Fiitjee Aits 2024 Practice Paper's
Fiitjee Aits 2024 Practice Paper's
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2
Physics PART – I
1. For the given potential versus distance graph for one dimensional electric field and a particle of
charge 20 C and mass 0.2 kg. Choose the correct option(s):
V
104V
30cm 40 cm
(x)
10cm 20cm
–104V
2. The figure, a graph of the current in a discharging circuit of a capacitor through a resistor of
resistance 10. .
i
10A
2.5A
2s t
(A) The initial potential difference across the capacitor is 100 volt.
1
(B) The capacitance of the capacitor is F.
10ln2
500
(C) The total heat produced in the circuit will be joules.
10ln 2
1
(D) The thermal power in the resistor will decrease with a time constant second.
2ln 2
3. Electric potential in a region varies only with x-coordinate and is given by v 2x 3 . Then choose
the correct option(s).
(A) electric field in the region is 6x 2 N / C along positive x-axis.
(B) electric field in the region is 6x 2 N / C along negative x-axis.
(C) charge density in the region is constant with x-coordinate
(D) charge density varies linearly with x-coordinate
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3 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
5. A non-conducting rectangular plate of M is given two charge +Q and –Q in two halves which is
also distributed uniformly. This plate is free to rotate
in its plane about an axis passing through its
center. This plate is put in uniform electric field. E , and it is in equilibrium.
4a
+ + + + –
+ + + – – 3a
+ + – – –
– – – –
5Qa
(A) Dipole moment of plate is
3
5ma
(B) Time period of small oscillation if disturbed from mean position is
QE
(C) Torque acting on plate when it is rotated through 37o is QaE
(D) Charge in potential energy when it is rotated through 53o is QaE
6. A uniformly charged small sphere placed at point A(h, k) so that at point B(8, 7) electric field
N
strength is E 54iˆ 72ˆj
C
and potential is +900 volt. Then choose the correct option(s).
(A) Charge on the sphere is 1c (B) Charge on the sphere is 4c
(C) Coordinates of point A is (2, -1) (D) Coordinates of point A is (4, -2)
7. Consider a hollow cone of radius 4a, and height 3a, and a hemisphere shell of radius 4a. Various
combination of them are made by giving them equal and opposite charge Q. Match their dipole
moment given in List II.
3a
4a 4a
List - I List - II
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4
(T) Zero
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) P R Q P
(B) T Q R S
(C) P S R P
(D) Q R T P
C C
2C 2C
A O D
2C 2C
C 2C 2C C
F E
C
List - I List - II
45
(I) Effective capacitance between A and D (P) C
13
15
(II) Effective capacitance between F and E (Q) C
8
45
(III) Effective capacitance between A and E (R) C
19
9
(IV) Effective capacitance between A and O (S) C
5
3
(T) C
5
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) P T R S
(B) Q P R S
(C) S R Q P
(D) S Q R T
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5 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
9. A network consisting of three resistors, three batteries and a capacitor is shown in figure. After
steady state is reached, match List-I with List-II.
A B C
30
5 10V 5 F 4
8V
F E D
12 V
List - I List - II
(I) Current in branch EB is (P) 10 C
(II) Current in branch CB is (Q) 0.5 A
(III) Current in branch ED is (R) 1.5 A
(IV) Charge on capacitor is (S) 5 C
(T) None of these
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) P Q R S
(B) R Q Q P
(C) T P R S
(D) Q R T P
10. A particle of charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’ is projected in uniform magnetic field B B0 4iˆ 3 ˆj with
velocity V0 ˆi at t =0
List - I List - II
m 7iˆ 24ˆj
(I) Velocity of particle at t is (P) V0
5qB 0 25
m 16iˆ 12ˆj 15kˆ
(II) Velocity of particle at t is (Q) V0
10qB0 25
3m ˆ ˆ ˆ
16i 12 j 15k
(III) Velocity of particle at t is (R) V0
10qB0 25
2m
(IV) Velocity of particle at t is (S) V0 ˆi
5qB0
(T) V0 ˆj
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) Q R T P
(B) P Q R S
(C) P R S Q
(D) R T Q P
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6
x
11. A rod of length ' ' and area ‘A’ has resistivity which varies as 0 1 . Rod is divided into
three equal lengths of each. If resistance of first part R1 4.2 . Find resistance of middle part
3
R 2 in .
R1 R2 R3
12. In the circuit shown if current flowing through battery is I0 and current in branch AB is I1. Find the
I
ratio of 0 .
I1
9 A 9 B 3
I0
6 4 6 4 9
4
E
r
C
3 3 3
13. Consider the circuit shown. If in steady state VA VC 11 volt. Find VE VG in steady state.
B C
D
5f 2.9f
3f
F
6f E
7f
G
A E
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7 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
x
15. A cylindrical conductor of length L and Area A has variable electrical resistivity 0 1 .
L
Where x is distance from one end. The end at x = 0 is given a potential V0 where end at x = L is
L V0
grounded. If electric field at x is given by E , find .
2 L ln
2
1 10V
5V 2
2
10V
17. Two wires of same material but one of length 2L and area A whereas other of length L and area
2A are joined as shown in figure. If two ends are maintained at potential V1 8V and V2 = 1V
respectively find potential of junction.
V = 8V V2 = 1V
1
2L, A L, 2A
18. In the given figure resistance of voltmeter is 100 . In steady state potential difference across
200
capacitor is volts. Find n.
n
50 F
100 V
100
100 V 200
300
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 8
Chemistry PART – II
+ O
(IV) H ,
X will
(A) Total geometrical isomers by x = 4
(B) Forms 3 products after reductive ozonolysis
(C) Forms 4 different products after reaction with Baeyer’s reagent
(D) After reduction with 1 eq. H2 and Wilkinson catalyst, the product will not show geometrical
isomerism.
2LiNH
major product
Liq. NH 3
o
at 33 C
NH2
Cl
(B) Benzyne can be isolated at 8 K in solid argon
(C) NO 2 NO 2
Me Me
Br Br
(D) SO 3H OH
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9 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
22. How many will form product having one –OH groups?
(A) +
(B) CH3
HCHO, H
CH3 C H
H2O KMnO4
CH3
(C) (D)
OH
H+ HBr
O
23. In which pair the first one is weaker nucleophile than 2nd one?
(A) HS, HO (B)
O H
,
O
(C) Br , I (D) C6H5 O , CH3 2 CHO
KMnO4/OH H3O
(A) (B)
COOH COOH
COOH
(C) (D) COOH
COOH
(CH 2)
COOH
COOH
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10
NO 2
Conc. NaOH
(III) C6H 5CHO + Cross product (R) C6H5 CH2 OH
H3O+
CHO
COOH
CHO
Conc NaOH
(IV) NO 2 CHO + cross product (S)
H3O+
OCH 3
NO 2
CH 2OH
(T)
OCH 3
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) P PR Q S
(B) P PR S Q
(C) P PR QS ST
(D) RP QPR S T
O O
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11 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
O
C OH
1 eq. NaHCO
3
(III) (R) Yellow ppt. forms
SO 3H
O O
3eq Cl2
(I) (P) Electrophilic aromatic substitution
h
OH
SO 3H
CHO
(CH3CO)2O
(III) (R) Nucleophilic addition elimination
OH
CH3
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 12
X
29. If X is number of molecules giving SN2 , then will be:
3
CH 3
(a) CH Cl (b) Cl
CH 3
Cl
O
Cl
(c) (d)
NO 2
Cl
Cl
Cl
(e) (f)
NO 2
CH 3 Br
O Cl
(g) (h) CH3
Ph
OTf
Cl
(i) (j)
3X
30. Number of reactions giving cyclic product as major product is X, then is
5
Cl
MeOH
(I)
NaOH
(II) OH
Cl
OH
(III) HBr
Conc. H2SO4
(IV) Acetone
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13 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
(VI) EthO
EthO
+ urea
O OEth
X Y Z
31. Find sum of if
3
(a) X is number of chiral carbon in D glucose
(b) Y is number of molecules of phenyl hydrazine used in Osazone formation from glucose
CH3
(c) Z is number of isomeric alkenes formed if Ph CH CH CH3 is heated with conc. H2SO4
OH
32. In Duma’s method for estimation of N2, 0.25 gm of an organic compound gave 40 ml of nitrogen
collected at 300 K temperature and 750 mm pressure. If aqueous tension at 300 K is 50 mm, the
percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
3 Mw of A
33. Find the ratio of
2 Mw of B
(I) Br2/H2O
X (CH 2)4 X A
(II) O O
(2 eq)
C (CH 2)4 C
HO OH
(1 eq)
O
C NH 2
if X =
(I) H2/Ni,
X (CH2)4 X O
B
O
(2 eq)
(II) H O C (CH 2 ) 4 C
OH
(1 eq)
if X = –CN
X
34. Find value of , if X is the molecular weight of alcohol with highest molecular weight in following
4
Cannizaro reaction by
H D
C O + C O Conc. NaOH
H D
35. Find ratio of lone pairs to number of isomers of the product formed.
O O O
NH2OH
excess
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 14
Li Al D4 H3O+
COOH
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15 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
1 x n 1 2 3 n n 1
38. Let f x and g x 1 2 ..... 1 then the constant term in f ' x g x is
1 x x x xn
equal to
(A)
n n2 1 when n is even (B)
n n 1
when n is odd
6 2
n n n 1
(C) n 1 when n is even (D) when n is odd
2 2
1 1
2 x 2
39. f x , 1 x 2 has ([.] denotes greatest integer function)
x
1
(A) discontinuity at x = 0 (B) discontinuity at x
2
3
(C) discontinuity at x = 1 (D) discontinuity at x
2
40. The value of which satisfy sin xdx sin2 0, 2 are equal to
2
3
(A) (B)
2 2
7 11
(C) (D)
6 6
Cos 4x 1
41. If Cot x tan x dx Af x B, then
(A) Ax 2 Bx 1 0 must have real and distinct roots
(B) f(x) is an even function
1
(C) A
8
1
(D)
8
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 16
42. Let f(x) be a differentiable function and f a f b 0 a b , then in the interval (a, b).
(A) f x f ' x 0 has atleast one root.
(B) f x f ' x 0 has atleast one root.
(C) f x f ' x 0 has atleast one root
(D) None of these
then A – B is equal to
If f x 2 3 sin x ,0 x , where
(III) . denotes GIF, then number of points (R) 2
at which function is not differentiable, is
(IV)
x
lim x x 2 2x is equal to (S) 1
(T) 5
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) R Q S T
(B) R S T P
(C) S Q R P
(D) P R T Q
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17 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) R P S Q
(B) R S T Q
(C) T R S P
(D) S T P R
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 18
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) R P Q S
(B) R P T Q
(C) S Q P R
(D) S P Q R
36x 9 x 4 x 1
, x0
47. If f x 2 1 cos x is continuous at x = 0, then ln2 ln3 then the value of
x0
must be:
dk y 024
48. If y sin x cos x and if fk x k
then the value of f2025 x must be.
dx 2
49. If the parabola y ax 2 bx c has vertex at (4, 2) and a 1, 3 . Then difference between the
extreme values of abc is equal to
x
sin t
50. The number of points of extreme of the function F x dt in the interval (0, 2023) must be
t
0
ln x ln x 1
51. If x 3
dx 2
2
c , then the value of a5 b 4 a3 b2 a 1 is
ax bx
1
2
52. If f x x x 1 and g x max f t : 0 t x , then g x dx k , then 6k is equal to
0
53. Let f(x) denote the sum of the infinite trigonometric series,
2x x
f x Sin n Sin n .
n 1 3 3
The sum of the solutions of the equation f x 0 lying in the interval (0, 629) is K then K ?
54. Given a relation R 1,2 , 2,3 on the set of natural numbers. Minimum number of ordered
pairs required so that the enlarged relation is symmetric, transitive & reflexive is K, then K is:
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2024
PART TEST – III
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 20-10-2023
Section – A
1. BD
dv
Sol. F qE q
dx
1
2
mv 20 q 10 4
2. ABCD
Sol. V0 I0R 10 10 100 volts (since, I0 10 amp from figure).
Hence (A) is correct.
Also: I I0 e t/RC
I t
Taking log; ln 0
I RC
1
C
I
Rln 0
I
At t 2 sec,I 2.5A
2
C
10
10ln
25
2 2 1
C
10ln 4 10 2ln 2 10ln 2
Hence (B) is correct.
1
C
10ln2
1 1 1 2
Heat produced CV 2 100
2 2 10ln2
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2
500
joule
ln2
Hence, (C) is correct
1
Thermal power in the resistor will decrease with a time constant second.
2ln 2
Hence, (D) is correct.
3. BD
dV
Sol. E 6x 2 ˆi
dx
4. ACD
2
k k 0
Sol. Ex
R2
0
0 cos Rd cos
R
5. ABCD
5a 1 5Qa
Sol. Dipole moment Q 2
2 3 3
p E pE sin
U p E
6. AC
Sol.
k q r2 r1
E 3
r2 r1
kq
V
r2 r1
7. C
Sol. Basic concept.
8. C
Sol. Basic concept of combination and symmetry.
9. B
Sol. When a steady state is reached, no current passes through the capacitor or the branch CE.
A i1 i2 B i2 C
30
5 10V 5F 4
i1 8V
i2
F E D
12V
Considering the loop BCDEB 4i2 12 10 2
i2 0.5A So i1 2 0.5 1.5A
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3 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
To find the charge on capacitors, we must know potential difference across the plates.
Consider the loop CEDC:
12 4i2 3 0 VC 8 0
VC 2V
So charge on capacitor Q CV 10C
10. B
Sol. (Y)
3B0
(X)
4B0 V0 ˆi
V = constant
V changes with time.
Section – B
11. 5.40
dx
Sol. R
A
0 x
1 dx
A
x2 2
R1 0 x
A 2 0
2 /3
x2
R2 0 x
A 2 /3
12. 32.00
Sol. Req 6 r
E
I0
6r
I0 I0
4 32
I0 I0 3I0
3I0 8 32
4
13. 1.80
30
5
150
Sol. 11
30 85
5
11
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4
150 Q 150E 11
Q E ; VA VC 11 volt
85 30 85 30
11
E = 17 Volt.
Qq q q
VI VF
2.9 2.1 7
14. 37.00
Sol. F iLB
mv F dt idt LB
m 2gh QLB
m 2gl 1 cos QLB
37
15. 3.50
L
dx L
Sol. R A A ln2
0 0
V V
j 0 0 0
A R L ln 2
j V0 V0
E ; at mid-point E
x 1.5L ln 2
L 1 ln2
L
16. 2.50
Sol. Applying Kirchhoff’s law we can find current.
17. 2.40
V1 V V V2
Sol.
2L L
A 2A
V1 V V 4V2 8 4
2 V V2 V 1 2.4
2 5 5
18. 11.00
Sol. In steady state no current flow through capacitor.
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5 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. AD
Sol. COOH NH2
(CH2)4 (CH2)6 Nylon 6,6
Polynerise
COOH NH2
20. BCD
Sol. X CH 2 CH CH C CH3
G.I = 2 CH3
Ozonolysis
Wilkinson catalyst
3 molecules CH 3 CH 2 CH C CH3
CH3
no G.I
21. ABC
Sol. Factual.
22. BCD
Sol.
CH3 Br
CH 3 C OH OH
CH3
(B) HO (D)
(C)
23. BCD
Sol. Properties of nucleophile
24. AD
Sol. COOH
O
KMnO4/OH COOH
KMnO4
+ (CH2)4
COOH
O COOH
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6
25. B
Sol. NH2
Sodium
CN
Nitropniside
No Colour
extract
Br2/water Br2/AlCl3
CH3MgBr
White ppt No reaction
No reaction
26. C
Sol. By property of inter and intra Cannizaro.
27. C
Sol. O O O
2 CO
Ph OH Ph CH3
1. I2 / NaOH
2. H
Loss in wt of reactant is = 40
O
Ph C OH CHI3
28. A
Sol.
Cl
Cl Cl
3Cl2
(I)
h
Cl Cl
Cl
OH OH
Br Br
aq. Br
2
(II)
3 Eq.
SO 3H Br
O O
O
CH CH
(III) (CH3C-)2O
O
OH O C CH3
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7 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
Section – B
29. 2.66
2
Sol. SN by all except = d,g
X
So, X = 8 so, 2.66
3
30. 2.40
Sol. O
OMe NH
O O NH O
1 2 4 6
3x 12
So, 2.40
5 5
31. 4.33
Sol. X=5 Y=3 Z=5
X Y Z 13
So, 4.33
3 3
32. 16.73
PV
Sol. Moles of N2
RT
700 40 103
1.4 10 3
760 0.0821 300
Wt. of N2 28 1.4 10 3
= 0.041 gm
0.041
%N 100 16.73
.25
33. 1.50
Sol. O O
A= C (CH 2)4 C NH (CH 2)4 NH 2
NH
NH 2 (CH 2)4
O O
B= (H 2N) 2 (CH 2)4 NH C (CH 2)4 C NH (CH 2)4 NH2
3A
So, 1.50
2B
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 8
34. 8.75
Sol. CD3OH is the alcohol with highest M.W
So, X = 35
X
8.75
4
35. 1.50
Sol. OH OH OH
N N N
36. 1.50
Sol. Product is
OH D
CD 2OH
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9 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
Section – A
37. AC
Sol. Put x r cos
y r sin
then S r2
As 3x 2 4xy 3y 2 1
3r 2 cos2 4r 2 sin cos 3r 2 sin2 1
3r 2 2r 2 sin2 1
1
r2
3 2sin2
1
r2 1
5
38. BD
1 x n 1
Sol. f x 1 x x 2 .... x n .
1 x
39. ABD
1 1
x , 1 x 2
0 , 1 x 1
2 2
Sol. Hence f x
1
, 1 3
x
x 2 2
2 3 5
, x
x 2 2
40. ABCD
Sol. sin xdx sin2
2
41. AB
Cos 4x 1 1 1
Sol. Cot x - tan x dx 2 Sin 4xdx 8 Cos4x B.
1
A
8
B can be any real constant.
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10
42. ABC
Sol. Consider g x e x f x
Then g a g b
From Rolle’s theorem there exists at least one x C in (a, b)
Such that g' c 0
ec f c f ' c 0
2
Similarly consider g x e x f x & g x f x
Use Rolle’s theorem.
43. B
4 sin 2x A sin x Bcos x
Sol. (I) lim exists
x 0 x2
Then, 4 B 0, B 4
Using L-Hopital rule,
2cos 2x A cos x Bsin x
lim
x 0 2x
A B
1 0
2 2
A
1 2 0
2
A
1
2
A 2
A B 2 4 2
n
2 t
1 dt n1 2
0
n 1 t
(II) lim lim 1
n n 1 n n 1
0
n 1
2
lim 1 1
n
n 1
e2 1
(III) 0 3 sin x 3 for x 0,
Then, 2 2 3 sin x 5
Hence, 2 3 sin x is discontinuous at 5 points.
x 2 x 2 2x
(IV)
x
lim x x 2 2x lim x
x x 2 2x
2x
lim 1
x
2
x x 1
x
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11 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
44. A
x 1
dt
e3
ln t
Sol. (I) lim 2
x x
ln x
From L-Hospital rule,
1
lim 2 ln x
x 1
ln x x.
x
2
ln x
ln x
lim 2 21 2
x ln x 1
(II) sin1 x 2cos1 1 x 0
Only one solution
sin1 x 2cos 1 1 x
2
y 2cos 1 1 x
y sin1 x
–1
–2 1
2
(III) f x x 2sin x
f ' x 1 2cos x
Sign scheme of f ' x
0 0
- - - - - -+ + + + +- - - - - -
0 5 2
3 3
1 5
Hence, a & b
3 3
2
So, a b 4
(IV) Length of intercept is 2.
45. C
Sol. (I) x 2 y 2 z2 2xyz 1
Differentiate
2xdx 2ydy 2zdz 2yzdx 2xzdy 2xydz 0
xdx ydy zdz yzdx xzdy xydz 0
x yz dx y xz dy z xy dz 0 ………. (i)
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 12
2
As x yz x 2 2xyz y 2 z 2 1 y 2 z y 2 z 2
2
x yz
1 y2 1 z2
2
Similarly, y xz 1 x 2 1 z 2
2
& z xy 1 x 2 1 y 2
Put and find.
(II) f x 3 sin x 4 sin3 x sin3x
Largest interval in which it increases is .
3
So, a 2
2
2
3x 2
2
3 x
(III) If I 1 e dx 1 e x x
dx
2 2
2
2
2I 3x dx 16
2
I8
4 4
2 dx 2 dx
(IV) I
4 1 e
sin x
2 cos 2x 4 1 e sin x
2 cos 2x
4
2 dx
2I
4 2 cos 2x
4
2 dx 2
I 2 cos 2x 3
0 3
46. A
Sol. (I) f x 2 f x 2
f x 4 f x
f x is periodic with period 4.
Hence roots in [0, 4) are 0, , 4, where 0, 4 .
(II) Here, r1 r2 ....... rn 56
and r1r2 .......rn 2009 1 7 7 41
So, n = 4
(III) 2xy 2009 3y
y 2x 3 2009 1 7 7 41
Ordered pairs are (1003, 1), (142, 7), (19, 49), (23, 41), (2, 287).
Hence, 5 number of ordered pairs.
(IV) Put x 4 2cos
and y 3 sin
Section – B
47. 512.00
Sol. f is continuous at x = 0 then f(0) = RHL
h h h
36 9 4 1
lim
h0 2 1 cosh
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13 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
9h 1 4h 1
h
h
2 1 cosh
lim
h 0 1 cosh
h2
ln9 ln 4 2 2
1
2
512 ln 2 ln3
48. 2024.00
Sol. Differentiation of sin x and cos x repeat after fourth order then f2025 x f1 x cos x sin x
1 1
f1 2
4
2 2
49. 3456.00
Sol. y ax 2 bx c
b 4ac b2
vertex ,
2a 4, 2
4a
b 8a and 4ac b2 8a
c 2 16a
abc 16 a2 8a3
max 144 min 3600
Difference = 3456
50. 644.00
sin x
Sol. F' x
x
F' x 0 sin x 0, x 0
x . 2, 3, ......., 644 , all lies between 0 and 2023
Number of point = 644
51. 315.00
ln x 1 ln x 1
Sol. I 3
dx ln x 3
dx 2
2 c (using by parts),
x x 2x 4x
a = 2 b = 4.
52. 7.25
1 1
Sol. f(x) is increasing in 0, and decreasing in , 1
2 2
2 1
x x 1 0 x 2
So, g x
1 1 1 1 x 1
2 4 2
2
x x 1 0 x 1
gx) = 5 1
x 1
4 2
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 14
1
1 2 1
5 29
x x
2
g x dx 1 dx 4 dx 24
0 0 1/2
53. 10100.00
2x x
Sol. f x Sin Sin
n1 3n 3n
1 x x
f x Cos n Cos n1
2 n 1 3 3
1 x 1
f x lim
n 2 Cos n Cosx 2 1 Cosx
3
So, f x 0 Cos x 1 x 2n, n I
The sum of the solution in 0,629
S 2 2 3 .........100 10100
K 10100.
54. 9.00
Sol. Relation is [(1, 1) (1, 2) (2, 1) (2, 3) (3, 2) (1, 3) (3, 1) (2, 2) (3, 3)]
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2024
PART TEST – III
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 20-10-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2
Physics PART – I
(B) 4 3 a2 i
(C) 8 3 a2 i
4a
(D) None of these
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3 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
5. All resisters are of resistance 5,E1 5V and E 2 10 volt. Internal resistance of cells is
negligible.
E1 R C
B
R R R R
A R D
R O
R
R R R
F E
E1 R
E2
(A) current through AO is 1 A (B) current through BC is 0 A
(C) current through E2 is 2 A (D) current through OC is 0.5 A
30V 3 15V
2 2
J0
7. Current density in a cylindrical wire is varying with radial distance r as J r R r , where R is
R2
radius of wire. If B is magnetic field due to this wire, then choose the correct option(s).
8R
(A) maximum magnetic field will be at a distance
9
(B) maximum magnetic field will be at a distance R
JR
(C) maximum magnetic field will be 0 0
12
640 J0R
(D) maximum magnetic field will be
729
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4
8. Circuit is closed at t = 0 and capacitor was uncharged initially. Choose the correct option(s):
3R/4 2R
V R C
R/4 R/2
t
CV
(A) charge on the capacitor is q 1 e 3RC
2
2t
CV
(B) charge on the capacitor is q 1 e 5RC
2
2t
V
(C) current in resistor R is i 1 e 5RC
2R
t
V
(D) current in resistor R is i 1 e 3RC
2R
9. A parallel plate capacitor of plate Area ‘A’. Plate separation ‘d’ is carrying a charge Q0. A
dielectric slab, of dielectric constant ‘k’, completely fills the space between plates. If E0, V0 and C0
are electric field potential energy and capacitor before insertion of slab and E, V and C are after
insertion, Then, chose correct option.
E
(A) E 0
k
(B) C kC0
V0
(C) V
k
1
(D) Induced charge on slab face has magnitude of Q0 1
k
1
4
2
D
4 8
B C
16
16 4
(A) B and C is (B) A and D is
5 5
8 12
(C) D and C is (D) A and C is
3 5
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5 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
r
E
5 5
14. Inside a very long cylindrical wire of radius ‘R’ there is long cylindrical
R
cavity of radius ‘ ’. Axes of cylinder and cylindrical cavity are parallel and
2
R
separated by distance ‘ ’. A particle with charge q and mass m is thrown
2
from the axis of cavity parallel to it with small speed ‘ ’. Time period of
q m
m
motion is given by N . Find N.
q0 JR
R R
2
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6
15. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge distribution with charge density varying as
5 r R x0R
r 0 up to r = R. The electric field at a distance r is given by E . Find
4 R 2 48 0
the value of x.
16. Radius of a coil of wire with N turns is 0.22 m and a current of 3.5A
flows in clockwise direction in it. Another long straight wire carrying a
current 54 Ao towards left is located 5 cm from the edge of the coil.
Magnetic field at the center of the coil is zero. The number of turns in
the coil are N =?
30 V 6V 15 V
F E D
2 2
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7 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
Chemistry PART – II
21.
Br Cl
A B
OH HCl
NMe 3
+
Product B has
(A) One chiral carbon (B) It’s a vicinal dichloride
(C) It gives positive test with Lucas reagent (D) it’s a gem dichloride
O
(II) C NH2
NaBH4
Q
(III) NH
R O
(A) Only P (B) P and Q
(C) P, Q, R (D) None of these
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 8
O
The correct statement concerning the above reaction is/are
(A) The above ester is the major product rather than the one formed through intermolecular
condensation
(B) If the hydroxyl (- OH) group of alcohol contain O18, radioactivity will be retained in the ester
2 18
(C) If the sp oxygen of acid is O , it will essentially be absent in the product ester
(D) Intramolecular condensation of a hydroxyl acid is always favoured over intermolecular
condensation
CH3 CH3
(C) H3C O O (D) H3C O O
25. Which of the following reactions are correctly representing the product(s)?
(A) O (B) OCH 3 OCH 3
(I) PhLi
C COONa
NaOH/Br2 (II) H2 O
N H
Ph
C NH 2 (major product)
Cl
O
(C) O (D) O
14
1. NaN3 NH 2
14 C Cl 1. AgOH
2. OH-/H3O/ CH 3 CH CH C OH CH 3 CH CH2
2. Br2/CCl4/
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9 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
27. Choose the correct match of reactants and products form the following list:
(A) O
NaOH H2SO4
+ KMnO4 O
Heat Heat
O
(B) CHO
CHO
AlCl3 H2O
+ HCN + HCl
CHO
(C) NO 2 NO 2
AlCl3
+ CO + HCl
CHO
(D) OH
CH3 CH COOH
CrO3 HCl HCN H2SO4
(CH2CO)2O H2O
29. In how many products of the reaction will give CO2 with NaHCO3?
OH
OMe
(I)
(I) KOH, CHCl3
(II) H3O
OH
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10
(I) KCN
(III)
O (II) H3O
COOH COOH
(IV) HOOC COOH
COOH COOH
O
OH
(I)
OH
H
(VI)
HO C (II) NaBH4
32. H3C Br
H2O
33. In the following lists of reactions how many of them gives ester as the major organic product?
NaOH CH3 CH2Br
(I) CH.3 COOH (II) CH3 CH2COOH CH3 CH2Li
O
(III) (IV) CH3 COOH CH2N2
CH 3CH 2 C C 6H5 + CF3CO3H
O
H2SO4
(V) C6H5 CH CH2 CH3 COOH (VI) O + CH3CH2OH
O
C2H5 OH H2 O
(VII) CH3 CH2 COOH C2H5 ONa (VIII) CH3 CH2CHO Al OC2H5 3
H
(IX) C6H5 . COCl C2H5 ONa (X) CH3 CH2CONH2 CH3 CH2 OH
34. How many different isomers exist for C3H6O2 which reduces Tollen’s reagent as well as forms
C3H6O3 upon treatment with acetic anhydride?
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11 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
35. How many of the following gives visible change when treated with nitrous acid (NaNO2 + HCl)?
(I) CH3 CH2 CH2NH2 (II) CH2CH2NHCH3
H
N N
(III) (IV)
36. An organic acid X has molecular formula C8H16 O2 . X on heating with NH3 forms Y. Y on
treatment with alkaline Br2 solution forms Z. Z on treatment with nitrous acid followed by heating
with concentrated H2SO4 solution gives 2, 4-dimethyl-pentene. How many different acids X can
satisfy the above mentioned condition?
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 12
3x
1 sin
37. lim 1 x 2 is equal to
x 1 1 cos x
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) None of these
38. If x > 0, let f x 5x 2 Ax 5 , where A is a positive constant. Find the smallest A such that
f x 24 for all x > 0.
7/2 1/2
24 24
(A) 2 (B) 2
7 7
2/7
24
(C) 2 (D) None of these
7
ax
39. Let ga x , a 0 then the value of g5 x g5 1 x is
ax a
(A) 1 (B) 5
(C) 10 (D) None of these
n
40.
Let f(x) be real valued function not identically zero such that f x yn f x f y x, y R.
where, n is odd natural number > 1 and f ' 0 0 then the function f(x) is
(A) discontinuous at one point
(B) continuous everywhere but non differentiable at some point
(C) discontinuous at three point
(D) continuous and differentiable everywhere
41. An isosceles triangle is inscribed in a circle of radius r. If the angle 2 at the apex is restricted to
lie between o and . ‘P’ denotes the perimeter of triangle then
2
(A) Pmax 3 3r (B) Pmax 4r
(C) Pmin 2r 2 1 (D) No minimum value of P can be found
a0 a a a
42. If 1 2 n1 an 0 then the equation a0 xn a1x n1 an1x an 0
n 1 n n 1 2
will have
(A) At least one +ve real root (B) At least one root in (0, 1)
(C) At least one root in (-1, 0) (D) At least one -ve real root
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13 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
2n
1 r
43. lim
n n
ln 1 equals
r n 1
n
27 27
(A) ln (B) ln 2
4e e
(C) 3ln3 2ln2 1 (D) 3ln 3 - 2
1
44. If I 1 x 3 dx, then
0
5
(A) I 1 (B) I
2
7 3
(C) I (D)
2 4
/2
46. Consider a real valued continuous function f such that f x sin x
/2
sin x tf t dt . If m and
M are maximum and minimum value of the function f, then
(A) M 3 1 (B) m 2 1
M 3 M
(C) (D) 3
m 2 m
1 1
1 1
47.
If tan 2
dx k tan1 dx , then the number of solution of k sin x logk x is/are
0
1 x x 0
1/a
a
3
48. For a > 0, the minimum value of the integral 4x a5 x 2 eax dx is
0
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 14
x y 2 f x f 1
49. Let f : R R be a differentiable function satisfying f for all real x and y
3 3
2
and f ' 2 2 , then the number of solution of the equation x 2 f x 9 are
1
2
50. lim e x cosax dx is equal to
a
0
x x a
a f x dx f x f a
2
51. If lim 0, then f(x) is of maximum degree?
x a
x a 3
52. Inside a semicircle of diameter 1, a right angle triangle is drawn with one of its legs along the
diameter. If the maximum area of the triangle is M, then the value of 32 3M is:
f x 1 x 2
53. Let f be a differentiable function satisfying 0 f t dt 0 cos t f t dt 0 and f then
2
2 f x dx is .............. . Here [.] denotes G.I.F.
0
b
sin ax sin x ab
54. If
sin 101x sin99 x dx
c
k , then the value of
c
is equal to
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2024
PART TEST – III
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 20-10-2023
Section – A
1. A
kq1 kq2
Sol. 0
r1 r2
kq1 dr1 k dq1 kq2 dr2
2 2 0
r12 dt r1 dt r2 dt
2. B
Sol. Bnet B Bcav
50 Ja 0 Ja 0 Ja
12 6 4
3. B
Sol. iA
a 2a
i 12
2 3
4 3a2i
4. B
2CV 4CV
Sol. Q1 , Q2 2CV, Q
3 3
1 2C 2 1 4CV 2
V1 . .V , V2 .2C.V 2 , Wbat
2 3 2 3
2 2 2
2CV 4CV 2CV
Heat
3 3 3
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2
5. ABCD
Sol. 3I1 I2 1 I1 I2
3I2 I1 1
5V
I1 0.5A, I2 0.5A I1
I1
10V
6. ABD
E1 E 2
r1 r2
Sol. E eff 20V
1 1
r1 r2
Reff = 2
7. BC
J0
Sol. B2r 0 r R r 2rdr
R2
J r 2 R r
B 0 2
R 3 4
8. A
Sol. Reff 3R
V
Qmax
2
t
q Qmax 1 e Reff .C
9. ABCD
Sol. Basic concept.
10. ABCD
Sol. Basic concept of Wheatstone bridge.
Section – B
11. 2
dT
Sol. i2R nCp mgv
dt
PV nRT
PdV nRdT
PAvdt nRdT
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3 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
12. 0
Sol. 3I1 I2 1
I1
3I2 I1 1
I1 0.5, I2 0.5
I1 I2 0
I2 I1I2
13. 1
q
Sol. cos 1 cos 2
0
3 4
cos 1 , cos
5 5
14. 8
0 JR
Sol. B inside cavity is and is uniform.
4
2m
Then time period T
qB
8 m
=
q0 JR
15. 7
r
Sol. E 4r 2 4 r 2 dr
0
r 5 r
E 0
4 0 3 R
16. 4
0NI1 0 I2
Sol.
2R 2 d
I2R
N
d I1
17. 7
1 1 1
Sol. Heat loss = 8 15 2 8 102 4 102 J
2 2 2
= 900 200 J
= 700 J
18. 7
Sol. 30 4I1 6 2I1 0
15 I2 6 2I2 0
I1 I2
4
1
30 V 15 V
6V
E
2 2
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. D
Sol. Property of carbohydrates
20. C
Sol. Polyethylene is an addition polymer.
21. D
Sol.
A = Br Cl
Cl
B = Br Cl
22. A
Sol. Factual.
23. AB
Sol.
O 18 O
18
H
OH OH O
24. CD
Sol. O O
Cl Mg CO2 COOH
Et, H2O H
OH
H COOH
cyclic ester H3C NaBH4
(d,l)
25. AC
Sol. (A) Hoffmann bromide
(B) OCH3 OCH3
Ph Li
Cl Ph
OCH3
OCH3
H
Ph Ph
(C) Curtius reaction
(D) Hunsdieker reaction
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5 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
26. AC
Sol. Factual.
27. ABC
Sol. O
COOH
KMnO4 /OH
H SO O
CH3 2 4
COOH
O
28. ACD
Sol. Hemiacetal gives benedict test.
Section – B
29. 3
Sol. II, III, IV Total answer = 3
30. 6
Sol. OH O
OH H O
CH3 CH2 *C *C C CH3
CH3 CH3
4
31. 4
Sol. Product is
Br
*
Br Cl
It has 2 chiral carbons + 1 pseudo chiral
So,
Br Br
Br Cl Br Cl
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6
Br Br
Br Cl Br Cl
32. 4
Sol. Factual.
33. 7
Sol. Reaction I, III, IV, V, VI, VIII, IX
34. 4
Sol. Factual.
35. 4
Sol. Only primary amines and secondary amines gives visible change with nitrous acid
NaNO
R NH2
HCl
2
R OH N2 g
R
NaNO2
NH
HCl
yellow oily liquid
R
36. 4
Sol. C8H16O 2 NH3 .
amide Z
Br2/OH-
HNO2
R OH
H2SO4/
OH
OH
So, acids are
CH3
COOH
H3C *
COOH (2 structure)
COOH
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7 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
Section – A
37. A
Sol. Take x 1 then 0 and solve
38. A
Sol. f ' x 10x 5Ax 6
and f " x 10 30Ax 6 0
i.e. f ' x 0 gives a minima.
1/7
A
7 A
x x
2 2
Since A > 0, we get only one minima and no maxima.
1/7
A
Hence the smallest value of f(x) will be at x
2
1/7 5/7
A A
i.e. f x min 5 A 24
2 2
2/7 2/7 7/2
A A 24
5 2 24 A 2
2 2 7
39. A
ax a1 x
Sol. 1
ax a a1 x a
40. D
Sol. Put x y 0 f 0 0
f 0 h f 0 f h
f ' 0 lim lim (say)...(i)
h 0 h h 0 h
n
1
f 0 hn f 0
f 0 h f 0
Again f ' 0 lim lim
h 0 h h 0 h
n n
1 1
f 0 f h n f 0 f hn
= lim lim 1 n .....(ii)
h0 h h0
n
h
From (i) and (2)
n n 1 1 0
0 or 1
f ' x 0 f 'x 1
f x c 0 f x x k
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 8
identically f x x as f 0 0 .
Not true.
41. AD
A
Sol. P 2x 2r sin 2, 0 2 0
2 4
r
2r 1 cos 2
= 2r sin 2 x
cos O
1 cos 2 sin2 cos r 2 r cos 2
= 2r
cos
B M C
P 4r 1 sin cos
r sin 2
P' 4r cos2 1 sin cos
= 4r 1 2 sin 1 sin
P ' 0
1
or sin 1not possible
sin
2
when through ,P ' change sign from plus to minus.
6
3 3
Hence Pmax 4r 3 3r
2 2
P 0 4r and P
4
2 1 1
= 4r
2 2
2r 2 1 4r
when 0 , the triangle becomes a diameter, This is not a feasible case. Hence, there is no
minimum value of the perimeter.
42. AB
a0 xn1 a1xn a x2
Sol. Let f x ...... n1 an x
n1 n 2
then f ' x a0 x n a1xn 1 .... an1x an
use Rolle’s theorem as f 0 f 1 0
43. AC
2n 2
1 r
Sol. P lim
n n
ln 1 ln 1 x dx
r n 1
n
1
27 27
P loge ln
4e 4e
44. AC
Sol. As 0 x 1 then 1 x 3 1 x
1 1
2
1 x 3 dx 1 xdx
3
2 2 1
0 0
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9 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
7
Hence I 1 and I
2
45. ABD
Sol. Use definition of reflective, symmetric and transitive relation.
46. AD
/2
Sol f x sin x
/2
sin x tf t dt
/2
f x sin x sin x tf t dt
/2
f x 1 sin x A
/2 /2
Now, A
/2
t 1 sin t A dt 2 1 0 tf t dt
A 2 1
Hence f x 1 sin x 2 1
f x max 3 1 M
f x min 1 m
M
3
m
Section – B
47. 3
1 1
x x 1
Sol. tan1 dx tan1 x tan1 x 1 dx
1 x x 1
0 0
1 1
1
= tan xdx tan1 x 1 dx
0 0
1
= 2 tan1 xdx Hence k = 2
0
Now 2sin x log2 x
Number of solution is 3.
48. 4
1/a
a
3
Sol. 4x a5 x 2 dx eax Ax 2 Bx C D.
0
Differentiating both sides, a3 4x a5 x2 eax eax 2Ax B Ax 2 Bx C eax a
4 2a4 a 4 4
A a 4 , B , C
a a2
1/a
4 2a4 a 4 4
I eax a4 x 2 x
a a2 0
4
I a2
a2
Least value of I is 4.
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AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10
49. 2
2 f 3x f 3h 2 f 3x f 0
f x h f x lim
Sol. As f ' x lim h0 3 3
h 0 h h
f 3h f 0
f ' x lim f ' 0 f ' 2
h 0 3h 0
2 2
f x 2x 2 so x 2 f x 9 x 2 2 x 2 9 number of = 2
50. 0
2
Sol. Let u e x and v cosax
Using by-part
2 1 2
1
ex sinax 2xe x sinax
I dx
a a
0 0
1
e sina 2 2
I xex sinax dx
a a0
2
For x 0, 1 , e xe x sinax e
1 1 1
2
e edx xex sinaxdx edx e
0 0 0
1
e sina 1 2
and lim 2xe x sinaxdx 0
a a0
a
1
2
Thus, lim ex cos ax dx 0
a
0
51. 1
Sol. x a h then h 0
a h h
a f x dx 2 f a n f a
lim 0
h 0 h3
1 h
f a h f a h f a f ' a h
lim 2 2 (Using L’ Hospital’s Rule)
h0 3h2
1 1 h
f a h f a f ' a h
lim 2 2 2 0
h0 3h2
1 1 h
f ' a h 0 f ' a h f " a h
lim 2 2 2 0 (Using L’ Hospital Rule)
h0 6h
f " a h
lim 0
h 0 12
Or f " a 0 aR
Thus f(x) must be of maximum degree 1
52. 9
Sol. BC CE AC CD BC CE x 1 x
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11 AIITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
x
A C 1-x D
E
Here BC CE BC x 1 x .
x x 1 x
Area
2
x3 x4 3
2 , it is max at x
2 4
3 3
max .
32
53. 1
f x 1 x
Sol. 0 f t dt 0 cos t f t dt 0
Differentiating w.r.t. to x
f 1 f x .f ' x cos x f x 0
xf ' x f x cos x
xf x ' cos x
xf x sin x C
2
As f C 0
2
sin x
So f x
x
/2 /2 sin x
Now, 0 f x dx 0 x dx
2 sin x
As, 1
x
/2 sin x
1 dx
0 x 2
/2 sin x
So 0 dt 1
x
54. 2
99
Sol. I sin 101x sin99 xdx sin 100 x . sin x dx
99 100
sin 100x cos x. sin x dx cos 100x sin x dx
u v
Use by-part
100
sin 100x sin x
I k
100
Then, a 100, b 100, c 100
ab
2
c
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Main)-2024
TEST DATE: 15-09-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) (B)
X
d 2d 3d d 2d 3d X
E E
(C) (D)
X X
3d 2d 3d
2d
d d
2. Refer figure (a), (b) and (c). All charges are uniformly distributed on respective configurations.
Force on charge +q due to hemisphere is F1, F2 and F3 in figure (a), (b) and (c) respectively.
Choose the correct alternative:
+ +
Q + + + Q + +
+
+
+ + + + +
+ + +
+ + + +
+ + r + R r + +
+ + q
+ + +
+ + + + q +
+ + + q + + + +
+ R + +
+ + + + + +
(A) F1 F3 F2 (B) F1 F3 F2
(C) F1 F3 F2 (D) F1 F3 F2
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3 AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024
2 2
(A) S (B) S
0 2 0
2 Q 2 Q
(C) S S (D) S
0 4 r 2 2 0 4 0 r 2
1V
i
1 1
1 1V
(A) 0 amp (B) 1 amp
1
(C) 2 amp (D) amp
2
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 4
7. A long narrow solenoid is half filled with material of relative permeability 1 and half filled with
another material of relative permeability 2 . Calculate the magnetic field (B) on the axis of the
solenoid at boundary of the two material (i.e. at point P). The current in solenoid coil is I.
1 P 2
1
(A) 1 2 0nI (B) 1 2 0nI
2
212 2
(C) 0 nI (D) 1 0 nI
1 2 1 2
10. Two infinitely large planes A and B intersect each other at right angles and carry uniform surface
charge densities and . Which of the following figures best represents electric field lines?
A B A B
(A) (B)
A B A B
(C) (D)
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12. A small conductor spherical shell of radius r is connected to earth through battery of potential
difference V. A charge +q is given a velocity towards shell such that it stops at a distance l from
shell where l >> a. The kinetic energy given to the change +q is ______.
qVa kq2 a
(A) (B)
l 2l2
2
qVa kq a qVa kq2 a
(C) 2 (D) 2
l 2l l 2l
13. Hysteresis curves for four different materials is as shown in figure. Which material should be
selected for electromagnet?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
14. A uniform current carrying plane is placed in a uniform magnetic field such that the magnetic field
in the region is as shown. Current per unit length in the plane is given by
B1 B2
B1 B2 B1 B 2
(A) , outwards (B) , outwards
0 0
B1 B 2 B1 B 2
(C) , inwards (D) , inwards
0 0
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 6
15. A circular loop of N turns is made from wire of length L. Another circular loop is made from
identical wire but number of turns are half. Ratio of torque on second coil to that on first coil
when placed in a uniform magnetic field in same orientation is given by____.
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 1
16. A particular galvanometer serves as a 2 V full scale voltmeter when a 2500 resistor is
connected in series with it. It serves as a 0.5 A full scale ammeter when a 0.22 resistor is
connected in parallel with it. Determine the internal resistance of the galvanometer and the
current required to produce full scale deflection.
(A) 45 (B) 95
(C) 145 (D) 195
17. Figure illustrates potentiometer circuit by means of which we can vary a voltage V applied to a
certain device possessing a resistance R. The potentiometer wire has a length L and a
resistance R0. A voltage V0 is applied to the terminals of wire. Find the voltage V fed to the device
as a function of distance x.
V0
R 0, L
V0Rx V0Rx
(A) (B)
x x
RL R 0 x 1 RL R 0 x 1
L L
V0Rx V0Rx
(C) (D)
x x
R 0 x 1 RL RL R 0 x 1
L L
18. An oil drop carrying a charge of two electrons has a mass of 3.2 10 17 kg. It is falling freely in air
with terminal speed. The electric field required to make the drop move upwards with the same
speed is (neglect buoyant force)
(A) 2 103 Vm1 (B) 4 103 Vm 1
(C) 3 103 Vm1 (D) 8 103 Vm1
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7 AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024
19. Consider an air filled parallel plate capacitor with one plate connected to a spring having a force
constant k, and another plate held fixed. The system rests on a frictionless table top. If the
charges placed on plates a and b are +Q and –Q respectively, the spring expand will have an
expansion x, in equilibrium, given by
k
a b
Capacitor connected to a spring
Q2 2Q2
(A) (B)
kA0 kA0
Q2
(C) (D) None of these
2kA0
20. An infinite dielectric sheet having charge density has a hole of radius R in it. An electron is
released on the axis of the hole at a distance 3R from the center. The speed with which it
crosses the center of the hole is
+ + + + +
+
+ + + + +
+ + +
+ R +
+
+ + +
+
+
+ + + 3R
+
+ + + +
+ + +
eR eR
(A) (B)
2m 0 m 0
2eR
(C) (D) None of these
m 0
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. In a conducting material, voltage across it is proportional to I such that V K I where K is the
proportionality constant. Two elements of this material is with value of R = 1.66 and 1.25 volt
1
amp 2 are connected in parallel. The value of equivalent R of element of same conducting
material is _________.
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 8
22. AB is a uniform wire of length L = 100 cm. A cell of emf v 0 = 12 volt is connected across AB. A
resistance R, cell of emf V and a milliammeter (which can show deflection in both directions] is
connected to the circuit as shown. Contact C can be slid on the wire AB. Distance AC = x. The
current (I) through the milliammeter is taken positive when the cell of emf V is discharging. A
graph of I vs x has been shown. If resistance R 10n , the value of n is ______.
Neglect internal resistance of the cells.
R V mA I (mA)
x 30
A B
C
O X (cm)
20
V0
23. A prism shaped network of resistors has been shown in figure. Each D
arm (like AB, AC, CD, DF …) has resistance R. Equivalent
mR C E
resistance between C and D is , where m and n doesn’t have F
n
any common factor determine m + n.
A
B
25. In the figure, a line of electric field created by two point charges q1 and q2 is shown. If it is known
that q1 1 C , the magnitude of charge q2 is
q1 q2
26. Volt-ampere (V-I) characteristics of an unknown device D connected in a circuit in series with a
resistance and a battery is shown in the figure. If value of the resistance is R 300 k and
terminal voltage of the battery is V0 = 5 kV, find potential drop (in kV) across the device.
R
V0 D
I (mA)
10
V (kV)
1.0
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9 AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024
27. Two metal pieces having a potential difference of 800 V are 0.02m apart horizontally. A particle
of mass 1.96 1015 kg is suspended in equilibrium between the plates. If e is the elementary
charge, then charge on the particle is ‘me’. Find m.
t
28. In the circuit shown in figure, the charge on capacitor qc a 1 e b C as a function of time t
sec . At t = 0, switch is closed. LCM of a and b is ___.
5
3
18V 3 A
4F
B
1
29. A magnetic needle performs 20 oscillations per minute in a horizontal plane and 15.2 oscillations
per minute in vertical east west plane. The angle of dip (in degree) at the location is . The
value of = ____ .
5
30. A semicircular ring has a total charge +Q distributed uniformly over it. The magnetic field at its
X0 QV
center when it moves with velocity v along its axis is given by . The value of xyz ____ .
yR z
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 10
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. I I
(A)
Br Br
(B)
(i) KMnO4/
Product
(ii) NaOH + CaO
(A)
CHCl3 KOH
PhNH2
Na2Cr2O7/H+
(B) PhNH2
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11 AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024
NH2 NH2
NO 2
conc HNO3
(C) PhNH2 +
conc H2SO4
NO 2
NaNO2 + HCl PhNH2
(D) PhNH2 [X] yellow ppt.
0 °C
34. CH2NH2
(i) Tildent reagent
(ii) aq KOh (iii) H+, heat
A, Compound (A) will be:-
CH2OH
(A) (B)
OH
(C) (D)
CH3
36. OH
CH3MgBr
Br X
heat
37. Choose the answer that has the following compounds located correctly in the separation scheme.
Propanone-A, Methanol-B, AcOH C ,
Pass through NaHSO
A
B
C
Ca OH 2
ppt Solution
3
ppt solution
vapour 1 3
ppt (1) ppt (2) solution (3)
(A) A B C
(B) B C A
(C) C B A
(D) C A B
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 12
38.
LiAIH4/Ether
(X), (X) will be:
COPh H(+)
OH
EtONa
41. CH3 COOC2H5
Product,
Product of this reaction would be:
O + O
Na
(A) CH3 COCH2 COOEt (B)
H3C C CH C O Et
(C) CH3 COCH2 COH OEt 2 (D) CH2 COOEt 2
44. OH OH
& can be differentiated by:
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46.
NaOH
+ CH3COCH CH2 (P)
O
Here P is:
OH
CH CH2
C
(A) (B) CH3
CHCOCH CH2
O
(C) (D)
O O
47. Which among the following will not show cross aldol with formaldehyde?
(A) Glyoxal (B) nitro methane
(C) cyclopentadiene (D) 3-oxo butanal
NH O
50. A Na
EtOH
B
3
Me S
CH3 COCH2 CHO , compound (A) is
3
2
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 14
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. How many mono nitro derivatives will be obtained by the nitration of [X]?
OH
52. How many benzylic hydrogens are present in the hydrocarbon shown?
53. How many moles of HIO4 is required to break down the given molecule here?
CH OCH3
O
H OH
H OH
H
CH2OH
e. CH 3CH 3, f. H OH,
g.
OH
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15 AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024
56. O O
KOH (aq.)
CH 3 C CH3 + CH 3 CH 2 C CH3 (A)
A number of aldol condensation product (including stereoisomer) = _____
57. Total number of enol possible for the compound formed during given reaction will be (including
stereoisomer):
O
CH3MgBr + CH3 CH2 C Cl
58. In Zeisel’s method for the determination of methoxyl groups, a sample of 2.68 gm of a compound
(A) gave 14.08 gm of AgI. If the molecular weight of compound (A) is 134, the number of
OCH3 group(s) in the compound (A) is:
59. If (dl) or 2-methyl butanoic acid were esterified by reaction with (dl) or 2-butanol, how
many optically active compounds would be present in the final equilibrium reaction mixture?
60. O CH3
Conc. HI
(a) mole HI is consumed
O
O CH3
Conc. HI
(b) mole of HI is consumed
Sum a b
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 16
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
62. Complete solution set of the equation x 2 1 cos x x 2 1 cos x belonging to 2, , is
3
(A) , 1, 1 (B) , 1, 1 ,
2 2 2 2 2
3 3
(C) , , (D) 2, , 1 1,
2 2 2 2 2 2
2
63. Domain of f x 2 x 3 x 1 , where {.} denotes the fractional part, in [-1, 1], is
1 1 1
(A) 1, 1
, 1
(B) 1, 0, 1
2 2 2
1 1
(C) 1, (D) , 1
2 2
1 x2
64. Range of f x cos1 2
2 x is
2x
(A) 0, 1 (B) 0, 1
2
(C) 1, 1 (D) 1, 1
2
65. If sin1 x cos 1 x , where [.] denotes the greater integer function, then complete set of values
of x is
(A) [cos 1, 1] (B) [sin 1, 1]
(C) [cos 1, sin 1] (D) [0, 1]
xa sinb x
66. If lim , where a, b, c R 0 , exists and has zero value, then
x 0
sin xc
(A) a + c = b (B) b + c = a
(C) a + b = c (D) None of these
67. lim
sin 6x 2
is equal to
x 0
lncos 2x x
2
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71. l1 and l2 are the side lengths of two variable squares S1 and S2 respectively. If l1 l2 l23 6 , then
rate of change of the area of S2 with respect to rate of change of the area of S1 and l2 1 is
3 4
(A) (B)
4 3
3 1
(C) (D)
2 32
2
72. f(x) be a differentiable function such that f ' x .
log log cos x a
3 1/ 4
x
73.
f x e t 1 t 1 sin t cos t sin tdt x ,2 , then f(x) is decreasing in
2
0
5
(A) , 0 , 1 , (B) , 1, , 2
2 4 4 2 4 4
5 5
(C) , 1 , (D) 0, 1, , 2
4 4 4 4
74. A straight line is drawn through the point P(3, 4) meeting the positive direction of co-ordinate axes
at the points A and B. If ‘O’ is the origin, then minimum area of triangle OAB is equal to
(A) 12 sq. units (B) 6 sq. units
(C) 24 sq. units (D) 48 sq. units
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 18
2
x 1 x
75. e 1 x 2 dx is equal to
ex ex
(A) C (B) C
1 x2 1 x2
ex ex
(C) 2
C (D) 2
C
1 x2 1 x2
dx
76. x is equal to
2
2 x2
1
(A) x 1 x 2 C (B) 1 x2 C
x
1 1
(C) 1 x2 C (D) 1 x2 C
x x
dx
77. is equal to
1 x x x2
(A)
2 x 1 C (B)
2 1 x C
1 x 1 x
(C)
2 x 1 C (D)
2 1 x C
x 1 x 1
78. If
ln x 1 x 2 dx
x 1 x2
= a 1 x 2 ln x 1 x 2 bx c , then
(A) a 1, b 1 (B) a = 1, b = 1
(C) a = - 1, b = 1 (D) a = -1, b = -1
79. f(x) and g(x) are continuous functions in [0, 1] satisfying, f x f a x and g x g a x a ,
a
then f x g x dx
0
is equal to
a
a a
(A) (B) f x dx
2 2 0
a a
(C) f x dx
0
(D) a f x dx
0
n 1
n2
80. If f(x) is a continuous function for all real values of x and satisfies f x dx x I then,
n 2
5
f x dx
3
is equal to
19 35
(A) (B)
20 2
17
(C) (D) None of these
2
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19 AIITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
81. Total number of positive real values of x satisfying 2 x x x , where [.] and {.} denote the
greatest integer function and fractional part respectively, is equal to
84. Total number of points of discontinuity of f x 3 4 sin x , where [.] denotes the greatest
integer function, in , 2 is equal to
4
86. If tan xdx a tan3 x b tan x cx d, then 15 a b c is
1 x7 7
87. If x 1 x dx aln x bln x
7
1 C , then 14 a b is
y
dt d2 y
88. If x and ay, then ‘a’ is equal to
0 1 9t 2 dx 2
tan x cot x
tdt dt
89. The value of t 1 t , where x , , is equal to
1/ e 1 t2 1/e
2
6 3
16 n n n n
90. lim ... 2 is equal to
n n2 n2 1 n2 22 2n 2n 1
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Main)-2024
TEST DATE: 15-09-2023
SECTION – A
1. C
Sol. The direction of electric fields at different points is shown in figure below.
3
E1 E2 E3
-ve
+ve
3 2
E1 E3
20 20 0
3
E2
20 20 0
E1 and E2 are in the negative direction and E3 in positive direction.
2. A
Sol. Complete the outer sphere.
Now this sphere will exert no force on the inner hemisphere.
This means the two hemispheres in the outer sphere exert equal and opposite force on the inner
hemisphere.
Call the forces on inner due to two halves H1 and H2 of outer sphere as F1 and F2.
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 2
H1
H2
F2 F1
F1 F2 F(say)
Now complete the inner sphere with outer sphere as hemispherical
Now, force between one half of inner sphere (H1) and the outer hemisphere is very much like that
between H2 and outer hemisphere is like F2 in previous drawing.
h1 h2
F1 F2
3. B
Sol. EF due to all charges other than charges on S at the concerned surface =
2 0
4. C
q1 q2
Sol. At some instant t, q1 q2 Q and
C1 C2
0 A 0 A
Also, C1 and C2
d0 vt d0 vt
Hence, from there, we get
d vt
q1 Q 0
2d0
d vt
And q2 Q 0
2d0
Current in circuit = Reduction in charge of first capacitor = Charge increase in second capacitor.
dq1 dq2
I
dt dt
Qv Q 1
= 0.50A
2d0 2Q
5. B
q1
Sol. Electric field in dielectric is
4k 0
q2
Electric field in vacuum is
4 0
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3 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
6. D
Sol. KCL at node x 3x y 2 1
at node y 3y x 2 1
at node z 3z y x 1
y
Z O
1
1 1
x 0, y , z
2 2
x 1 y 1
i amp
1 2
7. B
Sol. Let’s calculate the field due to one half by way of integration. (This is just to demonstrate;
otherwise the result is obviously half the field due to a solenoid extending to large length on both
sides.)
Consider a rig element of angular width d as shown in the figure.
d
a
P
1
dx x
x tan
dx a sec 2 d
Number of turns in width dx is ndx
Field due to ring at P is along the axis given by
dB
0 1ndxIa2
2
0 1nIa2 a sec d a2 x 2 a sec
3
2 a sec
3
2 a2 x
2 2
0 1nI
dB cos d
2
nI /2 1
B1 0 1 cos d 0 1nI
2 0 2
Similarly, field due to second half will be
1
B2 0 2nI
2
1
Resultant field at P is B B1 B2 1 2 0nI
2
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 4
8. C
Sol. The figure shows a circular field line due to current I. x dx
B
I 0I A
B 0
2r 2dsec d
d
And x d tan
dx dsec 2 d
B B
B dx Bx dx cos
A A
B
0I
2dsec dsec
2
= d cos
A
0I I
= d 0
2 2
0I
=
2
9. A
Sol. The angular displacement about the center of circular motion is small for fast moving particles.
And angular velocity is same for all.
10. B
ˆ
Sol. E E A EB aˆ b
20 20
b̂ â
A B
11. A
Sol. At any point inside a metal cavity when a charge is placed equal amount of charge is induced on
the outer surface of the conductor which is distributed in such a way to keep constant potential
on the body of conductor. In this case for spherical shape outer charge is uniform so the electric
field at point P is given as
1 Q
E
4 0 x 2
12. C
Sol. Work done by the battery = Charging energy
kQ '2 kQ 'q 1 kQ2
Q' Q V 2
mv
2a l 2 2a
Va kq a
where initial charge Q and final charge Q ' V
k l k
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5 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
13. C
Sol. It should possess high susceptibility and poor retentivity.
14. C
Sol. B0 B B1
B0 B B 2
B1 B 2 1
B 0i
2 2
15. A
Sol. N1R1 N2R 2 R2 2R1
2 M2 N2R 22
2:1
1 M1 N1R12
16. C
Sol. For ammeter, we have Igr 0.5A Ig 0.22 ...(1)
Ig r 0.22 0.11 V
r
G
Ig
0.22
0.5 A
0.5 A - lg
Ig G 2500
V 2V
17. D
Sol. Resistance of x meter length of wire,
R
R1 0 x
L
Resistance R and R1 are in parallel, so their effective resistance,
RR1
R'
R R1
This is in series with length (L – x) of wire. Resistance of length (L – x) of wire is
R
R 2 0 L x
L
Hence, total resistance is given by
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 6
RR 1
Reff R' R2 R2
R R2
So, current in the main circuit is given by
V V0
I 0
R eff RR1
R2
R R1
Potential difference across the length x is
RR1
V IR ' I
R R1
V0 RR1
V
RR1 R R1
R 2
R R1
V0RR1
V
RR1 RR2 R1R1
V0RR1 V0RR1
V
R R1 R2 R1R2 R0R R1R 2
R
V0R 0 x
V L
R R
R0R 0 x 0 L x
L L
V0Rx
V
x
RL R0 x 1
L
18. A
Sol. For downward motion with constant velocity, we have
q 2e and m 3.2 10 17 kg
Since motion is downwards, so viscous force is upwards
FV
mg
6rv mg … (i)
For upwards motion with same constant speed, we have
6rv mg qE … (ii)
qE E
FV
mg
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7 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
19. C
Sol. The spring force FS acting on plate a is given by
FS kxiˆ
Similarly, the electrostatic force Fe due to the electric field created by plate b is
ˆ Q2 ˆ
Fe QEiˆ Q i i
20 2A0
Where A is the area of the plate. Notice that charges on plate a cannot exert a fore on itself, as
required by Newton’s Third Law. Thus, only the electric field due to plate b is considered. At
equilibrium the two forces cancel and we have
Q
kx Q
2A0
Which gives
Q2
x
2kA 0
Hence, the correct answer is C.
20. B
Sol. Since the potential function is not defined for an infinite conducting sheet, hence to solve this
problem we either calculate potential difference or use force equations.
Electric field due to an infinite dielectric sheet
E1
20
Electric field at the axis of a disc of radius R is
x
E2 1
20 2
x R 2
mv 2 e
2
2 0
x2 R2 0
3R
eR
v
m 0
Hence, the correct answer is B.
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 8
SECTION – B
21. 1
1 1 1 1 1
Sol. 1
Req R12 R22 1.662 1.252
22. 8
Sol. When I = 0
x = 20 cm
V x 12 20
It means VAC 0 2.4volt
L 100
Since there is no current through the milliammeter
Hence VAC V 2.4 volt
When x = 0; I = 30 mA
2.4 = I R
2.4 30 10 3 R
R 80
23. 8
3R
R
q 3R
Sol. Req =
3R 5
R
q
mn 3 5 8.
24. 2
Sol. After the crossing the XX plane, the forces on the particle are
(1) mg
(2) qE
(3) Magnetic force perpendicular to velocity FB qVB
For particle to move uniformly, the magnetic force must balance the resultant of mg and qE.
Hence, direction of velocity must be as shown in figure.
x
V
FB y
45o
qE = mg
45o
mg
Component of velocity in X and Y direction must be same.
Vx Vy
qE mg
Since, acceleration in y direction before entering magnetic field is a y g;
m m
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9 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
We have
u gT gT
u 2gT
25. 8
Sol. P
q1 d q2
At point P
kq 2 kq2 1
E1y 2 1 2 E 2y
4d d 5 4d2 16d2 5
E1y E2 y 0
2q1 q2
5 5 20 5
q2 8 C
26. 2
V 1000
Sol. R 100 k
I 10 103
5 103
i 12.5 mA
400 103
I cannot be greater than 10 mA
Potential drop across device D = 2kV.
27. 3
Sol. The electric field strength between the plates is given as
V 800 V
E 40000
d 0.02 m
For the equilibrium of the particle, we use
Mg = Eq
Mg = E(ne)
mg 1.96 1015 9.8
n
Ee 40000 1.6 1019
n=3
28. 4
Sol. To do the transient analysis of the circuit we replace the circuit across the capacitor by an
equivalent battery using Thevenin’s analysis for which the circuit is redrawn as shown in figure
with internal resistance across A and B are given by replacing batteries of circuit by straight wires
of zero resistance.
5
3
5 A
I 3 A 4F
18 V
B 6V B
1
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 10
63
rAB 3
63
R AB 2 3 5
The current in left loop of circuit is given as
I = 2A
Open circuit potential difference across terminals A and B is given by writing equation of potential
drop from A to B as
VA 3 2 VB
VA VB 6V
Now charge as a function of time on capacitor plates can be calculated by using equation-(110)
which is given as
t
q C CV 1 e RC
t
qC 24 1 e 20 C
29. 6
Sol. In horizontal plane, the magnetic needle oscillates due to horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic field BH for which the time period of oscillation is given as
I
T 2
MBH
Above result of time period is already discussed earlier in an illustrative example. Students are
advised to remember this result for oscillation of a magnetic in magnetic field.
In the vertical north-south plane in magnetic meridian the needle oscillates in the total earth’s
magnetic field BE’ and in vertical east-west plane which is a plane perpendicular to the magnetic
meridian it oscillates only in earth’s vertical component BV. If the time period be T1 and T2, then
we have
I I
T1 2 andT2 2
MBE MBV
From above equations, we have
T12 BH
T 2 BE
If n is the initial frequency of oscillation in horizontal plane then we have
n12 BE
n2 BH
n22 B V
And
n2 BH
BE
We also have sec
BH
By solving above equation,
30o
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11 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
30. 2
0 Q V
Sol. dB cos cos d
4 R2
dB
1
2
0 QV
B dB cos 2 R 2 2
xyz 2
2
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 12
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. B
Sol. A Cu (Ullman reaction)
B Zn Et 2 O (Fitting reaction)
32. A
Sol. NO 2 electron rich NO 2 NO 2
COOH
KMnO4, heat NaOH, CaO
Heat
COOH
electron dificient
KMnO4 attacks on electron rich benzene nucleus.
33. C
Sol. Along with ortho and para products meta derivative also forms with 47%.
34. A
Sol. NOCl aq KOH
CH2NH2 CH2 Cl CH2OH
35. B
Sol. Because in acidic medium it removes H2 O & generates carbocation
()
ROH H( ) ROH2 H2 O R Carbocation
36. D
Sol. OH OMgBr O
CH3MgBr
Br CH4 + Br
O
Heat
ring opening
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13 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
37. D
Sol. In ppt(1) acetic acid separates as cal. Acetate
2AcOH Ca(OH)2 2H2O Ca OAc 2
After separation solution contains MeOH & propanone. Propanone separates as propanone
sodium bi sulphite (ppt-2)
O SO 3Na
NaHSO3
CH3 C CH3 CH3 C CH3 ppt-2
OH
Thus, solution contains methyl alcohol.
38. C
Sol. Reduction followed by pinacole pinacolone rearrangement takes place.
Ph
LiAlH4/Ether H(+ ) ring opening
H(+) (+)
COPh CHPh CHPh OH
(+)
OH OH OH OH
Ph
-H(+ )
39. D
Sol. O O
COOH
CH3CO3H O H3O(+) OH
40. C
Sol.
(-)
CHO CuSO + NaOH COO (+) COOH
4
H
OH OH OH
O
Esterification
O
41. A
Sol. This is claisen condensation:
CH3 COOC2H5 EtONa EtOH CH2 COOC2H5
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 14
(-)
O O
(-)
CH2COOC2H5 + CH3 C OC2H5 CH3 OC2H5
CH2CO 2Et
(-)
CH3 COCH2CO 2Et + EtO
If we do not add H at the last of the reaction then EtO will remove H from
42. B
Sol. EtONa, H(+)
CH3COOC2H5 CH3COCH2COOC2H5
Claisen Condensation
heat H3O(+)
CH3COCH3 CH3COCH2COOH
-CO2 -C2H5OH
43. A
Formaldehyde form a very hard plastic (Bakelite) with Phenol & H ion.
Sol.
44. B
Sol. Phenol shows Liberman’s nitroso test with NaNO2 H2SO 4 .
45. B
Sol. Due to steric hindrance CO group is not reduced by N2H4 ,NaOH,heat
46. C
Sol. It is an example of cross aldol condensation.
O
(-)
OH(-) H2O
CH2 CH C CH3
-H2O
O O (-) O
O CH3 O CH3 OH
OH(-)
O -H2O O
CH 2 O CH 3 O
O (- )
(-)
(-)
H2O OH, heat
O O
OH
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15 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
47. A
Sol. Glyoxal % formaldehyde both are independent from alpha hydrogen atom thus, these two will
show cross Cannizzaro reaction
48. B
Sol. Iso electric point is the average of pKa of similar groups.
Iso electric point 1.88 3.65 / 2 2.77
49. D
Sol. Keto group cannot be oxidized by bromine water.
50. C
Sol. CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
SECTION – B
51. 1
Sol. X is
NO 2
Br Br Br Br
conc. HNO 3
conc. H2SO4
Br Br
Here all position are identical hence, only one product will be obtained after mono nitration.
52. 5
Sol.
Total 5 H
53. 1
Sol. Theoretical
54. 3
Sol.
NaNH2 (leq.) NaNH2(leq)
O -POCl3 Cl Cl Cl
Cl PCl 3 Cl
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 16
55. 4
Sol. a. D-Glucose, b. D-Fructose ( -hydroxy ketone)
O
c. CH3 CHO, f. H C OH
56. 9
Sol. O O
CH 3 C CH C CH 3 CH 3 C C C CH3
(1) (1)
CH3 CH 3 CH3
O O
CH 3 CH 2 C CH C CH3
(2)
CH3 CH 3
O
CH 3 CH 2 C CH C CH3
(2)
CH 3
Total products = 1 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 9
57. 3
Sol. O O
Br
CH 3MgBr + CH 3 CH 2 C Cl CH 3 C CH 2CH 3 + Mg
2-Butanone Br
58. 3
Sol. 2.68 gm of (A) gives 14.08 of AgI
14.08 134
134 gm of (A) gives
2.68
704 gm of AgI
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17 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
704
mol of AgI
235
3 OMe groups
59. 4
Sol. (dl) 2-methyl butanoic acid and (dl) 2-butanol
esterification
Ester consists of two stereocentres. Chiral center during whole reaction are not effected, that’s
why all ester are optical active.
60. 3
Sol. Can't break
1 mole
O CH3 OH + CH3I
HI
(a)
H I
D.B.C.
(aromatic)
2 mole
O CH3 I + CH3I + H2O
HI
I HHI
(b)
No DBC
non aromatic
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 18
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. D
Sol. In this case base is variable. Thus we must take two separate cases:
(i) x 0, 1 . In this case we have to ensure that 0 x 2 x 1 1 x 1, 0
Common part of x 0, 1 and x 1, 0 is x 1, 0
(ii) x 1. In this case we have must have
x2 x 1 1
x , 1 0,
Common part of x 1 and x , 1 0, is , 1 1,
Thus, the final solution is
x , 1 1, 0 1,
62. D
Sol. x 2 1 cos x x 2 1 cos x
It implies that x 2 1 cos 0 because x y x y if xy 0 .
Sign scheme of x 2 1 cos x is
+ – + – + –
2 3
-1 1
2 2 2
Thus solution is
3
2 , 1 1, 2 2, 2
63. B
Sol. We must have
2
2 x 3x 1 0
1
x x or x
2
1
Thus we have 0 x
2
1
x n, n , n I
2
64. D
1 x2 1 x2
Sol. cos1 is defined if 1
2x 2x
x0
1 x2 2 x 0
2
x 1 0
x 1, 1
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19 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
65. B
Sol. sin1 x 0, x 0, sin1
1, x sin1, 1
1, x 0, cos1
and cos 1 x
0, x cos1, 1
Thus sin1 x cos 1 x
x sin1, 1
66. C
xa sinb x
Sol. lim
x 0 sin x c
b
sin x xc
= lim x a c
x b c .
x 0
x sin x
c b
sin x x
= lim x a b c c
x 0
x sin x
This limit will haven non-zero value if a + b = c.
67. B
sin6x 2
Sol. lim
x 0
lncos 2x 2 x
= lim
sin6x 6x 2 2
x 0 2x2 x
6x 2 1 2sin2
2
2x x
2
2sin2 2
= lim
sin6x
6x
2
x 0 6x 2 2x 2 x 2
2 2x x
2sin2 ln 1 2 sin
2 2
x2
= 3 lim
x 0 2x 2 x
sin2
2
2
2 2x 2 x
x
= 3 lim 2 = 3
1
12
2
x 0 2
2x x 2 1
2 2x x
sin 4
2 2
68. C
Sol. Putting x = 0, we get
f x 0
f 0 0
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 20
f h f 0
f ' 0 lim
h 0 h0
f h
= lim
h 0 h
f h
Now h
h
f h
h h
h
f h
lim 0.
h
h 0
69. B
cos x, 0 x
Sol. g x
sin x 1, x
2
O
2
Adjacent figure represents the graph of g(x).Clearly, g(x) is continuous but non-differentiable at
x .
70. D
Sol. Curves will intersect if x 2 16x c 0 has real roots.
Thus, c 64 .
dy x
For x 2 4y 2 c 0,
dx 4y
dy 2
For y 2 4x, .
dx y
If curves intersect orthogonally, then
x 2
1
4y y
2y2 8x
x=0
y = 0.
But if y = 0, slope of both curves are undefined.
71. D
Sol. Let 1 and 2 be area of squares S1 and S2. Then
1 l12 , 2 l22
d1 d 2
2l1, 2l2
dl1 dl2
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21 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
d 2 l2 dl2 l2
d1 l1 dl1 l1 1 3l2
When l2 1, l1 8, then
d 2 1
d1 32
72. D
Sol. For f(x) to be increasing x R , we must have
log3 log1/ 4 cos x a 0, x R
1
0 cos x a x R
4
1
cos x a cos x, x R
4
73. C
Sol. f ' x e x 1 x 1 sin x cos x sin x
Sign scheme of f’(x) is
1 5 2
O
2 4 4
Clearly f(x) is increasing in
5
, 1, , 2 and decreasing in , 1 ,
2 4 4 4 4
74. C
x y
Sol. Let the equation of drawn line be 1.
a b
Where a 3, b 4.
As the line passes through (3, 4) and meets the positive direction of co-ordinate axis, we have
3 4
1.
4 b
4a
b
a 3
Now area of triangle OAB,
1 2a2 d 2a a 6
ab
2 a 3 da a 3 2
Clearly, a = 6 is the point of minima for .
2 36
Thus, min 24 sq. units.
3
75. A
2
1 x
Sol. I ex 2
dx
1 x
= ex
1 x 2 2x
dx
2
1 x2
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 22
x 1 2x
= e dx
1 x 2 1 x 2
2
1 x 2x ex
= e 1 x 2 2 dx
1 x2
x
2x e
dx
1 x 2
ex
= C
1 x2
76. D
dx dx
Sol. x
2 2
1 x 1
x3 1
x2
1
Let t 1
x2
2
1 3
dt x
dx 1
2 1 2
x
dx
3 tdt
x
tdt
I t C
t
1
= 1 C
x2
1
= 1 x2 C
x
77. A
dx
Sol. I
1 x x x 2
=
1 x dx
1 x x 1 x
1/2
=
1 x dx
x 1 x
3 /2
dx dx
= 3/2
3 /2
1
x 2 1
1 x
x
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23 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
1
d 1
x dx
= 3/ 2
3 /2
1
1
1 x
x
2 2
= 1/2
1/ 2
C
1 1 x
x 1
2 x 2
= C
1 x 1 x
=
2 x 1 C
1 x
78. A
Sol. I x
ln x x 2 1 dx
2
x 1
2
Let t x 1
dt x
dx 2
x 1
I ln t t 2 1 dt
1
1
2
t 1
= ln t t 2 1 t
t t2 1
tdt
1 2t
t ln t t 2 1
2 t2 1
dt
=
1 x 2 ln x 1 x 2 x C
a 1, b 1
79. B
a
Sol. I f x g x dx
0
a
= f a x g a x dx
0
a
= f x a g x dx
0
a a
= a f x dx f x g x dx
0 0
a
2 I a f x dx
0
a
a
I f x dx
2 0
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 24
80. B
5 3 5
Sol. f x dx
3
f x dx f x dx
3 3
3 5
= 2 f x dx f x dx
0 3
1 2 3
1 5
= 2 f x dx f x dx f x dx + 2 f x dx f x dx
0 1 2 0 4
2
1 2 9 16 35
= 20
2 2 2 2 2
SECTION – B
81. 1
Sol. 2 x x x
2x x 2 x
x
x
2
0
x 1
2
x 0, 1
For [x] = 0, we get x 0 x 0
x0
For [x] = 1, we get
1
x
2
3
x
2
Number of positive real x = 1.
82. 14
Sol. Graphs of y 2cos x and y sin x meet four times in 0, 2 .
Thus, total number of solutions
= 4 + 4 + 4 + 2 = 14.
y = 2cosx
y sin x
O 2
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25 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
83. 6
Sol. There are exactly six solutions.
n x
sin x
x
-3 -2 -1 O 1 2 3
84. 8
Sol. f x 3 4 sin x
Clearly, f(x) is non-differentiable at all these points where f x 4 sin x is non-differentiable.
In , 2 g(x) is clearly non differentiable at eight points. It should be noted that g(x) is
3
differentiable at x .
2
2
x
-1
-2 y 4 sin x
-3
-4
85. 4
Sol. Bold line represents the graph of y = f(x) Clearly f(x) is non-differentiable at
5 3 7
x , , , ,
4 4 4 4
3
Also, f ' x 0 at x , 0, .
4 2
Thus there are 7 critical points in 2, 2 .
y
y = cos x
2
O
y = sin x
86. 5
4
Sol. tan xdx a tan3 x b tan x cx d
Differentiating both sides, we get
tan4 x 3a tan2 x sec 2 x b sec 2 x c
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AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 26
87. 10
1 x7
Sol. I dx
x 1 x7
= aln x bln 1 x 2 C
Differentiating both sides, we get
1 x7 a 7x 6
b
x 1 x7 x 1 x7
a 1, a 7b 1
2
b
7
14 a b 10
88. 9
y
dt
Sol. x
0 1 9t 2
dx
1 9y 2
dy
dx
1 9y 2
dy
d2 y
18y dy 9y
2
dx 2 1 9y 2 dx
a=9
89. 0
tan x cot x
tdt dt
Sol. f x 1 t t 1 t
2
2
1/e 1/ e
tan x 1
f ' x sec 2 x cosec 2 x
2
1 tan x cot x 1 cot 2 x
tan x 1
f ' x sec 2 x cosec 2 x
1 tan2
cot x 1 cot 2 x
= tan x tan x 0
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27 AIITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
90. 4
n n n
Sol. Let L ...
n2 n2 22 2
n n 1
2
n 1
n
= n
r 0
2
11
1 n 1 1
=
n r 0 r2
1 2
n
Thus the given limit is equal to
1
dx 1 1
0 1 x 2 tan x 0 4
16
L 4
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2024
PART TEST – IV
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 20-10-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2
Physics PART – I
1. A nucleus X of mass M, initially at rest, undergoes alpha decay according to the equation
A A 4 4
Z X Z 2 Y 2 He . The alpha particle emitted in the above process is found to move in a circular
track of radius r in a uniform magnetic field B. Then (mass and charge of particle are m and q
respectively)
(A) The ratio of kinetic energies of the alpha particle and the daughter nucleus Y approximately
Mm
equals
m
(B) The ratio of kinetic energies of the alpha particle and the daughter nucleus Y approximately
m
equals
M
M r 2 q2B 2
(C) The energy released in the process approximately equals
M m 2m
m r 2 q2B 2
(D) The energy released in the process approximately equals
M m 2m
2. A diverging lens of focal length f1 is placed in front of and coaxially with a concave mirror of focal
length f2 . Their separation is d. A parallel beam of light incident on the lens returns as a parallel
beam from the arrangement. Then,
(A) The beam diameters of the incident and reflected beams must be the same
(B) d 2 f2 f1
(C) d f2 f1
(D) If the entire arrangement is immersed in water, the conditions will remain unaltered
3. Let , and ' denote the wavelengths of the X-rays of the K ' K ' and L lines in the
characteristic X-rays for a metal. Then,
(A) ' (B) '
1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) (D)
' '
4. Two straight conducting rails form a right angle where their ends
are joined. A conducting bar in contact with the rails starts at the X X X X
vertex at time t = 0 and moves with constant
velocity v along v
X X X
them as shown in figure. A magnetic field B is directed into the X
page. The induced emf in the circuit at any time t is proportional
X X X
to
2 B
(A) t (B) t
X X X X
(C) v (D) v2
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3 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
5. An inductor and two capacitors are connected in the circuit as shown in figure. Initially capacitor A
has no charge and capacitor B has CV charge. Assume that the circuit has no resistance at all. At
t = 0, switch S is closed, then
2
[Given LC 2 s2 and CV 100 mC ]
104
L -Q0 = -CV
A C B
S +Q0 = CV
(A) When current in the circuit is maximum, charge on each capacitor is same
(B) When current in the circuit is maximum, charge on capacitor A is twice the charge on
capacitor B.
(C) q 50 1 cos100t mC , where q is the charge on capacitor B at time t
(D) q 50 1 cos100t mC, where q is the charge on capacitor B at time t
6. In the circuit, a battery of emf E, a resistance R and inductance coil L1 and L2 and switch S are
connected as shown in figure. Initially the switch is open.
L1
L2
S
R
E
1 L1L 2
(A) The time constant of the circuit is
R L1 L 2
EL 2
(B) Steady state current in the inductor L1 is
R L1 L 2
EL1
(C) Steady state, current in the inductor L2 is
R L1 L 2
1 L1L 2 E 2
(D) In steady state the total energy stored in the inductor coils is
2 L1 L 2 R2
7. Two transparent media of refractive indices 1 and 3 have a solid lens shaped transparent
material of refractive index 2 between them as shown in figures in Column II. A ray traversing
these media is also shown in the figures. In List I different relationships between 1, 2 and 3 are
given. Match them to the ray diagram shown in List II.
List - I List - II
(I) 1 2 (P) 1
2
3
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4
(II) 1 2 (Q)
1
3
2
(III) 2 3 (R)
2
3 1
(IV) 2 3 (S) 2
3 1
(T) 2
3
1
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) PR QST PRT QS
(B) RP ST TRP QST
(C) ST RPT QST PR
(D) PRT QST PR QS
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5 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
P Q
1 2 dB
(I) (P) Induced emf in rod PQ is r .
B 2 dt
r
Q
Induced emf in rod PQ is less than
(II) B P (Q) 1 2 dB
r .
2 dt
r
P
(III) B (R) End P is positive with respect to point Q.
Q
Q
(IV) B P (S) End Q is positive with respect to point P.
r
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) QR PS PR QS
(B) RQ SP QS PR
(C) PQ RS S T
(D) QS PR T QS
11. A parallel beam of light is incident on a transparent sphere of refractive index ‘n’. If the beam
finally gets focused at a point saturated at a distance = 2 (radius of sphere) from the center of
the sphere, then find n.
o
12. A monochromatic beam of light of 6000 A is used in YDSE set-up. The two slits are covered with
two thin films of equal thickness t but of different refractive indices as shown in figure.
Considering the intensity of the incident beam on the slits to be I0, find the point on the screen at
which intensity is I0 and is just above the central maxima. (Assume that there is no change in
intensity of the light after passing through the films.)
S1 3
1
2
d
4
1
S2 3
Screen
Consider t 6m, d 1mm, and D 1m, where d and D have their usual meaning. Give your
answer in mm.
13. A cylindrical rod of some laser material 5 102 m long and 10-2 m in diameter contains 2 1025 m
Ions per m3. If on excitation all the ions are in the upper energy level and de-excite
simultaneously emitting photons in the same direction, calculate the maximum energy contained
in a pulse of radiation of wavelength 6.6 107 m. If the pulse lasts for 10-7 s, calculate the
average power (in W) of the laser during the pulse.
14. The peak emission from a black body at a certain temperature occurs at a wavelength of
o
9000 A . On increasing its temperature, the total radiation emitted is increased 81 times. At the
initial temperature when the peak radiation from the black body is incident on a metal surface, it
does not cause any photoemission from the surface. After the increase of temperature, the peak
radiation from the black body caused photoemission. To bring these photoelectrons to rest, a
potential equivalent to the excitation energy between n = 2 and n = 3 Bohr levels of hydrogen
atoms is required. Find the work function of the metal (in eV).
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15. A neutron is scattered through ( deviation from its old direction) degree in an elastic collision
2
with an initially stationary deuteron. If the neutron loses of its initial KE to the deuteron then
3
find the value of (in degree) (In atomic mass unit, the mass of a neutron is 1 u and mass of a
deuteron is 2 u).
16. Two concentric coplanar circular loops made of wire, resistance per unit length 10 4 m1 , have
diameters 0.2 m and 2 m. A time-varying potential difference (4 + 2.5t) volt is applied to the larger
loop. Calculate the current in the smaller loop (in A).
17. In the given circuit, what is the current I (in A) drawn from battery at time t = 0?
6 2 mH
S 4 4
10 V
18. In the given LCR series circuit find the reading (in A) of the hot wire ammeter. (Here all hot wire
meters are ideal)
V
40
200 2 sin t
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 8
Chemistry PART – II
19. Which of the following statements is/are correct for both fluorite and antifluorite structures?
(A) Cation is present in alternate tetrahedral voids.
(B) Anion constitutes lattice
(C) Number of formula unit in one unit cell is 4.
(D) 100% tetrahedral voids are occupied.
20. Which pair(s) of liquids on mixing is /are expected to show no net volume change and no heat
effect?
(A) Acetone and ethanol
(B) Chlorobenzene and bromobenzene
(C) Chloroform and benzene
(D) n-Butyl chloride and n-butyl bromide
2
24. The complex Fe H2 O 5 NO is formed in the brown ring test for nitrates when freshly prepared
FeSO4 solution is added to aqueous solution of NOO3 followed by addition of conc. H2SO4. Select
correct statements about this complex:
(A) Colour change is due to charge transfer.
(B) It has iron in +1 oxidation state and nitrosyl as NO .
(C) It has magnetic moment of 3.87 BM confirming three unpaired electrons in Fe.
(D) In complex Fe has d2sp3 hybridization
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26. Match the anionic species given in List I that are present in the ore(s) given in List II.
List - I List – II
(I) Carbonate (P) Siderite
(II) Sulphide (Q) Malachite
(III) Hydroxide (R) Bauxite
(IV) Oxide (S) Calamine
(T) Argentite
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) PQR R Q PQ
(B) QS QR T R
(C) PQS T QR R
(D) PQ PQR PT QS
27. Match each of the reactions given in List- I with the corresponding product(s) given in List-II:
List – I List - II
(I) Cu + dil. HNO3 (P) NO
(II) Cu + conc. HNO3 (Q) NO2
(III) Zn + dil. HNO3 (R) N2O
(IV) Zn + conc. HNO3 (S) Cu(NO3)2
(T) Zn(NO3)2
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) PQ QR RT PT
(B) QS PS PQ QS
(C) PS QT PQ QS
(D) PS QS RT QT
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10
28. All the compounds listed in List-I react with water, Match the result of the respective reactions
with the appropriate options listed in List –II.
List – I List - II
(I) CH3 2 SiCl2 (P) Hydrogen halide formation
(II) XeF4 (Q) Redox reaction
(III) Cl2 (R) Reacts with glass
(IV) VCl5 (S) Polymerisation
(T) O2 formation
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) P QR PT PS
(B) PS PQRT PQT P
(C) PQR QT PS RS
(D) QR QS PQ PT
29. Insulin forms crystals of orthorhombic type with unit cell dimensions of 12.5 8.0 3.0 nm3. If the
density of the crystal is 1.5 103 kg / m3 and there are six insulin molecules per unit cell, the
molar mass of insulin (in kg/mol) is: NA 6 10 23
30. An element (atomic mass = 125) crystallize in simple cubic structure. If the diameter of the largest
sphere which can be placed in the crystal without disturbing the crystal is 366 pm and the density
of crystal is ‘d’ g/cm 3, then the value of '300 d' is: NA 6 1023
31. A quantity of 2.0 g of benzoic acid dissolved in 26.0 g of benzene shows a depression in freezing
point equal to 1.60 K. Molal depression constant of benzene is 4.88 K-kg mol-1. The percentage
association of the acid is
32. A current of dry air was passed through a series of bulbs containing 1.25 g of a solute A2B (molar
mass = 90 g/mol) in 49 g of water and then through pure water. The loss in weight of the former
series of bulbs was 0.98 g and in the later series 0.01 g. The percentage dissociation of solute is
33. It was found that 0.10 mg of an adsorbate covered 0.06 m 2 of a solid surface. If the molar mass of
-20 2
the adsorbate is 0.25 kg/mol, then the effective area of each adsorbate molecule (in 10 m ) is:
NA 6.0 1023 . (Consider monolayer)
34. A volume of 585 ml of 1% (w/w) NaCl solution of density 1.2 g/ml is required for complete
coagulation of 200 ml of a gold sol in two hours. The coagulation value of NaCl (in millimole/L) is
35. Sodium iodate is treated with calculated amount of sodium bisulphite to prepare iodine. How
many moles of sodium bisulphite are required to prepare one mole of iodine from sodium iodate?
36. How many metals are commercially reduced by Goldschmidt’s aluminothermic process from the
given metals?
Na, Pb, Al, Mg, Cr, Fe
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11 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
37. In an experimental performance of a single throw of pair of unbiased normal dice (six faced),
three events A1, A 2 , A 3 are getting prime number on each dice, getting same number on each
dice, getting total on two dice equal to 4, then
1
(A) Probabilities P A 1 , P A 2 & P A 3 are in A.P. with common difference
6
1
(B) Probabilities of P A 1 , P A 2 & P A 3 are in A.P. with common difference
12
(C) A1 & A 2 are not independent
1
(D) P A 3 A 1
9
x y 1
38. If A 2 1 3 and A 1 5A A 2 , then
1 z 2
(A) A 3 (B) tr A 5
(C) tr A 2y z (D) tr A x y z
39. If Q is foot of perpendicular drawn from the point P (1, 2, 3) on the plane x 2y z 14 , a point
R on the plane such that PRQ , then
18
(A) Greatest value of QR sin is 3
PR
2 1
(B) If is area of PQR , then least value of is 6
(C) QR PR tan 6
2
a b c 1
(D) If Q is (a, b, c), then Area of PQR if
3 4
40. Given set S 1, 2, 3, ......, 2022 . If a number n is chosen randomly from set S such that
m
HCF n, 2022 1 , then probability p , where n is a prime number. Then,
n
(A) m n 15
m
(B) 4
7
(C) Number of divisors of m are 10
(D) Sum of digits of m n is also a prime number
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 12
41. If a, b, c are three vectors such that a b c and b c a , then a b c is equal to
(A) a.a a.b b.c (B) b.c c.a c.c
1 2
(C) a.b b.c c.a (D)
2
a b c 1
2
dy dy
42. If y f x satisfying the differential equation y x y x 0 (given f 3 4 ), then
dx
dx
(A) Greatest value of f x x is 5 if f x is not linear
(B) Greatest value of f x x is 5 2 if f x is not linear
(C) lim f x x 1
x
f x f 2023
(D) lim 1
x 2023 x 2023
Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
43. Given three vectors a ˆi ˆj k, ˆ c ˆi 2jˆ k.
ˆ b ˆi ˆj k, ˆ
List - I List - II
(I)
A vector perpendicular to the vector a and
(P)
1/ 2 ˆi 2ˆj
coplanar with a and b
(II) A vector perpendicular to a and the vector in (a) (Q) 1/ 2 ˆi kˆ
A vector perpendicular to b and c 1
(III) (R)
6
2iˆ ˆj kˆ
(IV) A vector perpendicular to a and a c (S) 1/ 2 ˆj kˆ
(T) 3 2iˆ ˆj kˆ
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) P Q T S
(B) R P Q T
(C) RT S P Q
(D) S Q P R
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(I) (P)
dx (x / y) 1 ex / y
y
dy 4xy 2 sin 1
(II) (Q) x ke x 0
dx 3y 2 2x 2
3
x dy y dx x 2 y 2 dx 1 y
(III) (R) tan1 xy 3
3x
(IV)
x 4 x dy y dx y 2 1 x 2 y 2 x dy y dx 0 (S) x ye x / y c
y
sin1
(T) x 2 ke x
0
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) S P Q R
(B) P R S T
(C) R T Q S
(D) S Q P T
45. Let A, B and I (Identify matrix) be the matrices of order 4 such that A aij 44 , where aij 1 and
A B I.
List - I List - II
(I) B (P) 1
(II) B 2 4B I (Q) 0
(III) B 3 B2 8B (R) 1
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 14
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) P T Q R
(B) S PT R Q
(C) Q R P S
(D) S R PT Q
1 0 0 7 0 2
47. A 0 2 0 & P 0 1 0 . Then det X 2 X where X P 1AP is equal to
0 0 3 2 0 5
2
dy dy
48. If y x sin ln x is the solution of x 2 2 xy 2y 2 x 2 0, then the value of () is:
dx dx
1 3 m 2
49. Area bounded by y f(x); x ;x and x-axis is then (m + n) = ?
2 2 n
2 3 2 4 5 246 7
Given f(x) x x x x ......... for x 1 .
3 3 5 357
3
50. If area bounded by the curve y cos 1 sin x sin1 cos x & x-axis from x 2 is equal
2
2 29
to , where k N , then is equal to
k k
1
51. If vectors a 2sin , 2
2
3 1 sin , 3 sin and b 2sin , 2cos ,
2 2
are
3 sin
2
orthogonal and the vector c 1, 2, cos2 makes an obtuse angle with z-axis, then
tan2 cot 2 _______ (where [.] represents greatest integer function).
r 1 r 2 r6 5
52. If Tr 2r 4 2r 6 2r 11 , then T
r 0
r
3r 9 3r 12 3r 18
1
53. Let y = f(x) be a curve 'C1 ' passing through (2, 2) and 8, and satisfying a differential
2
2
d2 y dy
equation y 2 2 .Curve 'C2 ' is the director circle of the circle x 2 y 2 2. If the
dx dx
shortest distance between the curve C1 andC2 is p q where p,q N, then find the value of
p q .
2
54. If a b c 1 and a b b c c a cos , then maximum value of is
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2024
PART TEST – IV
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 20-10-2023
Section – A
1. AC
K mY M m
Sol.
K Y m m
2mK q2B 2r 2
r K
qB 2m
m q2B 2r 2
KY K
M m 2 M m
q2B2r 2 M
Energy released = K Y K
2m M m
2. AB
Sol.
C d
f1
2f2
3. AC
hc
Sol. EK EL ….(i)
K EK
K K
L EL
L
M EM
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2
hc
EK EM …(ii)
hc hc hc
(ii) – (i) EL EM
'
1 1 1
B a '
Also, EK EM EK EL EL EM
hc hc hc
'
4. BD
Sol. Let CAE = constant
D
A 90 - C
90 -
E
At time t, DE = vt
AD = DE cot
And DC = DE tan
AC DE tan cot
= vt tan cot
Induced emf e = Bvl
e Bv 2 t tan cot
e v 2 and e t
5. AC
Sol. Let at any time, charge and current in the circuit are as shown.
I L
-
A q1 B - q2 = CV - q1
+ +
dq1
I
dt
Applying Kirchhoff’s law:
CV q1 q1 dl CV 2q1 d2 q
L 0 L 21
C C dt LC dt
2
d q1 2 CV CV
q1 q1 q
dt 2 LC 2 2
CV
q1 A sin t ......(i)
2
2
Where 100rad / s
LC
CV
At t 0,q1 0 0 A sin ….(ii)
2
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3 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
dq1
Differentiating (i), A cos t
dt
I A cos t
At t 0, I 0 0 A cos …(iii)
2
CV
From (ii), A
2
CV CV
From (i), q1 sin t
2 2 2
CV
q1 1 cos t …(iv)
2
q1 50 1 cos100t mc
CV
Now, q2 CV q1 1 cos t ….(v)
2
= 50 1 cos100t
From (ii), I A sin t
Current in the circuit is maximum for t .
2
CV
And for t , we see from (iv) and (v) that q1 q2 .
2 2
6. ABCD
di1 di
Sol. At any time: L1 L2 2
dt dt
i1 i2
i1 L2
Li di1 L 2 di2 L1i1 L 2i2 ….(i)
0 0 i2 L1
Total steady state current
E
i i1 i2
R
From equation (i) and (ii)
EL 2 EL1
i1 ,i2
R L1 L 2 R L1 L 2
1 1 L L E2
U L eqi2 1 2 2
2 2 L1 L 2 R
7. A
Sol. (A) 2 3 , as there is no deviation
1 2 , as ray bends towards normal
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4
8. A
0.529n2
Sol. rn A
Z
So, (I) (S)
12.5Z3
Magnetic field, B = T
n5
So, (II) (T)
1
B
n5
2.2 106 Z
Vn
n
1
Vn
n
n Vn
So, (III) (Q)
13.6Z2
Total energy, En eV
n2
n En
So, (IV) (P)
9. B
Sol. In nuclear fusion, two lighter nuclei fuse and make big nuclei. In this, mass defect is converted
into energy according to E = mc2.
In nuclear fission, heavy nuclei split into two or more than two smaller nuclei. In this process,
mass is converted into energy according to E = mc2
In decay, neutron proton ratio decreases, so nucleus becomes more stable.
Both nuclear fission and nuclear fusion are exothermic reactions.
10. A
1 2
Sol. (I) Area OPMQO = r
2
1 2
Flux in this area, 1 r B
2
Induced emf in this area,
d 1 dB
e1 1 r 2
dt 2 dt
m
P Q
O B
r
1
Area OPQ = r sin r cos r 2 sin
2
2 2
Induced emf in OPQ
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5 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
d2 1 2 dB
e2 r sin
dt 2 dt
e2 will be only in part PQ, because in OQ and OP induced emf will be zero. Clearly, e2 <
e1, because area OPQ < area OPMQO.
Since B is increasing, so e.m.f. will be in anticlockwise direction. Hence end P will be
positive w.r.t. Q.
(II) Here emf in OPQ will be due to flux changing in area OMQ.
1
This area is r 2 . The entire emf will be in part PQ. End Q will be positive.
2
Q
O M P
1 2 dB
(III) Induced emf = r . End P will be positive.
2 dt
1
(IV) Area in which flux is changing is less than r 2 . End Q will be positive.
2
Section – B
11. 1.33
Sol.
1 n
r
Surface -1 Surface -2
n 1 n 1 nR
From surface -1: ;v
v R n 1
1 n 1 n 2 n n
From surface -2: ,
R v 2R R R R v 2R
2 n v 2R R
2v 4R nv nR
R R v 2R
On putting the value of v
nR n nR
2 4R nR
n 1 n 1
4
2nR 4nR 4R n2R n2R nR, n
3
12. 30.00
1 2
Sol. I0 4I0 cos2 cos
2 2 2 3
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6
Therefore, path difference of the two beams producing intensity I0 on the screen is .
3
Optical path difference between two beams meeting on the screen is
4 3
x S2P t t S1P t t
3 2
4 3
= S 2P S1P t
3 2
t
x dsin
6
dy t dy t
D 6 3 D 3 6
D t 1 6000 1010 0.6 10 6
y 3
d 3 6 10 3 6
1
= 3 10 7 3 10 4 m
10 3
y = 30 mm
13. 23.55
Sol. Total number of ions in the rod
= number of ions per unit volume volume of rod
2
= 2 10 25 3.14 0.005 5 102
The number of photons excited in one direction is equal to the total number of ions because all
ions are excited. Now, excited energy = number of excited photons energy of photon
hc
= 7.85 1019
= 7.85 10
19
6.6 1034 3 108
6.6 10 7
= 23.55 W
14. 2.25
Sol. Let T1 be the initial temperature and T2 be the increased temperature of the black body.
According to Stefan’s law,
T2 4
81 3
T1
Also, 1T1 2 T2 …(i)
T 9000 T1 o
2 1 1 3000 A
T2 3T1
hf hf 1 1
Now, W eV0 or W 13.6 2 2
2 2 2 3
Solving, we get, W = 2.25 eV
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15. 90.00
Sol. v1
m 2m
u
2m
v2
mu mv1 cos 2mv 2 cos
mv1 sin 2mv 2 sin
2 1 2 1
mu 2mv 22
3 2 2
1 1 2 1
mu mv 12
3 2 2
u
Solving equations, v1 v 2
3
120o and 90o
16. 1.25
0I
Sol. The magnetic field at the center O due to the current in the larger loop is B .
2R
r
V = 4 + 2.5 t S
R
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17. 1.00
Sol. 6
10 V 4
18. 4.00
Sol. VC VL 120
2
VR2 VC VL E 2y
2 2
VR2 120 200 VR 160
VR 160
I 4A
R 40
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Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. CD
Sol. In both fluorite and antifluorite, 100% TVs are occupied and Zeff (number of formula unit) for both
is 4.
20. BD
Sol. mixing V 0; mixingH 0 Look for ideal solutions.
21. ABC
Sol. Dust is an aerosol and not a solid sol.
22. ABC
Sol. Caro’s acid H2SO5 contains peroxide group. Marshall’s acid H2S2O8 contains peroxo group. BaO2
is barium peroxide.
Above three contains peroxo group hence oxygen state of O is –1, whereas in K2O, O.S. is –2.
23. AC
Sol. 2Na2 S2 O3 I2 Na2 S4 O6 2Nal
24. ABC
Sol. A. Fe2 changes to brown-colored ring complex
B. NO NO e
Fe 2 eO Fe
C.
2+ 6
Fe 3d
7
Fe 3d
n=3
eff n n 2 15 3.87 BM
Thus, (A), (B) and (C) are true.
D. sp3d2 Hybridisation.
25. A
Sol. (I PR) C2H5OH + H2O = Azeotropic mixture (at a particular composition) shows positive
deviation.
(II QT) C2H5Br C2H5I Ideal solution; obeys Raoult’s law.
III QT p A PA o A Ideal solution (with non-volatile solute)
IV PS H2O H2SO 4 Azeotropic mixture (at a particular composition) shows negative
deviation.
26. C
Sol. (P) = siderite = FeCO3
(Q) = Malachite = CuCO3 Cu OH 2
(R) = Bauxite = Al2O3 2H2O
(S) = Calamine = ZnCO3
(T) = Argentite = Ag2S
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10
27. D
Sol. I. 3Cu dil 8HNO3 3Cu NO3 2 2NO 4H2 O
II. 3Cu conc 4HNO3 Cu NO3 2 2NO2 2H2 O
III. 4Zn dil 10HNO3 4Zn NO3 2 N2 O 5H2 O
IV. Zn conc 4HNO3 Zn NO3 2 2NO2 2H2 O
28. B
Sol. (I)
CH3 CH3
H2O
Cl Si Cl HO Si OH + 2HCl
CH3 CH3
Section – B
29. 45.00
Z M
Sol. d
NA V
6M
1.5 103
12.5 8.0 3.0
6 10
23
3
109
M 45 kg / mol
30. 4000.00
r
Sol. For cubic void, 0.732
a
366 / 2
a 250 pm
0.732
Z M 1 125 100
d 3
NA V
6 10 250 1010
23
7.5
100
Now, 300d 300 4000
7.5
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11 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
31. 96.00
Sol. Tf i K f .m
2 / 122 1
1.60 4.88 1 1
26 / 1000 2
0.96 or 96%
32. 50.00
Sol. Loss in weight of solution P
Loss in weight of water Po P
1.25
1 3 1
P o P n1 0.01
Now, 90
P n2 0.98 49
18
0.50 or 50%
33. 25.00
Sol. Number of adsorbate molecules
0.10 10 3
= 3
6 1023 2.4 1017
0.25 10
0.06
Effective surface area = 25 1020 m 2
2.4 1017
34. 600.00
Sol. Mass of NaCl used
1
= 585 1.2 5.85 1.2gm
100
5.85 1.2
Moles of NaCl used = 0.12
58.5
0.12 103
Coagulation value = 600 millimole/litre
200
1000
35. 5.00
Sol. 2NaIO3 5NaHSO3 3NaHSO 4 2Na2SO 4 H2 O I2
5 mol 1 mol
36. 2.00
Sol. Cr, Fe
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 12
Section – A
37. BCD
9 1 6 1 1
Sol. P A1 , P A2 & P A3
36 4 36 6 12
So, (B) is correct.
1 1 1
P A1 A 2 P A1 P A 2
6 4 24
So, (C) is correct.
P A 3 A1 1
P A 3 A1
P A1 9
So, (D) is correct.
38. ABCD
Sol. 3I 5A 2 A 3
A 3 5A 2 3I 0
x 3 3 x x 2 3x 2y 3z 1 x 4z y 3 0
x3 5
2y 3z 7 & y 4z 6
So, x = 2, y = 2, z = 1
39. ABCD
Sol. Q = (2, 4, 4)
Area of PQR 3cot
QR 6 cot QR sin 6 cos
18
PR 6 cosec 3 sin
PR
18
QR sin 6 cos 3 sin
PR
63 3
40. ACD
1350 225 112
Sol. p 1 1
2022 337 337
m
So, m 112, n 337 16
7
n must not be divisible by 2 or 3 or 337
x n n 2 n 3 n 337 n 6 n 674 n 1011 n 2022
1350
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13 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
41. ABD
Sol. a b c and b c a
a b ab
a b.b a b.a b ...... (i)
and a. a b a.c
a.c 0 & a.b 0 & c.a 0
2
b 1 from (i)
2
So, (A) option a 0 0
a b c a. b c a.a a 2
2 2 2 2
& abc a b c 0
2
2 a 1
42. BCD
dy x
Sol. 1 or
dx y
y x 1 or x 2 y 2 25
43. C
Sol. (I).
v a a b a b a a a b
ˆi ˆj kˆ 3 ˆi ˆj kˆ
44. A
Sol. Use homogeneous form.
45. D
Sol. A aij ,aij 1 A 0
44 '
A 2 4A A 2 4A I I
A 3 16A
A 2 4A I 1
and A 2 4B 3I 3I
A 3I A I 3I
A
I .B I
3
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 14
A
I B 1
3
A
I B 1 B 1 I 0
3
46. D
Sol. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
n S 9!
(I) If the last digit from left is 9, then
First two digits (from left) 18, 27, 36, 45 (8 ways)
If the last digit is 8
then first two (1, 7), (2, 6), (3, 5) (6 ways)
If last is 7, then (1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4) (6 ways)
If last is 6, then (1, 5), (2, 4) (4 ways)
If last is 5, then (1, 4), (2, 3) (4 ways)
If last is 4, then (1, 3) (2 ways)
If last is 3, then (1, 2) (2 ways)
32 ways
32.6! 32 4
Hence, n S
9! 9.8.7 63
(II) E-3: Unit place can be filled in 3, 4, ……, 9 = 7 ways
n S 7.8! (no restriction for others)
7
P E-3
9
2, 4, 6, 8
(III) E-1: Number of even
1, 3, 5, 7, 9
n A 4 C1.8! (any one even on the last place and eight anywhere)
4.8! 4
P E-1
9! 9
Divisible by 6 divisible by 2 and 3.
Sum of all 9 digits is 45 and hence divisible by 3.
Number must be even same as E-1.
(IV) For first, fifth and ninth place select 3 number in 5 C3 ways and arrange in 3! Ways.
5
C3 .3!.6! 5
n S 5 C3 .3!.6!; P E-2
9! 42
Section – B
47. 144.00
Sol. det. x 2 x x 2 x
x xI
A A I 144
48. 4.00
Sol. y x sin ln x
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15 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
dy cos ln x
x sin ln x
dx x
dy
sin ln x cos ln x
dx
2
dy 2
x 2 x 2 cos ln x sin ln x
dx
2
x 2 cos ln x sin ln x 2 x 2 sin2 ln x 2 x 2
sin ln x cos ln x 2x 2 sin2 ln x x 2 0
22 4
49. 79.00
24 4 246 6
Sol. f '(x) 1 2x 2 x x ....
3 35
f '(x) 1 x f(x) x 2 f '(x)
sin1 x
f(x)
1 x2
3 /2 /3 /3
sin1 x t2
dx dt
1/ 2 1 x2 / 4
2 / 4
Put t sin1 x
1 72
2 36
7 2
72
50. 7.25
5 3
Sol. f(x) y x x
2 2
y 4 2x
1 2
Area k4
2 2 4
51. 3.00
Sol. Since a and b -are orthogonal a b 0
4 sin2 4 3 1 sin cos 3 0
2 2
4 sin 2 3 1 sin 3 0
2
2sin 1 2 sin 3 0
1 3
sin
or
2 2
and c 1,2,cos 2 makes an obtuse angle with z-axis.
k c 0 cos 2 0
1 3
Case I: When sin cos2
2 4
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 16
52. 36.00
Sol. (I) C1 C1 C2 , then C2 C2 C3
1 4 r 6
2 5 2r 11 0
3 6 3r 18
(II) R2 R2 2R1 and R3 R3 3R1
1 4 r6
0 3 1 6
0 6 0
5
(III) Tr 6 6 ....... 6 6 36
r 0 6 times
53. 62.00
2
d2 y dy
Sol. y 2 2
dx dx
y " 2y '
y' y
In y ' 2ln y lna
y
(2, 2)
x’ x
y'
y' dy
2
a 2 adx
y y
1
ax b
y
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17 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
1
Since, curve is passing through (2, 2) and 8,
2
1
2a b ...(i)
2
8a b 2 ...(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii)
1
a ,b 0
4
C1 : xy 4
Curve C2 is x 2 y 2 4
SD between curves is 2 2 2 8 2
p2 q 64 2 62
54. 2.09
aa a b a c
2
Sol. a b c b a b b b c -
ca c b c c
1 cos cos
cos 1 cos
cos cos 1
2cos3 3cos 2 1
2
2cos 11 cos
2
a b c 0 1 2cos 0
1 2
cos
2 3
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2024
PART TEST – IV
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 20-10-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2
Physics PART – I
1. A cylindrical vessel of diameter 12 cm contains 800 cm3 of water. A cylindrical glass piece of
diameter 8.0 cm and height 8.0 cm is placed in the vessel. If the bottom of the vessel under the
glass piece is seen by the paraxial rays, locate its image. The index of refraction of glass is 1.50
and that of water is 1.33.
water
8 cm
8 cm
12 cm
(A) 9.2 cm above the bottom (B) 12.5 cm above the bottom
(C) 7.1 cm above the bottom (D) 7.1 cm above below the bottom
1.50 1 L 0 1 L 20
(A) (B)
0
3 0 1 L 2 0 1 L L L
x
(C) (D)
2 3 2
ke2
3. If potential energy between a proton and an electron is given by U , where e is the charge
2R3
of electron and R is the radius of atom, then radius of Bohr’s orbit is given by (h = Planck’s
constant, k = constant)
ke2m 62 ke2m
(A) 2
(B)
h n2 h2
2 ke2m 42 ke2m
(C) 2
(D)
n h n2h2
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3 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
5. A parallel beam of light 500 nm is incident at an angle 30o with the normal to the slit
plane in Young’s double-slit experiment. Assume that the intensity due to each slit at any point on
the screen is I0. Point O is equidistant from S1 and S2. The distance between slits is 1 mm. Then
S1
S
O
S2
3m
6. The figure shows the results of an experiment involving photoelectric effect. The graphs A, B, C
and D relate to a light beam having different wavelengths. Select the correct alternative:
i
A
B
C
D
7. An X-ray tube is operated at 6.6 kV. In the continuous spectrum of the emitted X-rays, which of
the following frequencies will be missing?
(A) 1018 Hz (B) 1.5 1018 Hz
(C) 2 1018 Hz (D) 2.5 1018 Hz
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4
8. The conductor AD moves to the right in a uniform magnetic field directed into the plane of the
paper.
D
v R
B
A
(A) The free electron in AD will move toward A
(B) D will acquire a positive potential with respect to A
(C) A current will flow from A to D in AD in closed loop
(D) The current in AD flows from lower to higher potential
9. The magnetic flux linked with a conducting coil depends on time as 4t n 6 , where n is a
positive constant. The induced emf in the coil is e.
(A) If 0 n 1, e 0 and e decreases with time.
(B) If n = 1, e is constant
(C) If n > 1, e increases with time
(D) If n 1, e decreases with time
10. In a region there exists a magnetic field B0 along positive x-axis. A metallic wire of length 2a, one
side along x-axis and one side parallel of y-axis rotates about y-axis with a angular velocity. Then
at the instant shown
y
R
B
P x
a Q
z
(A) Potential difference across PQ is 0
1
(B) Potential difference across PQ is B0 a2
2
1
(C) Potential difference across QR is B0 a2
2
(D) Potential difference across QR is B0 a2
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5 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
11. An element of atomic number 9 emits K X-ray of wavelength . Find the atomic number of the
element which emits K X-ray of wavelength 4 .
12. In the spectrum of singly ionized helium, the wavelength of a line observed is almost the same as
the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen. It is due to transition of electron from n1 6 to n2 X .
What is the value of X?
13. Find the quantum number ‘n’ corresponding to exciting state of He+ ion if on transition to the
o o
ground state that ion emits two photons in succession with wavelength 1026.7 A and 304 A .
R 1.096 107 / m
14. Nuclei A and B convert into a stable nucleus C. Nucleus A is converted into C by emitting
2 particle and 3 particles . Nucleus B is converted into C by emitting one particle and
5 particle . At time t = 0, nuclei of A are 4N0 and nuclei of B are N0. Initially, number of nuclei
of C are zero. Half-life of A (into conversion of C) is 1 min and that of B is 2 min. Find the time (in
minutes) at which rate of disintegration of A and B are equal.
1
15. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 20 h. It is found that the fraction of original activity
x
remains after 40 hours? What is the value of x?
N Q
17. A copper wire of length 2 m placed perpendicular to the plane of magnetic field B 2iˆ 4 ˆj T . If
it moves with velocity 4iˆ 6ˆj 8kˆ m / sec . Calculate the magnitude of dynamic emf (in volt)
across its ends.
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6
Chemistry PART – II
20. The products of the chemical reaction between Na2 S2O3 ,Cl2 and H2O are
(A) S, HCl, Na2SO4 (B) S, HCl, Na2S
(C) S, HCl, Na2SO3 (D) S, NaClO3
21. Which of the following ions will finally give a black precipitate with Ag ion?
(A) SO32 (B) Br
(C) CrO24 (D) S2 O32
23. For the spinel structure MgAl2 O4 , the correct statement is/are
(A) 50% OVs are occupied by ions.
(B) Al3+ is equally distributed in TVs and OVs.
(C) Oxide ions occupy ccp lattice.
(D) 12.5% TVs are occupied by ions.
24. 2 L of 1 molar solution of a complex salt CrCl3 6H2 O (M.W. = 266.5) at 27oC, shows an osmotic
pressure of 98.52 atm. The solution is now treated with 1 L of 6 M AgNO3, which of the following
are correct?
(A) Weight of AgCl precipitated is 861 g.
(B) The clear solution will show an osmotic pressure of 98.52 atm.
(C) The clear solution will show an osmotic pressure of 65.68 atm.
(D) 2 mol of Cr H2 O 6 NO3 3 will be present in the solution.
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7 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
27. Which of the following represent the correct sequence of indicated property?
(A) Mn2 Ni2 Co2 Fe2 : magnetic moment
(B) FeO CoO NiO : basic character
(C) Sc Ti Cr Mn : number of oxidation states
(D) One unpaired electron has spin only magnetic moment = 1.73 BM
28.
CaCO3 A B gas
A H2O C
C B D H2 O
(white ppt.)
Boil
D B gas E
BaCl
D
2
29. If a solid A BO having ZnS (sphalerite) structure is heated so that the ions along two of the axis
passing through the face center particles are lost and bivalent ion (Z) enters here to maintain the
electrical neutrality, so that the new formula unit becomes A xBy Z c , report the value of x + y + c.
30. The osmotic pressure of urea solution at 10oC is 200 mm. becomes 105.3 mm when it is diluted
and temperature raised to 25oC. The extent of dilution is
31. Amongst the following, how many ores can be concentrated by froth flotation process:
Galena, Sphalerite, Cassiterite, Calamine, Chalcocite, Haematite
33. In a given sample of bleaching powder, the percentage of available chlorine is 49. The volume in
liters of chlorine obtained if 20 g of the sample is treated with HCl at STP is
34. Out of the following how many of them are colored compound:
MnOO4 ,Cr2 O72 ,CrO 42 ,Sc 3 ,Ti4 ,Zn2 , Mn3 , Cu2 , Fe2 ,Fe3
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 8
35. How many pairs of enantiomers are possible for [M(AA) (BC) de]?
where AA symmetrical bidented ligand
BC unsymmetrical bidented ligand and
d, e monodented ligand
36. An aqueous solution contains Hg2 , Hg22 , Pb2 and Cd2 . Out of these, how many ions will
produce white precipitate with dilute HCl?
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9 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
x2 4
37. Area by the curve f x and line y 1
x2 4
(A) (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
38. If A is a symmetric matrix such that A aij 33 , all aij are decimal digits except zero, so number
of matrices A for tr A 12 is
2 2
(A) 3 3 (B) 5 3
2 2
(C) 7 3 (D) 9 3
1 3
39. Two men X and Y have two independent target to shoot, both having probability and
3 5
respectively. Then, probability of Y require more shots than A is
1 2
(A) (B)
11 11
3 4
(C) (D)
11 11
40. If a 2, b 5, c 8 , where a, b, c are vectors such that a b c 80 , then value of
b c . a c a c 2b has number of divisors
(A) 9 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 24
2x 0
4 3
41. If f x is a differentiable function satisfying xf t dt 2 tf 2t dt 2x 2x for all x R , then
0 x
which of the following is/are correct?
3
(A) f x
4
(B) f x is not differentiable at exactly one value of x
(C) Area bounded by y f x and x-axis is equal to 2
f x
(D) lim exists and equal to 3
x 1 x 1
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10
x 2 x 2x 1 x 3
43. If x R and f x 3x 1 x 2 2 x 3 3 is a polynomial of degree “7”
x3 x2 4 2x
7 6 5
a0 x a1x a2 x ....... a6 x a7 , then
k6 k6
k
(A) a
k 0
k 111 (B) 1
k 0
.ak 11
k6 k4
k
(C) 1
k 0
.ak 53 (D) a
k 1
2k 1 100
2 1 1
44. If A and B are two events such that P B A and P A B and P A B , then
5 7 9
5 1
(A) P A ' B (B) P A ' B '
6 18
1 2
(C) P A B (D) P A B '
6 3
45. Let f : R 0, 1 be a continuous function, then which of the following pair of vectors are linearly
dependent for some x 0, 1 ?
(A) a f x ˆi 2ˆj, b x 2 ˆi 3 ˆj (B) a f x ˆi 3 ˆj, b x 2 ˆi 2ˆj
1 x 1 x
(C) a f t dt ˆi 3ˆj, b xiˆ 2jˆ (D) a f t dt ˆi 2ˆj, b xiˆ 3ˆj
0 0
1
dy
46. If y f x is a solution of x 2 y 2 .e x x 0 and lim f x 1 , then
dx x 0
1
(A) lim f x 1 (B) Range of f x is 0, 1
x
2
e 0
1
(C) lim f x (D) f x dx f x dx
x 2 0 e
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11 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
2 1 3 4 3 4 ABC
47. Let three matrices A
4 1 ; B 2 3 and C 2 3 , then t r A t r
2
2 3
A BC A BC
tr Tr ........
2 2
r 3r 1 n
48. Let A r 1 , then the value of lim det A is equal to:
r
0 n
r 1
2r
49. Let uˆ and vˆ are unit vectors and ŵ is a vector such that uˆ vˆ uˆ w
ˆ and w
ˆ uˆ v.
ˆ Then the
value of u v w is:
50. Find the number of points, whose perpendicular distance from yz, zx and xy-planes are in A.P.
and whose distance from x, y and z-axes are 13, 10 and 5 respectively.
a2 2 ab c ca b c b
3
51. If ab c b 2 2 bc a c
a 1 a2 b2 c 2 , find .
ca b bc a c 2 2 b a
x f(x)
52. If f x,y R and f '(1) exists, and area under the curve f(x) bounded by x-axis, x = 0
y f(y)
1 n r
and x = 1 is , then find lim er /n f .
3 n n
r 1
53. If area of the region given by inequalities 0 y 4 x 2 and x y x 2 is ‘A’ square units, then
[A] is (where [A] denotes greatest integer function)
54. A person is known to speak truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a dice and responds that it is a six. If
the probability that it is actually a six is P, find the ten’s digit in 1000P.
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
JEE (Advanced)-2024
PART TEST – IV
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 20-10-2023
Section – A
1. C
Sol. Given r = 6 cm, r1 = 4 cm, h1 = 8 cm
Let h = final height of water column
The volume of the cylindrical water column after the glass piece is put will be
r 2h 800 r12h1
r 2h 800 r12h1
2 2
6 h 800 4 8
800 128 928
h 25.7cm
36 36
There are two shifts due to glass block as well as water
Total shift = ( 2.66 + 4.44) = 7.1 cm above the bottom.
2. A
Sol. Optical path difference,
L /2 L /2
2x
x 2 dx L 20 1 dx L
0 0 L
3
0L L 1.5 0 1 L
2
Now, x N'
x 1.50 1 L
N
3. B
ke2 dU 3ke2
Sol. U 3
,F
2R dR 2R 4
mv 2 mv 2 3ke2
But, F
R R 2R4
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2
nh
Also, mvR
2
62ke2m
Solve to get R
n2 h2
4. A
1 1 1
Sol.
L eqCeq 2LC LC
2
5. ABCD
Sol. x at O = d [path difference is maximum at O]
5
So, if d , O will be a minima. If d , O will be a maxima.
2
5
If d , O will be a minima and hence intensity is minimum.
2
If d 4.8, then total 10 minima can be observed on the screen, 5 above O and 5 below O,
which correspond to
3 5 7 9
x , , , ,
2 2 2 2 2
6. ABCD
1
Sol. Stopping potential frequency
wavelength
Saturation current rate of photoelectron emission
Also, K max hv , p 2mK
7. CD
Sol. V 6.6 kV 6600 V
eV 1.6 10 19 6600
Now, fmax
h 6.6 10 34
8. ABCD
Sol. Use concept of motional emf.
9. ABC
Sol. 4t n 6
d
4nt n 1
dt
4n
e 4nt n 1, e
t1n
10. AD
Sol. PQ is parallel to magnetic field, hence no emf is induced in it. QR is perpendicular to magnetic
field. Induced emf Bvl B0 aa B0 a2 .
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3 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
Section – B
11. 5
2
Sol. For K X-ray, Z 1 constant.
2 2
Hence, 9 1 Z 1 4
2 64
Z 1 16
4
Z–1=4
Or Z = 5
12. 4
Sol. For the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen
1 1 1 5R 36
R 2 2
2 3 36 5R
For singly ionized helium Z = 2
1 1 1
4R 2 2
' n2 n1
1 1 5R
Given ' 4R 2 2
n2 n1 36
n2 4
13. 6
Sol. According to conservation of energy
hc hc 1 1
RchZ 2 2 2
1 2 1 n
n=6
14. 6
Sol. We have to find the time at which A NA BNB
In2 In2 B t
t
4N0 e A N0
e
TA TB
e A B 8
t
A B t In8 3 In 2
In2 In2
t 3In 2 t 6min
1 2
15. 4
t 40 hours
Sol. We have 2
t1/2 20 hours
A0 A A
Thus, A t /t1/2
20 0
2 2 4
So one fourth of the original activity will remain after 40 hours.
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4
16. 5
Sol. q
C C
R
i
B
ilB
Blv R
mg v
dv
By Newton’s law, mg – ilB = m …..(i)
dt
q
Using KVL Blv = iR ….(ii)
C
Differentiating equation (ii) w.r.t. time, we get
dv di i
Bl R ….(iii)
dt dt C
dv
Eliminating from equations (i) and (iii), we get
dt
m di i
mg ilB R
Bl dt C
di mi
mg Bl iB 2l2 m R ….(iv)
dt C
dv
I will be maximum when 0 . Use this in equation (iv)
dt
mg BlC i B 2l2C m
mgBlC
imax
m B2 l 2 C
17. 8
Sol. Dynamic emf
ed l v B l B v
ˆi ˆj kˆ
B v 2 4 0 ˆi 32 0 ˆj 16 0 kˆ 12 16
4 6 8
= 32iˆ 16ˆj 4kˆ
ed 2kˆ 32iˆ 16ˆj 4kˆ 8volt
18. 4
dq dv dC
Sol. q CV, I C V ,IL I0 I
dt dt dt
dlL dl0 d2 V dV dC d2 C
C 2 v 2
dt dt dt dt dt dt
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5 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
+
L= 2 H q I
I0 =3A
1
= 1 103 6 103 2 0.5 10 3 2 0.5 103 0
2
= 2 103 A / s
dl
VL L L 2 2 10 3 4 10 3 V 4mV
dt
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6
Chemistry PART – II
Section – A
19. C
Sol. 3Cl2 8NH3 N2 6NH4 Cl
20. A
Sol. Na2 S2O3 H2O Cl2 Na2SO 4 S 2HCl
21. D
H2 O
Sol. 2Ag S2 O32 Ag2 S2 O3 Ag2 S H2SO 4
(white ppt.) (Balck ppt)
22. A
Sol. Morphine narcotics are sometimes referred to as opiates, since they are obtained from the opium
poppy.
23. ACD
Sol. For spinel structure, O2- ions form fcc arrangement.
Number of TV = 8, Number of OV = 4
1 1
Number of Mg2 ions TV 8 1
8 8
1 1
Number of Al3 ions OV 4 2
2 2
So, 50% OVs are occupied and 1/8th, i.e., 12.5% TVs are occupied.
24. ACD
Sol. CrCl3 6H2 O
iCRT
98.52 i 1 0.0821 300
i 4
CrCl3 6H2 O can be written as,
3
Cr H2 O 6 Cl3 Cr H2 O 6 3Cl
1 0 0
1 3
3 mol of AgNO3 will react with 1 mol of Cr H2 O 6 Cl3 .
Cr H2 O 6 Cl3 3AgNO3 Cr H2 O 6 NO3 3 3AgCl
Moles 2 1 2 1 6 6 0 0
0 0 2 6
Moles of AgCl formed = 6
Weight of AgCl formed = 6 143.5 861 g
2
CRT 1 3 0.0821 300 4 65.68 atm
3
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7 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
25. AB
Sol. [Statements (A) and (B) are correct]
In adsorption process both H and S is –ve. Higher the critical temperature of a gas higher the
extent of adsorption. Cloud is not an emulsion. [Statement (C) is wrong] Brownian motion
depends on the size of the particles. [Statement (D) is also wrong].
26. ABC
Sol. Option (D) is wrong as Azurite is Cu3 CO3 2 OH2
27. BCD
Sol. The number of unpaired electrons of the ions in the given choices are
2+
Mn2 n 5 ;Ni2 n 2 ,Co2 n 3 and Fe (n = 4)
28. AC
Sol.
Ba/CaCO 3(s) Ba/CaO(s) + CO 2
(A) (B)
H 2O Ba/Ca(OH) 2
(C)
Ba/Ca(OH) 2 Ba/CaCO 3
(C) (D)
CO 2
Ba/CaCO3(s) Boil
BaCl2 Ba/Ca(HCO3)2
(white)
(F) Soluble
(E)
Section – B
29. 7
Sol. For ZnS structure, Zeff of ZnS 4
Number of BO = 4/unit cell (corner + face center)
Number of A = 4/unit cell (in alternate TVs)
Number of BO ions removed = 4 (Two from each axis passing through the face center)
1
per face center share 2
2
Number of B ions left = 4 – 2 =2/unit cell
Number of Z2- ions entering in place of BO = 1.
[ To maintain electrical neutrality, 2BO 1 Z 2 ]
Formula = A4B2Z1
x y c 4 2 1 7
30. 2
Sol. Let 1 200 mm : T1 283
2 105.3;T2 298
n
Now, RT
V
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 8
n
At T1,200 R 283 …(i)
V1
n
At T2 ,105.3 R 298 …(ii)
V2
Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get
200 V 283
2 V2 2V1
105.3 V1 298
31. 3
Sol. Galena (PbS), sphalerite (Zn, Fe)S, chalcocite (Cu2S).
32. 4
2 2
Sol. XeF4 ,BrF4O Cu NH3 4 ,PtCl4
33. 3
49 22.4
Sol. Volume of Cl2 = 20 3L
100 71
34. 7
o
Sol. MnOO4 ,Cr2 O72 ,CrO42 (they have 3d configuration yet they are colored due to charge transfer
theory) Mn3 3d4 ,Cu2 3d9 ,Fe2 3d5 , all are colored due to the presence of unpaired
electrons. Colorless ions are:
Sc 3 3d0 ,Ti4 3d0 ,Zn2 3d10
35. 5
Sol. d d
A e A e
M M
A C A B
B C
O.A. O.A.
e e
A d A d
M M
A C A B
B
O.A. C
O.A.
d
A B
M
A C
e
O.A.
Five pairs of enantiomers are possible.
36. 2
Sol. Hg22 , Pb2 given white ppt. of HgCl2 and PbCl2 with dil. HCl
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9 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
Section – A
37. D
1
1 x
Sol. 4 dx 4 2 4
1 1 x 2
38. C
Sol. 1, 2, 9 ; 1, 3, 8 ; 1, 4, 7 ; 1, 5, 6 ; 2, 3, 7 ; 2, 4, 6 ; 3, 4, 5
2
For tr A 12 , so 7 C1 3 are cases.
39. B
Sol. Let n shots for X.
n 1 n
2 1 1 2
So, probability p1 .
3 3 23
and m shots for Y
m 1
2 3
so, probability p2 .
5 5
n
2
m n 1
p2
5
So, P m n
n
1 4 2
n 1 2
.
15
11
40. C
Sol. a b c 80 a, b, c are mutually perpendicular vectors.
Value of b c . a c a c 2b is equal to 306 32 2 17
So, 12 divisors.
41. ABD
2x 0
Sol. x. f t dt 2 tf 2t dt 2x 4 2x 3
0 x
2x
x 2f 2x 1. f t dt 2x.f 2x 8x 3 6x 2
0
2x
3
f t dt 8x 6x 2
0
f 2x .2 24x 2 12x
f 2x 12x 2 6x
x2 x
f x 12. 6.
4 2
f x 3x 2 3x
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10
42. ACD
8 2 4 8 1 4
Sol. 1 0 1 1 1 1 0
0 3 0
4 & 2
So, (A) is correct as 4iˆ ˆj 2kˆ and ˆi 2jˆ 3kˆ are perpendicular.
10
(B) is not correct as distance.
3
4 10
(C) is correct as 2
3 3
(D) is correct as a b c 8 , so 8 1C3 1 7 C2 21
43. ACD
Sol. f 1 132 & f 0 21 a7
(A) is correct, 132 21 111
f 1 a0 a1 a2 a3 ......... a6 a7
32 a0 a1 a2 a3 ........ a6 21
k 6
k
1 .ak 53
k 0
44. ABC
1
Sol. P A B
9
2
P B A
5
P B A 2
PA 5
19 2
PA 5
5
PA
18
7
& P B
9
1 5
P A ' B 1 P A only 1
6 6
45. BCD
Sol. 2f x 3x 2 0
For (B), let g x 2f x 3x 2
g 0 0 & g 1 0
Similarly for (C) and (D).
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11 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
46. BCD
1
1
dy e x 1
Sol. 2 2 dx e x c
y x y
1
y 1
1 ex
1 1
So, lim f x
x 1 1 2
1
1
and y e x 1 x has no solution
2
1
So, range is 0, 1 .
2
Section – B
47. 6
3 4 3 4 1 0
Sol. BC BC I
2 3 2 3 0 1
A A
t r A t r t r 2 ......
2
2
1 1
tr A t r A 2 tr A ........
2 2
tr A
2t r (A)
1
1
2
2 2 1 6
48. 2
r
Sol. Ar
2r
n
Let lim dt A r S
n
r 1
1 2 3 4
S 2 3 4 ....... ...(i)
2 2 2 2
1 1 2 3
S 2 3 4 ...... ...(ii)
2 2 2 2
On eqns. (ii) – (i),
S 1 1 1
.......
2 2 22 23
S2
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 12
49. 1
Sol. Given that u v u w and w u v -
u v u u v
u v u v
v u v u v
u v u 0 u v 0
Now, u v w u u w u v u v u
u v u v v u
u v 2 u u v v v u
v 2u 2 1
50. 8
Sol. As perpendicular distance are in A.P.
Let a d , a , a d be these distances.
So, the coordinates of point P are
(a d), a, (a d)
Now, distance from P of x-axis, y-axis and z-axis are respectively,
2a2 d2 2ad 5 ...(i)
2a2 2d2 10 ...(ii)
2 2
2a d 2ad 13 ...(iii)
Solving eqns. (i) and (iii), we get
4ad 8 .
Substituting in eqn. (ii)
4
2
d2 5
d
d2 1 or 4
d 1, a 2
So, points are 1, 2, 3 . (There will be 8 such points)
51. 1
Sol. We observe that the elements in the perfector are the cofactors of the corresponding elements of
the post factor.
Hence L. H. S
c b
3
c a 2 a2 b2 c 2
b a
3
1 a2 b2 c 2 1
52. 1
x f(x)
Sol. If f x, y R
y f(y)
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13 AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024
f(1 h) f(1)
f '(1) lim
h 0 h
f 1 h 1
f '(1) lim ...(i) f(1) 1
h 0 h
f x h f(x)
Now, f '(x) lim
h 0 h
x h
f 1
x
lim f(x)
h 0 h
h
f 1 1
x
f(x)lim
h 0 h
x
x
f(x)
f '(1) from equation (i)
x
f(x)
f '(x) k where, f '(1) k
x
f(x) x k c for x 1, f(x) 1 c 0
f(x) x k
1 1
Now, Area f(x)dx
0 3
1
xk 1 1
k 2
k 1 0 3
So, f(x) x 2
n r n
r 1 1
Now, lim er /n f lim er /n ex x dx 1
n n n
n n 0
r 1 r 1
53. 5
Sol.
-2 2
A 2
A 5
54. 7
Sol. Let
E = the event that A reports it is six
E1 : six turns up when a dice is thrown.
E2 : six does not turns up when a dice is thrown.
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AIITS-PT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/2024 14
E
Probability that six actually showed up if A reported that of was a six P 1
E
E
P(E1 ) P 1
E
P 1
P 1
E E E
E
P(E) E E
P(E1 ) P 1 P(E2 ) P 2
E E
E
P = Probability that the person reports six when it actually showed
E1
= Probability that he speak truth = ¾
E
P = Probability that the person reports six when it did not show six
E2
3 1
= Probability that he lies 1
4 4
1 5
Also, P(E) andP(E 2 )
6 6
1 3 1
E1 6 4 8 3
P
E
1 3 5 1 1 5 8
6 4 6 4 8 24
3
1000P 1000 375
8
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – IV
JEE (Main)-2024
TEST DATE: 15-09-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Boolean relation at the output stage-Y for the following circuit is:
A
5V
Output - Y
B
5V
(A) A + B (B) A B
(C) A B (D) A B
2. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : Potentials of both ends are same in an unbiased PN diode are same.
Statement-II : In a solar cell P side is at higher potential than N side, upon incidence of solar light.
(A) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(B) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(D) Both statement-I and Statement-II are false
3. A common emitter amplifier circuit built using an npn transistor, is shown in the figure. Its dc
current gain in 250, RC 1 k and VCC 10 V. What is the minimum base current for VCE to
reach saturation?
RB RC
VB VCC
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3 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024
5. In one average-life,
(A) half the active nuclei decay (B) less than half the active nuclei decay
(C) more than half the active nuclei decay (D) Insufficient information
6. An object is placed at 10 cm from the lens. If the final image is formed at the optical centre of
lens, then focal length of mirror will be
f = 10 cm
Object O
u = 10 cm
x = 8 cm
7. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom corresponding to increase values of energy, i.e.,
EA EB EC . If 1, 2 and 3 are the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to transition C to
B, B to A and C to A, respectively. Then, which of the following statements/relations is correct?
(A) 3 1 2 (B) 3 1 2
1 2
(C) 1 2 3 0 (D) 32 12 22
8. A loop ABCD is moving with velocity v towards right. The magnetic field is 2 T. Loop is connected
to a resistance of 9. If steady current of 2A flows in the loop, then value of v if loop has
resistance of 4 is (Given, AD = 30 cm)
D C
9
30o
A B
9. In a double slit experiment, a glass plate of refractive index 1.5 of thickness t is introduced in the
path of one of the interfering beams of wavelength . The position of central maxima has got
2D
shifted by . Then, what would be the thickness of plate?
d
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) (D) 3
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 4
10. The variation of refractive index of a crown glass thin prism with wavelength of the incident light is
shown. Which of the following graphs is the correct one, if Dm is the angle of minimum deviation?
1.535
1.530
1.525
1.520
1.515
1.510 (nm)
400 500 400 700
(A) Dm
(B) Dm
(nm) (nm)
400 500 400 700 400 500 400 700
(C) Dm
(D) Dm
(nm) (nm)
400 500 400 700 400 500 400 700
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5 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024
13. One plano-convex and one plano-concave thin lens of same radius of curvature ‘R’ 2
1
but of different materials are joined side by side as shown in the figure. If the
refractive index of the material of 1 is 1 and that of 2 is 2 , then the focal length of
the combination is: 1
R 2R
(A) (B)
2 1 2 1 2 2
R R
(C) (D)
2 1 2 1 2
14. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other such that a ray of light incident on the first mirror
(M1) and parallel to the second mirror (M2) is finally reflected from the second mirror (M2) parallel
to the first mirror (M1). The angle between the two mirrors will be:
(A) 90o (B) 45o
o
(C) 75 (D) 60o
15. A plane polarized monochromatic EM wave is travelling a vacuum along z-direction such that at
t t1 it is found that the electric field is zero at a spatial point z1 . The next zero that occurs is its
neighborhood is at z2 . The frequency of the electromagnetic wave is:
3 108 6 108
(A) (B)
z 2 z1 z 2 z1
1.5 108 1
(C) (D)
z 2 z1 z 2 z1
t1
3 108
16. An alternating current is given by the equation i i1 sin t i2 cos t . The rms current will be:
1 2 1
(A) i1 i2 (B) i1 i2
2 2
1 1/ 2 1 2 2 1/2
(C)
2
i 2
1 i22 (D)
2
i1 i2
17. A very long solenoid of radius R is carrying current I(t) ktet k 0 , as a function of time
t 0 . Counterclockwise current is taken to be positive. A circular conducting coil of radius 2R
is placed in the equatorial plane of the solenoid and concentric with the solenoid. The current
induced in the outer coil is correctly depicted, as a function of time, by:
(A) I (B) I
t=0 t=0
t t
(C) I
(D) I
t=0 t t=0 t
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 6
18. A bar magnet is passing through a conducting loop of radius R with velocity . The radius of the
bar magnet is such that it just passes through the loop. The induced e.m.f. in the loop can be
represented by the approximate curve: (Consider emf to be positive if clockwise when viewed
from initial position of magnet)
N S
t t
/v /v
/v /v
t t
19. An aeroplane, with its wings spread 10 m, is flying at a speed of 180 km/h in a horizontal
direction. The total intensity of earth’s field at that part is 2.5 × 10–4 Wb/m2 and the angle of dip is
60o. The emf induced between the tips of the plane wings will be ______.
(A) 62.50 mV (B) 54.125 mV
(C) 88.3 mV (D) 108.25 mV
20. An electromagnetic wave of intensity 50 Wm–2 enters in a medium of refractive index ‘n’ and
r 1 without any loss. The ratio of the magnitudes of electric fields, and the ratio of the
magnitudes of magnetic fields of the wave before and after entering into the medium are
respectively, given by:
1 1 1
(A) , (B) n,
n n n
1
(C) n, n (D)
n
, n
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. Mobility of electrons in a semiconductor is defined as the ratio of their drift velocity to the applied
18 –3
electric field. If, for an n-type semiconductor, the density of electrons is 10 m and their mobility
2
is 1.6 m /(V.s) then the resistivity of the semiconductor (since it is an n-type semiconductor
contribution of holes is ignored) is close to _____ m.
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22. A single slit of width b is illuminated by a coherent monochromatic light of wavelength . If the
second and fourth minima in the diffraction pattern at a distance 1 m from the slit are at 3 cm and
6 cm respectively from the central maximum, what is the width (in cm) of the central maximum?
(i.e. distance between first minimum on either side of the central maximum):
23. An unpolarized light beam is incident on the polarizer of a polarization experiment and the
intensity of light beam emerging from the analyzer is measured as 12 Lumens. Now, if the
analyzer is rotated around the horizontal axis. (direction of light) by 30o in clockwise direction, the
intensity of emerging light will be _________ Lumens.
24. A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 1 cm and an eye piece of
focal length 5 cm with a separation of 10 cm. The distance between an object and the objective
n
lens, at which the strain on the eye is minimum is cm. The value of n is:
4
25. When radiation of wavelength is incident on a metallic surface, the stopping potential of ejected
photoelectrons is 4.8 V. If the same surface is illuminated by radiation of double the previous
wavelength, then the stopping potential becomes 1.6 V. The ratio of threshold wavelength of
metal to is
26. An unstable heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two nuclei which move away with velocities in the
ratio of 8 : 27. If radius of lighter nucleus is 4r and radius of heavier nucleus is mr, find m.
27. The thickness at the centre of a plano convex lens is 3 mm and the diameter is 6 cm. If the speed
of light in the material of the lens is 2 108 ms 1 . The focal length of the lens is 6p cm. Find p.
28. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by E 50NC1 sin t x / c . The energy
contained in a cylinder of volume V is 5.5 1012 J . The value of V is 100n cm3. The value of n is
(Given 0 8.8 1012 C2 N1m2 )
29. At very high frequencies, the effective impedance of the given circuit will be ______.
1 0.5F 2 0.5F
0.5F
1 2.0H 0.5F
2
220V
27
30. From the given data, the amount of energy required to break the nucleus of aluminium 13 Al is
x
x 10 3 J . Find
. Mass of neutron = 1.00866 u, Mass of proton = 1.00726 u, Mass of
9
Aluminium nucleus = 2.18846 u. (Assume 1 u corresponds to x J of energy) (Round off to the
nearest integer)
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. For a solution of 0.849 g of mercurous chloride in 50 g of HgCl2 l the freezing point depression
is 1.24oC. K f for HgCl2 is 34.3. What is the state of mercurous chloride in HgCl2 ?
(Hg – 200, Cl – 35.5)
(A) as Hg2Cl2 molecules (B) as HgCl molecules
+
(C) as Hg and Cl ions (D) as Hg22 and Cl ions
32. 20 moles of liquid A are mixed with 20 moles of liquid B to form an ideal binary solution. Calculate
moles of A in liquid state when half of the solution has vaporized:
(Given : PAo 100 torr, PBo 121 torr)
11 110
(A) (B)
21 21
200 220
(C) (D)
21 21
33. Let the height of hcp unit cell is ‘h’. The height of octahedral voids from the base is:
h h 2h
(A) (B) ,
2 3 3
h 7h h 3h
(C) , (D) ,
8 8 4 4
o
34. The unit cell cube length for LiCl (just like NaCl structure) is 5.14 A . Assuming anion-cation
contact, the ionic radius for chloride ion is:
o o
(A) 1.815 A (B) 2.8 A
o o
(C) 3.8 A (D) 4.815 A
36. What is the Fe2 in a cell at 25oc for which E = - 0.458 V with a standard hydrogen electrode?
Fe 2 aq 2e Fe s Eo 0.440 V
(A) 0.246 M (B) 0.496 M
(C) 2.01 M (D) 4.06 M
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40. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.50, 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005 respectively.
The correct order of their protective powers is:
(A) C < B < D < A (B) A < C < B < D
(C) B < D < A < C (D) D < A < C < B
41. Which of the following compound/ion is -bonded organometallic compound(s) as well as follow
Sidgwick EAN rule?
(A) Ferrocene (B) Zeise’s salt
(C) Fe CO 5 (D) Cis-platin
44. Consider following electronic configuration of outer most d-electrons of a colored metal ion in
2
M H2O 6
+2 n
M d
45. Which among Na2 Cr2 O7 and K 2 Cr2 O7 is more suitable as a primary standard in volumetric
analysis?
(A) Na2 Cr2 O7 (B) K 2 Cr2 O7
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 10
O2
46. MnO2 KOH X.X must be:
(A) KMnO 4 (B) K 2MnO 4
(C) MnO (D) Mn3O4
47. The incorrect statement for lanthanides among the following statements is:
(A) 4f and 5d orbitals are so close in energy that it is very difficult to locate the exact position of
electrons in lanthanides
(B) Most common stable oxidation state is +3
(C) Tripositive lanthanide ions have characteristic colour depending on nature of group with
which they combine to form compounds
(D) Some lanthanide ions absorb colour either in infrared or ultraviolet region of electromagnetic
spectrum
O O
Organic
48. Cr2O72- + 4H2O2 + 2H +
2 Cr + 5H 2O
Solvent
O O
O
In above reaction, 1-pentanol is recommended. Dimethyl ether is not recommended for general
use owing to its:
(A) highly non-flammable character
(B) highly inflammable character
(C) highly poisonous character
(D) none of the above
49. Blister copper is refined by stirring molten impure metal with green logs of wood because such a
wood liberates hydrocarbon gases (like CH4). This process X is called _____ and the metal
contains impurities of Y is _____.
(A) X = cupellation, Y = CuO2
(B) X = poling, Y = Cu2O
(C) X = poling, Y = CuO
(D) X = cupellation, Y = CuO
50. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the substance known as Plumbago or
black lead?
(A) It is good conductor of electricity
(B) Its formula is PbO 2PbO2
(C) It leaves black mark on paper
(D) It is very soft and slippery
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
51. Find the number of species which would undergo disproportionation in alkaline medium.
NO2 ,Cr2O72 ,Cl2 , O 6 , Br2 , P4 , S8 , Al2 , O3
52. How many of the following reactions would produce phosphine gas?
(a) PH4 Cl NaOH (b) P4 NaOH
(c) Ca3P2 H2O (d) H 3PO3
(e) PCl5 H2 O (f) H3PO2
(g) P2Cl4 H2 O (h) AlP H2 O
(i) P4 O10 H2 O
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11 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024
53. When mixture of NaCl and K2Cr2O7 is gently warmed with conc. H2SO4 then compound X is
formed. What is the oxidation state of central atom of X?
55. Find out the number of minerals given below which contain iron as Fe(II).
Hematite, Magnetite, Limonite, Siderite, Chromite, Wolframite
56. How many of the following metals is extracted by self reduction process?
Pb, Au, Mg, Sn, Fe, Al, Ag, Hg, Na, Zn, Cu, Ca
57. Elevation in boiling point of 0.25 M aq. Solution of weak acid HX is 0.14. What is molarity of H+
ion in solution?
HXaq Haq
Xaq
Given: K b H2O 0.5
Molality = Molarity
[Given : Answer as H 100]
58. 100 ml of 1 M AgNO3 solution is electrolysed using Pt electrode by passing a current of 9.65 A for
100 sec. Calculate pH of solution after electrolysis.
59. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode at 25oC when placed in a buffer solution is found to
be -0.413 V. The pH of the buffer is:
60. If number of nearest neighbours, next nearest (2nd nearest) neighbor and next to next nearest (3rd
nearest) neighbours are x, y and z respectively for body centered cubic unit cell, then calculate
xy
value of .
z
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 12
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1 a 1 1
1 1 1
61. If a, b, c are non-zero real numbers and 1 1 b 1 0 , then is equal to
a b c
1 1 1 c
(A) 1 (B) -1
(C) 0 (D) None of these
1 1 i 2 2
62. If ' ' is a non-real cube root of unit, then 1 i 1 2 1 , where i 1 , is equal to
1 i 1 1
(A) 1 (B) i
(C) (D) 0
x 2 2 2x 1 1
63. If x 1 , then value of 2x 1 x 2 1 is
3 3 1
(A) Non-negative (B) Non-positive
(C) Negative (D) Positive
64. If a xiˆ x 1 ˆj kˆ and b x 1 ˆi ˆj akˆ always make an acute angle with each other for
every value of x R , then
(A) a , 2 (B) a 2,
(C) a , 1 (D) a 1,
65.
ˆi a ˆi ˆj a ˆj kˆ a kˆ is always equal to
(A) a (B) a
(C) 2a (D) 2a
66.
Distance of P p from the line r a b, is
p a b b p a b b
(A) a p 2 (B)
bp 2
b b
p b b b
(C) ap 2 (D) None of these
b
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67.
If a b c, b d 0, c d 0 , then the vector
d a d
is always equal to
2
d
(A) a (B) d
(C) b (D) c
68. a ˆi ˆj k,
ˆ b ˆj k,
ˆ c be a vector such that a c 3, a c b , then
1 1
(A) c ˆi 4ˆj kˆ
2
(B) c ˆi 8ˆj kˆ
3
1 1
(C) c 4iˆ ˆj kˆ
2
(D) c 5iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ
3
2 2
69. If a and b are two non-collinear vectors, then a b a b 1 a b is always equal to
2 2 2 2
(A) 1 a 1 b (B) 1 a 1 b
(C) 1 a 1 b (D) 1 a 1 b
2 2 2 2
1 1
70. The probabilities of happening the events A and B are and respectively. If the probability of
4 2
7
happening of A and B simultaneously is , then probability of neither A nor B happening, is
50
equal to
39 1
(A) (B)
100 4
11
(C) (D) None of these
100
71. A and B play a game where each is asked to select a number from 1 to 25. If the number
selected by A and B match, both of them win a prize. The probability that they win their third prize
on 5th game is equal to
2 2
6. 24 6. 21
(A) 5
(B) 5
25 25
2 2
24 21
(C) 5
(D) 5
25 25
72. A real estate man has eight master keys to open several new homes. Only one master key will
open any given home. If 40% of these homes are usually left unlocked, the probability that the
real estate man can get into a specific home, if it is given that he selected 3 keys randomly before
leaving his office, is equal to
5 3
(A) (B)
8 8
3 1
(C) (D)
4 4
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2024 14
1 2 1 4 4 8
73. If A ,B 2 3 and A B C 3 7 , then C equals to
3 0
9 5 9 5
11 8 11 3
(A) (B)
1 1 1 1
22 6 22 6
9 5
11 3
(C) (D) None of these
1 1
22 6
2
74.
Area enclosed by the curve y sin1 x x x 2 , is equal to
(A) sq. units (B) sq. units
2 4
(C) sq. units (D) None of these
8
75. The tangent at any arbitrary point P(x, y) on the curve y = f(x), meets the x and y-axis at the
points A and B respectively. If PA : PB = 2 : 1, then curve is
(A) xy2 = c (B) xy = c2
2
(C) x y = c (D) None of these
79. The equation of a plane passing through (1, 2, -3), (0, 0, 0) and perpendicular to the plane
3x 5y 2z 11 , is
5
(A) 3x y z0 (B) 4x y 2z 0
3
z
(C) 3x y (D) x y z 0
3
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x2 y 3 z 4
80. The distance of the point (-1, 2, 6) from the line , is equal to
6 3 4
(A) 7 units (B) 9 units
(C) 10 units (D) 12 units
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
p b c
p p r
82. If a p, b q, c r and a q c 0 , then the value of is equal to
p a qb r c
a b r
84. For any four vectors a, b, c, d , the expression b c a d c a b d a b c d is
always equal to
85. OA a, OC b, OB 10a 2b where O, A and C are non-collinear points. Let p denotes the
area of quadrilateral OABC and q denotes the area of parallelogram with OA and OC as adjacent
sides. If p q , then is
86. Let a 2iˆ ˆj 2k,
ˆ b ˆi ˆj . If c is a vector such that a c c , c a 2 2 and the angle
between a b and c is . Then 2 a b c is equal to
6
87. A set is constructed random from a group of 6 boys and 4 girls. It is known that in this group
exactly one girl and one boy belong to same parents. The probability that the selected group of
children have no blood relations, is equal to
88. Area bounded by the curves 4y x 2 4 and y x 7 , is equal to k sq. units, then k is
90. Order of differential equation, representing the family of circles having constant radius, is
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – IV
JEE (Main)-2024
TEST DATE: 15-09-2023
SECTION – A
1. C
Sol. In figure shown if any switch is closed base of transistor will become forward biased and output
potential difference becomes zero so truth table is as shown below which is for
Y A B
A B Y
0 0 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 0
2 B
Sol. N side is at higher potential than P side in unbiased PN diode
In a solar cell upon separation of e-h pair in depletion region, electron reach N side and hole
reach P side, then P is at higher potential than N-side.
3. C
Sol. At saturation
VCE 0
VCC 10
iC 0.01 A
RC 1000
De current gain of transistor is
i
C
iB
iC 0.01
iB 4 10 5 A 40A
250
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 2
4. C
1
Sol. V
n
5. C
Sol. Average life > Half life
6. B
Sol. From the ray diagram,
Object
f = 8 cm
7. B
Sol. Consider the energy levels of atom
C EC
B EB Energy levels
A EA
From the figure
EB EA EC EB EC EA
hc hc hc
1 2 3
1 2
3
1 2
8. A
Sol. When a straight conductor moves with velocity v perpendicular to magnetic field then emf induced
is given by V Bvl . Here, it will be
V Bv lsin
Potential difference is V Bv lsin
30 1
V 2v 0.3v
100 2
300
V 0.3v
Now, current 2
R 13
v 86.66m / s 87m / s
9. A
Sol. Due to insertion of glass plate of refractive index of thickness t the optical path becomes t
instead to t. So, net increase in path travelled by wave is, t t 1 t.
D
This increase would shift the fringe by a distance of 1 t
d
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3 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
D 2D
Now given shift is 1 t
d d
1 t 2
2 2
t 4
1 1.5 1
10. B
Sol. As for thin prism, minimum deviation is Dm 1 A
So on increasing the wavelength, decreases & hence, Dm decreases.
11. A
Sol. The number of photons incident per second on a surface depends on the intensity of light as
IA
N
h
Thus with increase in light intensity, number of photons increases but it does not change the
kinetic energy of photoelectrons as frequency is not changing.
12. D
1
Sol. Resolving power
As the wavelength of electron is much less than visible light, its resolving power will be much
more.
13. D
Sol. By lens maker’s formulas, focal lengths of the two lenses are
R R
f1 and f2
1 1 2 1
For combination, we use
1 1 1 1 2 1 1 2
1
feq f1 f2 R R R
R
feq
1 2
14. D
Sol. M1
Assuming angles between two mirrors be as per geometry, a triangle sum of angles of is
3 1800
600
15. C
Sol. As z1 and z 2 are two neighboring points where EF = 0
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 4
E
z z1 z z2
/2
As we have z2 z1
2
or c/
c
z 2 z1
2
c 3 108
2 z2 z1 2 z 2 z1
1.5 108
z2 z1
16. C
Sol. For the given AC current, RMS value can be calculated by taking square root of average of
squares, given as
i i1 sin t i2 sin t 90
i2 i12 sin2 t i22 cos 2 t 2i1i2 sin t cos t
1 1
i2 i12 i22 0
2 2
i12 i22
iRMS i2
2
17. B
Sol. Current in solenoid
I( t) ktet
Flux through solenoid is
( t) B.A 0 nI(t ) R2
2R
I(t)
(same flux will pass through coil of radius 2R) emf induced in outer coils is
d(t )
e
dt
e 0nR2k et t et
e Cet 1 t
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18. D
Sol. As Magnet is approaches the loop, magnetic flux increases through the loop and rate of
increment of flux also increases so emf increases with time. When magnet enters into the loop
then at this moment emf is maximum and negative and when magnet is in middle of coil, at this
moment emf is zero. Now again flux starts changing however polarity of emf get reversed. When
magnet is coming out of the other side from the loop again at this moment emf is maximum and
in opposite direction and as it gradually recedes away emf becomes zero. Hence option (D) is
most appropriate for this situation.
19. D
Sol. Motional EMF induced across the plane wings is given as
e Bv sin
5
e 2.5 104 T 180 m / s 10m sin600
18
3
e 108.25 10 V
20. B
Sol. Speed of EM wave in free space is
1
c
0 0
In a medium speed is given as
1
[For transparent medium 0 ]
k 0 0
c
k n (refractive index of medium)
EM wave intensity is given as
1 1
I 0 E 02 c 0 kE2
2 2
E 20 c kE 2
E20 k n2
E2 c n
E0
n
E
For magnetic field we can use
B 20 c B 2
20 20
B0 1
B n
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 6
SECTION – B
21. 4
Sol. Resistivity of a semiconductor is given as
1 1
nee
1
10 1.6 1019 1.6
19
0.4 m
22. 3
Sol. For first minima in diffraction pattern we use
b sin n …(1) [n = 1]
The angular position of second minimum from screen centre is given as
3cm
tan 2 sin 2 2
100cm
3 cm
2 0.03
1m
From equation (1), for 2nd minima, we use
b sin 2 2
2
2 0.03
b
Angular width of central maxima in diffraction pattern is given as
2
21 0.03
b
Width of central maxima is
w 21D 0.03 1m 0.03m 3cm
23. 9
Sol. The intensity of emerging light from analyzer after it is rotated by 30o is given as
I
I 0 cos2 30o
2
2
3 3
I 12 12 9
2 4
24. 5
Sol. Given focal lengths of objective and eyepiece are
f0 1 cm
fe 5cm
10 cm Tube length
For final image at infinity (for least strain one eye), image produced by objective must be at focal
point of eyepiece i.e., 5 cm from it. For objective we use
f0 1 cm
V0 5 cm
V0 f0 5 1 n
u 1.25 cm
V0 f0 4 4
n5
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7 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
25. 4
Sol. By photoelectric effect equation, we have
KE h
hc
eV
For first case, we use
hc
4.8 …(1)
0
For second, case, we use
hc
1.6 …(2)
20
From equation (1) and (2)
hc
4 0
For threshold wavelength th we have
hc
th
hc hc
40 th
th 4 0
26. 6
1/3
Sol. Formula for fermi radius is R R0 A
rest
8v 27v
m1 m2
By conservation of linear momentum we use
m1 8v m2 2v
8m1 27m2
If R1 and R2 are the radii of nuclei of masses m 1 and m2, we have
1/3
R1 m1
R 2 m2
1/3
R1 27 3
R2 8 2
27. 5
Sol. Using the construction diagram below for the lens, the radius of lens can be related with its
thickness and radius of curvature as
2
R 2 r 2 R t
R 2 r 2 R 2 t 2 2Rt ...(1)
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 8
R
r
f
3 10
3
2 3 103 1
2
4
9 10
f 2 0.3 m 30 cm
6 103 1
28. 5
Sol. Energy density in electromagnetic wave is given as
1
ue 0 E2
2
Energy confined in the given volume can be calculated as
1
Energy = 0 E2 volume
2
1
5.5 10 8.8 10 12 502 V
12
2
V 500 cm3
29. 2
Sol. At very high frequencies i.e. at , capacitive reactance can be taken as zero and inductive
reactance can be considered as open circuit so the effective circuit can be drawn as shown in
figure below
1 2
2
220V
Thus equivalent resistance in this case can be calculated as
2 2
Z 1 2
22
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9 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
30. 3
Sol. Binding energy of Al nucleus is given as
BE mC2
Mass defect is calculated as
m 13 1.0026 14 1.00866 27.18846
m 0.02716 27.16 10 3 u 27u
BE 27 103 J
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 10
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
31. A
0.849
Sol. 1.24 i 34.3 235.5 1000
50
i = 0.5
Hence, dimerization occurs to form Hg2Cl2 .
32. D
Sol. 1st method : when half the solution has vapourised, A being less volatile will have more than 10
moles in solution. Only (D) option satisfies.
33. D
h
Sol. Height of crystal lattice is h so effective height of one layer be . Octahedral voids is exactly
2
h
h
between two layers so its height from base is 2 = and from symmetry, we can say height of
2 4
h h 3h
second octahedral voids will be .
4 2 4
Layer III
h/4
Layer II
h/2
h/4
Layer I
34. A
a 5.14
Sol. rc ra
2 2
For NaCl type structure,
rc
0.414, rc 0.414ra
ra
a
So, 0.414ra ra
2
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11 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
o
1.414ra 2.57 A
2.57 o
ra 1.815 A
1.414
35. D
Sol. Theoretical.
36. A
Sol. Fe 2H Fe2 H2
E 0.458 V
0.059
0.458 0.440 log Fe2
2
Fe2 0.245 M
37. A
Sol. Anode: H2 2H 2e
Cathode : O 2 2H2 O 4e 4OH
38. B
dE
Sol. S nF cell 2 96500 3.4 104 65.62
dT
H2 Hg2 Cl2 2H 2Cl 2Hg ; n 2
39. A
Sol. Theoretical.
40. B
1
Sol. Protective power
Gold number
41. A
Sol. Theoretical.
42. D
2 H2 S
Sol. Cu NH3 4 SO 4 CuS Black
43. C
Sol. Theoretical.
44. D
Sol. Theoretical.
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 12
45. B
Sol. Na2 Cr2 O7 is deliquescent, so cannot be accurately weighed.
46. B
Sol. 2MnO2 4KOH O2 2K 2MnO 4 2H2 O
47. C
Sol. All but one Lu3 , lanthanide ions show absorptions in the visible or near UV region of the
spectrum.
48. B
Sol. Theoretical.
49. B
Sol. Theoretical.
50. B
Sol. Theoretical.
SECTION – B
51. 5
Sol. Non-metals undergo disproportionation in alkaline medium. NO 2 , Cl2O 6 , Br2 , P4 , S 8
52. 6
Sol. (a), (b), (c), (d), (f), (h)
53. 6
Sol. In this reaction, CrO2 Cl2 is formed in which Cr is +6.
54. 2
Sol. V 4 , Cu2
55. 4
2 6
Sol. Magnetite, Siderite, Chromite, Wolframite, Fe WO4
56. 3
Sol. Pb, Cu, Hg
57. 3
Sol. Tb i K b m
0.14 i 0.5 0.25
i = 1.12
0.12
H 0.25 0.12
Ans. = 100 0.25 0.12 3
58. 1
9.65 100
Sol. Number of equivalent of H 0.01
96500
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13 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
0.01
H 0.1
0.1
pH 1
59. 7
1
Sol. H e H2
2
0.059
E log H
1
0.413 0.059 pH
pH 7
60. 4
Sol. x = 8; y = 6; z = 12
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 14
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
61. B
1 1 1
Sol. Applying C1 C1, C2 C2 , C3 C3 , we get
a b c
1 1 1
1
a b c
1 1 1
1 abc
a b c
1 1 1
1
a b c
Applying C 1 C1 C2 C3 we get,
1 1
1
b c
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 abc
a b c b c
1 1
1 1
b c
Applying R2 R2 R1, R3 R3 R1
1 1
1
b c
1 1 1
abc 1 0 1 0
a b c
0 0 1
1 1 1
= abc 1
a b c
Now, 0
1 1 1
1
a b c
62. D
Sol. Applying R1 R1, R 2 R3 , we get
0 i 2 0
1 i 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
0 0 0
= 1 i 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
=0
63. C
Sol. R1 R1 R2 , R2 R2 R3 , reduces the determinant to
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15 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
x2 1 x 1 0
2x 2 x 1 0
3 3 1
2
= x 2 1 x 1 2 x 1
= x 2 1 x 1 2
3
= x 1
This is clearly negative for x < 1
64. B
Sol.
a b xiˆ x 1 ˆj kˆ x 1 ˆi ˆj akˆ
= x x 1 x 1 a
= x 2 2x a 1
a b 0x R
x 2 2x a 1 0x R
4 4 a 1 0
a2
65. C
Sol.
ˆi a ˆi ˆi ˆi a a ˆi i a a ˆi ˆi
Similarly, ˆj a ˆj a a ˆj ˆj
And kˆ a kˆ a a kˆ kˆ
ˆi a ˆi ˆj a ˆj kˆ a kˆ
3a a ˆi ˆi a ˆj ˆj a kˆ kˆ
= 2a
66. A
Sol.
Let Q q be the foot of altitude drawn
From P p to the line r a b ,
q p b 0 and q a b
a b p b 0
2
a p b b 0
p a b
2
b
qp a
p a b b
p
2
b
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 16
p a b b
qp a p 2
b
67. D
Sol. a b c, b d 0, c d 0
ad bd cd c d
d a d d c d
2
= d d c c d d d c
d a d
c
2
d
68. D
Sol. ac b
a ac ab
ac a aa c ab
2
a a ˆi ˆj kˆ 3 ,
ˆi ˆj kˆ
a b 1 1 1 2iˆ ˆj kˆ
0 1 1
3a 3c a b 2iˆ ˆj kˆ
3c 3iˆ 3ˆj 3kˆ 2iˆ ˆj kˆ
= 5iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ
1
c 5iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ
3
69. A
2
Sol. a b ab
= a b a b a b ab
2
= a a 2a b b b a b
2 2 2 2 2
a 2a b b a b a b
2 2
Now, 1 a b 1 a b 2 a b
2 2
a b a b 1 a b
2 2 2 2
= 1 a b a b
2 2
= 1 a 1 b
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17 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
70. A
1 1 7
Sol. PA , P B , P A B
4 2 50
Now, P A B P A P B P A B
= 1 P A 1 P B 1 P A B
= 1 P A P B P A B
1 1 7
= 1
4 2 50
39
=
100
71. A
Sol. Probability of winning the prize in single game
25 1
2
25 25
In this case first 4 games, must result in exactly two prizes and 5th game must result in prize.
Thus, required probability
2 2
1 24 1
4 C2
25 25 25
2
6 24
= 5
25
72. A
Sol. E1 : Specific home is locked.
E2 : Specific home is unlocked.
A : Real estate man get in to the home.
40 2 3
P E2 , P E1
100 5 5
A A
P A P E1 , P P E 2 P
E
1 E2
3 7 C2 2
= 1
5 8 C3 5
25 5
= .
40 8
73. B
1 2 1 4
Sol. AB
3 0 2 3
1 1 2 2 1 4 2 3
=
3 1 0.2 3 4 0.3
5 2
=
3 12
T
12 3
adj. AB
3 5
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 18
12 2
=
3 5
Also, AB 60 6 66
1 adj AB
AB
AB
1 12 2
=
66 3 5
1 4 8
C AB
3 7
1 12 2 4 8
=
66 3 5 3 7
1 48 6 96 14
=
66 12 15 24 35
9 5
11 3
=
1 1
22 6
74. B
Sol. Clearly x 1 and x x 2 0 x 0, 1 . Curve has two branches whose equations are
y sin1 x x x 2 , and it is defined only in between [0, 1].
Area enclosed by the curve,
1
y1 y 2 dx
0
1
2 x x 2 dx
0
1 2
1 1
2 x dx
0 4 2
1
2x 1 1
1
2 x x 2 sin1 2x 1
4 0 8
0
= sq. units
4
75. A
Sol. Equation of tangent at P x,f x is
y f x f ' x : X x
f x
A x ,0 ,B 0,f x f ' x
f ' x
Now, since PA : PB = 2 : 1
f x
3x x
f ' x
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19 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
f ' x 1
0
f x 2x
d' f x dx
2 0
f x x
2.ln f x ln x c '
xy 2 c
76. C
Sol.
2 2
xdx ydy x.cos x y
2
ydx xdy y3
x x
sec 2 x 2 y 2 xdx ydy d
y y
1 x2
2
2y
tan x 2 y 2 2 c
77. B
Sol. xy sin xy cos xy ydx xy sin xy cos xy xdy 0
xy sin xy ydx xdy cos xy ydx xdy 0
dx dy
tan xy d xy 0
x y
x
ln sec xy ln c'
y
x sec xy cy
78. D
Sol. y 2 ax
dy
2y a
dx
dy
y 2x
dx
Thus D.E. of orthogonal trajectory is
dy
y 2x
dx
ydy 2xdx 0
y2
x2 c '
2
y 2 2x2 c
79. D
Sol. Let the required plane be
ax by cz 0
We have
3a 5b 2c 0, a 2b 3c 0
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 20
a b c
15 4 2 9 6 5
a : b : c 11: 11: 11
Thus plane is
xyz 0
80. A
Sol. Any point on the line is
P 6r1 2,3r1 3, 4r1 4
Direction ratio of the line segment PQ,
Where Q 1, 2, 6 , are
6r1 3, 3r1 1, 4r1 10
If ‘P’ be the foot of altitude drawn from Q to the given line, then
6 6r1 3 3 3r1 1 4 4r1 10 0
r1 = -1.
Thus, P 4, 0, 0
Required distance = 9 4 36
= 7 units.
SECTION – B
81. 2
2a 2 3
Sol. For no trivial solution, we must have 1 a 2 0
2 0 a
2a a2 0 2 a 4 3 0 2a 0
3
2a 2a 8 0 6a 0
2a3 4a 8 0
a3 2a 4 0
a3 2a2 2a2 4a 2a 4 0
a2 a 2 2a a 2 2 a 2 0
a 2 a2 2a 2 0
a2
82. 2
Sol. R1 R1 R 2 , R2 R2 R3 reduces the determinant to,
pa pq 0
0 qb c r 0
a b r
p a q b r r c b q b r c a 0
p a q b r c c r c q b q q b r c p a p 0
p a q b r c c p a q b p a q b r c q p a r c
r c p a q b r c p q b r c 0
Dividing out by p a q b r c we get
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21 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
c q p
1
r c qb pa
c q p
1 2
r c qb pa
c q p
2
r c qb pa
83. 4
Sol. Let P.V. of A, B, C and D be a, b,c and 0 .
AB CD b a c
BC AD c b a
And CA BD a c b
AB CD BC AD CA BD
= c b a c ac ba ab c b
= 2 cb ba ac
= 2 c b a a b a
= 2 c a ba
= 2 AC AB
AB CD BC AD CA BD
1
= 4
2
AC AB
= 4 ABC
84. 0
Sol. b c a d b a c d b dc a
c a b d c ba d c da b
a b c d a c b d a db c
b c a d c d b d a b c d 0
85. 6
Sol. q a b
1
p
2
a 10a 2b b 10a 2b
=
2
2a b 10b a
= 6 ab
p 6q
6
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AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024 22
C b
B 10a 2b
P
O
A a
86. 3
Sol. a b c a b c sin 6
ˆi ˆj kˆ
a b 2 1 2 2iˆ 2ˆj kˆ
1 1 0
a b 3
2
Since c a 3
2 2
c a 2a c 8
2
c 92 c 8
2
c 2 c 1 0
c 1
1 3
a b c 3 1
2 2
2 ab c 3
87. 7
Sol. Let the constructed set be
n, n 1, n 2, ....,n 14 .
If ‘n’ is eve, then
Total number of odd numbers in the set = 7.
If ‘n’ is odd, then total number of odd
Numbers in the set = 8.
Thus, required probability = p
1 7C 8
C 7
= 15 2 15 2 30p 7
2 C2 C2 30
88. 32
Sol. Required area
2 4 x2 4
x2 4
= 2 7 x dx 7x dx
0 4 2 4
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23 AIITS-PT-IV-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/2024
2 x2
4
x2
= 2 6 x dx 8 x dx
0 4 2
4
2
4x = |x – 4|
-4 -2 O 2 4 y = 7 - |x|
2 4
x2 x3 x 2 x3
= 2 6x 2 8x
2 12 0 2 12 2
= 32 sq. units k 32 .
89. 8
Sol. Clearly, x 1, y 0
1 x 2, 0 y 1
x (2, 1] [1, 2),y 1, 1
Or x 0, y 1
0 x 1
x 1, 1 , y (2, 1] [1, 2)
Or 0 x 1
0 x 1
x 1, 1 , y (2, 1] [1, 2)
y
1
–2 –1 1 2 x
–1
–2
90. 2
Sol. If center be (h, k) and radius be ‘r’ then its equation is,
2 2
x h y k r2 .
Since it has two parameters, thus order of corresponding D.E. will be 2.
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