PHARMACISTS COUNCIL OF NIGERIA (PCN)

PRE-REGISTRATION EXAMINATION FOR PHARMACISTS (PEP)

MARCH 23, 2019

INSTRUCTIONS TIME ALLOWED: 2 HOURS & 15 MINUTES

i. Ensure that your question paper and answer sheet option type match
ii. Write your SERIAL NUMBER and EXAMINATION NUMBER on both the question paper &
answer sheet
iii. Shade the most appropriate option (a-d) on the template provided using 2B pencil
iv. Submit both question paper and answer sheet at the end of the examination
v. On no account should the question paper or part of it be taken out of the hall
vi. Phones, Calculators & Smart Devices are not allowed

QUESTIONS 1-200 ATTEMPT ALL TYPE A

1. Which of the following holistically captures pharmacists’ role in health care?

(a) Distribution (b) Clinical Pharmacy (c) Pharmaceutical Care (d) Total Pharmacy care

2. How many components are there in pharmaceutical care philosophy as espoused by Hepler and
Strand?
(a) Four (b) Three (c) Two (d) One

3. Pharmacists’ responsibility in pharmaceutical care is to:

(a) Counsel patients (b) Dispense medications
(c) Identify common symptoms (d) Resolve drug therapy problems

4. The most beneficial outcome of drug therapy to the patient is:

(a) Clinical (b) Economic (c) Humanistic (d) Process

5. “Length of stay” in a care facility is an example of which outcome?

(a) Clinical (b) Economic (c) Humanistic (d) Process

6. Which of the following outcomes in malaria therapy may result in resistance development?
(a) Clinical cure (b) Parasitological Cure (c) Radical Cure (d) None of the options

7. The “cornerstone” step in the provision of pharmaceutical care is to:

(a) Establish professional relationship (b) Collect patient data
(c) Identify drug therapy problems (d) Document activities

8. Data collected through patient interview is often described as:

(a) Inaccurate (b) Accurate (c) Subjective (d) Objective

9. One of the following is regarded as a novel pharmaceutical care behavior:

(a) Monitor patient outcomes (b) Obtain patient symptom information
(c) Make a recommendation (d) Obtain patient medication history
10. Which of the following components of quality is the most important to the patient?
(a) Structure (b) Process (c) Outcome (d) Structure and Process

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11. Process criteria in pharmaceutical care are divided into:
(a) Structure and Process (b) Technical and Interpersonal
(c) Subjective and Objective (d) Manual and Computerized.

12. Pharmacoeconomics provides evidence for health care decisions in terms of:
(a) Clinical efficacy (b) Patient Safety
(c) Medication Effectiveness (d) Value for money

13. Effectiveness of medicinal products is determined in:

(a) Laboratory evaluation (b) Clinical trial (c) Real world (d) Post-marketing surveillance

14. Which of the following is not correct regarding drug therapy problems:
(a) Medical problem (b) Negative outcome
(c) Amenable to detection (d) None of the options

15. Drug related needs of patients include the following EXCEPT:

(a) Appropriate indication (b) Effectiveness (c) Safety (d) Treated indication

16. An asthmatic patient was given propranolol for palpitations. The potential drug therapy problems are:
(a) Unnecessary drug therapy and untreated indication
(b) Wrong drug and adverse drug reaction
(c) Inappropriate adherence and dosage too high
(d) Wrong drug and non-adherence

17. Pharmacists communicating with patient should NOT:

(a) Appear relaxed (b) Use gestures
(c) Use 100% eye contact (d) Be positioned at patients’ eye level

18. “How do you take your antihypertensive medication?” Is an example of:

(a) Open ended question (b) Close ended question
(c) Leading question (d) Direct question

19. Pharmacist-patient communication should avoid this question type:

(a) Open ended (b) Close ended (c) Leading (d) Probing

20. The procedure used to evaluate structures lying 4-5 cm under the skin is called:
(a) Inspection (b) Palpation (c) Percussion (d) Auscultation

21. Beta-blocker induced bradycardia is physically assessed using:

(a) Inspection and Palpation (b) Auscultation and Percussion
(c) Palpation and Auscultation (d) Percussion and Palpation

22. One of the following is a direct method of assessing adherence:

(a) Pill count (b) Urine assay (c) Refill record (d) Measurement of health outcome
23. Patient adherence is an example of intermediate:
(a) Clinical outcome (b) Humanistic outcome (c) Economic outcome (d) None of the options

24. Strategies to improve adherence include the following EXCEPT:

(a) Promote self-efficacy (b) Empower patients (c) Fear tactics (d) Telephone call

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25. The first stage in developing collaboration between pharmacists and physicians is:
(a) Professional awareness (b) Professional recognition
(c) Exploration and trial (d) Commitment to collaboration

26. Characteristics of the pharmaceutical care product include the following except:
(a) Inconsistent (b) Intangible (c) Inventoried (d) Inseparable

27. When marketing pharmaceutical care, which of the following Ps is in addition to those encountered in
the marketing of pharmaceuticals?
(a) Promotion (b) Position (c) Product (d) Place

28. Factors necessitating individualized pharmaceutical care in the elderly include the following EXCEPT:
(a) Multiple diseases (b) Polypharmacy (c) Adherence (d) Physiological changes

29. Off-label medication use is:

(a) Applicable to children only (b) Unlicensed indication
(c) Due to pediatric formulary (d) All of the options

30. Patient-focused intervention in hypertension includes the following EXCEPT:

(a) Education (b) Adherence promotion (c) Dosage adjustment (d) Low salt diet

31. Which of these interventions is beneficial in congestive heart failure?

(a) Moderate smoking (b) Moderate alcohol (c) Moderate exercise (d) All of the options

32. Dyspnea experienced in heart failure is due to:

(a) Left ventricular hypertrophy (b) Right ventricular hypertrophy
(c) Pulmonary edema (d) Peripheral edema

33. Medications with known evidence to improve survival in cardiac failure include the following EXCEPT:
(a) ACEIs (b) Spirinolactone (c) Digoxin (d) None of the options

34. All patients with a suspected acute myocardial infarction should be given aspirin to:
(a) Reduce chest pain (b) Dissolve thrombus
(c) Reduce myocardial oxygen (d) All of the options

35. Long term glycemic control is monitored with:

(a) Glycosylated hemoglobin (b) Blood pressure
(c) Fasting blood glucose (d) Fasting lipid profile

36. Which of the following may be an additional drug therapy in diabetes care?
(a) Insulin (b) Metformin (c) Lisinopril (d) Acarbose

37. Which of the following drugs may lower serum phenytoin level?
(a) Cimetidine (b) Carbamazepine (c) Metronidazole (d) Fluconazole

38. Some antihypertensive agents affect potassium levels. Which option is wrongly matched?
(a) Lisinopril → hyperkalemia (b) Losartan → hyperkalemia
(c) Enalapril → hypokalemia (d) Hydrochlorothiazide → hypokalemia

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39. The following are cardio-selective β - adrenoreceptor antagonists EXCEPT:
(a) Timolol (b) Acebutolol (c) Metoprolol (d) Atenolol

40. A 57-year-old diabetic male is currently on long-acting insulin injection once a day. While reviewing his
medication, it was observed that postprandial glucose levels are too high. Which of the following insulin
preparations may be recommended to control his postprandial hyperglycemia?
(a) Lente insulin (b) Insulin lispro (c) Regular insulin (d) Insulin glargine

41. Which of the following is a commonly prescribed hypnotic drug known to have anxiolytic, muscle
relaxant and anticonvulsant actions?
(b) Tramadol (b) Imipramine (c) Diazepam (d) Phenobarbitone

42. A patient is brought into the emergency room after an attempted suicide. She had consumed three
bottles of an arsenic-containing insecticide. Which of the following medications may be administered?
(b) Dimercaprol (b) Deferoxamine (c) Amyl nitrite (d) Methylene blue

43. These contraindications apply, EXCEPT:

(a) Chloroquine - myasthenia gravis
(b) Mefloquine - seizures
(c) Chloroquine - epilepsy
(d) Ciprofloxacin - glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

44. In the education and management of an asthmatic patient, the following are recommended EXCEPT:
(a) The patient should have an understanding of the action of each of the prescribed medicines.
(b) The choice of the inhalation devices(s) should be appropriate.
(c) The patient should be educated on proper mode of usage of drugs and inhalation devices.
(d) A general management plan should suffice for all patients.

45. Which of the following is likely to cause hyperglycemia and hypercholesterolemia in an HIV-positive
patient?
(b) Zidovudine (b) Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole (c) Acyclovir (d) Indinavir

46. Select the wrongly matched adverse effect:

(a) Chloroquine→Convulsions (b) Furosemide→ Hyperglycemia
(c) Formoterol →Bronchoconstriction (d) Codeine →Depression of respiration

47. It is of utmost importance to conduct which of the following tests before initiation of therapy with
metformin?

(a) Serum creatinine (b) Serum potassium (c) Complete blood count (d) Platelet count

48. A 7-year-old boy receiving treatment for allergic rhinitis has flushed cheeks and dilated pupils on physical
examination. These findings are due to antagonism of which receptors?
(b) Nicotinic (b) H2 (c) Muscarinic (d) H1

49. These adverse effects may occur on administration of typical antipsychotics, EXCEPT:
(a). Weight gain (b) Acute dystonia (c) Akathisia (d) Hypoprolactinemia

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50. On ingestion of some tablets of chlorpheniramine, a patient experienced blurred vision. This effect is
most likely related to antagonism of which of the following neurotransmitters?
(a) Serotonin (b) Acetylcholine (c) Adrenaline (d) Histamine

51. These agents may cause hyperkalemia, EXCEPT:

(a). Lisinopril (b) Hydrochlorothiazide (c) Valsartan (d) Amiloride

52. A 46-year-old nurse presents with delirium. Physical examination revealed hot and flushed skin, dry oral
mucosa, pupils poorly responsive to light and dilated. A bottle of atropine was found in her pocket.
Which of the following drugs can cause a similar clinical presentation?
(b) Prazosin (b) Amitriptyline (c) Bromazepam (d) Echothiophate

53. Which of the following drugs has the least potential to cause tolerance and addiction?
(b) Zolpidem (b) Bromazepam (c) Flurazapem (d) Estazolam

54. Which adverse effect is WRONGLY matched?

(a) Ritonavir → Hypocholesterolemia (b) Zidovudine → Anaemia
(c) Phenytoin → Gingival hyperplasia (d) Carbamazepine →Aplastic anaemia

55. A 2-year-old boy has moderate growth retardation and prominent brown stains on his teeth. These may
be attributed to the mother’s use of the following substances during pregnancy?
(a) Alcohol (b) Cocaine (c) Tetracycline (d) Aspirin

56. Which of the following substances would MOST RAPIDLY reverse the effects of warfarin?
(b) Protamine (b) Fresh frozen plasma (c) Vitamin K (d) Succimer

57. Which of the following antituberculosis drugs is known to cause high uric acid levels?
(a) Cycloserine (b) Isoniazid (c) Rifampicin (d) Pyrazinamide

58. Which drug interaction is correct?

(a) Sulphonamides significantly reduce the effects of chlorpropamide.
(b) Lamivudine antagonises the action of nevirapine.
(c) ACEIs may decrease the plasma levels of digoxin.
(d) Co-administration of nevirapine lowers the saquinavir levels considerably.

59. A 54-year-old male suffering from depression, is treated with sertraline. Which of these is the most likely
side effect due to sertraline?
(b) Hypotension (b) Cardiac arrhythmias (c) Sexual dysfunction (d) Weight gain

60. Adding clavulanic acid to a course of amoxicillin serves to?

(b) Delay hepatic metabolism of amoxicillin (b) Increase glomerular filtration of amoxicillin
(c) Decrease inactivation of amoxicillin by bacteria (d) Decrease renal clearance of amoxicillin

61. A 58-year-old man taking hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension presents with muscle weakness and
cramps. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
(a) Hypokalemia (b) Hypoglycemia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypouricemia

62. These are adverse effects of captopril, EXCEPT:

(a) Hypokalemia (b) Fetopathic potential (c) alteration or loss of taste (d) dry cough
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63. A patient was prescribed a drug for motion sickness, which of the following adverse effects is he likely
to experience?
(b) Frequent urination (b) Diarrhea (c) Dry mouth (d) Nasal congestion

64. Which of the following may precipitate sympathetic (hypertensive) crisis?

(a) Mature cheese + bupropion (b) Tyramine + phenelzine
(c) Red wine + edrophonium (d) Metoprolol + fluoxetine

65. A 62-year-old male presents to the hospital with suprapubic pain and anuria; placement of Foley’s
catheter reveals 1000 ml of urine. He was previously diagnosed with hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes
mellitus and hypertension. Recently, he was treated for painful peripheral neuropathy. Which of the
following drugs may have contributed to the patient’s current condition?
1. Atorvastatin (b) Metformin (c) Tamsulosin (d) Amitriptyline

66. Which of the following is an antidote used in paracetamol overdose?

(a) Deferoxamine (b) Dimercaprol (c) Disulfiram (d) N-acetylcysteine

67. On administration of IV atropine, a patient with organophosphate poisoning gradually improves. Which
of the following is still a risk for the patient?
(a) Muscle paralysis (b) Urinary incontinence (c) Bronchospasm (d) Diarrhea

68. The development of hemorrhagic cystitis in a breast cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy may be
prevented by the administration of:
(b) Ondansetron (b) Mesna (c) N-acetylcysteine (d) Folinic acid

69. A 55-year-old male treated with high-dose methotrexate experiences fever, painful mouth ulcers and
pancytopenia. Which of the following agents could have prevented his condition?
(a) Acetaminophen (b) Allopurinol (c) Ceftriaxone (d) Leucovorin

70. The following should be avoided in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficient individuals EXCEPT:
(a) Paracetamol (b) Chloroquine (c) Dapsone (d) Camphor mothballs

71. Which of the following may be used to provide anticoagulant therapy for a pregnant woman with deep
vein thrombosis?
(b) Clopidogrel (b) Heparin (c) Warfarin (d) Aminocaproic acid

72. A 53-year-old hypercholesterolemic, diabetic and hypertensive male presented to the hospital three
weeks after starting a new medication. Laboratory tests show increase in potassium from 4.8 - 5.2 mEq/L
and creatinine from 1.1 - 1.7 mg/dL. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for the
clinical picture?
(b) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Furosemide (c) Lisinopril (d) Atorvastatin

73. While at a party, a 22-year-old female taking a certain medication develops facial flushing, headache,
nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps immediately after consuming an alcoholic drink. Which of these
drugs did she likely take?
(b) Metronidazole (b) Acetaminophen (c) Vitamin C (d) Folic acid

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74. Which of the following drugs rarely causes hypoglycemia when used as monotherapy?
(a) Glibenclamide (b) Regular insulin (c) Metformin (d) Glipizide

75. In the use of medicines, the dose capable of producing marked functional derangement in the body is
called:
(a) Minimum dose (b) Maximum dose (c) Lethal dose (d) Toxic dose

76. A dose given on the initiation of therapy to give rapid drug plasma levels equivalent to that reached
after multiple dosing is called:
(a) Loading Dose (b) Therapeutic dose (c) Maximum Dose (d) Maintenance dose

77. All factors being equal, which of the following formulations has the least bioavailability:
(a) Suspension (b) Capsule (c) Emulsion (d) Solutions

78. How many millilitres of 100 units/mL soluble insulin should be administered to achieve a dose of 20
units?
(a) 0.002 (b) 0.02 (c ) 0.2 (d) 2

79. Concerning inhalers, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

(a) In children, breath-actuated inhalers are preferred to metered-dose inhaler with a spacer.
(b) Improper respiratory function has no effect on the use of breath actuated inhalers.
(c) The disadvantage of breath-actuated inhalers is that there is need to coordinate actuation
with inhalation.
(d) The disadvantage of metered-dose inhalers can be overcome through the use of a spacer.

80. Which of the following drugs used in nausea and vomiting has the advantage of not readily crossing
the blood– brain barrier?
(a) Domperidone (b) Metoclopramide (c) Prochlorperazine (d) All of the options

81. When handling a prescription in a stock out situation, which of the following actions may the
pharmacist NOT take?
(a) Inform the prescriber.
(b) If the medicine cannot be substituted with another medicine that is available, inform the
patient.
(c) If the patient agrees for it to be supplied at a later time, arrange to get stock.
(d) If the patient requires the medicine urgently, the pharmacist can substitute without the
prescriber’s permission.

82. When dispensing medicines, which of the following actions may NOT be carried out?
(a) Pick the medicine by reading the label at least twice and cross-checking the medicine name
and strength against the prescription
(b) Tablets/capsules may be removed from the strip/blister when dispensing
(c) Loose capsules/tablets should be packed in a clean dry container
(d) None of the options

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83. When compounding psychotropic substances, which of the options is NOT appropriate
(a) Can be carried out by any health professional
(b) Must be carried out by a licensed pharmacist
(c) Must be based on the request of a medical practitioner
(d) None of the options

84. Which of the following will make a better choice for the management of allergic rhinitis?

(a) Pseudoephedrine (b) Promethazine (c) Oxymetazoline (d) levocetirizine

85. Which of the following may be recommended for use in a 3-month-old baby with chronic
constipation?
(a) Glycerol suppositories (b) Bisacodyl (c) Ispaghula husk (d) Senna

86. Factors that affect drug absorption include all EXCEPT:

(a) Drug half-life (b) Gastric motility (c) Blood flow (d) Food intake

87. Timolol 0.25% eye drops is equivalent to how many mg of timolol/mL:

(a) 0.0025 mg (b) 0.025 mg (c) 0.25 mg (d) 2.5 mg

88. Which of the following is a protease inhibitor that may be used to boost the activity of lopinavir?
(a) Stavudine (b) Indinavir (c) Ritonavir (d) Atazanavir

89. Which of the following drugs would you use with caution in patients with a history of peripheral
neuropathy?
(a) Stavudine (b) Indinavir (c) Ritonavir (d) Amprenavir

90. Which among the following is classified as an antihistamine?

(a) Chlorpromazine (b) Compazine (c) Chlorothiazide (d) Cetirizine

91. Which of the following is NOT an antiretroviral medicine?

(a) Acyclovir (b) Abacavir (c) Dolutegravir (d) Etravirine

92. Which of the following is NOT a psychotropic medicine?

(a) Sertraline (b) Fluoxetine (c) Chlorpromazine (d) Amantadine

93. One of the following medicines requires that the dose be tapered?
(a) Prednisolone (b) Nevirapine (c) Primaquine (d) Ciprofloxacin

94. A lady was prescribed 40mg furosemide once daily. What is the best time to take it?
(a) Morning (b) Afternoon (c) Evening (d) Bedtime

95. Which of the following medicines is recommended for use in intermittent preventive treatment in
Nigeria?
(a) Sulfadoxine/Pyrimethamine
(b) Sulfadoxine/trimethoprim
(c) Sulfamethoxazole/pyrimethamine
(d) Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

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96. International normalised ratio may be routinely measured once or twice a year when using which of
the following?
(a) Rivaroxaban (b) Warfarin (c) Urokinase (d) Aspirin

97. For whom among the following patients is ferrous sulphate NOT recommended?
(a) Patient on ARV medicine (b) Megaloblastic anaemic
(c) Sickle cell anaemic (d) Pernicious anaemic

98. Which of the following is NOT a barrier to community pharmacy's involvement in the new public health
agenda?
(a) A propensity for pharmacists to focus on the biomedical model of health
(b) The operation of community pharmacy in a retail environment
(c) A lack of cooperation between pharmacists in the community pharmacy sector
(d) The location of many community pharmacies

99. Fluoridation of water is an example of a:

(a) Primary prevention strategy (b) Secondary prevention strategy
(c) Tertiary prevention strategy (d) Primordial prevention strategy

100. Pharmacists who encourage patients with diabetes or heart disease to take their
medications appropriately are involved in:
(a) Primary prevention (b) Secondary prevention
(c) Specialist prevention (d) Tertiary prevention

101. Knowledge sharing which encourages people’s change in lifestyle, attitudes towards
health care and health is:
(a) Public health system (b) Medical anthropology (c) Epidemiology (d) Health promotion

102. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the National Health Management
Information System (NHMIS)?
(a) To provide information to only policy-makers at the highest national level
(b) To identify major health problems
(c) To set priorities at the Local, State and National levels
(d) To assess the state of the health of the population

103. Which of the following is NOT a public health performance indicator?

(a) Maternal Mortality Rate (b) Infant Mortality Rate
(c) Life expectancy (d) Mean Age

104. The objectives of National Drug Policy (NDP) include the following, EXCEPT:
(a) To ensure efficient and effective drug management
(b) To ensure access to safe, effective, affordable and good quality drugs
(c) To enhance drug exportation
(d) To promote the rational use of drugs

105. The following are essential strategies for implementing National Drug Policy (NDP), EXCEPT:
(a) Selection of drugs (b) Procurement of drugs
(c) Advertisement Policy (d) Pricing policy

106. The Essential Medicines List (EML) shall be used for the following, EXCEPT:
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 (a) Procurement of drugs in the public sector
(b) Prescribing drugs in the public sector
(c) Procurement of drugs in the private sector
(d) Production of Standard Treatment Guidelines

107. The following are reasons for failure of Drug Revolving Fund Scheme, EXCEPT:
(a) Poor management (b) Reimbursement of the cost of drugs for exempted patients
(c) Misapplication of the Fund (d) Purchasing of drugs at exorbitant prices

108. A body that is responsible for compiling, maintaining, and updating Hospital Formulary is
known as :
(a) Drug and Therapeutics Committee (b) Drug and Hospital Formulary Committee
(c) Hospital and Therapeutic Committee (d) Formulary and Therapeutics Committee

109. A method of detecting, assessing, preventing and managing adverse drugs reactions is called:
(a) Pharmacoeconomics (b) Pharmaceutical Care
(c) Pharmacovigilance (d) Pharmacotherapeutics

110. Systematic criteria-based appraisal of use of medicines is called:

(a) Clinical Trial (b) Drug Use Evaluation (d) Drug Use Monitoring D. Drug Use Audit

111. Typical pharmacoeconomic studies include all of the following EXCEPT:

(a) Cost-minimization analysis (b) Cost of illness analysis
(c) Cost-benefit analysis (d) Cost-utility analysis

112. The community pharmacy that can quote shares in the stock exchange market is:
(a) Private limited liability (b) Sole proprietorship
(c) Public limited liability (d) Partnership

113. The following is not a scope of community pharmacy:

(a) Therapeutic drug monitoring (b) Point-of-care testing
(c) Monitoring patients’ health (d) Health education

114. The retailer's selling price minus the cost price is:
(a) Mark-up (b) Margin (c) Estimated price (d) Net profit

115. Code of ethics is a set of:

(a) Fundamental legal principles (b) Rule of laws
(c) Moral duties and obligations (d) All of the options

116. Proprietary name of drug is the name given by the manufacturer as:
(a) Retailer name (b) Chemical name (c) Brand name (d) Generic name

117. Control of the counterfeit and fake drugs and unwholesome processed foods (miscellaneous
provisions) is contained in:
(a) Decree 25 of 1999 (b) Decree 25 of 1989 (c) Decree 25 of 1998 (d) Decree 25 of 2000

118. The Schedule of controlled substances is identified as:

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 (a) Schedule 1-V (b) Schedule 1-X (c) Schedule 1-VI (d) Schedule1-1V

119. The National Agency for Food and Drug Administration and Control is empowered by
the following statute and as amended:
(a) Decree 14 of 1993 (b) Decree 14 of 1990
(c) Decree 15 of 1993 (d) Decree 25 of 1999

120. Pharmacy professional competency criteria include the following EXCEPT:

(a) Practising within legal requirements (b) Demonstrating professional integrity
(c) Upholding professional standards and code of ethic (d) Registration of Pharmaceutical
products

121. Code of ethics applies to all registered Pharmacists holding licences, certificates under the:
(a) PCN Act P17 LFN 2001 (b) PCN Act P17 LFN 2002
(c) PCN Act P17 LFN 2003 (d) PCN Act P17 LFN 2004

122. Pharmacy Jurisprudence means the science of:

(a) Laws relating to pharmacy practice but not ethics of pharmacy practice.
(b) Pharmacy practice but not laws of pharmacy.
(c) Ethics pertaining to pharmacy practice but not laws of pharmacy practice.
(d) Laws and ethics relating to pharmacy practice.

123. The record of the dangerous drugs must be kept for minimum of:
(a) Ten years (b) Five years (c) Four years (d) Two years

124. Drug matters are listed as:

(a) Item 19 of part 2 in the first Schedule of 1999 Constitution
(b) Item 21 of part 2 in the second Schedule of 1999 Constitution
(c) Item 21 of part 1 in the second Schedule of 1999 Constitution
(d) Item 19 of part 1 in the first Schedule of 1999 Constitution

125. The composition of the members of the Governing Council of PCN includes the
following EXCEPT:
(a) A Chairman
(b) DPS of all the States of the Federation including FCT
(c) The Director-General of NAFDAC
(d) The Director-General of NIPRD

126. Which of the following statements is NOT relevant to essential medicines list guiding
principle of selection?
(a) There is the need to subsidise medicines (b) Funds are limited
(c) Large numbers of drugs are available (d) Impossible to keep up-to-date with all the drugs
on the market

127. Medicines in the essential medicines list (EML) are selected with due regard to the
following EXCEPT:
(a) Public health relevance (b) Evidence on efficacy and safety
(c) Cost-effectiveness (d) NAFDAC registration

128. Which of these is NOT an advantage of generic products:

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 (a) Names are more informative (b) Often less expensive
(c) More available (d) Prescribing facilitates substitution

129. Which of the following is NOT a function of drug and therapeutics committees?
(a) Develop formularies (b) Ensure adherence to treatment guidelines
(c) Approve sources of medicines (d) Engage in prescription auditing

130. Which of the following does NOT cause liver damage?

(a) Pyridoxine (b) Paracetamol (c) Amiodarone (d) Amoxycillin/clavulanic acid

131. What is the antidote for heparin toxicity?

(a) Protamine sulphate (b) Warfarin (c) Dopamine (d) Calcium salt

132. What is the antidote for warfarin toxicity?

(a) Coumarin (b) Heparin (c) Iron salt (d) Vitamin K

133. Nitrite laboratory test is used in which of the following?

(a) Management of angina (b) Diagnosis of urinary tract infection
(c) Diagnosis of liver disease (d) Management of ulcer

134. How much of an API (g) would be required to produce 0.5L of a 15 mg/ 10 mL solution?
(a) 7.5 g (b) 0.15 g (c) 0.75 g (d) 750 g

135. Rx Ferrous sulphate 1g

Ascorbic acid 0.1g
Orange syrup 10 ml
Chloroform water to 100 ml
Fiat mistura pro inf.

In the formulation above, what is the role of chloroform water?

(a) Antioxidant (b) Acid emulsifier (c) Neutralizer (d) Vehicle

136. You are requested by a paediatrician to prepare Erythromycin ethyl succinate suspension
500mg/5mL for a patient weighing 50kg. If the dose of Erythromycin ethyl succinate is 50mg/kg/day,
what volume of the suspension will you prepare for a ten-day supply?

(a) 125 mL (b) 250 mL (c) 175 mL (d) 500 mL

137. Which of the following is NOT an attribute used in standardizing pharmaceutical packages?

(a) Protection (b) Safety (c) Colour (d) Drug Delivery

138. Stress cracking is a negative feature of which of the following pharmaceutical packages?
(a) Plastics (b) Borosilicate glass (c) Soda-lime glass (d) Rubber

139. Label for an extemporaneous product contains the following EXCEPT:

(a) Full names of the excipients (b) Additional warnings
(c) Appropriate expiry date (d) Name of the product

140. Which of the following is NOT an applicable mechanism of milling in the Industry?
(a) Compression (b) Attrition (c) Reversal (d) Cutting
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141. Which of the following DOES NOT principally affect the compression characteristics of
the tablets?
(a) Diluent (b) Disintegrant (c) Binder (d) Anti-adherent

142. The following methods are applicable when measuring dissolution rates EXCEPT:
(a) Beaker method (b) Flask-stirrer method
(c) Flip-disc method (d) Paddle method

143. Which of the following IS NOT applicable during the preparation of a solution?
(a) To aid dissolution, high-viscosity liquid components should be added to those of lower
viscosity.
(b) To aid dissolution, low-viscosity liquid components should be added to those of higher
viscosity.
(c) Completely dissolve salts in a small amount of water prior to the addition of other solvent
elements.
(d) Aqueous solutions should be added to alcoholic solutions with stirring to maintain the alcohol
concentration as high as possible.

144. Which of the following IS NOT a reason for establishing Quality Control Departments?
(a) Minimize the risk of marketing unsafe products (b) Guarantee product efficiency
(c) Guarantee patient compliance (d) Guarantee meeting regulatory requirement

145. Which of the following dryers IS NOT applicable for drying damp solids?
(a) Tray (b) Tunnel (c) Rotary (d) Spray

146. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Creamed emulsion will reform on shaking (b) Creamed emulsion will not reform on
shaking.
(c) Cracked emulsion will reform on shaking (d) Phase inverted emulsion will revert on
shaking.

147. Which of the following properties IS NOT important when choosing suppository bases?
(a) Melting Range (b) Solid-Fat Index (c) Hydroxyl value (d) Freezing point value

148. Which of the following immunoglobulins is responsible for the release of histamine in cells?
(a) IgE (b) IgA (c) IgG (d) IgM

149. Poultry birds are not vaccinated against which of the following diseases?
(a) Newcastle (b) Bronchitis (c) Encephalomyelitis (d) Intestinal worm

150. Changes that may occur in a poorly preserved cosmetic include all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Emulsion products may undergo viscosity change (b) Clarity of products may be retained.
(c) Package and product may react (d) Perfumes may lose smell intensity
151. The ideal container for pharmaceutical products should have the following properties EXCEPT:
(a) Robust enough to protect the contents against crushing during handling and transport
(b) Made of polymers in order to promote good patient compliance.
(c) Convenient to open and close
(d) Made of inert materials

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152. Which of the following IS NOT a mechanism for preservative action against microbial
Contamination?
(a) Destruction of cell wall material (b) Interference with microbial metabolism
(c) Cell wall enhancement profiling (d) Microbial protein complexation

153. Which of the following parameters IS NOT suitable for a sustained-release candidate?
(a) Greater than 75% absolute bioavailability (b) Total clearance is dose dependent
(c) Elimination half-life of 3-7 hrs (d) High apparent partition-coefficient

154. The following are benefits of integration of traditional and orthodox medicines EXCEPT:

(a) it will improve the quality and value of research in traditional medicine
(b) it guarantees less access to healthcare delivery for people in the rural areas
(c) if traditional medicine use is covered by insurance, patronage will increase
(d) it will promote the proper use and development of traditional medicine practice

155. Choose the INCORRECT answer:

(a) Traditional medicine relies on past experience
(b) Traditional medicine practices are always explicable
(c) Traditional medicine is used in diagnosing and prevention of diseases
(d) Traditional medicine is a combination of knowledge and practices

156. Spinal cord injury is BEST managed by one of the following alternative medical practices:
(a) Acupuncture (b) Chiropractic
(c) Naturopathy (c) Ayurveda

157. Materia medica contains herbal remedies of:

(a) Indian origin (b) Chinese origin
(c) Hippocrates (d) Unani

158. For identification of a medicinal plant, the following parts are required EXCEPT:
(a) Root (b) Leaf (c) Flower (d) Seed

159. Macroscopic evaluation of a medicinal plant includes the following characteristics EXCEPT:
(a) Size (b) Shape (c) Histology (d) Texture

160. Which of the following is a physical, mental and spiritual practice that aims to transform body
and mind?
(a) Ayurveda (b) Unani (c) Homeopathy (d)Yoga

161. Which of the following is complementary medical therapy?

(a) Acupuncture (b) Traditional Chinese Medicine
(c) Ayuverda (d) Naturopathy

162. Choose the INCORRECT answer:

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 (a) Garlic capsules combined with antidiabetic medications can cause an increase in blood
sugar.
(b) Orange juice decreases the absorption of aluminum in antacids containing aluminum.
(c) Orange juice should be avoided when taking antibiotics
(d) Grapefruit juice interacts with calcium channel blockers

163. A herbal preparation made by placing plant materials in cold water, bringing it to boil,
simmering for a few minutes before decanting is:
(a) Concoction (b) Decoction (c) Extraction (d) Infusion

164. All the following are penicillinase resistant EXCEPT:

(a) Oxacillin (b) Nafcillin (c) Flucloxacillin (d) Amoxycillin

165. Which of the following protocol is advisable in initiating nevirapine in a patient taking it for the
first time?

(a) One dose of nevirapine is given daily for the first 14 days of treatment period
(b) Two doses of nevirapine are given in two divided doses daily for the first 14 days of
treatment period
(c) One dose of nevirapine is given daily for the first 28 days of treatment period
(d) Two doses of nevirapine are given in two divided doses daily for the first 28 days of
treatment period

166. Which of the following drugs would you recommend for onychomycosis?

(a) Metronidazole (b) Methimazole (c) Itraconazole (d) Albendazole

167. Which of the following would prevent abortion in a pregnant woman with low luteal phase?

(a) Ethinyoestradiol (b) Follicle stimulating hormone

(c) Hydroxylprogestrone (d) Prolactin

168. Which the following drugs would cause kernicterus when administered in pregnant woman?

(a) Sulphamethoxazole (b) Gentamycin

(c) Flucytosine (d) Lamivudine

169. Which of the following drugs improves the left ventricular ejection fraction in heart failure?

(a) Acebutolol (b) Propranolol (c) Carvedilol (d) Atenolol

170. Which of the following diluent is most appropriate for mixing ceftriaxone injection powder to
be administered intravenously?

(a) Water for injection (b) Lignocaine solution for injection

(c) Sodium bicarbonate solution for injection (d) Dextrose solution for injection

171. An eye drop once opened, should not be used beyond:

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 (a) 1 week (b) 2 weeks
(c) 4 weeks (d) Expiration date

172. Which of the following contraceptive methods can predispose women to sexually transmitted
infections?

(a) Oral pills (b) Intrauterine devices

(c) Injectable contraceptives (d) Implants

173. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs would also benefit a patient with benign
prostatic hyperplasia?

(a) Telminsatan (b) Sotalol

(c) Doxazosin (d) Clonidine

174. Adrenaline mixed with xylocaine injection will:

(a) Prolong the activity of xylocaine (b) Enhance metabolism of xylocaine

(c) Make Xylocaine soluble in the injection solvent (d) Improve the bioavalability of xylocaine

175. By convention, 24G IV cannular is identified by which colour?

(a) Red (b) Yellow (c) Green (d) Blue

176. Use of low dose aspirin prevents:

(a) Hypertensive crisis (b) Stroke

(c) Arrhythmia (d) Cardiomyopathy

177. What information can be deduced from tmax of a drug?

(a) Time a drug should be administered to get maximum response

(b) Time it takes a drug administered to reach maximum plasma concentration
(c) Time it takes for drug administered to be maximally binded to the plasma protein
(d) Time it takes for drug administered to be completely absorbed

178. Which of the following drugs will have a large volume of distribution?

(a) Drugs that bind extensively to plasma protein

(b) Drugs with low lipid solubility
(c) Drugs that accumulate in fatty tissue
(d) Drugs with larger molecules

179. Which of these would confer passive immunization?

(a) Administration of live attenuated organism

(b) Administration of antigenic portion of organism
(c) Administration of immunoglobulin against the causative organism
(d) Administration of dead organism

180. The urine M/C/S for Mrs. Ada reads as follows:

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 Ciprofloxacin 3+, Gentamycin 1+, Cefixime 2+, Nalidixic acid 2+
Given that Mrs Ada has a previous history of reaction to moxifloxacin, which of the drugs
above would you recommend for her treatment?
(a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Gentamycin (c) Cefixime (d) Nalidixic Acid

181. Mixing is a fundamental step in most process sequences and normally carried out to:
(a) Control heat and mass transfer (b) Decrease volume of bulk powders
(c) Reduce physical and chemical reaction (d) None of the options

182. Which of the following is used in determining the volume of particles?

(a) Microscopy (b) Sedimentation (c) Sieving (d) Coulter counter

183. The mixture of solid and liquid to be filtered is known as:

(a) Filter cake (b) Filter medium (c) Filtrate (d) Slurry

184. The removal of bacteria from parenteral preparations is best accomplished by filters that
operate which of these filtration mechanisms?
(a) Impingement (b) Sieving (c) Attractive forces (d) Autofiltration

185. The movement of dissolved drug through the boundary layers into the bulk solution is by
which of these?
(a) Maceration (b) Percolation (c) Diffusion (d) Leaching

186. The most widely used diluent in tablet dosage form is?
(a) Lactose (b) Tricalcium phosphate (c) Mannitol (d) Dextrose

187. Which of the following is a product of a liquid and an insoluble solid?

(a) Emulsion (b) Cream (c) Solution (d) Suspension

188. Which of the following is not an advantage of microwave drying?

(a) Solute migration is enhanced as there is uneven heating of the wet mass
(b) It provides rapid drying at fairly low temperature
(c) The bed is stationary, avoids problems of dust and attrition
(d) The equipment is highly efficient and meets GMP standard

189. All the following are factors affecting dissolution EXCEPT:

(a) Wetting (b) Particle size (c) deaggregation (d) Vibration

190. A disintegrant is not required in one of the following tablets:

(a) Buccal tablets (b) Sublingual tablets (c) Chewable tablets (d) Double layered tablets

191. An example of biphasic liquid dosage form is:

(a) Suspension (b) Mixture (c) Syrup (d) Elixir

192. Which of the following cannot be filled into hard gelatin capsules?
(a) Capsules (b) Tablets (c) Aqueous solutions (d) Thixotropic mixtures

193. Which of the following is not an advantage of sustained release oral dosage form?
(a) Total amount of drug administered can be reduced
(b) Increased reliability of therapy
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 (c) Administration of sustained release medication permits prompt termination of therapy
(d) The blood level oscillation characteristics of multiple dosing of conventional dosage forms
is reduced

194. Quality control tests of suppositories involve the following EXCEPT:

(a) Softening time (b) Breaking (c) Dissolution (d) Melting point

195. Isotonicity is required for:

(a) Multidose injections (b) Single-dose injections
(c) Infusions (d) All of the options.

196. Which of these is NOT true for intramuscular route for injections?
(a) Injection is made into the muscles
(b) Oily solutions/suspensions cannot be safely administered
(c) Volume of injection does not usually exceed 4 milliliters
(d) Depot effect can be achieved

197. Microorganisms can be efficiently removed by filtration with

(a) Membrane filters (b) Ceramic filters
(c) Seitz glass filters (d) None of the options

198. All the following are merits of validation in pharmaceutical production EXCEPT:
(a) Reduce time of product recall (b) Eliminate defect cost
(c) Reduce risk of regulatory non-compliance (d) Reduce defect cost

199. Type I glass is also known as

(a) Borosilicate glass (b) Regular soda-lime glass
(c) Treated soda-lime glass (d) None of the options

200. Migration of oil phase into a packaging material observed in plastic is a good example of:
(a) Leaching (b) Sorption (c) Modification (d) Permeation

THE END

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