VIETNAM MILITARY MEDICAL UNIVERSITY ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST - 02
DEPARTMENT OF FOREIGN LANGUAGES LEVEL B2
LISTENING, READING & WRITING
(Time allowance: 160 minutes)
PAPER ONE: LISTENING COMPREHENSION
(Time allowance: 40 minutes)
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate
your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three
parts in this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions
on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to
check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.
Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers
to your answer sheet.
PART 1 - Questions 1-8
In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is
one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose
the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you
have chosen.
1. What does the principal want the students to do?
A. Go to school on foot B. Use the bus service
C. Tell him their address D. Fix the bus
2. What is the purpose of the talk?
A. To tell the students how to subtract
B. To tell the students how to add
C. To tell the students common ideas
D. To tell the students how to add and subtract fractions
3. What does the teacher want the students to do?
A. Introduce themselves B. Visit the new school
C. Accept a new student D. Do something different
4. What does the teacher want Sarah Palin to do?
A. Make friends with Matthew B. Share something with every classmate
C. Change her action to Matthew. D. Help her friend Matthew
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST – B2 1
12. What will the boy probably do next?
A. Go to the reserve room B. Leave the library
C. Find a seat and read other books. D. Go to a bookstore
Questions 13 to 16.
13. What did the boy do last night?
A. He studied for a test. B. He met with a friend
C. He watched a game D. He went to bed early
14. What did the girl think of India's victory?
A. She thought it unbelievable B. She thought they deserved it
C. She thought it was sheer luck. D. She thought it was an easily earned victory
15. What did the boy think was the reason why the Pakistan lost?
A. The mistake of batsmen B. The skill of bowlers
C. They didn't concede many runs. D. The captain's knock
16. What agreement did they reach?
A. 223 was not easy for Pakistan to reach
B. The players needed more practice in fielding
C. The mistake of batsmen made Pakistan lose
D. India's victory was easily earned
Questions 17 to 20.
17. What did they think of today's exam?
A. The girl thought computer science was easy
B. The boy thought computer science was a little bit difficult
C. The girl didn't finish the language paper
D. The boy thought the language paper was easy
18. How did the girl feel?
A. She felt agitated B. She felt happy
C. She felt excited D. She felt relaxed
19. What did they think of the language paper?
A. The girl thought it was easy
B. The boy thought even one-mark questions were very easy
C. The boy thought he would get a high mark
D. The girl thought synonyms are rather difficult
20. What will they probably do?
A. Enjoy their vacation B. Find the teacher to ask questions
C. Wait for their marks anxiously D. Ask other students how they feel
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST – B2 3
28. Why does the student still believe in God even though she can't see him?
A. Because she regards God as a kind of faith
B. Because God has saved many people
C. Because God created Satan
D. Because Satan is evil
29. Why does professor mention the five senses?
A. He just wants to prove we humans can't touch or see God
B. He wants to point out that science has problems
C. He just wants to prove God hasn't existed ever
D. He doesn't know who created God
30. According to the professor, what is the problem that science has?
A. proof. B. faith C. fate D. evidence
Questions 31 to 35.
31. What's the main idea of the talk?
A. To give a general introduction of coral reefs
B. To discuss how coral reefs form
C. Coral reefs must live in shallow water
D. What coral reefs eat to grow
32. What is "coral"?
A. it's a kind of large animal B. It takes calcium from sea animals
C. It has an outside skeleton only. D. It's made up of small sea animals
33. What is "colony"?
A. All reefs together are called a colony
B. Almost all corals living together are called a colony
C. Creatures living in the shallow water are called a colony.
D. Corals which are colorful are called a colony
34. What can we learn from the talk about 'coral reef'?
A. It's an underwater mountain
B. It can grow to avoid any destruction from the ocean
C. It can't be very large
D. It grows up from the edge of the volcanoes
35. What is the common character of coral reefs?
A. All of them grow fast
B. All of them are near the coastline
C. Most of them need warm water
D. They can't be found where there is sunlight
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST – B2 5
man or woman who began by sketching family members gained a local reputation
and was besieged with requests for portraits; artists found it worth their while to
pack their paints, canvases, and brushes and to travel the countryside, often
combining house decorating with portrait painting.
1. In lines 4-5, the author mentions seventeenth-century Dutch burghers as an
example of a group that
(A) consisted mainly of self-taught artists. (B) appreciated portraits
(C) influenced American folk art (D) had little time for the arts
2. The word “marked” in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) pronounced (B) fortunate (C) understandable (D) mysterious
3. According to the passage, where were many of the first American folk art
portraits painted?
(A) In western New York (B) In Illinois and Missouri
(C) In Connecticut and Massachusetts (D) In Ohio
4. The word “this” in line 9 refer to
(A) a strong craft tradition (B) American folk art
(C) New England (D) western New York
5. How much did the population of the United States increase in the first fifty
years following independence?
(A) It became three times larger. (B) It became five times larger.
(C) It became eleven times larger. (D) It became thirteen times larger.
6. The phrase “ushering in” in lines 17-18 is closest in meaning to
(A) beginning (B) demanding (C) publishing (D) increasing
7. The relationship between the daguerreotype (line 17) and the painted portrait
is similar to the relationship between the automobile and the
(A) highway (B) driver. (C) horse-drawn carriage. (D) engine
8. According to the passage, which of the following contributed to a decline in
the demand for painted portrait?
(A) The lack of a strong craft tradition
(B) The westward migration of many painters
(C) The growing preference for landscape paintings
(D) The invention of the camera
9. The word “executed” in line 20 is closest in meaning to
(A) sold (B) requested. (C) admired (D) created
10. The author implies that most limners (line 22)
(A) received instruction from traveling teachers (B) were women
(C) were from wealthy families (D) had no formal art training
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST – B2 7
13. The author compares the relationship between the lithosphere and the
asthenosphere to which of the following?
(A) Lava flowing from a volcano. (B) A boat floating on the water
(C) A fish swimming in a pond. (D) The erosion of rocks by running water
14. The word “them” in line 10 refers to
(A) currents. (B) lithospheric plates. (C) ponds. (D) plastic layers
15. The word “one” in line 16 refers to
(A) movements. (B) masses. (C) sea (D) depression
16. According to the passage, the northern Atlantic Ocean was formed when
(A) Pangaea was created
(B) plate movement ceased
(C) Gondwanaland collided with Pangaea
(D) parts of Laurasia separated from each other
17. The word “carry” in line 21 could best be replaced by
(A) damage. (B) squeeze. (C) connect. (D) support
18. In line 28, the word “concentrated” is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
(A) Allowed. (B) Clustered. (C) Exploded. (D) Strengthened
19. Which of the following can be inferred about the theory of plate tectonics?
(A) It is no longer of great interest to geologists.
(B) It was first proposed in the 1960's.
(C) It fails to explain why earthquakes occur.
(D) It refutes the theory of the existence of a supercontinent.
20. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
(A) why certain geological events happen where they do
(B) how geological occurrences have changed over the years
(C) the most unusual geological developments in the Earth's history
(D) the latest innovations in geological measurement
PASSAGE 3- Questions 21-30
In the United States in the early 1800's, individual state governments had more
effect on the economy than did the federal government. States chartered
manufacturing, banking, mining, and transportation firms and participated in the
construction of various internal improvements such as canals, turnpikes, and
railroads. The states encouraged internal improvements in two distinct ways;
first, by actually establishing state companies to build such improvement; second,
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST – B2 9
24. The word “distinct” in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) separate. (B) innovative. (C) alarming. (D) provocative
25. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century canals
and railroads were
(A) built with money that came from the federal government
(B) much more expensive to build than they had been previously
(C) built predominantly in the western part of the country
(D) sometimes built in part by state companies
26. The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) licensing of retail merchants
(B) inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance
(C) imposing limits on price-fixing
(D) control of lumber
27. The word “setting” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) discussing. (B) analyzing. (C) establishing. (D) avoiding
28. The word “ends” in line 22 is closest in meaning to
(A) benefits. (B) decisions. (C) services. (D) goals
29. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead
Act of 1862?
(A) It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.
(B) It was a law first passed by state governments in the West.
(C) It increased the money supply in the West.
(D) It established tariffs in a number of regions.
30. Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal
government in the nineteenth century?
(A) Control of the manufacture of gunpowder
(B) Determining the conditions under which individuals worked
(C) Regulation of the supply of money
(D) Inspection of new homes built on western lands
PASSAGE 4- Questions 31-40
Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after the Earth was
formed. Yet another three billion years were to pass before the first plants and
animals appeared on the continents. Life's transition from the sea to the land was
perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life.
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST – B2 11
34. The word “extracted” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) located. (B) preserved. (C) removed. (D) studied
35. What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in lines
18-21?
(A) They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life.
(B) They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils.
(C) They are older than the megafossils.
(D) They consist of modern life-forms.
36. The word “instances” in line 21 is closest in meaning to
(A) methods (B) processes (C) cases (D) reasons
37. The word “they” in line 22 refers to
(A) rocks (B) shores (C) oceans (D) specimens
38. The word “entombed” in line 22 is closest in meaning to
(A) crushed. (B) trapped. (C) produced. (D) excavated
39. Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?
(A) The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised.
(B) Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.
(C) The origins of primitive sea life were explained.
(D) Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.
40. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
(A) The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself.
(B) The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how
terrestrial life evolved.
(C) New species have appeared at the same rate over the last 400 million years
(D) The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate
determinations about ages of fossils.
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST – B2 13