FEB2024 FINAL COACHING ON

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

Prepared by: Prof. Karl Luis Baguhin, Rcrim

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

AND INTELLIGENCE d. Demented person
1. What is an art which deals with the identity
and location of the offender and provide evidence of 9. These type of subject are person who are
his guilt in criminal proceeding? reluctant to become witnesses and particularly true
a. Criminal investigation among uneducated person.
b. Custodial investigation a. Know nothing type
c. Preliminary investigation b. Timid witness
d. Undercover investigation c. Boasting type
2. The person who is in charged in carrying the d. Drunken type
task to accomplished the three-aim fold of 10. A case investigated by police investigator is
investigation? considered solved, except
a. Prober a. Suspect is identified
b. Investigation b. Suspect is apprehended
c. Criminal acquaintances c. Evidence are gathered for successful
d. Judge prosecution of the accused
3. Which of the following is not the function of d. The suspect has fled
criminal investigation? 11. RA 7438 defines immediate members of the
a. Identify, locate and arrest the persons who family are as follows except
commits crime a. Spuse, fiancé/fiancée , parents, child,
b. Prosecute criminal brother, sister
c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence b. Grandparents/grandson/daughter, great
d. Bring offender to justice grand daughter/grandson
4. He is once a hireling, brothel operator, buckle c. Uncle, aunt, guardian
maker and a master criminal, who became london’ d. Friend, countrymen, lovers and paramour
most effective criminal investigator for pioneering the 12. Assisting lawyer to the subject must be
logic of Employing a thief to catch a thief. a. Lawyer from PAO
a. Henry fielding b. Competent lawyer of the suspect choice
b. Jonathan wild c. Choice of investigation
c. Eugene francois vidocq d. Choice of his parents
d. Sir Robert peel 13. It is what induces the criminal to act and not
5. The first law enforcement agency with necessary to be shown in order to obtain conviction
statewide investigate authority, the forerunner of FBI a. Intent
a. Los angeles police department b. Motive
b. Texas ranger c. Desire
c. New York police department d. Opportunity
d. Bow street runner 14. Custodial investigation shall include the
6. It is an institution that trains uniformed practice of issuing an invitation to a person who is
personnel of the PNP to become a certified investigator investigated in connection with the offense he is
a. NFSTI committed. Hence, the investigator must inform the
b. PPSC suspect of his constitutional rights to
c. NCR training center a. Remain silent
d. National police training center b. Counsel of his own choice
7. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one c. Right to bail
who is reluctant to divulge information d. All of these except letter c
a. Interview 15. As a rule, it would not be sufficient for police
b. Interrogation officers just to recire section 12, art, 3 of the
c. Information constitution. He also be duty bound to___
d. Persuasion a. Communicate what the person under
8. Who among the following is a target or interrogation may or may not do
subject of police interrogation? b. Tell the person of the rights to which he is
a. Complainant detained
b. Hostile witness c. Explain the effect of some rights in practical
c. Ready witness terms

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d. None of them a. Confession and admission
16. A promise of hope, reward, favor and use of b. Eyewitness testimony
force or intimidation, threats or fear and other c. Surveillance and undercover assignment
analogous acts make confession or admission d. Circumstantial evidence
therefore.. 24. One of the motives of an informant in
a. Voluntary-admissible in court providing the investigator necessary information solely
b. Involuntary-inadmissible in court for material gain he is to receive
c. Involuntary-not admissible in court a. Vanity
d. Voluntary-not admissible in court b. Civic mindedness
17. Mr. JOJO went to the police station and c. Repentance
confessed to PO1 JUWIL that he killed a certain man d. Remuneration
and that the murder weapon that he used is in their 25. Types of informant that reveals information
house in Bulacan. Juan even offer to escort the police usually of no consequence or stuff conducted out of
going to their house to seize the deadly weapon in his thin air.
house to which the Police officer acceded. During such a. Mercenary informant
extra judicial confession no counsel was present. Will b. Frightened informants
the confession be admissible in court? c. False informants
A. Yes, because it is voluntary d. Double-crosser informant
B. Yes, because all are consented and no written 26. As a police investigator if you are dealing with
waiver executed a double crosser informant, the best way to counter
C. No, because it was given in the absence of this is-
counsel a. Reveal information about facts already known
D. No, because there was no written waiver b. Use violence
executed c. Give him false information that will lead to his
18. In the above scenario what principle of law capture
will you apply as regards the extra-judicial confession? d. Beg him to tell everything he knows
a. Exclusionary rule of evidence 27. The method of identifying criminals, except
b. Fruits of poisonous tree a. Confession and admission
c. Double jeopardy b. Accounts or testimonies of witnesses
d. Relevancy rule c. Circumstantial/ associative evidence
19. Circumstantial evidence may produce d. None of the above
conviction if the following requisites are present except 28. Golden rule in the crime scene investigation
a. When there are more than one circumstances a. Never touch any object unless photograph
b. When the facts from which the inference are b. Never touch any object unless analyzed
derived are proven c. Never touch any object unless measured and
c. When the quantum of substantiality of indicated in sketch
evidence are proven d. A and C is correct
d. When the combination of all circumstances is 29. A method of search typically used in outdoor
such as the produce a conviction beyond a reasonable scene to cover large areas in which detailed
doubt. examination is necessary
a. Strip
20. Lovely told that police that night when the b. Line
body of jona was found dead, she saw pedro running c. Cross method
away from the house carrying a knife. What kind of d. A and b are correct
evidence will the testimony of Jessica be 30. It is the graphic representation of the crime
a. Direct evidence scene , which is a good supplementary evidence for
b. Indirect evidence photograph
c. Associative evidence a. Measurement
d. Tracing evidence b. Sketch
21. What is the distinct pattern of how the crime c. Map
was committed and established by a series of crimes d. Composite illustration
under more than one classification? 31. what kind of sketch gives picture of the over
a. Associative evidence all crime scene, its environment consisting of roads and
b. Tracing evidence building?
c. Modus operandi a. Sketch of details
d. Confession b. Sketch of locality
22. One of the major tasked of this department is c. Sketch of neighborhood
the qualitative and quantitative analysis of unknown d. Sketch of ground
substance. 32. A sketching method that requires a protractor
a. Crime scene or some methods of measuring angles between two
b. Crime laboratory lines
c. Clandestine laboratory a. Cross projection
d. Instrumentation b. Compass direction
23. Ordinarily , the identity of the criminal could c. Baseline
be discovered in one or more of the following d. Triangulation
circumstances, except

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33. In marking the specific evidence such as and transport to the point of examination, its
revolver it must marked on the temporary storage and its final disposal is referred to
a. Separately on the frame, butt, cylinder, barrel us.
and stock a. Corpus delicti
b. the chamber facing the firing pin as soon as it b. Necropsy report
is opened for examination c. Blotter
c. Either A and B is correct d. Chain of custody
d. A and B is correct
34. A reconstruction of the crime based on the 42. It refers to the general questioning of a
physical reconstruction, could be formulated in taking person conducted by the investigator.
into account all available pieces of evidence A. Field Inquiry
a. Physical reconstruction B. Field Interview
b. Mental reconstruction C. Field Instrumentation
c. Crime- reenactment D. Field Interrogation
d. Structural reconstruction
35. The scene of the crime operation 43. Which of the following is the primary source
a. The statement is true of evidence?
b. The statement is simply true A. victim
c. The statement is always true B. crime scene
d. The statement is wrong C. suspect
36. It pertains to the proving of the identity of the D. all of these
perpetrator of the crime charged, by demonstrating 44. One of the elements of sketch wherein the
that the defendant had committed in the past other graphical representation must indicate the ____
crimes sharing with present offense features direction for proper orientation of the scene.
significantly unique to make it likely that the same A. North
person or group of person committed the several B. West
crimes. C. East
a. Modus operandi D. South
b. Methods of operation 45. Why does the dead body of the victim of
c. Modes of operation violence needs to be photographed after its removal
d. Corpus delicti from the crime scene?
37. After identifying, collecting, preserving a. To have a set of view showing the relationship of
information gathered about the crime, the investigator the body with the surrounding
shall such information to determine whether it can b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of
stand prosecution and trial the wounds
a. Recognition c. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
b. Collection d. All of the above
c. Preservation 46. What specific offence has been committed?
d. Evaluation Who committed it? When it was committed? Where it
38. Which of the following must be done to was committed? Why it was committed? And how it
maintain the legal integrity of evidence? was committed? This are called____ of criminal
a. Evidenced must be properly documented investigation.
b. Maintain its chain of custody a. Cardinal Points
c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence b. Three I’s
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence c. Golden Rule
39. The interview of a witness can be described d. Bridges burn
by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for: 47. IRONIC stands for:
a. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty,
Identity, Continuity Identity, Continuity
b. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry,
Conclusion Conclusion
c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, C. Identity, Recognition, Opening Statement,
Inquiry, Conclusion Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, D. Identity, Rapport, Opening Statement, Narration,
Inquiry, Conclusion Inquiry, Conclusion
40. Which one is not a means of recording crime 48. The purpose of interrogation is to:
a scene? a. extract information from uncooperative witness
a. By photographs B. extract confession or admission
b. By sketches C. identify the other suspects in the crime
c. By notes D. all of the above
d. Surveying 49. Which of the following is the primary role of
41. The methodology involving the systematic the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
searching, handling, distribution and accountability of a. Verification of death
all evidence found at the crime scene, including the b. Identification of the person who is responsible for
documentation of every article of evidence from the the death
point of initial discovery at the scene, to its collection

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 c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of a. Agent ruly will go back to the station.
death b. The identity of agent ruly is discovered by the
d. All of the above suspect/s.
50. Uses of physical evidence, except: c. The operation is successful.
a. Determine the cause of crime d. He was cornered and harmed by the suspect/
b. Reconstruct the crime 59. Known as Napoleon’s eye, he conducted
c. Identify the participants counter intelligence against spies, who utilized deceit
d. Confirm or discredit an alibi and blackmail to gain information.
51. It is the product resulting from the collection, a. Karl Schulmeister
evaluation, analysis, integration, and interpretation of b. Karl Sculmeister
all available information which concerns one or more c. Carl Sculmeister
aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or d. Karl Suhlmeister
potentially significant to police planning: 60. He wrote the book entitled “Art of War” and
a. Investigation the theories he set down around 490 BC remain
b. Information remarkably fresh and are required reading in the
c. Data practice of intelligence today. It basically postulated
d. Intelligence that “If you know the enemy and know yourself, you
52. What is referred to as the knowledge need not fear the result of a hundred battles. If you
pertaining to capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable know yourself but not the enemy, for every victory
course of action of foreign nations? gained you will also suffer defeat. If you know neither
a. Combat intelligence the enemy and nor yourself, you will succumb in every
b. National intelligence battle”.
c. Police intelligence a. Sun Tzu
d. Strategic intelligence b. Isaias Alma Jose
53. Intelligence should be essential and pertinent c. Alexander The Great
to the purpose at hand. This refers to the principle of d. Robert Peel
_____. 61. Refers to the observations of person’s
a. Continuity movements is generally refers to as?
b. Objective a. Burn Out
c. Selection b. Safe House
d. Timeliness c. Casing
54. P/LT JUWIL submitted an intelligence report d. Tailing or Shadowing
evaluated as B-5. What does that mean? 62. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at
a. Information is usually from a reliable source all time:
and is possibly true. a. Frederick the Great
b. Information is usually from a reliable source b. Akbar
and is probably true. c. Arthur Wellesley
c. Information is usually from a reliable source d. Hannibal
and is improbable. 63. During de-briefing, the supervisor is listening
d. Information is usually form a reliable source to the intelligence officer discussing his ____.
and is doubtfully true. a. Interpretation with the news about a hostage taking.
55. The term used for the object of surveillance is b. Personal identification
subject while the investigator conducting the c. Observation and experiences while doing intelligence
surveillance is: work and its functions.
a. Rabbit d. Educational background
b.Surveillant 64. How will you evaluate the intelligence report
c. decoy of Agent PUROY with an evaluation rating of D2?
d. target a. Completely reliable source – doubtfully true
56. In counterintelligence, surveillance is information
categorized according to intensity and sensitivity. b. Unreliable source – probably true information
When there is intermittent observation varying in c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
occasions, then this surveillance is called: d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true
a. Loose information
b. Discreet 65. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the
C. open biblical indication of the beginning of Intelligence?
D. close a. Number 13:17
57. Special agent PUROY is talling or following the b. Number 3:17
subject/s or vehicles in order to gather needed for the c. Number 17:13
on going operation, he is performing _____. d. Number 17:3
a. Surveillance 66. refers to a place, building or enclosed area
b. Shadowing where police undercover men meet for debriefing or
c. Casing reporting purposes.
d. Investigation a. Safe house
58. During an intelligence, penetrating agent b. Log
RULY relayed a message to Police Corporal JUWIL that c. Live Drop
he has been “burnt-out”, as an officer it means what? d. Decoy

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67. In surveillance, the following are done to alter 76. A method of collecting information thru
the appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT: interception of telephone conversation.
a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle a. Bugging
b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses b. Wire Tapping
c.Change of seating arrangement within the c. Code name
surveillance vehicle d. NONE
d.Keep the cars behind the subject car. 77. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance
68. The type of intelligence that is immediate in the enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the
nature and necessary for more effective police criminal groups susceptible to damage, deception, or
planning. defeat by the police organization.
a. Line Intelligence a.Conclusion
b. Strategic Intelligence b.Capabilities
c. Police Intelligence c. Vulnerabilities
d. Departmental Intelligence d.Evaluation
78. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable
69. It is considered as the most secured method and Possibly true?
of disseminating the information to the user of a. -2
classified matters is by means of: b. E-2
a. Debriefing c. E-3
b. Conference d. C-3
c. Cryptographic method 79. Phase of intelligence covering the activity
d. Seminar devoted in destroying the effectiveness of hostile
70. In intelligence functions, a black list means: foreign activities and the protection of information
a. Neutral against espionage, subversion and sabotage.
b. Unwanted a. Passive Intelligence
c. Friendly b. Counter Intelligence
d. Unfriendly c. Line Intelligence
d. Demographic Intelligence
71. It is claimed that 99% of information is 80. In surveillance of vehicle your vehicle should
obtained from conspicuous sources and 1% of be?
information is obtained from clandestine sources. a. Adjacent of the subject’s car
Clandestine means. b. Near the Adjacent car
a. Observable c. At the back of subject’s car
b. Overt d. In front of the subjects
c. Visible 81. The used of an equipment of an equipment
d. Covert or tool to listen and record discreetly conversation of
other person?
72. An E-3 intelligence report means: a. Wire tapping
b. Bugging
a. The information comes from completely reliable c. Technical surveillance
sources and Improbable true. d. Eavesdropping
b. The information comes from Unreliable sources and 82. It is a type of Cover which alters the
probably true. background that will correspond to the operation.
c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources a. Multiple
and doubtfully true. b. Artificial
d. The information comes from Unreliable sources and c. Natural
possibly true. d. Unusual
73. Refers to the observations of person’s 83. It refers to an associate of the subject who
movements is generally refers to as? follows him to detect surveillance.
a. Plant a. Convoy
b. Stakeout b. Subject
c. None c. Decoy
d. Tailing or Shadowing d. Surveillant
74. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to 84. The most dangerous type of undercover
determine if the information is true and- assignment wherein the agent will join the
a. Reliable organization of the subject and must know the
b. Accurate ideologies of the group and the action while still inside
c. Correct and should conform to the organization to avoid
d. Probably true suspicion?
75. This kind of intelligence is long range in a. Social assignment
nature: b. Residential assignment
a. Line Intelligence c. Subversive assignment
b. Operational Intelligence d. Work assignment
c. Strategic Intelligence 85. Mossad is the National Intelligence Agency of
d. Counter Intelligence _________.
a. Russia

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b. Israel 95. Herbert Yardley is an American Cryptologist
c. Germany known for his book ______________________.
d. Pakistan a. American Black Chamber
86. Intelligence cycle is very important in the b. dark chamber
processing of information. A sea of information is c. Black Chamber
useless if they are not processed and analyzed, what d. Top Secret
will happen to the order of the intelligence cycle?
I. Dissemination and use 96. .They are the investigative “short cut’ to solve
II. Processing of Information cases, to recover stolen property, and to make
III. Collecting of information apprehensions.*
IV. Planning of the collection effort a . surveillance
a. IV, II, III, I b. rabbit
b. IV,I, II, III c. hare
c. IV,III,II,I d. informants
d. IV,III,I,II 97. Type of shadowing where constant
87. Regarded as the person who first utilized surveillance is necessary.*
principle of intelligence? a. Loose tail
a. Sun Tzu b. Rough shadowing
b. Abraham c. Close tail
c. Mohammed d. None of the foregoing
d. Moses 98. These are the most dangerous and difficult
88. It is the transforming of coded message into types of informants, Most effective among informers
plain text. because they could easily penetrate the ranks of
a. Coding criminals with less suspicion.*
b. Decoding a. Double Crosser
c. Encrypting b. Frightened Informants
d. Reclassify c. Women
89. In selection and recruitment of informers the d. Mercenary
best factor to be consider is: 99. .Those agents who have reached the enemy
a. Age camp, gathered information, and are able to get back
b. Education without being caught and come back alive are called?*
c. Access a. Double agents
d. Body Built b. Agent in place
90. A careful inspection of place to determine its c. Agent of influence
suitability for a particular operational purpose? a. Stake d. Penetration agents
out 100. Refers to the process of inspecting places to
b. Casing determine its suitability for operational use. In the
c. Shadowing military, it is known as ______?*
d. Tailing a. Casing
91. It is a process or method of obtaining b. Tailing
information from a captured enemy who is reluctant c. Reconnaissance
to divulge information. d. Penetration agents
a. Wiretapping 101. The saying goes: It needs a thief to catch
b. Elicitation another thief.*
c. Bugging a .Provial Basis
d. Tactical Interrogation b. Stool pigeon
92. Paid informants* c. Casual Informant
a. Anonymous informants d. Criminal
b. Rival elimination informants
c. False informants SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION
d. Mercenary informant
93. .Phases of recruiting the informant where 102. This is the investigation of cases that are
potential informants has tentatively identified as a unique and often require special training to fully
“probable” must be as thorough as possible.* understand their broad significance.
a. selection a. Criminal investigation
b. investigation b. Homicide investigation
c. approach c. Special crime investigation
d. testing d. All of the above
94. The New York Chief of Detectives who
introduce the Modus Operandi system in the field of 103. Special crime investigation is more concerned
Criminal Investigation was:* on:
a. Thomas Byrnes a. Physical evidence
b. Sir Francis Galton b. Tracing evidence
c. Sir Richard Henry c. Testimonial evidence
d. Edmond locard d. Associative evidence

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104. Object usually utilized in marking hard c. Herbert Mcdonell
objects. d. Dr. Oscar Amoedo
a. Stylus
b. Pen 114.Father of Forensic Medicine” he published
c. Ink “Questiones Medico Legales” which dealt with the legal
d. Chalk aspects of wound and the first two chapter dealt with
105. Such articles and evidences which assists the the detection of secret homicide.
investigator in locating the suspect. a. Ambroise paire
a. Physical evidence b. Pope Gregory
b. Material evidence c. justinian
c. Associative evidence d. Paulus Zachias
d. Tracing evidence 115.It is the use of medical science to elucidate legal
106. Objects or substances which are essential problems in general without specific reference or
part of the body of the crime. application to a particular case.
a. Corpus delicti a. Medical Jursiprudence
b. Physical evidences b. Forensic medicine
c. Material evidences c. none of these
d. Associative evidences d. Legal medicine
107. The primary consideration in transporting 116. Invented by Burke wherein the assailant will
evidences. stand or kneel at the chest of the victim then cover the
a. Markings should be placed nostrils.
b. Proper turnover must be observed a. Mugging
c. Avoid altering contents b. Burking
d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while c. garroting
in transit d. over laying
108. General rule in handling pieces of evidence 117. It is the interval between the termination of
a. MAC rule labor (delivery) to the complete return of the
b. Right of way rule reproductive organ its normal pregnant state-last from
c. Last clear chance rule 6 to 8 weeks.
d. None of the choices a. Gestational period
109. In handling clothing used as evidence, the b. puerperium
stained areas are usually encircled. What is the c. Labor
primary objective? d. delivery
a. To show points of interest 118. the v- shaped structure formed by the anion
b. To have proper marking of labia majora posturing and vaginal orifice.
c. To avoid contamination a. Labia minora
d. To prevent alterations b. Vulva
110. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to c. fourchette
preserve the specimen? d. Defloration
a. Formaldehyde 119. What refers to external examination of a dead
b. Saline solution body without incision being made, although blood and
c. Alcohol other body fluids may be collected for further
d. Distilled water examination is conducted.
111. Fingerprints may be found in the following a. Autopsy
areas, except: b. excision
a. Dressers c. Post mortem examination
b. Ceiling d. nota
c. Walls 120. It is an artificial way of preserving the body
d. Closets after death by injecting 6 to 8 quarts of antiseptic
112. What is the liability of the offender who, on solutions of formalin, per chloride of mercury or
the occassion of the crime of robbery, killed his cohort arsenic.
while trying to flee from the scene? a. Inhumation
a. Robbery with Homicide b. Mummification
b. Robbery with Murder c. burial
c. Robbery and Homicide d. embalming
d. Robbery and Murder 121. A vital reaction which is the pain on account
113. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the of the involvement of sensory nerve.
grave for the conduct of medical examination: a. Dolor
a. Interment b. Calor
b. Exhumation c. Rubor
c. Autopsy d. nota
d. Inhumation 122. A kind of wound produced by a sharp edge
114. Considered by many as the Father of modern instrument. It is longer as much as it is deeper.
forensic entomology. a. Incised
a. Bernard Greenberg b. Hematoma
b. Hans Lipershey c. lacerated

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d. punctured 132. A physical injury found at the site of the
123. What is the form of abrasion where several application of force.
lines of injuries which are parallel to one another? a. Extensive injury
a. Linear abrasion b. Coup injury
b. Multilinear abrasion c. Contre coup injury
c. confluent abrasion d. Coup and contre coup injury
d. multiple abrasion
124. It is an extravasation of blood in a newly 133. In this test, a ligature is applied around the
formed cavity secondary to trauma characterized by base of a finger with moderate tightness. In a living
swelling, discoloration of tissues swelling and effusion person there appears a bloodless zone at the site of
pf blood underneath the tissues. the application of the ligature. If such ligature is
a. Hematoma applied to the finger of a dead man, there is no such
b. contusion change in color.
c. Petechial hemorrhage a. Diaphanus Test
d. lacerated wound b. Icard,s Test
125. a gait resembling a duck. c. Magnus Test
a. Waddling gait d. None of these
b. Ataxic gait 134. An injury, disease or the combination of both
c. Cerebellar injury and disease responsible for initiating the trend
d. Paretic gait or physiological disturbance, brief or prolonged, which
126. A child who is a product of the promiscuity of produce the fatal termination.
a prostitute. a. Cause of Death
a. Incestrous b. Manner of Death
b. Sacreligious c. Mechanism of Death
c. Manceres d. None of These
d. nota 135. Which of the following best describes corpus
127. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate delicti:
death has occurred more than 24 hrs hence, useful to a. the body of the victim in case of homicide or
indicate approximate time of death. murder
a. Flies b. essential parts of the body of the crime or the
b. bees body of the crime itself
c. Butterflies c. the recovered stolen properties in case of
d. earthworms theft or robbery
128. Post-mortem change that is characterized by d. any recovered weapon, either firearm or
the discoloration of the body after death* bladed weapon
a. Livor mortis 136. What type of reasoning is used in
b. Rigor mortis reconstruction of the crime whereby the detective
c. Pallor mortis assumes a theory based on collected information?
d. Algor mortis a. deduction
129. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath
the skin due to the rupture of blood vessels as a result b. positive approach
of the application of a blunt force. c. logical reasoning
a. Contusion d. inductive approach
b. Shock 137. This is the act of any person who, with intent
c. Hemorrhage to gain for himself or for another, shall buy, receive,
d. Hematoma possess, keep, acquire, conceal, sell or dispose of, or
shall buy and sell, or in any other manner deal in any
130. Wound produced to man-s instinctive reaction article, item, object or anything of value which he
of self-preservation to repel attacks or an aggressor. knows, or should be known to him, to have been
a. Defense wound derived from the proceeds of the crime of robbery or
b. Self-inflicted wound theft:
c. Patterned wound a. fencing
d. Mutilated wound b. estafa
c. robbery
131. A person who died of a communicable disease d. theft
must be buried with: 138. In cases of suicide, what would be the
a. 6 hours after death, unless the local health officer noticeable muscular change.
permits otherwise a. Cold stiffening
b. 12 hours after death, unless the health officer b. Heat stiffening
permits extension c. Instantaneous rigor
c. 24 hours after death, unless the health officer d. Putrefaction
permits extension 139. A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles
d. 48 hours after death, unless the health officer and bones, considered as the most severe burn causing
permits extension death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body
and massive infection.
a. Sunburn

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b. 1st degree burn c. transfer stain
c. 2nd degree burn d. blood spatter
d. 3rd degree burn 150. Refers to the spurt of blood released when a
140. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around major artery is severed.
3 to 5 minutes would die, the case of death would be? a. Gun shot spatter
a. Stupor b. Arterial spray
b. Stroke c. Expirated spatter
c. Asphyxia d. Cast off
d. Exhaustion 151. Is the stiffening of certain group of muscles
141. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside occurring at the moment of death, usually associated
the blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of with violent death due to extreme nervous tension, or
the body. even fatigue.
a. Diffusion lividity a. Rigor Mortis
b. Clotting of the blood b. Cadaveric spasm
c. Rigor mortis c. Cold stiffening
d. Hypostatic lividity d. heat stiffening
152. When the gunshot wound of the victim is
142. it is one of the oldest methods of suspect located in the area of the body that is relatively
identification inaccessible to the victim, it is an indication of:
a. cartographic sketch a. natural death
b. composite b. homicidal death
c. rouge gallery c. Accidental death
d. police line up d. Suicide
143. essential elements of parricide is 153. It is only at his instance where the first
a. age responder is authorized to collect physical evidence
b. blood himself:
c. relationship a. If the evidence might otherwise be destroyed
d. status when not collected
144. In general , how many hours that death does b. The SOCO operative are not available
the blood essentially down permanently? c. In order to avoid contamination
a. 8 hours d. To preserve evidence
b. 4 hours 154. If both suspect and victim are still in the crime
c. 6 hours scene upon arrival of the police officer, he must:
d. 2 hours a. Have somebody bring the victim to the
145. In tropical countries like Philippines, the color nearest hospital and arrest the suspect
of post mortem lividity after death is _______. (June b. Interview both the victim and suspect while
2019 Board Exam Question) waiting for reinforcement
a. Blue c. Bring both the suspect and the victim to the
b. Red nearest police station
c. Purple d. Secure the crime scene to avoid
d. Dark red contamination
146. In a case of dead person, when autopsy 155. It is considered as a mute but eloquent
should be performed? manifestation of truth and it ranks high in our hierarchy
a. Death has been caused by violence of trustworthy evidence and thus most reliable source
b. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect of information
the probability of homicide. a. Testimony of the witness
c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family b. Physical evidence
d. In all cases involving death c. Suspect confession
147. Which of the following is NOT one of the d. Complainant’s testimony
examples of covert information 156. This locard’theory is summed up through the
a. Grapevine phrase; there is something to be found:
b. Information a. Material of evidence
c. Informers b. Transfer of evidence
d. Public Records c. Rule of inclusiveness
148. Is defined as a dispersion of blood spots of d. Golden rule in evidence
varying size created when a source of fluid blood is 157. It is an act by which sever pain or suffering,
subjected to an external force. whether physical or mental, is intentionally inflicted on
a. Projected stain a person for such purposes as obtaining from him/her
b. Passive stain or a third person information or a confession or by rape
c. transfer stain and sexual abuse, including the insertion of foreign
d. blood spatter objects into the sex organ or rectum or electrical
149. Includes drops, flows and pools, and typically application of the genitals
resulted from gravity acting on an injured body and a. Torture
objects. b. Maltreatment
a. Projected stain c. Oppression
b. Passive stain d. Abuse

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158. The deputy chief operation of San Juan action where a process of interrogation is undertaken
municipal police station, P/LT Karlo and his team to illicit incriminating statement
conducted a checkpoint operation in one choke point a. Criminal investigation
of the municipality. What shall be the guidance of the b. Homicide investigation
team in the event that an extensive search will be c. Inquest proceeding
conducted? d. Custodial investigation
a. Extensive search is allowed only when there 167. Which of the following is the most important
is probable cause which justifies a reasonable belief of duty or obligation of police officer in conducting
those at the checkpoint that either the motorist is a law investigation
offender or the contents of the vehicle are or have a. Preserve the crime scene
been instruments of some offense b. Arrest
b. When there has been an evidence that the car c. Obtain evidence
is stolen d. Identify the suspect
c. Then the occupants of the vehicle are person 168. The desk officer upon recipt of the crime
of interest incident shall hava the following duties, except
d. The police has the authority to randomly a. Inform his superior officer or duty officer
conduct search of motor vehicle as preventive and regarding the report
control method according to the PNP patrol plan 2030 b. Record the date and time the report was
159. Chain of custody is particularly important in made
what category of evidence c. Immediately respond to the crime scene
a. Unique evidence d. Made a synopsis of the incident
b. Made-unique evidence 169. What is the area located adjacent to the crime
c. Non-unique evidence scene where the briefing is to be conducted and also
d. All of the choices the place where the evidence custodian receives the
160. What should the investigator attitude upon evidence collected during crime scene investigation
the end of the interview? a. Crime scene
a. Leave the subject as if nothing happened b. Command post
b. Thanks the subject for his cooperation c. Fixed post
c. Stare at the subject from head to foot d. Reception area
d. Vacate the place of interview 170. After the conduct of final survey by the team
161. Accurate investigation help to insure that only leader, to whom will the crime scene be turned over?
criminal is punished, and the innocent parties will not a. Chief of police
be subjected to prosecution b. Investigator on case
a. Protection of innocent c. PCP commander
b. Community safety d. Owner of the place
c. Deterrent to others 171. What is the final phase of crime scene
d. Future deterrence of offenses investigation
a. Preliminary survey
162. An informant who is considered the weakest b. Collection of evidence
link in the criminal chain of the gang c. Documentation
a. False informant d. Release of the crime scene
b. Double-crosser informant 172. What is the purpose of conducting final
c. Mercenary informant survey of the crime scene
d. Frightened informant a. To turn over the scene to the chief of police
163. Offers of help, kindness and friendliness in the b. To check all evidence gathered from the crime
conduct of interrogation that may win his cooperation scene
a. Sympathetic approach c. To determine whether or not the processing
b. Kindness has been completed
c. Emotional appeal d. To determine whether there is a need to
d. Jolting request for additional personnel
164. It is a method of interrogation that the first 173. Peter while under the influence of drugs
investigator appears to be rough, mean and dangerous threw away the three days old son of his sister causing
while the second intervene by stopping the former the death of the infant can be liable for what crime ?
a. Mutt and jeff a. Homicide
b. Trick and bluff b. Murder
c. Sweet and sour c. Parricide
d. A and C is correct d. Infanticide
165. It is a sign of deception 174. Peter snatched the bag of a lady walking
a. Sweating and color change along Avenida rizal committed what crime
b. Dry mouth and breathing a. Theft
c. Pulse and avoidance of eye contact b. Robbery
d. All of these c. Estafa
166. Stage where the law enforcer focus on a d. Malicious mischief
particular suspect who had been invited or taken into 175. A man who inserted his penis to the mouth or
custody or otherwise deprived of his/her freedom of anus of another person commits what crime?
a. Rape

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b. Rape by sexual assault 185. The stiffening of the muscle of the body
c. Rape by sexual intercourse because of chemical changes is ___mortis
d. Sexual harassment a. Algor
176. KARLA and KARLO are husband and wife. But b. Rigor
KARLO had an illicit sexual relation with another c. Cadaveric spasm
woman. One night while KARLO is deeply asleep. d. Livor
KARLA cut the genital organ of KARLO using a scissor 186. What is the characteristics science of personal
causing him to be hospitalized for 30 days. For what identification by dental characteristics?
crime can KARLA be charged of? a. Chemistry
a. Serious physical injury b. Forensic odontology
b. Attempted parricide c. Dental medicine
c. Mutilation d. None of these
d. Less serious physical injury 187. a form of death brought by the suspension of
177. The following are the primary jobs of an the body by a ligature which encircles the neck and the
investigator except constricting force is the weight of the body
a. To discover how it was committed a. asphyxia by suffocation
b. To determine the guilt of the offender b. manual strangulation
c. To discover why the crime was committed c. asphyxia by hanging
d. To discover whether an offense has been d. none of these
committed under the law 188. Which of the following items are to be
178. A person undergoing criminal investigation gathered as evidence in a crime scene of criminal
enjoys his three constitutional rights abortion
a. The right to plead guilty and not guilty a. Syringed and catheter
b. The right to oppose whatever the accusation b. Prohibited drugs
on him c. Blood on the underwear
c. The right to oppose whatever accusation on d. All of these
him base on his constitutional right 189. MAHAL is a despondent mother of PUROY due
d. The right to remain silent, right to counsel and to poverty, MAHAL has though of killing PUROY who is
right to be informed of the nature of the accusation three months old to save the baby from further
179. Presence of defense wound in the body of the suffering . what crime was committed?
victim who is found hanged is a. Homicide
a. Accidental b. Murder
b. Homicidal c. Infanticide
c. Suicidal d. None of these
d. Both a and c 190. it is possible to have a number of gunshot
180. The following are evidence to show that the wounds entry less thatn the exit wound?
gunshot wound is accidental, except a. Maybe
a. There is no special area of the body involved b. Impossible
b. Victim sustained more than one shot c. Possible
c. Usually there is but one shot d. None of these
d. Testimony of the witnesses 191. Which comes last in the conduct criminal
181. Which type of death by hanging is considered investigation
not common? a. Crime scene search and crime sketch
a. Accidental b. Removal of the victims body
b. Homicidal c. Photograph, fingerprints left and other
c. Suicidal evidence taken
d. Both a and c d. Notes properly taken and witness identified
182. A husband who killed his live-in partner and 192. In order to have successful interrogation, one
their daughter is liable for of the most important factors to consider is
a. 2 counts of parricide a. Subject emotion
b. 2 counts of homicide b. Cooperation
c. Homicide and parricide c. Knowledge of all facts
d. Murder and parricide d. Privacy
183. The following are the means of committing 193. Which of the following is not among the rules
robbery except to be observed in questioning
a. By intimidating the victim a. Simplicity of the question
b. By using force upon things b. Accept implied answer
c. By employing violence against the victim c. One question at a time
d. By taking consideration of the value of the d. Saving faces
stolen item 194. When the gunshot wound of the victim is
184. A killing not caused by human being is death located in the area of the body that is relatively
by inaccessible to the victim, it is an indication of:
a. By means of intent A. natural death
b. Imprudence B. homicidal death
c. Negligence C. Accidental death
d. Natural cause D. Suicide

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195. Vincent killed his adaptor after the rendition a. Theft
of judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the b. Robbery case
crime committed by Vincent? c. Trespass to dwelling
a. Parricide d. Homicide investigation
b. Murder 206. The following are the bridges that
c. Homicide investigators should not cross, EXCEPT
d. None of the above a. The dead person has been autopsied
196. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus b. The dead person has been moved
from the mother’s womb: c. The body is burned or cremate
a. Infanticide d. The cadaver is embalmed
b. Abortion 207. The cooling of the body after death called
c. Parricide a. Livor mortis
d. Murder b. Algor mortis
197. The penalty for Article 247 shall be? c. Rigor mortis
a. Reclusion Perpetua d. Post-mortem rigidity
b. Reclusion temporal 208. What injury is cause buy the penetration of a
c. Death sharp pointed weapon like icepick?
d. Destierro a. Incised wound
198. In what circumstances change murder to b. Abrasions
homicide? c. Stab wound
a. Treachery d. Puncture wound
b. Absence of qualifying circumstances 209. It is the state of injury or death of the body
c. Lack of intent whereby the ligature tightened around the neck by
d. Taking advantage of superior strength suspension of the body
199. Which of the following is NOT a common a. Hanging
element of robbery and theft? b. Suicide
a. The personal property is taken with intent to gain. c. Strangulation
b. The offense can be committed by a band. d. Asphyxia
c. The personal property belongs to another. 210. Y left the key of his house underneath a plant
d. The unlawful taking of that property. vase. He was seen by Z and later took it and opened
200. Which of the following is the primary role of Y’s house then took some of his personal belongings.
the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene? What crime did Z commit
a. Verification of death a. Two different cases of theft
b. Identification of the person who is responsible b. Theft and robbery
for the death c. Robber only
c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of d. Theft only
death 211. In accidental electrocution, presence of
d. All of the above ____________________ can be found at the scene
201. What is the penalty to be imposed upon a a. Electric post
parent who inflicted less serious physical injury upon b. Electric meter
his young daughter and her seducer after surprising c. Low voltage wire
the two in the act of committing sexual intercourtse d. High voltage wire
a. Arresto menor 212. The perpetrator in kidnapping shall suffer the
b. Arresto mayor penalty of reclusion perpetual if
c. Destierro a. The kidnapping or detention shall have lasted
d. None for more than five days
202. Sign of struggle and defense are usually b. Committed simulating public authority
present in c. The person kidnapped is a minor
a. Violent killing d. All of the above
b. Accidental killing 213. What is the most common way to committing
c. Suicide cases suicide?
d. Reckless imprudence a. By cut throat
203. How many hours will the ova eggs hatch to b. By drowning
from maggots? c. By gunshot
a. Within 12 hours d. By hanging
b. Within 24 hours 214. Pelvic bone of the victim are excellent
c. More than 1 day indicator of the victim’s
d. 2 to 3 days a. Race
204. Which physical evidence is most likely to be b. Age
found in robbery cases? c. Sex
a. Fingerprints d. Habit
b. DNA evidence 215. This type of robber is motivated by greed the
c. Blood stains desire for a thrill and self-testing
d. photograph a. Amateurs
205. Determining the point of entrance is b. Professional
important in which type of investigation? c. Thrill seeker

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d. None of the above d. All of the above
216. What type of death occurs beyond the sway 224. Police corporal JUWIL went to the house of
of one’s will and although it comes about through some Mr. Y and asked the latter directly about his possible
act of will, lies beyond the bounds of human forceable involvement in a robbery case that transpired a day
consequences? ago. This is already considered
a. Accidental death a. Interrogation
b. Suicidal death b. Interview
c. Negligent death c. Custodial investigation
d. Reckless imprudence death d. Follow-up investigation
217. Time element is material in which felony 225. Following of a person to acquire information
under the RPC? about the identity and activities of the subject is a
a. Infanticide technique in investigation called
b. Robbery a. casing
c. Homicide b. stakeout
d. Kidnapping c. shadowing
218. Case investigated by the police is considered d. roping
solved if 226. in taking the photograph of crime scene it
a. Suspect is arrested and evidence against him should be from the general view to
are gathered a. major
b. Suspect is charged with appropriate case b. captain
c. Suspect is identified c. specific
d. All of the above d. roping
219. The informal and summary inquiry conducted 227. as a basic guide to investigator, he should
by a public prosecutor in criminal cases involving look upon the evidence as serving to established
persons arrested and detained without the benefit of a. method of operation of the perpetrator
warrant issued by the court for purposes of b. identification of the guilt of person
determining whether or not said persons should remain c. the corpus delicti
under custody and correspondingly be charged in court d. any of these
is 228. what is called of that threat of using illegal
a. Preliminary examination physical methods to induce a suspect to make
b. Preliminary investigation admission or confession
c. Inquest proceeding a. forced
d. Criminal investigation b. third degree
220. What interrogation technique may be applied c. duress
to calm and nervous subjects by constantly observing d. all of these
their behavior and then the investigator chooses the 229. once the crime scene has been thoroughly
right moment to shout a pertinent question? documented and location of evidence was noted the
a. Emotional appeal collection process begins and will usually start with
b. Jolting a. point of exit
c. Sympathetic appeal b. large object
d. Extenuation c. fragile evidence
221. Are all physical evidence found and collected d. removal of the cadaver
at the crime scene to be transported to the crime 230. when people are considered as a source of
laboratory? information, the experience officer
a. Yes because they were collected for a. recognize that all person from all walks of life
examination represent potential investigate resources
b. Yes because the investigator is not allowed to b. develops his contacts only with law abiding
take custody of evidence citizens
c. No only those which require further laboratory c. restricts his efforts to member of the
examination will be transported department
d. No because the SOCO team has no authority d. concentrate all his effort to acquire
to bring the evidence to the crime laboratory if the informants only from criminal types
investigator did not request 231. Which of the following are the questions in
222. Which among the following data concerning incidents involving assaults that CANNOT be answer by
photographs as evidence is least essential? a medico legal?
a. Date and hour when each photograph was a. How many are the victims?
taken b. What is the position of the victim when he was
b. Identification of the police photographer assaulted
c. Proof of ownership of the camera c. Was there evidence of defense mark or struggle
d. Focal length of the lens d. From what direction was the force applied coming
223. What element of sketch is considered an from
essential elements of finished sketch representing the 232. Gio and Mat, while having a drinking spree,
actual size or measurement of the crime scene? had an argument on who among them is more
a. Scale and proportion handsome. Mateo, in order to terminate the quarrel,
b. Measurement stood up and went home. Without Mat knowledge, Gio
c. Compass direction followed him to his house. When Mat was already

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inside his house, Gio took it as an opportunity to kill order for further investigation. What crime if any do
him by burning his house which he did successfully. the duo commits?
What is the crime committed by Gio? a. Arbitrary detention
a. Murder only b. Delaying release
b. Arson with Homicide c. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to
c. Arson and Murder the proper judicial authorities
d. Arson only d. Illegal detention
233. This is characterized as having long-term 240. Any person who killed his father, mother or
commitment to crime as a source of livelihood, child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his
planning and organizing crimes before committing ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?
them and pursuing money to support a particular a. Homicide
lifestyle is called b. Parricide
a. opportunist robber c. Murder
b. drug addict robber d. Any of the choices
c. alcoholic robber 241. A and B are husband and wife, while working
d. professional robber as security guard of Landbank, A felt sick one night and
234. There is no such crime as Robbery with decided to go home around midnight and saw B having
Attempted Rape, this statement is sexual intercourse with a neighbor C. A grabbed C and
a. true hacked the latter to death. As Criminologist-
b. false Investigator what crime if any would you charged
c. partially true against A?
d. partially false a. Homicide
235. A wound which is larger and more irregular in b. Parricide
appearance; no abrasions ring; there is far more blood c. Murder
escapes an exit wound. d. None because A is exempted from criminal
a. Exit wound' liability
b. Entrance wound 242. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the
c. Either A or B offender must have tthe intent to kill the victim. If there
d. lacerated wound is no intent to kill the offender is liable for-
a. Physical injury
236. You are a police officer responding to a crime b. Serious physical injury
which there is a dying person. You will obtain dying c. Homicide
declaration from him. Which of the following is not one d. Consummated physical injury
of your duties in regard to dying declaration? 243. Under RA 8294 the use of unlicensed firearm
a. Observe the victim as to whether he is in the commission of a crime is not considered as a
manifesting a feeling of his impending death separate crime but shall be appreciated as a
b. Observe carefully the mental condition of the a. Mere alternative circumstance
victim and jot down immediately his statements b. Qualifying circumstance
c. Attempt to save the life of the victim c. Mere aggravating circumstance
d. Avoid leading questions and produce the d. Generic aggravating circumstance
statement. 244. X a male, takes Y another male, to a motel
237. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned and there, through threat and intimidation succeeds in
Officer who leads the execution of a valid search inserting his penis into the anus of Y. What crime, if
warrant. Who must be present when a valid search any does X commit?
warrant is conducted on a domicile? a. Sexual assault
a. The house owner b. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Any member of the house owner’s family c. Rape
c. Two witnesses residing in the same d. None
community 245. How can plaster cast and photograph be
d. All of the above marked for identification?
a. Affixing a seal on the front
238. Which of the following is not one of the acts b. No mark at all
of committing violation of domicile? c. Marking at the back
a. Searching domicile without witness d. Tagging
b. Search warrants maliciously obtained and 246. Which among the five human senses is
abuse in the service of search warrant considered the most objective?
c. Search of the domicile without warrant a. Hearing
d. Entering a dwelling against the will of the b. Tasting
owner, searching documents, papers and effects c. Smelling
without the previous consent of the owner or refusing d. Seeing
to leave having surreptitiously entered a dwelling when 247. How can identification be made on a
required by the owner decomposed cadaver?
239. Senior Police Officer III Juvy and Police a. study his bones
Officer II Carlo arrested and detained Pedro Yen b. study his dentures
without warrant for the crime of theft. When brought c. study his skull
to the inquest prosecutor, the latter issued release d. all of these

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248. Rape by fraudulent machinations under RA 257. What is the occurrence in a sequence of or a
8353 can be committed either among the choices chain of events which usually produce unintended
except one. injury, death, or damage to property?
a. Promise to marry a. Calamity
b. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed b. Accident
c. Person in authority who arrest another and c. Crime
having sex with the latter with the promise of release d. Assault
from custody 258. What enforcement action consists of taking a
d. Sexual intercourse while the victim is person into custody for purpose of holding or detaining
unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason him to answer a charge of violation before a court?
249. Rights that can be waived except one. a. Traffic enforcement
a. Right to be informed of the provisions of RA b. Traffic patrol
7438 c. Traffic investigation
b. Right to remain silent d. Traffic arrest
c. Right to counsel 259. it is an accident, which is always accompanied
d. Right to be visited by an unidentified road user who usually flees
250. The essence of this crime is the taking and immediately after the said collision
transporting of a person against his will from one place a. motor vehicle traffic accident
to another. b. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
a. Kidnapping c. non-motor vehicle none traffic accident
b. Abduction d. hit and run cases
c. Illegal detention 260. it refers to the separation of traffic units in a
d. Coercion vehicular accident
a. final position
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT b. disengagement
INVESTIGATION c. hazards
d. stopping
251. What is the combination of verbal warning 261. refers to seeing, feeling or hearing and
and citations called? understanding an unsual or unexpected condition
a. Traffic consultation indicative of a sign the accident might takes place
b. Citation warnings a. initial contact
c. Written warnings b. perception of hazard
d. Traffic rules implementation c. starts of evasive action
252. The narrow portion of the roadway due to d. maximum engagement
traffic congestions or where “build up” usually occurs 262. interviewing person involved in a traffic
is called: accident what is the primary consideration to be taken
a. Gridlock by the police investigator
b. Traffic jam a. listen to both sides
c. Congestion b. conduct the interview jointly
d. Bottleneck c. conduct each interview separately
253. Republic Act 8750 is: d. listen only to all witness because they are not
a. Clean Air Act bias
b. Seatbelt Law 263. it refers to dangerous conduct and attitude,
c. Philippine Land Transportation Code which indicates lack of concern for injurious
d. Anti-Carnapping Law consequences likely to result from such a behavior
254. If the driver is involved in a traffic accident, a. drunk driving
he must report to the nearest police station: b. reckless driving
a. Within 48 hours c. reckless imprudence
b. After 3 hours d. reckless negligence
c. Within 72 hours 264. it is an enforcement action where in the
d. At once violator is commanded to appear in court but without
255. Detection, apprehension and penalization of detaining him
traffic violators. a. traffic arrest
a. Traffic Engineering b. traffic citation
b. Traffic Economy c. traffic warning
c. Traffic Enforcement d. dog watch
d. Traffic Ecology 265. are marks left on the roadway by tires, which
256. Maintenance and construction of roads, traffic are not free to rotate? Usually brakes are applied
ways and other traffic facilities by the DPWH, City strongly and the wheels locked
Engineer’s Office, City or Municipal Council’s, etc. a. skid marks
a. Traffic Engineering b. scuff marks
b. Traffic Enforcement c. key event
c. Traffic Education d. debris
d. Traffic Economy 266. a certain intersection, for several reason, has
more traffic accidents than any other does in the area.
The police unit assigned the area should

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a. park near the intersection, in plain view and 275. when there are two motor vehicle
wait for violators approaching the intersection almost at the same time,
b. cruise all the assigned area but give extra one is travelling along the national road and the other
attention the intersection is the secondary road. Who has the right of way?
c. park near the intersection, more or less a. Vehicle on the secondary road
hidden from view b. Vehicle on the national road
d. park your motorcycle at the center of c. Vehicle on the right
intersection to caution to motorist d. Vehicle on the left
267. it is a traffic observation or stationary 276. Every motor vehicle and trailer shall, during
observation in which the observer in which the the above-mentioned hours, also bear on each side in
observation in which the observer tries to attract the rear a lamp showing a red light visible at least
attention by keeping in full view of traffic _____the rear of the vehicle and a lamp throwing a
a. conspicuous white light upon the number plate issued for such
b. invisible vehicle.
c. concealed a. 100 meters
d. stationary b. 150 meters
268. the first accident touching between traffic c. 200 meters
units involving in the collision d. 50 meters
a. start of evasive action 277. Person who is responsible for the holding of
b. initial contact number of passenger, freights or cargo inside his public
c. perception of hazards utility motor vehicle
d. injury a. Driver
269. this traffic warning is really form of safety b. Operator
education by telling the violator that he has violated c. Dispatcher
the law and explain the hazards of such action. d. Conductor
a. Visual warning 278. When there are two or more emergency
b. Verbal warning vehicles approaching the same intersection from
c. Written warning different direction creating a probability conflict on an
d. Traffic control officer directing traffic at the intersection must give
270. what should the drivers do when an preference to one and cause the others to yield the
emergency vehicle approaches displaying legally right of way. Which vehicle should generally be given
authorized red light and sounding a siren least preference to proceed ahead?
a. continue driving slowly without regard of the a. Ambulance
emerging lane b. Fire truck
b. yield the right of way and wait for the passage c. Police car
of the vehicle d. Wrecker
c. pull aside and stop the car abruptly 279. What country first used traffic signs and
d. disregard the red light and siren symbols?
271. what method is used to determine whether a a. Germany
driver is under the influence of alcoholic beverages or b. France
not? c. America
a. Walking thru straight line d. England
b. Field sobriety test 280. These include pedestrians, pedal cyclists,
c. Counting drivers and passengers:
d. Balance a. Road obstructions
272. A driving privilege that allows the person to b. Road unit
operate a motor vehicle for livelihood c. Traffic units
a. Non-professional d. Road ways
b. Professional 281. A safety device installed at the roadside to
c. Sub-professional protect vehicles, which run out of control form falling
d. Unprofessional on steep slopes or hitting fixed objects:
273. Children who are prohibited to be seated in a. Signal cycle
the front seat of any running motor vehicle according b. Guard rail
to RA 11229 c. Cycle length
a. seven years old d. Drainage
b. under 12 years old
c. six years old and under 282. While approaching an intersection, the green
d. seven years old and under traffic light is on, however, a police officer suddenly
274. traffic management agencies failure in proceed to the center and signals a motorist to stop.
uplifting the driving behavior with the concept of What should the motorist do?
defensive driving is a result of the following except A. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution
a. management tolerance attitude B. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop
b. drivers’s lack of concern C. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and
c. corruption with in the bureaucracy cross the intersection
d. absence of pro-active approach D. Ignore the police officer and stop only when second
signal is made

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 293. On traffic enforcement, what do you call on
283. A marked stretch of road or street, designated the act of bringing a motor vehicle as a consequence
solely for the purpose of passing or overtaking: of traffic law violation?
a. Passing lane a. Confiscation
b. Shoulder b. impounding
c. Pavement c. Encumbrance
d. Curb d. Seizure
284. These signs are intended to inform road users 294. What lane indicates your driving lane, which
of special obligations, instructions or prohibitions which prohibits you from crossing on it?
motorists must comply: a. White dotted line
a. Regulatory b. Solid yellow
b. Place identification c. Cross walk
c. Danger warning d. Center
d. Bus and Jeepney stop 295. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which
285. This refers to the authorized or unauthorized usually produces unintended injury, death or property
use of the opposite lane of a two ways or separated damage.
road: a. traffic incidents
a. Counter flow b. traffic accidents
b. Overtaking c. traffic hazards
c. Passing through d. traffic events
d. Swerving 296. What is the Protocol Plate number of a Chief
286. An elevated structure built for the safety of Justice?
the pedestrians in crossing busy highways: a. 1
a. Flyover b. 3
b. Skyway c. 5
c. Underpass d. 7
d. Overpass 297. Is one who goes or travel on foot or in a
287. What is the modern procedure for coping with perambulator. He is bound to observe or obey rule the
streets and highwaytraffic by improving road existing traffic management and regulations for his
efficiency? safety.
a. Traffic engineering a. Passenger
b. Traffic education b. Pedestrian
c. Traffic management c. Conductor
d. Traffic direction d. Driver
288. Over speeding can cause traffic accident and 298. They are self-centered and not learned how
we attribute the same to: to be unselfish.
a. Unworthy vehicle a. Egotist
b. Human error b. Over-emotional
c. Traffic error c. Thwarted
d. Road deficiency d. Top Notch
289. It shall mean any motor vehicle with a trailer 299. These are incidents or instances of one
having no front axle and so attached that part of the moving traffic unit or person striking violently against
trailer rest upon the motor vehicle. another.
a. Articulated Vehicle a. Accident
b. Vehicle b. Collission
c. Motor Vehicle c. Gridlock
d. Trailers d. Traffic Congestions
290. He perfected the Macadamized road system 300. The 10th or the last Commandment of traffic
in England: is
a. John road a. Keep right
b. John Palmer b. The Philosophy of Pinoy Driver
c. John Mc Adam c. Safety First
d. John Negroponte d. Observe Traffic Management Measures
291. The inter-link between municipalities and 301. It is the 1st Commandment of traffic.
within the city proper with a right of way of 15 meters. a. Keep right
a. Provincial Road b. The Philosophy of Pinoy Driver
b. Barangay Road c. Safety First
c. Municipal Road d. Observe Traffic Management Measures
d. City Road 302. From the bottom, what is the arrangement of
292. It is painted on the pavement and placed at color of the traffic light?
intersections and other places to provide pedestrians a. red, yellow, green
with safety zone when crossing: b. green, red, yellow
a. Crosswalk c. green, amber, red
b. Lane d. red, green, yellow
c. Stop lines 303. Bonafide tourist and transients who are duly
d. Center licensed to operate motor vehicles in their respective

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countries may be allowed to operate motor vehicles d. Motor vehicles
during their stay but not beyond? 312. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal
a. 12 months combustion engine shall be equipped with a ____ as
b. 90 days said motor vehicle passes through a street of any city,
c. 60 days municipality or thickly populated district or barrio.
d. 3 years a. wiper
304. Wheel is believed to be originated in b. light
a. Western Asia c. muffler
b. America d. windshield
c. Africa 313. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a
d. Europe parade has been ordered by his superior to allow no
305. Single white dotted line indicates the all of the cars to cross the route. While the parade is in progress,
following EXCEPT an ambulance driver on an emergency run attempts to
a. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the drive his ambulance across the route while the parade
opposite directions is passing. Under these circumstances the traffic police
b. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one officer should
direction a. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer
c. absolutely no overtaking contact his superior and obtains decisions
d. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of b. stop the parade long enough to permit the
oncoming vehicle ambulance to cross the street
306. Single continuous line on a Four-lane c. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the
indicates all of the following EXCEPT superior's order
a. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of d. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour
oncoming possible which will add at least then minutes to run
b. when there are slow and fast lanes, NEVER overtake 314. When the applicant for student driver’s permit
by passing over the solid white line is between 16-18 years old, the most important
c. Lanes 1 and 4 (outer lanes) for slow moving vehicles. document he should submit is________________.
Vehicles on this lane should not be BELOW the a. Birth certificate
minimum speed limit b. Voter’s I.D.
d. Lanes 2 and 3 (inner lanes) are usually for faster c. Passport
moving vehicles d. Parent’s consent
307. A double yellow or white line with a dotted 315. When approaching in an intersection where
line in between means all EXCEPT the flashing yellow is on, the motorist
a. overtaking is extremely dangerous should_________________.
b. stay in your lane until you pass the end of the solid a. Stop and proceed with caution
lines b. Slow down and proceed with caution
c. absolutely no overtaking c. Reduce speed
d. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of d. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the
oncoming vehicle opposite direction
308. It declared as part of the laws of the 316. What the chronological arrangement of the
Philippines the Vienna Convention on Road Traffic, color of the traffic lights from the top?
Signs and signals. a. Yellow, red, green
a. PD 101 b. Red, yellow, green
b. PD 1686 c. Green, red, yellow
c. PD 612 d. Green, yellow, red
d. PD 207 317. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in
309. A number representing the resistance to preference to another vehicle or pedestrian.
sliding of two surfaces in contract is known as: a. Immunity
a. coefficient of friction b. Right of way
b. traffic jam c. Leniency
c. attribute d. Giving way
d. contact damage 318. in the examination of the scene of accident,
310. When two vehicles approach an intersection which of the following evidence will show how the
at approximately the same time, which shall have the accident happened
right of way? a. the driver under the influence of alcohol
a. The vehicle coming from the right b. hole on the road pavement
b. The vehicle coming from the center c. vehicle has break failure
c. The vehicle coming from the left d. point of impact
d. The one which arrives there first 319. what is the general rule for the movement of
311. Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
vehicle which is propelled by electric power obtained a. Keep left
from overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon b. Keep right
rails. c. Keep good
a. Skating d. Watch out
b. Bicycle 320. What is the movement of person good and
c. Tricycle vehicles either powered by an animal or and animal

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drawn vehicle on by combustion system from one place 328. For foreigner applicants for Non-Professional
to another Driver’s License, he must be at least ______ years old.
a. Engineering a. 16
b. Traffic b. 17
c. Traffic management c. 18
d. Construction d. 20
321. A systematic examination of all facts relating 329. Head lights shall be lighted ______________
to condition, action and physical features associated and whenever weather conditions so require, shall both
with motor collision is called be lighted.
a. Hit and run investigation a. not later than one-half hour after sunset and
b. Traffic accident investigation until at least one-half four before sunrise
c. Investigation b. not later than one hour after sunset and until
d. Traffic collision at least one hour before sunrise
322. A state or condition of severe road congestion c. not later than two hours after sunset and until
arising when continuous queues of vehicles block an at least two hours before sunrise
entire network of intersecting streets bringing traffic in d. always
all directions to a complete standstill.
a. Accident 330. In signaling, what is being used to
b. Collission supplement arm signals?
c. Gridlock a. Reflectorized jacket
d. Traffic Congestions b. Whistle
323. Lemon Law rights period refers to the period c. Horn
ending _______after the date of the original delivery d. Reflectorized gloves
of a brand new motor vehicle to a consumer or the 331. When a driver unloads passengers on the
______kilometers of operation after such delivery, middle of the road, he committed:
whichever comes first. a. Illegal unloading
a. 9 months , 15,000 b. Traffic obstruction
b. 10 months , 20,000 c. illegal stopping
c. 11 months, 15,000 d. Illegal loading
d. 12 months, 20,000 332. serves as an main artery that centers on big
324. The Lemon Law rights period, and after at volumes of vehicular traffic on national roadway.
leasts____separate repair attempts by the same a. expressway
manufacturer, distributor, authorized dealer or retailer b. subway
for the same complaint, and the nonconformity issue c. major highway
remains unresolved, the consumer may invoke his or d. feeder road
her rights under this Act. 333. it is a wholly police responsibility and entails
a. 3 times looking for defest in the behavior of the motorists,
b. 4 times pedestrian, vehicles and roadway condition
c. 5 times a. apprehension
d. 6 times b. detection
325. The following causes of nonconformity shall c. adjudication
be excluded: d. prosecution
a. Noncompliance by the consumer of the 334. when the applicant for student drivers permit
obligations under the warranty; is between 16-18 years old, the most important
b. All of the above document should submit is
c. Modifications not authorized by the a. birth certificate
manufacturer, distributor, authorized dealer or retailer; b. passport
d. Abuse or neglect of the brand new motor c. voters id
vehicle; and Damage to the vehicle due to accident or d. parents consent
force majeure. 335. what should drivers do when an emergency
326. This is usually characterized by a motor vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red
vehicle falling on the road side or cliff along light and sounding a siren
mountainous roads a. continue driving slowly without regard of the
a. Non-collision on the road emerging vehicle
b. Running off road b. yield the right of way and wait for the passage
c. Collision on the road of the vehicle
d. Hazardous condition of the road c. pull aside and stop the car abruptly
d. disregard the redlight and siren
327. Refers to the entire width between boundary 336. what is the most important, in determining
lines of every way or place of which any part is open the skidding distance of a motor vehicle
to use of the public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a. drivers driving attitude
a matter of right or custom. b. tire material of the motor vehicle
a. Traffic way c. slipperiness of the road surface
b. Roadway d. speed of the motor vehicle
c. Skyway 337. when a driver unloads passengers on the
d. Expressway middle of the road, he committed

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a. illegal unloading e. Nota
b. traffic obstruction 346. One of the world’s first electric traffic lights
c. illegal loading was developed in 1912 in Utah, USA by _______a
d. illegal stopping detective on the city police force.
338. conveyance of person and goods from one a. Wester Lire
place to another is b. Lester Wire
a. vehicle c. Lester lire
b. transportation d. Wester Wire
c. traffic 347. The first state in U.S that put up the first
d. carrier automatic (three colored) lights
339. the following are characteristics of human a. Boston
errors that cause traffic congestion, except b. Massachusetts
a. lack of due diligence on the part of c. Philadelphia
pedestrians d. New York
b. lack of presence of uniformed traffic enforcers 348. It is a building in which two or more motor
c. bad driving habits like slow drivers vehicles, either with or without drivers, are kept ready
d. poor legislative traffic regulation and activities for hire to the public, but shall not include street
340. which of the following is the objective of stands, public service stations, or other public places
traffic engineering to achieve efficient, free and rapid designated by the proper authority as parking spaces
flow of traffic for motor vehicles for hire while waiting or soliciting
a. so that the motorists and other road users can business.
avoid traffic accident a. Car outlet
b. all of these b. Garage
c. so that the motorists and other road users will c. Parking
have enjoyable and convenient ride dr. All of the above
d. so that motorists and other road users can 349. JUWIL is a driver permitted by the
reach their destination safely and on time government to operate a public utility jeepney. Which
341. Early Warning Device must be of the following driving privilege he must possess
installed___________ to the front and at the rear of a. Non-professional license
the motor vehicle whenever the motorcycle is b. Professional license
stationary for any reason, or it is compelled to stop on c. Sub-professional license
an area where standing or parking is prohibited. d. Professional driver’s license
a. At least at least 3 meters 350. What do you call a mark produced by a a
b. At least at least 4 meters vehicle traveling in an arc or curved direction
c. At least at least 5 meters a. Skid mark
d. At least at least 6 meters b. Scuff mark
342. The general principle of traffic accident c. Centrifugal force
investigation is to d. Centrifugal skid
a. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather 351. As a rule, maximum speed limits are
than as causes KVB necessary for the use of our streets. The following are
b. consider violation as primary causes and any other instances when these maximum speed limits may not
factors as secondary causes be observed except
c. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately a. Drivers who are member of the PNP or the
prior to the accident as a cause AFP
d. look for the "key event" that cause the accident b. Any drivers bringing wounded or sick person
343. The combination of simultaneous and for emergency treatment
sequential factors without any one of which result c. The driver or his passengers who are in
could not have occurred. pursuit of a criminal
a. Factor d. A physician or his driver when responding to
b. Cause emergency call
c. Attribute
d. Modifier. FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON
344. Whenever the load of any vehicle extends INVESTIGATION
_____beyond the bed or body, there shall be displayed PUROY is known “Pyromaniac”. He set some
at every projecting end of such load a red flag not less combustible liquids such as petroleum on the
than thirty centimeters both in length and width warehouse of TEAM PAHIRAP. He succeeded his
a. More than two meter criminal acts and results into total damages not
b. More than one meter exceeding to twenty million pesos.
c. More than two centimeter
d. More than one centimeter 352. From the foregoing statement, who shall have
345. The following are the three E’s of traffic the power and authority to investigate such fire
management, except incidents?
a. Economy a. municipal fire marshall
b. Engineering b. City Fire Marshal
c. Enforcement c. District Fire Marshal
d. Education d. Provincial Fire Marshal

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353. From the foregoing statement, assuming that a. Boiling point
the total damage total damages amounting to above b. Kindling point
thirty million pesos but not exceeding to forty million c. Fire point
pesos. Who shall have the power and authority to d. Flash point
investigate such fire incidents? 362. Fire can leapfrog across wide mall and
a. BFP, Regional Director shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This
b. Chief, Bureau of Fire Protection heat transfer is
c. District Fire Marshal a. Conduction
d. Provincial Fire Marshal b. Convection
c. Reaction
d. Radiation
354. From the foregoing statement in case chief 363. What is the material that easily yield oxygen
bureau of fire protection shall take over the in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support
investigation what should be the range of damages as combustion
stated by law. a. Smoke
a. total amount of damage not exceeding to b. Oxidizing material
thirty million pesos. c. Fuel
b. total damages amounting to above Thirty d. Ember
Million Pesos, but not exceeding to forty million pesos 364. Is the process of purification of a substance
c. total amount of damage not exceeding to or a form. In liquid it is done by distillation or fractional
sixty million pesos (to separate the component parts of a mixture e.g
d. total damages amounting to above sixty petrelum refineries
million pesos. a. Refining
b. Smelting
355. From the foregoing statement what if PUROY c. Vaporization
is the one who call the firefighter what type of d. sublimation
pyromaniac ? 365. A chemical reaction that occurs when any
a. Sexual addict matter or substance combines with oxygen and
b. Drug addict undergoes a physical change is known as
c. Hero type a. Dehydration
d. Imbecile b. Oxidation
356. From the foregoing situation, what is the c. Fission
appropriate extinguishing agent to be used? d. Charcoal
a. Water 366. Under normal condition the composition of
b. AFFF oxygen in air is about
c. Sand a. 12%
d. Dry Chemical b. 14%
357. From the foregoing scenario, what type of fire c. 21%
maybe classified? d. 26%
a. Class A 367. It is chemical property of fire which refers to
b. Class C the changes whereby energy is absorbed or is added
c. Class B before the reaction takes place
d. Class K a. Exothermic reaction
b. Endothermic reaction
358. What is the measurement of the degree of c. Ectothermic reaction
thermal agitation of molecules d. Mesothermic reaction
a. Ignition point 368. Any liquid fuel with specific gravity of less
b. Flash point than one will?
c. Temperature a. Float in water
d. Boiling point b. Sink in water
359. A metric unit measure of degree temperature c. Mix with water
is know as d. Dissolve
a. Fahrenheit 369. The weight of a vapor compared to the weight
b. Celsius of an equal volume of air is known as
c. B+U a. Vapor density
d. Calorie b. Vapor pressure
360. Heat energy transmitted from the sun in the c. Specific gravity
form of electromagnetic radiation is known as d. Flammable range
a. Electrical heat energy 370. Fired are classified by the
b. Solar heat energy a. Intensity of heat
c. Mechanical energy b. Size or are covered
d. Chemical energy c. Fuel burning
361. It is the minimum temperature to which the d. Length of the flame
substance in the air must be heated in order to iniate 371. A burning magnesium is classified is classified
combustion or cause self contained combustion as
without the addition of heat from outside sources a. Class A

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b. Class B 380. It is a normally open device installed inside an
c. Class C air duct system which automatically closes to
d. Class D restrict the passage of smoke or fire.
372. The phase of the fire which occurs when air is a. Jumper
not properly introduced into the area involved where b. Damper
unburned carbon particles and other flammable c. Hose Box
products of combustion are still available is known as d. Smelting
a. Roll-over phase 381. It is any material or mixture consisting of a
b. Flash over phase fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.
c. Hot smoldering phase a. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
d. Back draft b. Blasting Agent
373. What is the enclosed space of passage that c. Combustible Fiber
extend from floor to floor as well as from the bases to d. Corrosive Liquid
the top of the building 382. It is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor
a. Vertical shat used to bypass a safety device in an electrical
b. Sprinkler system system.
c. Standpipe a. Jumper
d. Flash point b. Damper
374. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, c. Hose Box
having a fire resistance rating of not less than four d. Smelting
hopurs with sufficient structural stability to remain 383. The amount of heat to produce a change of
standing even if construction on either side collapses phase is called____
under fire condition a. Latent heat
a. Firewood b. Specific Heat
b. Fire wall c. Absorbed heat
c. Post wall d. Heat
d. Fire trap 384. System of interconnected pipe that supplies
375. Which of the following is considered as the water for fire suppression system in a particular
most effective fixed installation for controlling fire installation.
which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads a. Wet pipe
located near the ceiling? b. Dry pipe
a. Fire hydrant c. Stand pipe
b. Automatic water sprinkler d. Sprinkler
c. Fire extinguisher 385. Product of fire that is detected by gas
d. Standpipe chromatogram and ion spectrometer.
376. Most arson cases are proved a. Flames
by__________________ evidence rather than that b. Soot
direct evidence. c. Heat
a. Circumstantial d. Fire gases
b. Documentary 386. What is the act of removing or neutralizes a
c. Testimonial fire hazard?
d. Physical a. distillation
377. sWhen carbon monoxide is absent in the b. abatement
blood of the dead body found in a burned structure, c. allotment
this will be a strong circumstantial evidence that the d. combustion
person: 387. Which of the following occur when a room is
a. Was dead when the fire began heated enough that flame sweep over the entire
b. Was killed by someone else during the blaze surface
c. Was still alive before the fire a. oxidation
d. Died due to suffocation b. backdraft
378. A popular chemical element used by the c. flash over
arsonist to hide the odor of flammable liquids. d. combustion
a. Sulfides 388. What type of ladder is best suited for
b. Nitrates firefighting operation involving high-rise building?
c. Sulfur a. attic
d. Ammonia b. aerial
379. It is used to include not only architects c. extension
responsible for the design and erection of a complete d. hook
building but also the various specialist engineers who 389. The cause of the majority of the death is
may be concerned with the structure, the electrical a. infection
installation, the heating ventilation system and so on. b. burns
a. Building contractors c. shock
b. Designers d. asphyxiation
c. Office of building permits 390. The use of one or more electrical appliances
d. Building planners or devices which draw or consumes electrical current

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beyond the deigned capacity of the existing electrical 400. Any action taken by the firefighters to remove
system. occupants/ persons from building/ hazards to a safety
a. self closing door place
b. overloading a. Salvage
c. jumper b. Rescue
d. shocker c. Evacuation
391. Which of the following best illustrate arson d. None of these
a. simultaneous wiring 401. The activity of protecting the properties from
b. leaking of gas pipes preventable damage other than the fire.
c. accident a. Salvage
d. spontaneous combustion b. Rescue
392. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a c. Evacuation
hose they usually lean forward on the hose. What is d. None of these
the most likely reason for taking this position 402. A fatal condition that takes place when the
a. the stream is projected farther fire resists extinguishment operations and become
b. the firemen can see better where the stream strikes stronger and bigger instead.
c. the surrounding air is cool making the firemen a. Thermal Balance
comfortable b. Thermal imbalance
d. backward force is developed which must be counter c. Backdraft
acted d. Biteback
393. If the arson is only the means to killing the 403. Better known as dust explosion. This may
victim, the crime that you have to files is happen when the metal post that is completely covered
a. murder with arson with dust is going to be hit by lightning.
b. murder a. Flash fire
c. arson b. Flash
d. homicide and arson c. Flashlight
394. what is the most effective cooling agent for d. Flash amber
firefighting operation e. Nota
a. CO2
b. H20 404. a liquefied gas which exists in its container at
c. dry chemical temperature far below normal atmospheric
d. CO temperature, usually slightly above its boiling point and
395. Aside from reducing the temperature fire in correspondingly low to moderate pressure.
the flaming mode of combination may be extinguished a. Liquefied Gas
by b. Compressed Gas
a. inhibition of chain reaction c. Cryogenic Gas
b. lack of oxygen d. Nota
c. any of the above 405. . It is a phenomena in which a combustible
d. removal of fuel materials generates or produces heat because of
396. Cooling is the best and practical way of internal chemical action (oxidation) and eventually
extinguishing a ignites without any exposure to external sources of
a. class a fire, spark or abnormal heat.
b. class b a. Pyrolysis
c. class c b. Combustion
d. class d c. Spontaneous Combustion
397. The term ___ is the manner in which fuel d. Fire
ignites, flame develops and fire spread 406. A flame when there is complete combustion
a. fire technology of fuel and has relatively high temperature. It does not
b. fire starter deposit soot because it is a product of complete
c. fire behavior combustion
d. fire triangle a. Luminous Flame
398. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to b. Non-Luminous Flame
facilitate flame propagation. c. Premixed Flame
a. Accelerant d. Diffusion Flame
b. Plant 407. It is the proportion of a roadway or public
c. Trailer way that should be kept open and unobstructed at all
d. Nota times for the expedient operation of firefighting units.
399. This activity involves developing and defining a. Fire Lane
systematic course of actions that maybe performed in b. Forcing
order to realize the objectives of fire protection: c. Fulminate
involves the process of establishing the SOP in case fire d. Hypergolic Fuel
breaks out. 408. Extinguished a fire by excluding or depriving
a. Pre fire planning it of oxygen is known as
b. evaluation size up a. Smothering
c. evacuation b. Quenching
d. entry c. Starring

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d. Inhibiting A. a.fire point
409. The technique used in clearing a building of B. b.ignition temperature
smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is C. c.none of these
a. Smoke ejector D. d.flash point
b. Forced ventilation
c. Cross ventilation
d. Vertical ventilation 419. What should the firefighter do what
410. Rate of temperature of fire. ventilating a peaked roof?
a. Heat a.make opening at right angel to ridge pool
b. Magnitude b.make opening on ridge pole on windward side of the
c. Intensity roof
d. Ignition point c.dip off roof covering on lead side and cut sheathing
d.make opening on windward side of the roof peak
411. It is performed to assess the safety of an 420. Conduction is heat transfer through
installation from destructive fires. a. electromagnetic waves
a. Fire control b. air motion
b. Fire prevention c. smoke
c. Fire safety d. solid materials
d. Fire inspection
412. Product of combustion which combustible 421. . What are the cross numbers between the
materials and oxidizing agents react to heat. beam and used in climbing the ladder called?
a. Fire a. Hangar
b. Smoke b. rungs
c. Fire Gases c. beams
d. Flame d. braces
413. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the 422. this phase of fire operation is equivalent to
spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred. the reconnaissance phase of military operation
a. Alligatoring a. salvage
b. Discoloration b. overhaul
c. Collapse c. protection of exposure
d. Charring d. size-up
423. the three sides of the fire triangle are:
414. If the motive of fire is due to insanity, who a. fuel heat and a reactor
among the following is the probable perpetrator? b. heat oxygen and reactor
a. Jolted lover c. fuel, heat and oxygen
b. Rebel d. a reactor, oxygen and fuel
c. Terrorist 424. heat can be derived from electrical energy by
d. Pyromaniac any of the following , except
a. arcing
415. Which of the following will not cause the b. short circuiting
investigator to hypothesize that the series of fires are c. friction
not performed by a serial arsonist? d. overloading
a. There is a significant difference in modus operandi 425. . It is an integrated system of underground or
in all series of fire overhead piping connected to a source of extinguishing
b. There is significant variations as to the time of the agent or medium, designed in accordance with fire
commission of arson protection engineering standards to include, but not
c. There is a significant similarity in manner of limited to Automatic Fire Sprinkler System which when
commission of offense actuated by its automatic detecting device suppresses
d. Similar devices were used to propagate the fire fire within the area protected even without human
416. Why water is prohibited to quench class D intervention.
fires? a. Automotive Service Station
a. burning metals are too hot b. Automatic Fire Suppression System (AFSS)
b. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire c. City/Municipal Fire Marshal (C/MFM)
c. there is the danger of electrocution d. None of the above
d. explosion may occur 426. It is an assembly of equipment, such as
417. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it oxygen storage containers, pressure regulators,
is necessary to determine whether ventilating is safety devices, vaporizers, manifolds and
necessary and, if so, the method to ventilate. Which is interconnecting piping, for supplying a regulated flow
of LEAST value in making such decision? of oxygen to a pipeline.
a.observing density of smoke through windows a. Brush
b.observing the points at which smoke may be oozing b. Cellulose Nitrate/ Nitrocellulose
out from the building c. Blasting Agent
c.feeling walls and roofs for hot spots d. Bulk Oxygen System
d.observing the color of the flame 427. it refers to a thick, viscous, light, and stable
418. In a combustion process, which event comes material that floats on almost any liquid, including
first?

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water. This has the effect of excluding the oxygen drug to himself of herself unless administered by a duly
during fire fighting operations. licensed practitioner for purposes of medication
a. Blanket a. administer
b. Carbon dioxide b. deliver
c. Foam c. dispense
d. Dry chemical d. use
e. BCF-Halon 1211 436. It is any act of knowingly, planting, growing
428. AFFF means? raising or permitting the planting, growing or raising of
a. Aqueaous Film Forming Foam any plant which is the source of a dangerous drug
b. Aqueaous filter Forming Foam a. cultivation
c. Aqeous Filter Foam Forming b. manufacture
d. Aqueaous Film Forming Formin c. administration
429. Chemical decomposition of matter through d. trafficking
the action of heat. 437. it is a facility used for the illegal manufacture
a. Flash over of any dangerous drug and or controlled precursor and
b. Ignition essential chemical
c. Pyrolysis a. Illegal drugs laboratory
d. Combustion b. Clandestine laboratory
430. it is the visible product of incomplete c. Shabu laboratory
combustion, usually a mixture of oxygen, nitrogen, d. Drug laboratory
carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, finely divided 438. Generally, the drugs that produce a relaxing
particles of soot and carbon and miscellaneous state without impairment of high facilities or the
assortment of product released from the burning inducement of sleep are known as:
material a. barbiturates
a. vapor b. tranquilizers
b. steam c. stimulants
c. smoke d. narcotics
d. gas 439. What is the first natural stimulant discovered?
431. What is the safest practice to use if fire occurs a. nicotine
in a flow of liquefied petroleum gas storage tank and b. caffeine
the flow cannot be checked? c. ephedrine
a. Use foam to put off the fire d. epinephrine
440. The following are the elements in convicting
b. Use fog to extinguish the fire a person for illegal possession of dangerous drugs,
c. Permit the fire to burn itself EXCEPT:
a. the accused is in possession of an item or
d. Use sand to smother the flame object which is identified to be a prohibited drug
432. Those materials that yield oxygen or other b. such possession is not authorized by law
oxidizing gases during the process of a chemical c. the accused freely and consciously possessed
reaction. the said drug
a. fuel d. he must be positive for drug use
b. oxygen 441. According to the UNODC Report on
c. heat Transnational Threat of Afghan Opium, the following
d. self-sustained chemical reaction are the primary sources of funding for insurgent
433. A colorless, odorless gas and one of the activities in Afghanistan, EXCEPT:
composition of air which is approximately 21 % by a. private foreign donations, including diversion
volume. and fraud by legitimate charities
a. Fuel b. taxes levied on the population in areas under
b. oxygen control of influence
c. heat c. “pure” criminality – trafficking in drugs, arms
d. self-sustained chemical reaction and humans, among others; kidnapping for ransom
434. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion and extortion
reaction is known as? d. sympathetic governments
a. Reducing agent 442. This may allow legitimately imported
b. oxidizing agent controlled precursors and essential chemicals into the
c. temperature hands drug traffickers:
d. none of these a. drug trafficking
b. controlled delivery
VICE EDUCATION AND DRUG CONTROL c. chemical diversion
d. both “b” and “c”
435. it is any act of introducing any dangerous 443. The investigative technique which may be
drug into the body of any person, with ot without his used during interdiction drugs coming from other
or her knowledge, by injection, inhalation, ingestion or countries:
other means or of committing any act of indespensible a. casing
assistance to a person in administering a dangerous b. controlled delivery
c. undercover

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d. joint investigation c. Disqualification to exercise the rights to
444. This exists when the drug is under the dispose property
dominion and control of the accused or when he has d. Disqualification to the right to contract
the right to exercise dominion and control over the marriage
place where it is found: 452. This is the policy making and strategy-
a. possession formulating body in the planning and formulation of
b. constructive possession policies and programs on drug prevention and control:
c. actual possession a. PDEA
d. animus possidendi b. DDB
445. Whenever a group comprising of ____ c. DOJ
persons is found to be in possession of any dangerous d. DILG
drugs, they shall be punished with the maximum 453. The following shall be subjected to undergo
penalty imposable. drug testing, except
a. four a. Officer and employees of private companies
b. three b. Applicant for firearms license
c. five c. Applicant for driver license
d. two d. Applicants for voters id
446. What is the period of rehabilitation for first 454. The amount of drug that produces untoward
offenders? effect for symptoms of poisoning
a. at least six months a. Minimal dose
b. at least twelve months b. Toxic dose
c. six months c. Abusive dose
d. twelve months d. Maximal dose
447. In case physical inventory was not conducted 455. National campaign strategy against illegal
at the place where the search warrant was is served, drugs, focus of which is through law enforcement,
under what instance the evidentiary value of the drug prosecution and judicial action
evidence seized shall not be rendered void or invalid? a. Demand reduction
a. As long as the integrity and the evidentiary b. Supply reduction
value of the seized items are properly preserved by the c. Inter-agency coordination
apprehending officer/team d. International cooperation
b. If there was proper coordination with the 456. When the organism is too accustomed with a
PDEA certain chemical, it will no longer react to such
c. The operating officers were authorized by particular substance. The need for additional amount
means of warrant or valid buy-bust operation to achieve the desired effect is necessary.
d. The drug evidence or paraphernalia were a. Addiction
properly received and signed by the owner of the b. Habituation
house c. Tolerance
448. The possession of any equipment, instrument d. Abstinence
or paraphernalia fit or intended to be used for 457. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse
consuming, injecting or smoking dangerous drugs is a hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control
presumption that: becomes difficult according to some authorities due to
a. the person is drug pusher the fact that:
b. that he is guilty of the charge a. It is easy to smoke it secretly
c. the person is a drug user b. It is sellable in the market
d. that he just came out from rehabilitation c. It is easy to cultivate
449. Ocular inspection of the confiscated or seized d. It is in demand
dangerous drugs must be done within _____ hours 458. The Golden Triangle are the producers of
after filing of appropriate charges. opium in south East Asia are composed of which
a. 60 country?
b. 48 a. Thailand, Burma, Laos
c. 24 b. Thailand, Myanmar, Laos
d. 72 c. Peru, Colombia, Bolivia
450. a drug syndicate is any organized group of d. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan
___ or more person forming or joining together with 459. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the
the intention of committing any offense enumerated by indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and
RA 9165 corruption of the minds and body.
a. Three a. Prostitution
b. Two b. Gambling
c. Four c. Drug addiction
d. Five d. Vice
451. The following are the accessory penalties for 460. The head of the PDEA is known as the
violation of RA 9165 except Director General with a rank of ______________?
a. Disqualification to exercise parental authority a. Secretary
and guardianship b. Assistant Secretary
b. Disqualification to exercise the right to vote c. Undersecretary
and be voted for d. Senior Secretary

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461. if a person devotes considerable time and
effort in obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing 469. Kinds of drug that excite the central nervous
about it and using it to meet his problems and to system, increasing alertness, decreasing fatigue and
escape from reality, he is _____________. delaying sleep.
a. socially dependent on drugs a. Narcotic
b. mentally dependent on drugs b. Hallucinogen
c. psychological dependent on drugs c. Shabu
d. physically dependent on drugs d. Stimulant
462. What are the symptoms of the use 470. Considered as the most powerful natural
amphetamines. (June 2019 Board Exam Question) stimulant.
a. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, a. Tetrahydrocannabinnol
color b. Cocaine hydrochloride
b. False perceptions of objects and experiences c. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
c. Excitement, alertness and weakfulness d. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
d. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability 471. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading
463. Can a high school student be compelled to of opium in China by the British Indies that lead to the
undergo drug test? (October 2015 Board Exam Opium War of 1840.
Question) a. Lao Tzu
a. Yes b. Sun Tzu
b. it depends c. Yung Chen
c. maybe d. Mao Zedong
d. no 472. Known as the “Father of Medicine”. He
464. Among the following, who was the German prescribed opium poppy juice in surgery which was
pharmacist who discovered the morphine drug? cultivated by the Summerrians during 7000 BC.
a. Allan Heithfield a. Hippocrates
b. Albert Hoffman b. Morpreus
c. Freidrich Serturner c. Confucious
d. Alder Wright d. Socrates
465. . The part of the body most affected to by 473. Operation of drug syndicates are usually
heavy drinking are: made secretly that makes it detection quite difficult.
a. digestive system and nervous system Various techniques were made by its operator in
b. brain and veins of the body concealing their activities.
c. the lungs and heart a. Hide –out operation
d. None of the above b. Disguised operation
466. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and c. Clandestine Operation
subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct of d. Confidential
investigation involving the violations of RA 9165. 474. People feels EUPHORIA when taking drugs,
a. True which means:
b. False a. states of exhaustion
c. Partially True b. states of sleepiness
d. Partially False c. states of well being
467. is a citizen-based information collection d. states of sadness
program designed to encourage the active participation 475. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug
of private citizens to report illegal drug activities in their Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
communities. We need to establish trust, confidence a. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
and maintain a mutually beneficial relationship b. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry
between PDEA and the public for a unified effort firearms outside residence.
combating the drug menace in our country,” c. Officers and Members of the Military, police and
a. Operation Neptune Sphere other law enforcement agencies.
b. Operation Private Eye d. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office
c. Operation Green Gold with a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of
d. Operation Double Barrel not less than six (6) years and one (1) days.
468. There are two schools of thoughts as regards 476. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and
prostitution. What school of thoughts believes that considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics
prostitution is both a crime and vice and should be substance.
repressed and prohibited? a. Codeine
a. The School of Regulatory Control b. Heroin
b. The School of Prostitution Control b. Morphine
c. The School of Total Repression c. Opium Poppy
d. The School of Total Control and Repression 477. The Golden Triangle produces how many
a. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes percent of opium in the world?
having the properties of increasing stamina and/or a. 60%
energy. a. Ecstasy b. 70%
b. Shabu c. 80%
c. MDMA d. 90%
d. Anabolic Steroid

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478. Which of the following country in the Middle 488. Which law was repealed by the
East is the biggest producer of cannabis sativa? Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2022?
a. Lebanon a. RA 6452
b. Iraq b. RA 6425
c. Kuwait c. RA 6542
d. Afghanistan d. RA 6245
479. The major transshipment point for 489. it is a drug extracted from the leaves of coca
international drug traffickers in Europe and known to that has the same effect as amphetamines :
be the “Paradise of Drug Users” in this continent a. Codeine
a. Portugal b. Opium
b. Spain c. Marijuana
c. Germany d. Cocaine
d. Turkey 490. it is a pharmacological classification of drugs
480. Principal source of all forms of cocaine which has the function of stimulating the central
a. South East Asia nervous system :
b. South America a. Depressants
c. Middle East b. Stimulants
d. South West Asia c. Hallucinogens
481. The Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB) is d. Narcotics
composed of _____ members: 491. This pharmacological classification of drugs is
a. Twelve also called downers:
b. Ten a. Depressants
c. Seventeen b. Stimulants
d. Fifteen c. Hallucinogens
d. Narcotics
482. The ___ shall be the permanent consultants 492. This pharmacological classification of drugs
of the DDB: refers to the group of drugs that are used medically to
a. Secretary of the DOJ and Director of the NBI relieve pain:
b. Director of the NBI and Chief of PNP a. Depressants
c. Secretary of DOH and Secretary of DOJ b. Stimulants
d. Head of PDEA and Chief of the PNP c. Hallucinogens
483. It is a place where any dangerous drug and/or d. Narcotics
controlled precursor and essential chemical is 493. This is more commonly referred to as “poor
administered, delivered, stored, for illegal purposes, man’s cocaine”:
distributed, sold or used in any form: a. Heroine
a. House off ill-repute b. Shabu
b. Discotheque c. Marijuana
c. Drug club d. Cocaine
d. Drug den 494. it is a process of withdrawing a person from
484. This refers to the onset of a predictable an addictive substance , in a safe and effective manner
constellation of signs and symptoms involving altered , by the removal of the toxic or harmful effects of the
activity of the central nervous system after the abrupt addictive substance:
discontinuation or rapid decrease in dosage of a drug a. Withdrawal
and is usually characterized by tremor or convulsion: b. Tolerance
a. withdrawal symptoms c. Detoxification
b. withdrawal d. Intoxication
c. tolerance 495. It is the recurrence of alcohol or drug
d. addiction dependent behavior in an individual who has previously
485. It is the chemical name for the designer drug, achieved and maintained abstinence for a significant
ecstasy: time beyond the period of detoxification:
a. Methylene-Dioxymethamphetamine a. Remission
b. Methamphetamine hydrochloride b. Relapse
c. Papaversomniferum c. Tolerance
d. Cannabis sativa L d. Withdrawal
486. What group of drugs are used medically as 496. the ____ shall designate special courts from
pain killers ? among the existing RTC in each judicial region to
a. opiates exclusively try and hear case involving violation of RA
b. track 9165
c. shabu a. DOJ
d. coke b. DDB
487. The source of most analgesic narcotic is ___ c. SC
a. all of these d. Sandiganbayan
b. morphine 497. A degree of intoxication when drunken person
c. heroine does not know the intoxicating strength of the
d. Opium beverage he has taken is
a. Intentional intoxication

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b. Involuntary intoxication 506. Exhibited when a user relies on a drug to
c. Habitual intoxication achieve a feeling of well- being it is also arises from the
d. Moderate intoxication ability to function normally
498. Is the term or name used when referring to a. Addiction
all kinds of prostitutes b. Habituation
a. Whore c. Psychological dependence
b. Call girl d. Physical dependence
c. Street walker
d. Factory girl 507. It is the process of undergoing or producing
499. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily gradual chemical change which later becones sour in
a responsibility of what institution so as to prevent its taste. It is the breakdown of complex molecules in
members from being hook to addiction? organic components caused by the influence of yeast
a. Church or other substance
b. Family a. Distillation
c. Barangay b. Intoxication
d. School c. Fermentation
500. It is the willful act by any person of d. Adulteration
maliciously and surreptitiously inserting, placing, 508. This Japanese term means “waking”
adding or attaching directly or indirectly, through any a. Kakuzeizai
overt or covert act, of any dangerous drug in the b. Kakuzei
person, house, effect or in the immediate vicinity of an c. Kakazei
innocent individual for the purpose of implicating, d. Kakuzai
incriminating or imputing the commission of any 509. He was the leader of the medellin cartel in
violation of RA 9165 Columbia
a. Incriminatory machination a. Pablo escobar
b. Planting of evidence b. Charles lucky Luciano
c. Instigation c. Meyer lansky
d. Entrapment d. Bugsy siegel
501. The term custodia legis means 510. It is any substance that brings about physical,
a. Custody of the law enforcement psychological and behavioral changes in a person
b. Custody of the prosecutor taking it
c. Custody of law a. Antibiotics
d. Custody of judge b. Medicines
502. When a person who is know as drug addict by c. Substance
his pwn volition ceased by taking ellegal drugs, he/she d. Drug
is 511. After mayor tikboy was convicted for being
a. In abstinence coddler and drug trafficker, he now comes to the sala
b. Into wellness of RTC judge PUROY. Can the mayor avail the benefit
c. In self healing of probation
d. In self medication a. No, drug traffickers like mayor TIKBOY is
503. Which of the following does not carry a capital considered a predator and thus categorically
punishment disqualified from availing the benefits of probation
a. Possession of 20 grams morphine b. No, he cannot avail probation because the law
b. Possession of 100 grams of marijuana is for minor offenders only
c. Possession of 15 grams MDMA c. Yes, the law covers all violators regardless of
d. Possession of 60 grams of shabu the nature of violation as long as the penalty does not
504. Apprehending team having initial custody and exceed 6 years of imprisonment
control of dangerous drugs or controlled precursor of d. Yes, if probation is viewed beneficial by the
chemical or plant sources of dangerous drugs or court
laboratory equipment shall immediately after seizure, 512. The chief investigator, P/CORPORAL JUWIL of
physical inventory and photograph the same in the San Juan municipal police station failed to testify on
presence of the following except drug case she handled at the said station. Can he be
a. To person from whom such items were held liable under the law
confiscated or his representative or counsel a. Yes, such failure is punishable by 12 years
b. A representative from the media and 1 day to 20 years of imprisonment
c. A representative fROM DOJ b. Yes, if such failure was intentionally or
d. Representative from NPS negligently made and after due notice has been
505. The PDEA is headed by a director general with accorded
the rank of undersecretary assisted by two deputies c. No, unless the failure is done with malice
and is appointed by d. No, there is no rule that failure to testify is
a. SILG criminal violation
b. SOJ 513. Specific provision of the comprehensive
c. President dangerous drug act which provides for illegal sale of
d. COA dangerous drug
a. Art 2 sec 5
b. Art 3 sec 5

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c. Art 4 sec 5 523. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive
d. Art 5 sec 5 Drug Act of 2002, except: (June 2018 BEQ)
514. An analytical test using some tools or device a. Cultivation, culture and delivery,
design to validate or affirm the result of a preliminary b. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and
or screening test trading,
a. Screening test c. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
b. Physical test d. Transportation, distribution, importation,
c. Confirmatory test exportation and possession
d. Chemical test 524. Drug addicts when under the influence of
515. Any person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs are menace to the Community because they:
drugs for the second time shall be punished with a. Are violently insane
a. Imprisonment of 6 years and one day to 12 b. Ruin their life/health
years c. Flagrantly immoral
b. A fine of 50,00 to 200,000 pesos d. Feel no restraint in committing crimes
c. Imprisonment of 6 months and one day to 6 525. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
years a. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
d. A fine of 100,000 to 500,000 b. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
516. Transshipment point of all forms of heroin in c. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the
the world. stalk
a. Japan d. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose
b. Hongkong edges are serrated in shape
c. Philippines 526. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?
d. Burma a. solvent
517. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white b. Narcotic
heroin is from; c. hallucinogen
a. The Golden Crescent d. depressant
b. The Golden Triangle 527. Which of the factors below is perceived to be
c. Hongkong the major cause of initial drug abuse?
d. Silver Triangle a. poor environment
b. experimental thrill
518. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells; c. domestic violence
mescaline is: d. peer pressure
a. Buttons 528. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred
b. Dope Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is considered as
c. Brain eaters the world’s Oldest cultivated plant which is the source
d. Herbals of dangerous drug.
519. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the a. Papaver Somniferum
commercial trade marijuana, it is: b. Cannabis Sativa
a. Concentrated resin extracted from marijuana c. Coca Plant
b. Dried flower of marijuana d. Ephedrine
c. Fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa 529. A degree of Intoxication wherein the mind is
d. Finest and high grade leaves of marijuana plant confused, behavior is irregular and the movement is
520. This drug is representative of a broad class of uncontrolled. The speech is thick and in coordinated.
stimulants known as “pep pills”. It is usually prescribed The behavior is uncontrollable.
to reduce appetite and to relieve minor cases of mental a. Slight Inebriation
depression. b. Moderate Inebriation
a. Amphethamine c. Drunk
b. Ecstasy d. Coma
c. Methamphetamine 530. How would you describe the structural design
d. Shabu of Mexican cartels?
521. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug a. Highly structured
related cases? b. fluid, diverse and flexible
a. Public Attorney’s Office c. Politically oriented
b. Ombudsman d. vast structural network
c. National Prosecution Service
d. Special Prosecutor designated by the DOJ 531. What is the landmark case wherein
522. Which of the following is not untrue? prohibiting plea bargaining in drug cases was declared
a. The DDB shall have the custody of all dangerous to be unconstitutional?
drugs confiscated a.Salvador Estipona vs. Judge Lobrigo
b. The DDB cause the filing of the appropriate civil b. Miranda vs. Arizona
action for violation of RA 9165 while the PDEA takes c. People vs. Vera
care to criminal aspects d.People vs. Medina
c. The DDB promulgates rules and regulations related 532. Karla believes that she can’t live without
to drugs which are usually implemented by PDEA drugs because she believes that it is an integral part of
d. The DDB is the implementing arm of the PDEA in the life.
enforcement of the prohibitory provisions of RA 9165 a. Situational users

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b. Spree users 540. it is premeditated use of disruptive activities
c. Hard core addicts or threat thereof, in cyber space with the intention to
d. Hippies further social ideological religious political or similar
objectives or to intimidate any person in furtherance of
533. It is the introduction of drugs into the deeper such objectives.
layer of the skin and the mucous membrane. a. cyber crime
a. Suppositories b. cyber space
b. Topical c. cyber terrorism
c. Buccal d. cyber sex
d. Iontophoresis 541. according to CIDG this is the hot spot of cyber
534. He was the first appointed Director General of sex in the Philippines(2014) except
PDEA a. Angeles Pampanga
a. Jose Gutierrez b. san Fernando Pampanga
b. Dionisio R. Santiago c. las pinas
c. Anselmo Avenido d. davao
d. Fidel V. Ramos e. cavite
534. It is one of the obvious manifestations of 542. a portpolio of a person organization, entity,
marijuana use. company which is posted on the internet for
a. dropping eyelids accessibility worldwide
b. cotton mouth a. ICT
c. blood shot eye b. website
d. coughing c. address
d. ISP
INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME AND 543. The criminal follows the victim by sending
ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS AND PROTECTION emails, and frequently entering the chat rooms that
causes an intentional, substantial and unreasonable
535. it is also called as computer crime. intrusion into the private life of the person.
a. cyberspace a. cracking
b. cybercrime b. hacking
c. cybercriminal c. cyber stalking
d. none of the above d. worm
536. this legislation is also known as the anti- 544. a type of viruses that spread itself to other
money laundering act of 2001 computers without needing to be transferred as part of
a. RA 9160 a host
b. RA 11479 a. computer virus
c. RA 10054 b. cyrus
d. RA 8484 c. worm
537. Types of hacker which strive to operate in the d. logic bomb
public’s best interest, rather than to create turmoil. 545. it is an act of intrusion into a computer system
_____hackers work doing penetration, hired to attempt without the permission all the aspect of a website
to break into the company’s networks to find and which can public can see:
report on security vulnerabilities. The security firms a. web defacement
then help their customers mitigate security issues b. cyber stalking
before criminal hackers can exploit them. c. internet gambling
a. white hacker d. all of these
b. blue hacker 546. these are example of cybercrimes as violation
c. black hacker of E-commerce act of 2000 except
d. gray hacker a. hacking
538. a crime in which an imposter obtains key b. web defacement
pieces of personally identifiable information, such as c. internet pornography
Social Security or driver’s license numbers, in order to d. distributed denial of service attack
impersonate someone else. 547. it is a higher form of hacking in which the
a. extortion unauthorized access culminates with the process of
b. identity theft defeating the security system for the purpose of
c. bank fraud acquiring money or information and/ or availing free
d. carding services
539. it Involves gaining access illegally to a a. cracking
computer system or network and in some cases making b. online auction fraud
unauthorized use of this access. Hacking is also the act c. malicious E-email sending
by which other forms of cyber-crime (e.g.,fraud, d. web defacement
terrorism) are committed. 548. what is the result of cyber stalking
a. cyber stalking a. mental deficiency
b. phishing b. mental capacity
c. email bombing c. metal distress
d. unauthorized access d. mental mistress

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549. a set of instruction secretly inserted into a c. 20 days
program that is designed to execute if a particular d. 30 days
program is satisfied 559. JOWEL posted a libelous message against
a.logic PUROY mayor of ISLA puting bato may be hel liable for
b. logic bomb cyber crime . however, a netizen name MOSANG
c. bomb reacted to the libelous post on facebook by clicking
d. DDS heart reaction may be held liable for the said act?
550. it is a computer program that can copy itself a. yes, because RA 10175 punishing or abetting
and infect a computer without permission or cybercrime
knowledge of the user b.yes. because his reaction is part of the original post
a. computer virus c. no, because RA 10175 does not punishing aiding or
b. malware abetting
c. ramsomware d. no because there is another law punishing the said
d. hardware act
551. . this the reason of the vulnerability of 560. if the commission of the cyber-sex involves
computers except lascivious exhibition of sexual organs or sexual activity
a. capacity to store data in a relatively small space of a child, the offender may be prosecuted for child
b. easy to access pornography. How should the court appreciate the use
c. easy to gain of the computer system in the said cyber-sex involving
d. loss of evidence a child.
552. The first Filipino to be convicted of a. it shall be mitigate
cybercrime, particularly hacking. b. it shall be used as qualifying circumstance in the
a. JJ Helterbrand offense
b. JJ Maria Osawa c. it shall be used as a justifying circumstance
c. JJ Maria Clara d. it shall exempt the accused from the civil liability
d. JJ Maria Giner 561. Karlo and karla were long time chat mate.
553. Is considered to be the world’s largest One night , they agree to video-call each other using
rainforest with biggest biological diversity. ligo-live . while their conversation progress karlo
a. Africa mentioned his past sexual experiences which made
b. Amazon karla aroused. Karla ask Karlo if they could do some
c. Europe act like showing their private parts to each other. While
d. Brazil showing his private parts to Karlo he caught by his
554. Those gases that can potentially or can father while doing lascivious acts. Is there a crime of
reasonably be expected to induce global warming, cyber sex?
which includes carbon dioxide, methane, oxides of a. no, RPC only punishes prostitution committed by a
nitrogen, chorofluorocarbons, and the like. woman
a. Green Gases b. no, RA 10175 does not include private obscene
b. Greenhouse Gases shows between two private person
c. House gases c. yes, RA 10175 expressly punishes those acts
d. House green gases d. yes, because it is immoral or wrong by nature
555. Means the ecological community considered 562. all but one are powers and duties of law
together with non-living factors and its environment as enforcement authorities where a search and seizure
a unit. warrant is properly issued
a. Ecology a. to secure a computer system or a computer data
b. Solar system storage medium
c. Ecosystem b. to make and retain a copy of those computer data
d. Environment secured
556. The words “economy” and “ecology” both c. to procure all other kinds of evidence against the
came from the Greek word ______which means offender even beyond the authority of the warrant
“home. d. to render inaccessible or remove those computer
a. Okios data in the access of computer
b. Oikos 563. May evidence procured without a valid
c. Oikios warrant be admissible in evidence for any proceeding
d. Kioske before any court tribunal ?
557. Which of the following courts can issue a a. yes, because the Philippines follow the silver platter
cyber warrant that are enforceable nationwide? doctrine
a. Quezon city b. yes, because the law said so
b. Pasig c. no, the 1987 constitution disallows the admissibility
c. Cebu of such evidence by virtue of the exclusionary principle
d. Ilo-ilo are incorporated by RA 10175
e. Davao d. no, the provision of RA 10175 do not expressly
f. Cagayan de oro indicate the exclusionary rule
g. All of thes 564. The acquisition of a domain name over the
558. Validity of cybercrime warrant internet in bad faith to profit, mislead, destroy
a. 10 days reputation, and deprive others from registering the
b. 15 days same

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a. cyber squatting 572. Angel throws her unsegregated garbage on a
b. computer related fraud damsite because her house is near on a damsite.
c. cybersex Basedon the Philippine Environmental Laws, what law
d. data interference did she violate?
565. Type of cyber hacker who breaks into a. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999
computer systems with malicious or criminal intent. b. Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004
These individuals can do serious harm to individuals c. Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000
and organizations alike by stealing sensitive or d. Toxic Substance, Hazardous and Nuclear Waste
personal data, compromising entiere computer Control Act of 1990
systems, or altering critical networks. 573. it is the study of the interactions between
a. White hat hacker organisms and their environment.
b. Black hat hacker a. environment
c. Gray hat hacker b. ecology
d. Green hat hack c. forestry
566. They are otherwise called as “just for fun” d. demography
hackers 574. Considered as the father of environmental law
a. White hat hacker a. dave sive
b. Gray hat hacker b. dave bint
c. Green hat hacker c. dave port
d. Amateur hacker d. dave hill
567. Typically, they engage in hacking activities for 575. No burial ground shall be located within
the pure enjoyment of finding gaps in computer ______ from either side of a river or within 50 meters
systems, and they might even let the owner know if from any source of water supply.
any weak points are found. However, they don’t always a. 20 meters
take the most ethical route when employing their b. 30 meters
hacking activities—they may penetrate systems or c. 40 meters
networks without the owner’s permission (even though d. 50 meters
they aren’t trying to cause any harm) 576. It is the unauthorized input, alteration, or
a. White hat hacker deletion of computer data or program or interference
b. Black hat hacker in the functioning of a computer system, causing
c. Gray hat hacker damage thereby with fraudulent intent.
d. Green hat hacker a. Computer-related Forgery
568. The sending of an email to targets with a b. Computer-related Fraud
website link for users to click on, which might either c. Computer-related Identity Theft
download malware onto the users’ digital devices or d. none of the above
sends users to a malicious website that is designed to 577. SPAM is also known as?
steal users’ credentials. a. Cybersex
a. Pharming. b. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
b. Phishing. c. Child Pornography
c. Hacking d. none of the above
d. Cracking
569. Refers to an electronic, magnetic, optical, 578. It is a published false statement that is
electrochemical, or other data processing or damaging to a person's reputation.
communications device, or grouping of such devices, a. Hacking
capable of performing logical, arithmetic, routing or b. Libel
storage functions. c. Child Pornography
a. Technology d. Cybersex
b. Computer 579. This republic act is also known as the toxic
c. Electronics substances and hazardous waste act.
d. Nota a. R.A. NO. 9147
570. What are the 3 R’s to conserve natural b. R.A. NO. 9003
resources? c. R.A. NO. 6969
a. Reuse, Reduce, Recycle d. R.A. NO. 9775
b. Reduce, Recycle, Reuse 580. It is when committed intentionally, the
c. Reuse, Recycle, Reduce interception without right is made. By technical means,
571. Mr pugi purchased a secondhand motor of non-public transmission of computer data to, from,
vehicle, after the purchase he decided to go on a or within a computer system.
Baguio road trip with his girlfriend Mocha Chino. While a. Illegal Interception
in the road of delikado his vehicle starts producing b. Illegal Access
black smoke without his knowledge. Is MR. PUGI liable c. Data Interference
of any environmental crime? d. System Interference
a. Yes
b. No 581. It is a serious hindering without right on the
c. Maybe functioning of a computer system by inputting,
d. Partially No transmitting, damaging, deleting, deteriorating,
altering or suppressing computer data.

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a. Illegal Interception 591. an investigator who is criminology graduate
b. Illegal Access has no role in cybercrime investigation
c. Data Interference a. the statement is absolutely wrong
d. System Interference b. the statement is partially wrong
582. Is the process of methodically examining c. the statement is absolutely true
computer media for evidence. d. the statement is partially true
a. Computer science 592. It is the permanent destruction of indigenous
b. Computer information forests and wood lands
c. Computer forensics a. Afforestation
d. All of the above b. Deforestation
583. Measures that establish privileges, determine c. Forestation
authorized access, and prevent unauthorized access. d. Reforestation
a. Access 593. Applications designed to traverse the World
b. Access controls Wide Web to achieve specific objectives.
c. Illegal access a. Virus.
d. Nota b. Worm.
584. Refers to the instruction, communication c. Whaling.
with, storing data in, retrieving data from, or otherwise d. Web crawlers.
making use of any resources of a computer system or 594. Stand-alone malicious software that spreads
communication network. without the need for user activity.
a. Access a. Virus.
b. Access controls b. Worm.
c. Illegal access c. Whaling.
d. Nota d. Web crawlers.
585. cybercrime facilitated by the Internet and
digital technologies. TECHNICAL ENGLISH( LEGAL FORMS AND
a. Cyber-dependent crime. INVESTIGATIVE REPORT WRITING)
b. Cyber-enabled crimes.
c. Cyber organized crime. 595. Is a type of writing where the author is writing
d. Cyber organized criminals. about a particular subject that requires direction,
586. A cybercrime that would not be possible instruction or explanation.
without the Internet and digital technologies. a. Technical Writing
a. Cyber-dependent crime. b. Writing
b. Cyber-enabled crimes. c. Legal Writing
c. Cyber organized crime. d. Legal Form
d. Cyber organized criminals. 596. Verbosity should be avoided” meaning____
587. The part of the World Wide Web, which is a. Must be precise
known for its obscure and hidden websites that host b. Must be accurate
illicit activities, goods, and services, and can only be c. Direct to the point
accessed using specialized software. d. Be courteous
a. Deep web 597. Reports that Are usually short messages with
b. Illicit web natural casual use of language.
c. Underground web a. Formal
d. Dark web b. Informal reports
588. These are series of numbers assigned by an c. Short or long reports
internet service provider to an internet user when it d. Nota
connects to the internet 598. Is a sworn statement prepared by someone
a. IP address who wishes to file a legal complaint. It becomes the
b. Email address basis for the case, providing basic information about
c. Facebook account the facts of the matter and outlining the nature of the
d. CP number case.
589. this refers to any distinctive mark, a. Affidavit of undertaking
characteristics and/ or sound in clectronic form, b. Complaint affidavit
representing the identity of a person and attached to c. Affidavit of arrest
or logically associated with the electronic data message d. Affidavit of loss
a. electronic key 599. Is detailed account of an event, situation,
b. electronic signature etc., usually based on observation or inquiry.
c. originator a. Story
d. vibrator b. Narrative
590. it is a computer program that can copy itself c. Report
and infect a computer without permission or d. Report writing
knowledge of the user 600. The report should be a true representation of
a. a computer virus the facts to the best of the investigators ability
b. love bug a. Specific
c. I love you virus b. Brevity
d. Trojan horse c. Clarity

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d. Accuracy report is written to inform an immediate chief or those
601. This report can simply be an accomplishment in higher position of particular occurrences in his
report which may be analytical and may be command responsibility
comparatively longer than spot report. a. Spot report
a. Spot report b. Basic report
b. Progress report c. Special report
c. Final report d. Formal report
d. Aftermath report
602. The word "Technical” comes from the Greek 610. Using the notice on wanted person, this
word 'techne' that means____ report is about those persons who are by the police.
a. FORMAT a. Beat Inspection report
b. TECHNIQUE b. Arrest report
c. SKILL c. Wanted person report
d. NOTA d. Crime report
603. THESE are words that help writers avoid
awkward repetition of nouns. They are used in 611. This is a written narration of facts developed
replacement of nouns. by the investigator in the course of the follow-up
a. Noun investigation. This is a report on subsequent details
b. Pronoun which are very vital to the case but have not been
c. Verb incorporated in the initial report.
d. adverb a. Progress report
604. These are written reports about police b. Final report
incidents, investigations, arrests, identification of c. Traffic accident report
persons, and other miscellaneous reports for routine d. Advance report
operations of police organization.
a. Technical reports
b. Summary reports
c. Internal business reports
d. Operational reports

605. These are reports that are furnished for the

necessity of the solution of crime accident, and other
police administrative-related problems,
a. Technical reports
b. Summary reports
c. Internal business reports
d. Operational reports

606. These are reports that cover all the exact and
exhaustive narration of facts. These reports are
classified as Initial or Advance, progress or Follow-up,
and Final or Closing Reports.
a. Spot report
b. Basic report
c. Special report
d. Formal report

607. These are reports that are mostly related with

ordinary, miscellaneous incidents, usually in letter or
memorandum form.
a. Spot report
b. Basic report
c. Special report
d. Formal report

608. This is written by a police unit or office based

from a directive or instruction from higher police
officers. This type of report follows the memorandum
format of correspondence.
a. Spot report
b. Basic report
c. Special report
d. Formal report

609. This is a verbal or written report done within

twenty-four hours after an important incident. This

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