the server to start the 3-way handshake.
 The client randomly selects a source port number.
 The client sends a synchronization segment to begin the session.
2. Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?
 UDP ACK flag
 TCP 3-way handshake
 UDP sequence number
 TCP port number
3. What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?
 0 to 255
 0 to 1023
 256 – 1023
 1024 – 49151
4. What is a socket?
 the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet
address
 the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number
 the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers
 the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers
5. A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The
server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send
before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?
 1 segment
 10 segments
 100 segments
 1000 segments
6. Which factor determines TCP window size?

 the amount of data to be transmitted

 the number of services included in the TCP segment
 the amount of data the destination can process at one time
 the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time
7. What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?
 It just sends the datagrams.

85
  It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.
 It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.
 It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.
8. Which three fields are used in a UDP segment header? (Choose three.)
 Window Size
 Length
 Source Port
 Acknowledgment Number
 Checksum
 Sequence Number
9. What are two roles of the transport layer in data communication on a network? (Choose
two.)
 identifying the proper application for each communication stream
 tracking the individual communication between applications on the source and destination hosts
 providing frame delimiting to identify bits making up a frame
 performing a cyclic redundancy check on the frame for errors
 providing the interface between applications and the underlying network over which messages are
transmitted
10. What information is used by TCP to reassemble and reorder received segments?
 port numbers
 sequence numbers
 acknowledgment numbers
 fragment numbers

11. What important information is added to the TCP/IP transport layer header to ensure
communication and connectivity with a remote network device?

 timing and synchronization

 destination and source port numbers
 destination and source physical addresses
 destination and source logical network addresses
12. Which two characteristics are associated with UDP sessions? (Choose two.)
 Destination devices receive traffic with minimal delay.
 Transmitted data segments are tracked.
 Destination devices reassemble messages and pass them to an application.
 Received data is unacknowledged.
 Unacknowledged data packets are retransmitted.
13. A client application needs to terminate a TCP communication session with a server.
Place the termination process steps in the order that they will occur. (Not all options are

86
used.)

14. Which flag in the TCP header is used in response to a received FIN in order to terminate
connectivity between two network devices?

 FIN
 ACK
 SYN
 RST

15. Which protocol or service uses UDP for a client-to-server communication and TCP for server-
to-server communication?

 HTTP
 FTP
 DNS
 SMTP
16. What is a characteristic of UDP?
 UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination.
 Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable.
 UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were received.
 UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the data.
17. What kind of port must be requested from IANA in order to be used with a specific
application?

87
  registered port
 private port
 dynamic port
 source port
18. Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
 SMTP
 FTP
 SNMP
 HTTP
 TFTP
 DHCP
19. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
 UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.
 UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
 UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
 UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.
 UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
 UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.

20. Which two fields are included in the TCP header but not in the UDP header? (Choose two.)

 window
 checksum
 source port
 destination port
 sequence number
21. Which field in the TCP header indicates the status of the three-way handshake process?
 window
 reserved
 checksum
 control bits
22. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?
 to ensure the fastest possible download speed
 because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
 because transmission errors can be tolerated easily
 because HTTP requires reliable delivery

23. Which two types of applications are best suited for UDP? (Choose two.)

 applications that need data flow control

 applications that require reliable delivery
 applications that handle reliability themselves
 applications that need the reordering of segments
 applications that can tolerate some data loss, but require little or no delay
24. How are port numbers used in the TCP/IP encapsulation process?
 Source port numbers and destination port numbers are not necessary when UDP is the transport
layer protocol being used for the communication.
 Source port and destination port numbers are randomly generated.
 If multiple conversations occur that are using the same service, the source port number is used to
track the separate conversations.

88
  Destination port numbers are assigned automatically and cannot be changed.
25. In what two situations would UDP be better than TCP as the preferred transport
protocol? (Choose two.)
 when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated
 when a faster delivery mechanism is needed
 when delivery overhead is not an issue
 when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data
 when destination port numbers are dynamic
26. What are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.)
 meeting the reliability requirements of applications, if any
 multiplexing multiple communication streams from many users or applications on the same network
 identifying the applications and services on the client and server that should handle transmitted data
 directing packets towards the destination network
 formatting data into a compatible form for receipt by the destination devices
 conducting error detection of the contents in frames

27. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

 The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).

 The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
 The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
 The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
 All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
 Only the DHCP server receives the message.
28. Which two protocols may devices use in the application process that sends email?
(Choose two.)
 HTTP
 SMTP
 POP
 IMAP
 DNS
 POP3
29. What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?
 Different SMB message types have a different format.
 Clients establish a long term connection to servers.
 SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.
 SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.
30. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?
 to request an HTML page from a web server
 to send error information from a web server to a web client
 to upload content to a web server from a web client
 to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP port 110
31. Which OSI layer provides the interface between the applications used to communicate
and the underlying network over which messages are transmitted?
 application
 presentation
 session
 transport
32. Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one chapter document
to a file server of a book publisher?

89
  peer-to-peer
 master-slave
 client/server
 point-to-point
33. What do the client/server and peer-to-peer network models have in common?
 Both models have dedicated servers.
 Both models support devices in server and client roles.
 Both models require the use of TCP/IP-based protocols.
 Both models are used only in the wired network environment.
34. In what networking model would eDonkey, eMule, BitTorrent, Bitcoin, and LionShare
be used?
 peer-to-peer
 client-based
 master-slave
 point-to-point
35. What is a common protocol that is used with peer-to-peer applications such as
WireShare, Bearshare, and Shareaza?
 Ethernet
 Gnutella
 POP
 SMTP

36. What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?

 wireless networking
 social networking without the Internet
 network printing using a print server
 resource sharing without a dedicated server
37. The application layer of the TCP/IP model performs the functions of what three layers
of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
 physical
 session
 network
 presentation
 data link
 transport
 application
38. What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?
 A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined.
 A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.
 A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.
 A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types www.cisco.com in the address bar of a
web browser.
39. Which layer in the TCP/IP model is used for formatting, compressing, and encrypting
data?
 internetwork
 session
 presentation
 application
 network access

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40. What is an advantage of SMB over FTP?
 Only with SMB can data transfers occur in both directions.
 Only SMB establishes two simultaneous connections with the client, making the data transfer faster.
 SMB is more reliable than FTP because SMB uses TCP and FTP uses UDP.
 SMB clients can establish a long-term connection to the server.
41. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from its ISP. The
services that are required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which
protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
 FTP
 HTTP
 DNS
 SNMP
 DHCP
 SMTP

42. Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?

 DNS
 DHCP
 SMTP
 HTTP
 POP3
43. What type of information is contained in a DNS MX record?
 the FQDN of the alias used to identify a service
 the IP address for an FQDN entry
 the domain name mapped to mail exchange servers
 the IP address of an authoritative name server
44. Which three protocols operate at the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose
three.)
 ARP
 TCP
 UDP
 FTP
 POP3
 DHCP
45. Which protocol is used by a client to communicate securely with a web server?
 SMTP
 SMB
 IMAP
 HTTPS
46. Which applications or services allow hosts to act as client and server at the same time?
 client/server applications
 email applications
 P2P applications
 authentication services

47. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

 scalability
 one way data flow

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  decentralized resources
 centralized user accounts
 resource sharing without a dedicated server
48. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
 A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the
phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
 A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within
the transport layer header.
 A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer
ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
 A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer
formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the
web site.
49. Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those provided
by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
 physical layer
 session layer
 transport layer
 application layer
 presentation layer
 data link layer
50. A PC that is communicating with a web server has a TCP window size of 6,000 bytes
when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. Which byte of information will the web
server acknowledge after it has received two packets of data from the PC?
 3001
 6001
 4500
 6000
51. A PC that is communicating with a web server has a TCP window size of 6,000 bytes
when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. Which byte of information will the web
server acknowledge after it has received three packets of data from the PC?
 4501
 6001
 6000
 4500
52. A PC that is communicating with a web server has a TCP window size of 6,000 bytes
when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. Which byte of information will the web
server acknowledge after it has received four packets of data from the PC?
 6001
 3001
 1501
 1500
60. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting TFTP service.
What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?
 69
 67
 53
 80

92
61. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting FTP service. What
number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?
 21
 69
 67
 80
62. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting SSH service. What
number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?
 22
 69
 67
 80
63. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting HTTP service.
What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?
 80
 67
 53
 69
64. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting POP3 service.
What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?
 110
 67
 53
 69
 443
 161
 80
65. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting telnet service.
What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?
 23
 443
 161
 110
67. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting SNMP service.
What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?
 161
 443
 110
 80
68. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting SMTP service.
What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?
 25
 443
 161
 110
69. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting HTTPS service.
What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?
 443
 161

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 110
 80

94
 CCNA 1 v7 Modules 16 – 17: Building and
Securing a Small Network Exam Answers
Introduction to Networks ( Version 7.00) – Modules 16 –
17: Building and Securing a Small Network Exam
1. Which component is designed to protect against unauthorized communications to
and from a computer?
 security center
 port scanner
 antimalware
 antivirus
 firewall
2. Which command will block login attempts on RouterA for a period of 30 seconds
if there are 2 failed login attempts within 10 seconds?
 RouterA(config)# login block-for 10 attempts 2 within 30
 RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 2 within 10
 RouterA(config)# login block-for 2 attempts 30 within 10
 RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 10 within 2
3. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?
 to require users to prove who they are
 to determine which resources a user can access
 to keep track of the actions of a user
 to provide challenge and response questions
4. What type of attack may involve the use of tools such as nslookup and fping?
 access attack
 reconnaissance attack
 denial of service attack
 worm attack

95
5. Match each weakness with an example. (Not all options are used.)

96
6. Match the type of information security threat to the scenario. (Not all options are
used.)

7. Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?

 malware that was written to look like a video game
 malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems
 malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs
when launched
 malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a
vulnerability in the target
8. What is the difference between a virus and a worm?
 Viruses self-replicate but worms do not.
 Worms self-replicate but viruses do not.
 Worms require a host file but viruses do not.
 Viruses hide in legitimate programs but worms do not.
9. Which attack involves a compromise of data that occurs between two end points?
 denial-of-service
 man-in-the-middle attack
 extraction of security parameters

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  username enumeration
10. Which type of attack involves an adversary attempting to gather information
about a network to identify vulnerabilities?
 reconnaissance
 DoS
 dictionary
 man-in-the-middle
11. Match the description to the type of firewall filtering. (Not all options are used.)

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12. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?
 to require users to prove who they are
 to determine which resources a user can access
 to keep track of the actions of a user
 to provide challenge and response questions
13. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are
legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?
 stateful packet inspection
 URL filtering
 application filtering
 packet filtering
14. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force
password attacks against the router?
 exec-timeout 30
 service password-encryption
 banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
 login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
15. Identify the steps needed to configure a switch for SSH. The answer order does
not matter. (Not all options are used.)

ITN (Version 7.00) – Building and Securing a Small Network Exam

16. What feature of SSH makes it more secure than Telnet for a device management
connection?
 confidentiality with IPsec
 stronger password requirement
 random one-time port connection

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  login information and data encryption
17. What is the advantage of using SSH over Telnet?
 SSH is easier to use.
 SSH operates faster than Telnet.
 SSH provides secure communications to access hosts.
 SSH supports authentication for a connection request.
18. What is the role of an IPS?
 detecting and blocking of attacks in real time
 connecting global threat information to Cisco network security devices
 authenticating and validating traffic
 filtering of nefarious websites
19. A user is redesigning a network for a small company and wants to ensure
security at a reasonable price. The user deploys a new application-aware firewall
with intrusion detection capabilities on the ISP connection. The user installs a
second firewall to separate the company network from the public network.
Additionally, the user installs an IPS on the internal network of the company. What
approach is the user implementing?
 attack based
 risk based
 structured
 layered
20. What is an accurate description of redundancy?
 configuring a router with a complete MAC address database to ensure that all frames
can be forwarded to the correct destination
 configuring a switch with proper security to ensure that all traffic forwarded through
an interface is filtered
 designing a network to use multiple virtual devices to ensure that all traffic uses the
best path through the internetwork
 designing a network to use multiple paths between switches to ensure there is no
single point of failure
21. A network administrator is upgrading a small business network to give high
priority to real-time applications traffic. What two types of network services is the
network administrator trying to accommodate? (Choose two.)
 voice
 video
 instant messaging
 FTP
 SNMP
22. What is the purpose of a small company using a protocol analyzer utility to
capture network traffic on the network segments where the company is considering
a network upgrade?
 to identify the source and destination of local network traffic
 to capture the Internet connection bandwidth requirement

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  to document and analyze network traffic requirements on each network segment
 to establish a baseline for security analysis after the network is upgraded
23. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device
with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

 Connectivity to the remote device was successful.

 A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.
 A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.
 The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.
24. Which method is used to send a ping message specifying the source address for
the ping?
 Issue the ping command from within interface configuration mode.
 Issue the ping command without specifying a destination IP address.
 Issue the ping command without extended commands.
 Issue the ping command after shutting down un-needed interfaces.
25. A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network
baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?
 a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output
 a next-hop timeout from a traceroute
 an increase in host-to-host ping response times
 a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output
26. Which statement is true about Cisco IOS ping indicators?
 ‘!’ indicates that the ping was unsuccessful and that the device may have issues
finding a DNS server.
 ‘U’ may indicate that a router along the path did not contain a route to the destination
address and that the ping was unsuccessful.
 ‘.’ indicates that the ping was successful but the response time was longer than
normal.
 A combination of ‘.’ and ‘!’ indicates that a router along the path did not have a route
to the destination address and responded with an ICMP unreachable message.
27. A user reports a lack of network connectivity. The technician takes control of the
user machine and attempts to ping other computers on the network and these pings
fail. The technician pings the default gateway and that also fails. What can be
determined for sure by the results of these tests?
 The NIC in the PC is bad.
 The TCP/IP protocol is not enabled.
 The router that is attached to the same network as the workstation is down.
 Nothing can be determined for sure at this point.

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28. A network technician issues the C:\> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command on a
Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option?
 It forces the trace to use IPv6.
 It limits the trace to only 6 hops.
 It sets a 6 milliseconds timeout for each replay.
 It sends 6 probes within each TTL time period.
29. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?
 to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
 to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
 to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network
 to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC
30. A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2.
The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors
command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping
failed between the two routers?
 The network administrator suspects a virus because the ping command did not work.
 The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.
 The network administrator wants to verify the IP address configured on router R2.
 The network administrator wants to determine if connectivity can be established
from a non-directly connected network.
31. A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues among interconnected
Cisco routers and switches. Which command should the engineer use to find the IP
address information, host name, and IOS version of neighboring network devices?
 show version
 show ip route
 show interfaces
 show cdp neighbors detail
32. What information about a Cisco router can be verified using the show version
command?
 the routing protocol version that is enabled
 the value of the configuration register
 the operational status of serial interfaces
 the administrative distance used to reach networks
33. Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log
messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH?
 debug all
 logging synchronous
 show running-config
 terminal monitor
34. Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug
messages to the vty lines?
 terminal monitor
 logging console

102
  logging buffered
 logging synchronous
35. By following a structured troubleshooting approach, a network administrator
identified a network issue after a conversation with the user. What is the next step
that the administrator should take?
 Verify full system functionality.
 Test the theory to determine cause.
 Establish a theory of probable causes.
 Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue.
36. Users are complaining that they are unable to browse certain websites on the
Internet. An administrator can successfully ping a web server via its IP address, but
cannot browse to the domain name of the website. Which troubleshooting tool
would be most useful in determining where the problem is?
 netstat
 tracert
 nslookup
 ipconfig
37. An employee complains that a Windows PC cannot connect to the Internet. A
network technician issues the ipconfig command on the PC and is shown an IP
address of 169.254.10.3. Which two conclusions can be drawn? (Choose two.)
 The PC cannot contact a DHCP server.
 The DNS server address is misconfigured.
 The default gateway address is not configured.
 The PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically.
 The enterprise network is misconfigured for dynamic routing.
38. Refer to the exhibit. Host H3 is having trouble communicating with host H1. The
network administrator suspects a problem exists with the H3 workstation and wants
to prove that there is no problem with the R2 configuration. What tool could the
network administrator use on router R2 to prove that communication exists to host
H1 from the interface on R2, which is the interface that H3 uses when

103
communicating with remote networks?

 traceroute
 show cdp neighbors
 Telnet
 an extended ping
39. Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had ping
round trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today the network
administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1 and H3 that
resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this indicate to the
network administrator?

 Connectivity between H1 and H3 is fine.

 H3 is not connected properly to the network.
 Something is causing interference between H1 and R1.
 Performance between the networks is within expected parameters.
 Something is causing a time delay between the networks.
40. Which network service automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on the
network?

104
  DHCP
 Telnet
 DNS
 traceroute
41. Which command can an administrator execute to determine what interface a
router will use to reach remote networks?
 show arp
 show interfaces
 show ip route
 show protocols
42. On which two interfaces or ports can security be improved by configuring
executive timeouts? (Choose two.)
 Fast Ethernet interfaces
 console ports
 serial interfaces
 vty ports
 loopback interfaces
43. When configuring SSH on a router to implement secure network management, a
network engineer has issued the login local and transport input ssh line vty
commands. What three additional configuration actions have to be performed to
complete the SSH configuration? (Choose three.)
 Set the user privilege levels.
 Generate the asymmetric RSA keys.
 Configure the correct IP domain name.
 Configure role-based CLI access.
 Create a valid local username and password database.
 Manually enable SSH after the RSA keys are generated.
44. What is considered the most effective way to mitigate a worm attack?
 Change system passwords every 30 days.
 Ensure that all systems have the most current virus definitions.
 Ensure that AAA is configured in the network.
 Download security updates from the operating system vendor and patch all
vulnerable systems.
45. Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?
 Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
 Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
 Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
 Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.
46. A technician is to document the current configurations of all network devices in
a college, including those in off-site buildings. Which protocol would be best to use
to securely access the network devices?
 FTP
 HTTP

105
  SSH
 Telnet
47. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 16 – 17 Building and Securing a Small Network Exam

Which command has to be configured on the router to complete the SSH
configuration?
 service password-encryption
 transport input ssh
 enable secret class
 ip domain-name cisco.com
48. An administrator decides to use “WhatAreyouwaiting4” as the password on a
newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
 It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
49. An administrator decides to use “pR3s!d7n&0” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
 It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
 It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
50. An administrator decides to use “5$7*4#033!” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
 It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.

106
  It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
51. An administrator decides to use “pR3s!d7n&0” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
52. An administrator decides to use “12345678!” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak because it uses a series of numbers or letters.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
53. An administrator decides to use “admin” as the password on a newly installed
router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
 It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
54. An administrator decides to use “Feb121978” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak because it uses easily found personal information.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
55. An administrator decides to use “password” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak because it is a commonly used password.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
56. An administrator decides to use “RobErT” as the password on a newly installed
router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
 It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
57. An administrator decides to use “Elizabeth” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak because it uses easily found personal information.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.

107
  It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
58. A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and needs to verify the IP
addresses of all interfaces on a router. What is the best command to use to
accomplish the task?
 show ip interface brief
 nslookup
 ipconfig getifaddr en0
 show ip route
59. Students who are connected to the same switch are having slower than normal
response times. The administrator suspects a duplex setting issue. What is the best
command to use to accomplish the task?
 show interfaces
 ipconfig getifaddr en0
 copy running-config startup-config
 show ip nat translations
60. A user wants to know the IP address of the PC. What is the best command to use
to accomplish the task?
 ipconfig
 copy running-config startup-config
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
61. A student wants to save a router configuration to NVRAM. What is the best
command to use to accomplish the task?
 copy running-config startup-config
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
 show ip route
62. A support technician needs to know the IP address of the wireless interface on a
MAC. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
 ipconfig getifaddr en0
 copy running-config startup-config
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
63. A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and needs to verify all of the
IPv6 interface addresses on a router. What is the best command to use to
accomplish the task?
 show ipv6 interface
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
 show ip route
64. A teacher is having difficulties connecting his PC to the classroom network. He
needs to verify that a default gateway is configured correctly. What is the best
command to use to accomplish the task?

108
  ipconfig
 copy running-config startup-config
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
65. Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to
remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled.
What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
 show running-config
 show interfaces
 copy running-config startup-config
 show ip nat translations
66. An administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues and needs to determine
the IP address of a website. What is the best command to use to accomplish the
task?
 nslookup
 show ipv6 route
 show ipv6 interface
 copy startup-config running-config
67. What is a characteristic of UDP?
 UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination.
 Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable.
 UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were received.
 UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the
data.

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 Introduction to Networks (Version 7.0) –
ITNv7 Practice Final Exam Answers
CCNA 1 (Version 7.00) ITNv7 Practice Final Exam Answers
1. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number
of 22. What service is the client requesting?
 SSH
 TFTP
 DHCP
 DNS
2. Refer to the exhibit. What does the value of the window size specify?

 the amount of data that can be sent at one time

 the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required
 the total number of bits received during this TCP session
 a random number that is used in establishing a connection with the 3-way handshake
3. To which TCP port group does the port 414 belong?
 well-known
 private or dynamic
 public
 registered
4. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but
receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

 The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

 The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
 The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the
command.

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  The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration
mode.
5. What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a
PC?
 if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire
 if there is connectivity with the destination device
 the path that traffic will take to reach the destination
 what type of device is at the destination
6. What is a characteristic of a switch virtual interface (SVI)?
 An SVI is created in software and requires a configured IP address and a subnet
mask in order to provide remote access to the switch.
 Although it is a virtual interface, it needs to have physical hardware on the device
associated with it.
 SVIs do not require the no shutdown command to become enabled.
 SVIs come preconfigured on Cisco switches.

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7. Match the descriptions to the terms. (Not all options are used.)

8. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is
different than the value that is in the FCS field?
 The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
 The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
 The switch drops the frame.
 The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame
arrived to notify the hosts of the error.
9. Two network engineers are discussing the methods used to forward frames
through a switch. What is an important concept related to the cut-through method
of switching?

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  The fragment-free switching offers the lowest level of latency.
 Fast-forward switching can be viewed as a compromise between store-and-forward
switching and fragment-free switching.
 Fragment-free switching is the typical cut-through method of switching.
 Packets can be relayed with errors when fast-forward switching is used.
10. Which two issues can cause both runts and giants in Ethernet networks?
(Choose two.)
 using the incorrect cable type
 half-duplex operations
 a malfunctioning NIC
 electrical interference on serial interfaces
 CRC errors

11. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link
Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

 implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media

 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
 integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit
Ethernet over copper
 implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame
 places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol
is being encapsulated by the frame
Other case
 responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
 integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit
Ethernet over copper
 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
 handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC
hardware
Other case
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
 responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
 implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
Other case
 implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
 places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol
is being encapsulated by the frame
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame

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  integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit
Ethernet over copper
12. Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is working
properly on a Windows PC? (Choose two.)
 nslookup cisco.com
 ping cisco.com
 ipconfig /flushdns
 net cisco.com
 nbtstat cisco.com
13. A small advertising company has a web server that provides critical business
service. The company connects to the Internet through a leased line service to an
ISP. Which approach best provides cost effective redundancy for the Internet
connection?
 Add a second NIC to the web server.
 Add a connection to the Internet via a DSL line to another ISP.
 Add another web server to prepare failover support.
 Add multiple connections between the switches and the edge router.
14. Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to
remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled.
What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
 copy running-config startup-config
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
 show running-config
15. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the
Registrar LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.235.234 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.234.114 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

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Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.234.235.254 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.3 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# end

 192.168.235.234
 203.0.113.3
 192.168.235.1
 10.234.235.254
 192.168.234.114
16. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered.
(Not all options are used.)

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17. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
 The IOS image is corrupt.
 Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
 The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
 The POST process has detected hardware failure.

18. What service is provided by POP3?

 Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail
application of the client.
 An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
 Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

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  Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
19. Two students are working on a network design project. One student is doing the
drawing, while the other student is writing the proposal. The drawing is finished
and the student wants to share the folder that contains the drawing so that the other
student can access the file and copy it to a USB drive. Which networking model is
being used?
 peer-to-peer
 client-based
 master-slave
 point-to-point

20. Which command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific
host name?

 tracert
 ipconfig /displaydns
 nslookup
 net
21. Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at
the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?
 bits
 frame
 packet
 segment

22. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the
TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

 data link
 network
 physical
 session
 transport

23. Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the
application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

 presentation
 physical
 network
 data link
 transport
 application
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  session
24. Network information:
* local router LAN interface: 172.19.29.254 / fe80:65ab:dcc1::10
* local router WAN interface: 198.133.219.33 / 2001:db8:FACE:39::10
* remote server: 192.135.250.103
What task might a user be trying to accomplish by using the ping
2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command?
 verifying that there is connectivity within the local network
 creating a network performance benchmark to a server on the company intranet
 determining the path to reach the remote server
 verifying that there is connectivity to the internet
25. Which two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols? (Choose
two.)
 neighbor solicitation
 router advertisement
 router solicitation
 protocol unreachable
 route redirection
26. A network technician types the command ping 127.0.0.1 at the command prompt
on a computer. What is the technician trying to accomplish?
 pinging a host computer that has the IP address 127.0.0.1 on the network
 tracing the path to a host computer on the network and the network has the IP
address 127.0.0.1
 checking the IP address on the network card
 testing the integrity of the TCP/IP stack on the local machine
27. Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?
 the virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses
 the use of CSMA/CA
 the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches
 the development of half-duplex switch operation
 the use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds

28. What does a router do when it receives a Layer 2 frame over the network
medium?

 re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame

 forwards the new frame appropriate to the medium of that segment of the physical
network
 determines the best path
 de-encapsulates the frame
29. Which two acronyms represent the data link sublayers that Ethernet relies upon
to operate? (Choose two.)
 SFD

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  LLC
 CSMA
 MAC
 FCS
30. A network team is comparing topologies for connecting on a shared media.
Which physical topology is an example of a hybrid topology for a LAN?
 bus
 extended star
 ring
 partial mesh

31. Given network 172.18.109.0, which subnet mask would be used if 6 host bits
were available?

 255.255.192.0
 255.255.224.0
 255.255.255.192
 255.255.255.248
 255.255.255.252
32. Three devices are on three different subnets. Match the network address and the
broadcast address with each subnet where these devices are located. (Not all options
are used.)
Device 1: IP address 192.168.10.77/28 on subnet 1
Device 2: IP address192.168.10.17/30 on subnet 2
Device 3: IP address 192.168.10.35/29 on subnet 3

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121
33. What type of address is 198.133.219.162?

 link-local
 public
 loopback
 multicast
34. What does the IP address 192.168.1.15/29 represent?
 subnetwork address
 unicast address
 multicast address
 broadcast address

35. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?

 Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of
internal networks.
 The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6
header improves packet handling by intermediate routers.
 The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because
the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the
Internet.
 Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of
available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.
36. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination
network?
 directly-connected routes
 local routes
 remote routes
 C and L source routes

37. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a unicast,
multicast, or broadcast address?

 destination IPv4 address

 protocol
 TTL
 header checksum
38. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact
on communications?
 There is no impact on communications.
 The host is unable to communicate on the local network.

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  The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on remote networks.
 The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on the local network.
39. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
fe80:0000:0000:0000:0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029?
 fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
 fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290
 fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29
 fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290
40. Refer to the exhibit. A user issues the command netstat –r on a workstation.
Which IPv6 address is one of the link-local addresses of the workstation?

 ::1/128
 fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128
 fe80::/64
 2001:0:9d38:6ab8:30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128

41. What type of IPv6 address is represented by ::1/128?

 EUI-64 generated link-local

 global unicast
 unspecified
 loopback
42. Which statement describes network security?

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  It supports growth over time in accordance with approved network design
procedures.
 It synchronizes traffic flows using timestamps.
 It ensures sensitive corporate data is available for authorized users.
 It prioritizes data flows in order to give priority to delay-sensitive traffic.
43. Which two devices would be described as intermediary devices? (Choose two.)
 wireless LAN controller
 server
 assembly line robots
 IPS
 gaming console
 retail scanner
44. What characteristic describes spyware?
 software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
 the use of stolen credentials to access private data
 an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
 a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
45. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the
contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to
PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

 The switch will discard the frame.

 The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
 The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
 The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
 The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.

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46. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

 0.0.0.0
 255.255.255.255
 the physical address of the destination host
 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
 AAAA.AAAA.AAAA
47. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet
to PC3. In this scenario, what will happen next?

 SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.
 RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/0 MAC address.
 RT1 will forward the ARP request to PC3.
 RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC3 MAC address.
 RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/1 MAC address.
48. A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30
command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent?
 a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router
 a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network
 an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network equipment room
 a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link

49. Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful

firewalls as they relate to the OSI model?

 A packet-filtering firewall uses session layer information to track the state of a

connection, whereas a stateful firewall uses application layer information to track the
state of a connection.

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  Both stateful and packet-filtering firewalls can filter at the application layer.
 A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, whereas a
stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.
 A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, whereas a packet-filtering
firewall cannot filter beyond the network layer.
50. What are two ways to protect a computer from malware? (Choose two.)
 Empty the browser cache.
 Use antivirus software.
 Delete unused software.
 Keep software up to date.
 Defragment the hard disk.

51. The employees and residents of Ciscoville cannot access the Internet or any
remote web-based services. IT workers quickly determine that the city firewall is
being flooded with so much traffic that a breakdown of connectivity to the Internet
is occurring. Which type of attack is being launched at Ciscoville?

 access
 Trojan horse
 reconnaissance
 DoS
52. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling?
(Choose two.)
 Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
 Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
 Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
 Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cables and laser technology for
multimode cables.
 Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
53. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the transfer of bits
across a medium over a given period of time?
 latency
 goodput
 throughput
 bandwidth
54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum possible throughput between the PC
and the server?

 10 Mb/s
 1000 Mb/s
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  128 kb/s
 100 Mb/s

55. Match the description with the media. (Not all options are used.)

127