MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is

Matter Around Us Pure

Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 2 Is
Matter Around Us Pure in Class 9.

Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure MCQ

Questions Class 9 Science with Answers
Question. When a bottle of soda water is opened, carbon
dioxide escapes, producing a fizz. This is due to:
a. Decrease in solubility on decreasing temperature
b. Decrease in solubility on increasing temperature
c. Decrease in solubility on decreasing pressure
d. Decrease in solubility on increasing pressure
Answer : C

Question. A mixture of oil and water can be separated by:

a. Sublimation
b. Crystallisation
c. Chromatography
d. Separating funnel
Answer : D

Questions 3 to 5 are based on the following information:

Four samples A, B, C, D are prepared by adding a pinch of
copper sulphate, a spatula of copper sulphate, a spatula of
chalk powder, and some milk, to water respectively.
Question. Which one is the colloidal solution among them?
a. C
b. D
c. B
d. A
Answer : B

Question. Which of these will form a clear and transparent

solution:
a. A
b. B
c. A and B
d. B and D
Answer : C

Question. Which of these will exhibit the Tyndall effect?

a. A and D
b. B and C
c. A and B
d. D
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following represents a chemical

change?
a. Extraction of copper from copper pyrites
b. Distillation of water
c. Melting of wax
d. Dissolution of salt in water
Answer : A
Question. The sequence of steps for separating a mixture
of salt, sand and camphor is:
a. Adding water, filtration, evaporation, sublimation
b. Adding water, filtration, sublimation, evaporation
c. Sublimation, adding water, filtration, evaporation
d. Sublimation, adding water, evaporation, filtration
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is the correct set of

apparatus for fractional distillation?
a. Round bottomed flask, thermometer, water condenser
and beaker
b. Round bottomed flask, thermometer, air condenser and
beaker
c. Round bottomed flask, thermometer, fractionating
column, water condenser and flask
d. Round bottomed flask, thermometer, fractionating
column, air condenser and flask
Answer : C

Question. In the separation of dyes A and B by

chromatography, component B has more solubility in the
solvent. Which component will rise faster?
a. A
b. B
c. Both at the same speed
d. Separation of dyes is independent of the solubility in
solvent
Answer : B

Question. Different components can be separated from

petroleum by:
a. FiltrationA
b. Chromatography
c. Simple distillation
d. Fractional distillation
Answer : D

Question. What is the name of the metal which exists in

liquid state at room temperature?
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Mercury
(d) Bromine

Answer : C

Question. Mixture of two or more metals , or metals and

non-metals called as…………
(a) Alloy
(b) Solution
(c) Mixture
(d) Metallic mixture

Answer : A

Question. Sol and gel are examples of

(a) Solid-solid colloids
(b) Sol is a solid-liquid colloid and gel is liquid solid colloid
(c) Sol is solid-solid colloid and gel is solid-liquid colloid
(d) Sol is a liquid-solid colloid and gel is a solid-liquid colloid

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following elements is not a

metalloid?
(a) Boron
(b) Silicon
(c) Germanium
(d) Tungsten

Answer : D

Question. Centrifugation do not used in………..

(a) Diagnostic laboratories
(b) Separate butter and cream
(c) To separate water and sugar
(d) Used in washing machines

Answer : C

Question. A pure substance which is made up of only one

kind of atom and cannot be broken into two or more
simpler substances by physical or chemical means is
referred to as
(a) a compound
(b) an element
(c) a molecule
(d) a mixture

Answer : B
Question. Which of the following methods would you use to
separate cream from milk?
(a) Fractional distillation
(b) Distillation
(c) Centrifugation
(d) Filtration

Answer : C

Question. How one can separate ammonium chloride from

a mixture containing ammonium chloride and sodium
chloride?
(a) Precipitation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Chromatography
(d) Cetrifugation

Answer : B

Question. Separation of dyes and black ink using

……………………. Method.
(a) Dissolution
(b) Chromatographic
(c) Sublimation
(d) Suspension

Answer : B

Question. If the amount of solute contained in the solution

is less than the saturation level…it called as……………
(a) Saturated solution
(b) Unsaturated solution
(c) Homogenous solution
(d) Heterogeneous solutio

Answer : B

Question. The component of solution that dissolved in

solvent called……………
(a) Solute
(b) Sugar
(c) Solvent
(d) Mixture

Answer : C

Question. If the solution is 400 ml and solvent is 300ml so

what is percentage of solute?
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 25

Answer : D

Question. Crystallization method is used to purify………..

(a) Liquid
(b) Gas
(c) Solid
(d) Miscible liquids

Answer : C
Question: In the separation of dyes A and B by
chromatography, component B has more solubility in the
solvent. Which component will rise faster?

a) B

b) A

c) Both at the same speed

d) Separation of dyes is independent of the solubility in

solvent

Answer: B

Question: Which of the following is the correct set of

apparatus for fractional distillation?

a) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, fractionating

column, water condenser and flask

b) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, water condenser

and beaker

c) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, air condenser and

beaker

d) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, fractionating

column, air condenser and flask

Answer : A
Question: The sequence of steps for separating a mixture of
salt, sand and camphor is:

a) Sublimation, adding water, filtration, evaporation

b) Adding water, filtration, evaporation, sublimation

c) Adding water, filtration, sublimation, evaporation

d) Sublimation, adding water, evaporation, filtration

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following represents a chemical

change?

a) Extraction of copper from copper pyrites

b) Distillation of water

c) Melting of wax

d) Dissolution of salt in water

Answer: A

Question: Four samples A, B, C, D are prepared by adding a

pinch of copper sulphate, a spatula of copper sulphate, a
spatula of chalk powder, and some milk, to water
respectively.

Which of these will exhibit the Tyndall effect?

a) D

b) A and D

c) B and C

d) A and B

Answer: D

Question: Four samples A, B, C, D are prepared by adding a

pinch of copper sulphate, a spatula of copper sulphate, a
spatula of chalk powder, and some milk, to water
respectively.

Which of these will form a clear and transparent solution:

a) A and B

b) A

c) B

d) B and D

Answer: A

Question: Four samples A, B, C, D are prepared by adding a

pinch of copper sulphate, a spatula of copper sulphate, a
spatula of chalk powder, and some milk, to water
respectively.

Which one is the colloidal solution among them?

a) D

b) C

c) B

d) A

Answer: D

Question: A mixture of oil and water can be separated by:

a) Separating funnel

b) Sublimation

c) Crystallisation

d) Chromatography

Answer: A

Question: When a bottle of soda water is opened, carbon

dioxide escapes, producing a fizz. This is due to:

a) Decrease in solubility on decreasing pressure

b) Decrease in solubility on decreasing temperature

c) Decrease in solubility on increasing temperature

d) Decrease in solubility on increasing pressure

Answer: A
Question: Different components can be separated from
petroleum by:

a) Fractional distillation

b) FiltrationA

c) Simple distillation

d) Chromatography

Answer: A

Question. More than one kind of pure form of matter

combines forming………..
(a) Texture
(b) Solution
(c) Mixture
(d) Component

Answer : C

Question. Rusting of an article made up of iron is called

(a) corrosion and it is a physical as well as chemical change
(b) dissolution and it is a physical change
(c) corrosion and it is a chemical change
(d) dissolution and it is a chemical change

Answer : C

Question. Air is ………………….. mixture.

(a) Heterogeneous
(b) Gas
(c) Solid
(d) Homogenous

Answer : C

Question. Mercury and bromine are both

(a) liquid at room temperature
(b) solid at room temperature
(c) gases at room temperature
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer : A

Question. Foam is the example of…………

(a) Scattering light
(b) Colloids
(c) Saturated solution
(d) Unsaturated solutions

Answer : B

Question. Chromatographic method used to separate

(a) Colors in dye
(b) Drug from blood
(c) Tea powder from factory
(d) Drugs from blood

Answer : C

Question 2 .Which of the following is a compound?

(a) Stainless steel
(b) Bronze
(c) Graphite
(d) Hydrogen sulphide

Answer : D

Question 7.Camphor can be purified by:

(a) Distillation
(b) Filtration
(c) Sedimentation
(d) Sublimation

Answer : D

Question 17.Which of the following is considered to be a

pure substance?
(a) Granite
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Muddy water
(d) Milk of magnesia

Answer : B

Question 21.To prepare iron sulphide, by heating a mixture

of iron filings and sulphur powder, we should use a:
(a) Copper dish
(b) Watch glass
(c) China dish
(d) Petri dish

Answer : C
Question 27.One common method used to separate dyes
is:
(a) Filtration
(b) Distillation
(c) Chromatography
(d) Conductivity

Answer : C

Question 31.Magnetism is most beneficial for separating:

(a) Gases and non- metallic liquids
(b) Magnetic solids and solids such as sulfur
(c) Non- metallic solids and solids such as sulfur
(d) Non- magnetic solids from non- magnetic liquids

Answer : B

Question 11.Salt can be obtained from sea water by:

(a) Filtration
(b) Decantation
(c) Evaporation
(d) Sublimation

Answer : C

Question: An atom is
(a) the smallest particle of matter known
(b) the smallest particle of a gas
(c) thesmallest indivisible particle of an element that can
take part in a chemical reaction
(d) radioactive emission
Answer: A

Question: Air is regarded as a mixture because

(a) it pressure may vary
(b) its temperature may change
(c) its volume changes under different conditions
(d) its composition may vary

Answer: D

Question: Which of the following properties is different for

solids, liquids and gases?
(a) movement of molecules
(b) particle size of the substance
(c) mass of the substance
(d) energy exchange

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following is an example of a

mixture ?
(a) Sugar
(b) Brass
(c) CO2
(d) NO3

Answer: B

Question: Which of the following is not a chemical change

?
(a) rusting of iron
(b) converting water into steam
(c) making curd from milk
(d) heating coal

Answer: B

Question: A chemical equation is a means

(a) of representing chemical and physical properties of
reactant molecules
(b) of acquiring instructions for the preparation of a
compound
(c) or representing a chemical change by means of symbol
and formulas
(d) of showing the kind of elements present in a mixture

Answer: C

Question: In a balanced chemical equation, the reactant

side and the product side have the same number of
(a) atoms
(b) molecules
(c) ions
(d) electrons

Answer: A

Question: In the chemical equation,Mg + O2 –→ 2MgO, O2

represents
(a) atoms of oxygen joined together in a molecule
(b) molecules of oxygen
(c) grams of oxygen
(d) mole of oxygen

Answer: A

Question: The chemical formula of a compound does not

represent
(a) the total number of atoms in one molecule of the
compound
(b) the number of the molecules of the compound
(c) the state of the molecules of the compound
(d) the composition of a molecule of the compound

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following statements about a

balanced chemical equation is true ?
(a) mass is conserved
(b) atoms are conserved
(c) mass as well as atoms are conserved
(d) molecules are conserved

Answer: C

Question: Boiling point of 10% aqueous solution of

common salt at atmospheric pressure is
(a) 100°C
(b) > 100°C
(c) < 100°C
(d) not possible to predict
Answer: B

Question: The change of state of substance from gas to

liquid is called-
(a) melting
(b) boiling
(c) condensation
(d) vaporization

Answer: C

More Questions............................

Question: Area under a velocity-time graph gives

(a) distance travelled by a moving object
(b) acceleration of moving object
(c) retardation of a moving object
(d) time taken by a moving object

Answer: A

Question: If a body is thrown up with an initial velocity u

and covers a maximum height of h, then h is equal to
(a) u2/2g
(b) u/2g
(c) 2u2g
(d) None of these

Answer: A

Question: A body is thrown vertically upwards and rises to

a height of 10m. The velocity with which the body was
thrown upwards is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 14 m/s
(b) 16 m/s
(c) 15 m/s
(d) 12 m/s

Answer: A

Question: A truck running along a straight line increases its

speed uniformly from 30 m/s to 60 m/s over a time interval
1 min. The distance travelled during this time interval is
(a) 2700 m
(b) 900 m
(c) 1800 m
(d) 3600m

Answer: A

Question: car travels 1/3 rd distance on a straight road with

a velocity of 10 km/hr, nextb1/3 rd with velocity 20 km/hr
and the last 1/3 rd with velocity 60 km/hr. What is the
average velocity of the car in the whole journey?
(a) 18 km/hr
(b) 6 km/hr
(c) 4 km/hr
(d) 12 km/hr

Answer: A

Question: Driver of a train travelling at 115 km/hr sees on a

same track, 100m infront of him, a slow train travelling in
the same direction at 25 km/ hr. The least retardation that
must be applied to faster train to avoid a collision is
(a) 3.125 m/s2
(b) 2.75 m/s2
(c) 3.5 m/s2
(d) 3.0 m/s2

Answer: A

Question: Distance of the moon from the earth is 4 × 108

m. The time taken by a radar signalmn transmitted from
the earth to reach the moon is
(a) 1.3 s
(b) 0.70 s
(c) 5.2 s
(d) 2.6 s

Answer: A

Question: A motor ship covers the distance of 300 km

between two localities on a river in 10 hrs downstream and
in 12 hrs upstream. Find the flow velocity of the river
assuming that these velocities are constant.
(a) 2.5 km/hr
(b) 3.5 km/hr
(c) 2.0 km/hr
(d) 3 km/hr

Answer: A

Question: Quantum number value for 2p sub shell are

(a) n = 2, L = 0
(b) n = 2, L = 1
(c) n = 1, L = 0
(d) n = 1, L = 1

Answer : B

Question: Who discovered Neutrons?

(a) Dalton
(b) J J Thomson
(c) Chadwick
(d) Daraday

Answer : A

Question: Principle quantum number describes

(a) size of the orbital
(b) shape of the orbital
(c) spin of the orbital
(d) orientation of the orbital

Answer : A

Question: Who first proposed the atomic theory based on

scientific knowledge
(a) John Dalton
(b) Robert Brown
(c) Jones Berzelius
(d) Dmitri Mendeleev

Answer : A

Question. A nuclear particle that has same mass that of a

proton, but no electrical charge is
(a) nuclide
(b) electron
(c) proton
(d) isotope

Answer : B

Question: Experimentation with cathode ray led to the

discovery of
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) neutron
(d) nucleus

Answer : A

Question. In the gold foil experiment, most of the particles

fired at the foil
(a) bounced back
(b) were absorbed by the foil
(c) passed through the foil
(d) combined at the foil

Answer : B

Question: Anode rays were discovered by

(a) Rutherford
(b) Goldstein
(c) J J Thomson
(d) J. Stoney

Answer : B
Question: In the separation of dyes A and B by
chromatography, component B has more solubility in the
solvent: Which component will rise faster?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) Both at the same speed
(d) Separation of dyes is independent of the solubility in
solvent

Answer: B

Question: Which of the following is the correct set of

apparatus for fractional distillation?
(a) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, fractionating
column, water condenser and flask
(b) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, water condenser
and beaker
(c) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, air condenser and
beaker
(d) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, fractionating
column, air condenser and flask

Answer: A

Question: The sequence of steps for separating a mixture

of salt, sand and camphor is:
(a) Sublimation, adding water, filtration, evaporation
(b) Adding water, filtration, evaporation, sublimation
(c) Adding water, filtration, sublimation, evaporation
(d) Sublimation, adding water, evaporation, filtration

Answer: A
Question: Which of the following represents a chemical
change?
(a) Extraction of copper from copper pyrites
(b) Distillation of water
(c) Melting of wax
(d) Dissolution of salt in water

Answer: A

Question: Four samples A, B, C, D are prepared by adding a

pinch of copper sulphate, a spatula of copper sulphate, a
spatula of chalk powder, and some milk, to water
respectively:
Which of these will exhibit the Tyndall effect?
(a) D
(b) A and D
(c) B and C
(d) A and B

Answer: D

Question: Four samples A, B, C, D are prepared by adding a

pinch of copper sulphate, a spatula of copper sulphate, a
spatula of chalk powder, and some milk, to water
respectively:
Which of these will form a clear and transparent solution:
(a) A and B
(b) A
(c) B
(d) B and D

Answer: A and B
Question: Four samples A, B, C, D are prepared by adding a
pinch of copper sulphate, a spatula of copper sulphate, a
spatula of chalk powder, and some milk, to water
respectively:
Which one is the colloidal solution among them?
(a) D
(b) C
(c) B
(d) A

Answer: D

Question: A mixture of oil and water can be separated by:

(a) Separating funnel
(b) Sublimation
(c) Crystallisation
(d) Chromatography

Answer: A

Question: When a bottle of soda water is opened, carbon

dioxide escapes, producing a fizz: This is due to:
(a) Decrease in solubility on decreasing pressure
(b) Decrease in solubility on decreasing temperature
(c) Decrease in solubility on increasing temperature
(d) Decrease in solubility on increasing pressure

Answer: A

Question: Different components can be separated from

petroleum by:
(a) Fractional distillation
(b) FiltrationA
(c) Simple distillation
(d) Chromatography

Answer: A

Question: More than one kind of pure form of matter

combines forming………:
(a) Texture
(b) Solution
(c) Mixture
(d) Component

Answer : C

Question: Rusting of an article made up of iron is called

(a) corrosion and it is a physical as well as chemical change
(b) dissolution and it is a physical change
(c) corrosion and it is a chemical change
(d) dissolution and it is a chemical change

Answer : C

Question: Air is …………………: mixture:

(a) Heterogeneous
(b) Gas
(c) Solid
(d) Homogenous

Answer : C
Question: Mercury and bromine are both
(a) liquid at room temperature
(b) solid at room temperature
(c) gases at room temperature
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer : A

Question: Foam is the example of…………

(a) Scattering light
(b) Colloids
(c) Saturated solution
(d) Unsaturated solutions

Answer : B

Question: Chromatographic method used to separate

(a) Colors in dye
(b) Drug from blood
(c) Tea powder from factory
(d) Drugs from blood

Answer : C

Question : Which of the following is a compound?

(a) Stainless steel
(b) Bronze
(c) Graphite
(d) Hydrogen sulphide

Answer : D
Question : Camphor can be purified by:
(a) Distillation
(b) Filtration
(c) Sedimentation
(d) Sublimation

Answer : D

Question : Which of the following is considered to be a

pure substance?
(a) Granite
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Muddy water
(d) Milk of magnesia

Answer : B

Question :To prepare iron sulphide, by heating a mixture of

iron filings and sulphur powder, we should use
(a) Copper dish
(b) Watch glass
(c) China dish
(d) Petri dish

Answer : C

Question : One common method used to separate dyes is:

(a) Filtration
(b) Distillation
(c) Chromatography
(d) Conductivity

Answer : C
Question : Magnetism is most beneficial for separating:
(a) Gases and non- metallic liquids
(b) Magnetic solids and solids such as sulfur
(c) Non- metallic solids and solids such as sulfur
(d) Non- magnetic solids from non- magnetic liquids

Answer : B

Question : Salt can be obtained from sea water by:

(a) Filtration
(b) Decantation
(c) Evaporation
(d) Sublimation

Answer : C

Question: When a bottle of soda water is opened, carbon

dioxide escapes, producing a fizz: This is due to:
(a) Decrease in solubility on decreasing temperature
(b) Decrease in solubility on increasing temperature
(c) Decrease in solubility on decreasing pressure
(d) Decrease in solubility on increasing pressure

Answer : C

Question: A mixture of oil and water can be separated by:

(a) Sublimation
(b) Crystallisation
(c) Chromatography
(d) Separating funnel
Answer : D

Questions 3 to 5 are based on the following information:

Four samples A, B, C, D are prepared by adding a pinch of
copper sulphate, a spatula of copper sulphate, a spatula of
chalk powder, and some milk, to water respectively:

Question: Which one is the colloidal solution among them?

(a) C
(b) D
(c) B
(d) A

Answer : B

Question: Which of these will form a clear and transparent

solution:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) A and B
(d) B and D

Answer : C

Question: Which of these will exhibit the Tyndall effect?

(a) A and D
(b) B and C
(c) A and B
(d) D Answer :
Answer : D

Question: Which of the following represents a chemical

change?
(a) Extraction of copper from copper pyrites
(b) Distillation of water
(c) Melting of wax
(d) Dissolution of salt in water Answer :

Answer : A

Question: The sequence of steps for separating a mixture

of salt, sand and camphor is:
(a) Adding water, filtration, evaporation, sublimation
(b) Adding water, filtration, sublimation, evaporation
(c) Sublimation, adding water, filtration, evaporation
(d) Sublimation, adding water, evaporation, filtration

Answer : C

Question: Which of the following is the correct set of

apparatus for fractional distillation?
(a) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, water condenser
and beaker
(b) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, air condenser and
beaker
(c) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, fractionating
column, water condenser and flask
(d) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, fractionating
column, air condenser and flask

Answer : C

Question: In the separation of dyes A and B by

chromatography, component B has more solubility in the
solvent: Which component will rise faster?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) Both at the same speed
(d) Separation of dyes is independent of the solubility in
solvent

Answer: B

Question: Different components can be separated from

petroleum by:
(a) FiltrationA
(b) Chromatography
(c) Simple distillation
(d) Fractional distillation

Answer: D
Question: What is the name of the metal which exists in
liquid state at room temperature?
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Mercury
(d) Bromine

Answer: c

Question: Mixture of two or more metals , or metals and

non-metals called as…………
(a) Alloy
(b) Solution
(c) Mixture
(d) Metallic mixture

Answer : A

Question: Sol and gel are examples of

(a) Solid-solid colloids
(b) Sol is a solid-liquid colloid and gel is liquid solid colloid
(c) Sol is solid-solid colloid and gel is solid-liquid colloid
(d) Sol is a liquid-solid colloid and gel is a solid-liquid
colloid

Answer: B

Question: Which of the following elements is not a

metalloid?
(a) Boron
(b) Silicon
(c) Germanium
(d) Tungsten

Answer : D
Question: Centrifugation do not used in………
(a) Diagnostic laboratories
(b) Separate butter and cream
(c) To separate water and sugar
(d) Used in washing machines

Answer : C

Question: A pure substance which is made up of only one

kind of atom and cannot be broken into two or more
simpler substances by physical or chemical means is
referred to as
(a) a compound
(b) an element
(c) a molecule
(d) a mixture

Answer : B

Question: Which of the following methods would you use to

separate cream from milk?
(a) Fractional distillation
(b) Distillation
(c) Centrifugation
(d) Filtration

Answer : C

Question: How one can separate ammonium chloride from

a mixture containing ammonium chloride and sodium
chloride?
(a) Precipitation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Chromatography
(d) Cetrifugation

Answer : B

Question: Separation of dyes and black ink using

……………………: Method
(a) Dissolution
(b) Chromatographic
(c) Sublimation
(d) Suspension

Answer : B

Question: If the amount of solute contained in the solution

is less than the saturation level…it called as……………
(a) Saturated solution
(b) Unsaturated solution
(c) Homogenous solution
(d) Heterogeneous solutio

Answer : B

Question: The component of solution that dissolved in

solvent called……………
(a) Solute
(b) Sugar
(c) Solvent
(d) Mixture

Answer : C
Question: If the solution is 400 ml and solvent is 300ml so
what is percentage of solute?
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 25

Answer : D

Question: Crystallization method is used to purify………

(a) Liquid
(b) Gas
(c) Solid
(d) Miscible liquids

Answer : C

Question: A body goes from A to B with a velocity of 20

m/s and comes back B to A with a velocity of 30 m/s. The
average velocity of the body during the whole journey is
(a) zero
(b) 25 m/s
(c) 24 m/s
(d) none of these

Answer: A

Question: If an object covering distances in direct

proportion to the square of the time lapsed, then the
acceleration is
(a) constant
(b) increasing
(c) decreasing
(d) none of these

Answer: A

Question: Distance travelled by a freely falling body is

proportional to
(a) time of fall
(b) square of the time of fall
(c) square of the acceleration due to gravity
(d) mass of the body

Answer: B

Question: The rate of change of displacement with time is

(a) velocity
(b) acceleration
(c) speed
(d) retardation

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following is not vector quantity?

(a) Retardation
(b) Average speed
(c) Acceleration due to gravity
(d) Displacement

Answer: D
Question: If the time-displacement graph of a particle is
parallel to the time-axis, then velocity of the particle is
(a) zero
(b) equal to acceleration of the body
(c) unity
(d) infinity

Answer: A

Question: In the velocity-time graph, AB shows that the

body has

(a) initial velocity OA and is moving with uniform retardation

(b) uniform speed
(c) non-uniform retardation
(d) uniform acceleration

Answer: A

Question: In the given velocity-time graph, AB shows that

the body has
(a) uniform velocity throughout its motion and has zero
initial velocity
(b) none of these
(c) uniform retardation
(d) uniform acceleration

Answer: B

Question: If the displacement-time graph for the two

particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30°
and 60° with the time axis, then ratio of the velocities vA: vB
will be

(a) 3: 1
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 2
(d) none of these

Answer: A

More Questions..........................

Question: In the given figure, velocity of the body at A is

(a) zero
(b) maximum
(c) infinite
(d) unity

Answer: A

Question: The velocity-time graph for a body with

nonuniform motion is a
(a) straight line parallel to x-axis
(b) curved line
(c) straight line parallel to y-axis
(d) none of these

Answer: B
Question: A motor ship covers the distance of 300 km
between two localities on a river in 10 hrs downstream and
in 12 hrs upstream. Find the flow velocity of the river
assuming that these velocities are constant
(a) 2.5 km/hr
(b) 3.5 km/hr
(c) 2.0 km/hr
(d) 3 km/hr

Answer: A

Question: A stone is dropped into a well in which the level

of water is h, below the top of the well. If v is velocity of
sound, then time T after which the splash is heard is equal
to
(a)

(b)

(c)
(d) None of these

Answer:

Question: A stone weighing 3 kg falls from the top of a

tower 100 m high and buries itself 2 m deep in the sand.
The time of penetration is
(a) 0.09 sec
(b) 2.1 sec
(c) 0.9 sec
(d) 1.3 sec

Answer: A

Question: The velocity of a body at any instant is 10 m/s.

After 5 sec, velocity of the particle is 20 m/s. The velocity
at 3 seconds before is
(a) 6 m/sec
(c) 4 m/sec
(b) 7 m/sec
(d) 8 m/sec

Answer: C

Question: A body covers 200 cm in the first 2 sec.and 220

cm in next 4 sec. What is the velocity of the body at the'
end of 7th second?
(a) 10 cm/sec
(b) 40 cm/sec
(c) 20 cm/sec
(d) 5 cm/sec

Answer: A

Question: A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial

velocity u from the top of a tower, reaches the ground with
a velocity 3u. The height of the tower is
(a) 3 u2/g
(b) 4 u2/g
(c) 9 u2/g
(d) 6 u2/g

Answer: B

Question: Acceleration of a body projected upwards with a

certain velocity is
(a) – 9.8 m/s2
(b) zero
(c) insufficient data
(d) 9.8 m/s2

Answer: – A

Question: The earth's radius is 6400 km. It makes one

revolution about its own axis in 24 hrs. The centripetal
acceleration of a point on its equator is nearly
(a) 3.4 cm/s2
(b) 340 cm/s2
(c) 34 cm/s2
(d) 0.34 cm/s2
Answer: A

Question: The acceleration of a point on the rim of flywheel

1 m in diameter, if it makes 1200 revolutions per minute is
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) none of these

Answer:

Question: If two bodies of different masses m1 and m2 are

dropped from different heights h1 and h2, then ratio of the
times taken by the two to drop through these distances is :-
(a) √h1 : √h2
(b) h2/h1
(c) h2 : h1
(d) None of these

Answer: A
Question: Name the instrument used to measure
instantaneous speed of a vehicle
(a) Speedometer
(b) Multicenter
(c) Accelerator
(d) Ammeter

Answer: A

Question: A ball is dropped on the floor from a height of 10

m. It rebounds to a height of 2.5 m. If the ball is in contact
with the floor for 0.01 sec, then average acceleration
during contact is :-
(a) 2100 m/s2
(b) 1400 m/s2
(c) 700 m/s2
(d) 400 m/s2

Answer: A

Question: If a ball is thrown up with a certain velocity. It

attains a height of 40 m and comes back to the thrower,
then
(a) total distance covered by it is zero
(b) total displacement is zero
(c) total displacement covered by it is 80 m
(d) total distance covered by it is 40 m

Answer: B
Question: If a body of mass 0.10 kg is moving on circular
path of diameter 1.0 m at the rate of 10 revolutions per
31.4 sec, then centripetal force acting on the body (n =
3.14) is
(a) 0.2 Newton
(b) 0.02 Newton
(c) 2.0 Newton
(d) 20.0 Newton

Answer: A

Question: A phonograph record on turn table rotates at 30

rpm. The linear speed of a point on therecord at the needle
at the beginning of the recording when it is at a distance of
14 cm from the centre is
(a) 44 cm/sec
(b) 52 cm/sec
(c) 48 cm/sec
(d) 22 cm/sec

Answer: A

Question: The relationship between average speed, time

and distance is
(b) Time = average speed/distance
(c) Distance = average speed × time
(a) Average speed = distance × time
(d) Average speed =total distance / total time

Answer: D
Question: A body moving along a circular path has
(a) constant speed
(b) constant velocity
(c) no radial acceleration
(d) no tangential velocity

Answer: A

Question: A rubber ball dropped from a certain height

(a) non-uniform speed
(b) uniform speed
(c) uniform retardation
(d) uniform acceleration

Answer: A

Question: If the velocity of a body does not change, its

acceleration is
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) infinite
(d) none of these

Answer: A

Question: When the distance an object travels is directly

proportional to the length of time, it is said to travel with
(a) constant speed
(b) zero velocity
(c) constant acceleration
(d) uniform velocity

Answer: A
Question: A body moves on three quarters of a circle of
radius r. The displacement and distance travelled by it are:-
(a)

(b) displacement = r, distance = 3r

(c)

(d)

Answer:

Question: If two bodies of different masses m1 and m2 are

dropped from different heights h1 and h2, then ratio of the
times taken by the two to drop through these distances is :-
(a) √h1 : √h2
(b) h2/h1
(c) h2 : h1
(d) None of these

Answer: A
Question: Name the instrument used to measure
instantaneous speed of a vehicle
(a) Speedometer
(b) Multicenter
(c) Accelerator
(d) Ammeter

Answer: A

Question: A ball is dropped on the floor from a height of 10

m. It rebounds to a height of 2.5 m. If the ball is in contact
with the floor for 0.01 sec, then average acceleration
during contact is :-
(a) 2100 m/s2
(b) 1400 m/s2
(c) 700 m/s2
(d) 400 m/s2

Answer: A

Question: If a ball is thrown up with a certain velocity. It

attains a height of 40 m and comes back to the thrower,
then
(a) total distance covered by it is zero
(b) total displacement is zero
(c) total displacement covered by it is 80 m
(d) total distance covered by it is 40 m

Answer: B
Question: If a body of mass 0.10 kg is moving on circular
path of diameter 1.0 m at the rate of 10 revolutions per
31.4 sec, then centripetal force acting on the body (n =
3.14) is
(a) 0.2 Newton
(b) 0.02 Newton
(c) 2.0 Newton
(d) 20.0 Newton

Answer: A

Question: A phonograph record on turn table rotates at 30

rpm. The linear speed of a point on therecord at the needle
at the beginning of the recording when it is at a distance of
14 cm from the centre is
(a) 44 cm/sec
(b) 52 cm/sec
(c) 48 cm/sec
(d) 22 cm/sec

Answer: A

Question: The relationship between average speed, time

and distance is
(a) Average speed =total distance / total time
(b) Time = average speed/distance
(c) Distance = average speed × time
(d) Average speed = distance × time

Answer: A
Question: A body moving along a circular path has
(a) no tangential velocity
(b) constant velocity
(c) no radial acceleration
(d) constant speed

Answer: D

Question: A rubber ball dropped from a certain height

(a) non-uniform speed
(b) uniform speed
(c) uniform retardation
(d) uniform acceleration

Answer: A

Question: If the velocity of a body does not change, its

acceleration is
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) infinite
(d) none of these

Answer: A

Question: When the distance an object travels is directly

proportional to the length of time, it is said to travel with
(a) constant speed
(b) zero velocity
(c) constant acceleration
(d) uniform velocity

Answer: A
Question: A body moves on three quarters of a circle of
radius r. The displacement and distance travelled by it are:-
(a)

(b) displacement = r, distance = 3r

(c)

(d)

Answer:

Question: A body goes from A to B with a velocity of 20

m/s and comes back B to A with a velocity of 30 m/s. The
average velocity of the body during the whole journey is

a) zero

b) 25 m/s

c) 24 m/s

d) none of these

Answer: zero
Question: If an object covering distances in direct
proportion to the square of the time lapsed, then the
acceleration is

a) constant

b) increasing

c) decreasing

d) none of these

Answer: constant

Question: Distance travelled by a freely falling body is

proportional to

a) square of the time of fall

b) time of fall

c) square of the acceleration due to gravity

d) mass of the body

Answer: square of the time of fall

Question: The rate of change of displacement with time is

a) velocity

b) acceleration
c) speed

d) retardation

Answer: velocity

Question: Which of the following is not vector quantity?

a) Displacement

b) Average speed

c) Acceleration due to gravity

d) Retardation

Answer: Displacement

Question: If the time-displacement graph of a particle is

parallel to the time-axis, then velocity of the particle is

a) zero

b) equal to acceleration of the body

c) unity

d) infinity

Answer: zero
Question: In the velocity-time graph, AB shows that the
body has

a) initial velocity OA and is moving with uniform retardation

b) uniform speed

c) non-uniform retardation

d) uniform acceleration

Answer: initial velocity OA and is moving with uniform

retardation

Question: In the given velocity-time graph, AB shows that

the body has
a) none of these

b) uniform velocity throughout its motion and has zero

initial velocity

c) uniform retardation

d) uniform acceleration

Answer: none of these

Question: If the displacement-time graph for the two

particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30°
and 60° with the time axis, then ratio of the velocities vA: vB
will be

a) 3: 1

b) 1 : 3

c) 1 : 2

d) none of these

Answer: 3: 1
More Questions..........................

Question: In the given figure, velocity of the body at A is

a) zero

b) maximum

c) infinite

d) unity

Answer: zero

Question: The velocity-time graph for a body with

nonuniform motion is a

a) curved line

b) straight line parallel to x-axis

c) straight line parallel to y-axis

d) none of these

Answer: curved line

Question: A motor ship covers the distance of 300 km

between two localities on a river in 10 hrs downstream and
in 12 hrs upstream. Find the flow velocity of the river
assuming that these velocities are constant

a) 2.5 km/hr

b) 3.5 km/hr

c) 2.0 km/hr

d) 3 km/hr

Answer: 2.5 km/hr

Question: A stone is dropped into a well in which the level

of water is h, below the top of the well. If v is velocity of
sound, then time T after which the splash is heard is equal
to

a)

b)
c)

d) None of these

Answer:

Question: A stone weighing 3 kg falls from the top of a

tower 100 m high and buries itself 2 m deep in the sand.
The time of penetration is

a) 0.09 sec

b) 2.1 sec

c) 0.9 sec

d) 1.3 sec

Answer: 0.09 sec

Question: The velocity of a body at any instant is 10 m/s.
After 5 sec, velocity of the particle is 20 m/s. The velocity
at 3 seconds before is

a) 4 m/sec

b) 7 m/sec

c) 6 m/sec

d) 8 m/sec

Answer: 4 m/sec

Question: A body covers 200 cm in the first 2 sec.and 220

cm in next 4 sec. What is the velocity of the body at the'
end of 7th second?

a) 10 cm/sec

b) 40 cm/sec

c) 20 cm/sec

d) 5 cm/sec

Answer: 10 cm/sec

Question: A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial

velocity u from the top of a tower, reaches the ground with
a velocity 3u. The height of the tower is

a) 4 u2/g
b) 3 u2/g

c) 9 u2/g

d) 6 u2/g

Answer: 4 u2/g

Question: Acceleration of a body projected upwards with a

certain velocity is

a) – 9.8 m/s2

b) zero

c) insufficient data

d) 9.8 m/s2

Answer: – 9.8 m/s2

Question: The earth's radius is 6400 km. It makes one

revolution about its own axis in 24 hrs. The centripetal
acceleration of a point on its equator is nearly

a) 3.4 cm/s2

b) 340 cm/s2

c) 34 cm/s2

d) 0.34 cm/s2

Answer: 3.4 cm/s2

Question: The acceleration of a point on the rim of flywheel
1 m in diameter, if it makes 1200 revolutions per minute is

a)

b)

c)

d) none of these

Answer:

Question: If two bodies of different masses m1 and m2 are

dropped from different heights h1 and h2, then ratio of the
times taken by the two to drop through these distances is :-

a) √h1 : √h2

b) h2/h1

c) h2 : h1

d) None of these

Answer: √h1 : √h2

Question: Name the instrument used to measure
instantaneous speed of a vehicle

a) Speedometer

b) Multicenter

c) Accelerator

d) Ammeter

Answer: Speedometer

Question: A ball is dropped on the floor from a height of 10

m. It rebounds to a height of 2.5 m. If the ball is in contact
with the floor for 0.01 sec, then average acceleration
during contact is :-

a) 2100 m/s2

b) 1400 m/s2

c) 700 m/s2

d) 400 m/s2

Answer: 2100 m/s2

Question: If a ball is thrown up with a certain velocity. It

attains a height of 40 m and comes back to the thrower,
then
a) total displacement is zero

b) total distance covered by it is zero

c) total displacement covered by it is 80 m

d) total distance covered by it is 40 m

Answer: total displacement is zero

Question: If a body of mass 0.10 kg is moving on circular

path of diameter 1.0 m at the rate of 10 revolutions per
31.4 sec, then centripetal force acting on the body (n =
3.14) is

a) 0.2 Newton

b) 0.02 Newton

c) 2.0 Newton

d) 20.0 Newton

Answer: 0.2 Newton

Question: A phonograph record on turn table rotates at 30

rpm. The linear speed of a point on therecord at the needle
at the beginning of the recording when it is at a distance of
14 cm from the centre is

a) 44 cm/sec

b) 52 cm/sec
c) 48 cm/sec

d) 22 cm/sec

Answer: 44 cm/sec

Question: The relationship between average speed, time

and distance is

a) Average speed =total distance / total time

b) Time = average speed/distance

c) Distance = average speed × time

d) Average speed = distance × time

Answer: Average speed =total distance / total time

Question: A body moving along a circular path has

a) constant speed

b) constant velocity

c) no radial acceleration

d) no tangential velocity

Answer: constant speed

Question: A rubber ball dropped from a certain height

a) non-uniform speed

b) uniform speed

c) uniform retardation

d) uniform acceleration

Answer: non-uniform speed

Question: If the velocity of a body does not change, its

acceleration is

a) zero

b) unity

c) infinite

d) none of these

Answer: zero

Question: When the distance an object travels is directly

proportional to the length of time, it is said to travel with

a) constant speed

b) zero velocity

c) constant acceleration

d) uniform velocity
Answer: constant speed

Question: A body moves on three quarters of a circle of

radius r. The displacement and distance travelled by it are:-

a)

b) displacement = r, distance = 3r

c)

d)

Answer:

Question: If two bodies of different masses m1 and m2 are

dropped from different heights h1 and h2, then ratio of the
times taken by the two to drop through these distances is :-

a) √h1 : √h2
b) h2/h1

c) h2 : h1

d) None of these

Answer: √h1 : √h2

Question: Name the instrument used to measure

instantaneous speed of a vehicle

a) Speedometer

b) Multicenter

c) Accelerator

d) Ammeter

Answer: Speedometer

Question: A ball is dropped on the floor from a height of 10

m. It rebounds to a height of 2.5 m. If the ball is in contact
with the floor for 0.01 sec, then average acceleration
during contact is :-

a) 2100 m/s2

b) 1400 m/s2

c) 700 m/s2

d) 400 m/s2
Answer: 2100 m/s2

Question: If a ball is thrown up with a certain velocity. It

attains a height of 40 m and comes back to the thrower,
then

a) total displacement is zero

b) total distance covered by it is zero

c) total displacement covered by it is 80 m

d) total distance covered by it is 40 m

Answer: total displacement is zero

Question: If a body of mass 0.10 kg is moving on circular

path of diameter 1.0 m at the rate of 10 revolutions per
31.4 sec, then centripetal force acting on the body (n =
3.14) is

a) 0.2 Newton

b) 0.02 Newton

c) 2.0 Newton

d) 20.0 Newton

Answer: 0.2 Newton

Question: A phonograph record on turn table rotates at 30
rpm. The linear speed of a point on therecord at the needle
at the beginning of the recording when it is at a distance of
14 cm from the centre is

a) 44 cm/sec

b) 52 cm/sec

c) 48 cm/sec

d) 22 cm/sec

Answer: 44 cm/sec

Question: The relationship between average speed, time

and distance is

a) Average speed =total distance / total time

b) Time = average speed/distance

c) Distance = average speed × time

d) Average speed = distance × time

Answer: Average speed =total distance / total time

Question: A body moving along a circular path has

a) constant speed

b) constant velocity
c) no radial acceleration

d) no tangential velocity

Answer: constant speed

Question: A rubber ball dropped from a certain height

a) non-uniform speed

b) uniform speed

c) uniform retardation

d) uniform acceleration

Answer: non-uniform speed

Question: If the velocity of a body does not change, its

acceleration is

a) zero

b) unity

c) infinite

d) none of these

Answer: zero
Question: When the distance an object travels is directly
proportional to the length of time, it is said to travel with

a) constant speed

b) zero velocity

c) constant acceleration

d) uniform velocity

Answer: constant speed

Question: A body moves on three quarters of a circle of

radius r. The displacement and distance travelled by it are:-

a)

b) displacement = r, distance = 3r

c)

d)

Answer:
 More Science Study Material
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›
 Chapter 01 Matter in Our Surroundings

CBSE Class 9 Science Matter In Our Surroundings MCQs

(/mcq-chemistry-cbse-class-9-chemistry-matter-our-
surroundings-mcqs-set-b-311610.html)
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 1
Matter in Our Surroundings
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 1
Matter in Our Surroundings in Class 9.

Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings MCQ

Questions Class 9 Science with Answers
Question: When a gas jar full of air is placed upside down
on a gas jar full of bromine vapours, the red-brown vapours
of bromine from the lower jar go upward into the jar
containing air. In this experiment:
(a) Air is heavier than bromine
(b) Both air and bromine have the same density
(c) Bromine is heavier than air
(d) Bromine cannot be heavier than air because it is going
upwards against gravity

Answer: C

Question: When water at 0°C freezes to form ice at the

same temperature of 0°C, then it:
(a) Absorbs some heat
(b) Releases some heat
(c) Neither absorbs nor releases heat
(d) Absorbs exactly 3.34 x 105J/kg of heat

Answer: B
Question: The evaporation of a liquid can best be carried
out in a:
(a) Flask
(b) China dish
(c) T est tube
(d) Beaker

Answer: B

Question: Zig-zag movement of the solute particle in a

solution is known as
(a) Linear motion
(b) Circular motion
(c) Brownian motion
(d) Curved motion.

Answer: C

Question: CO2 can be easily liquified and even solidified

because
(a) It has weak forces of attraction
(b) It has comparatively more force of attraction than other
gases
(c) It has more intermolecular space
(d) It is present in atmosphere.

Answer: B

Question: A few substances are arranged in the increasing

order of ‘forces of attraction’ between their particles.
Which one of the following represents a correct
arrangement?
(a) Water, air, wind
(b) Air, sugar, oil
(c) Oxygen, water, sugar
(d) Salt, juice, air

Answer: C

Question: Which of the following phenomena always

results in the cooling effect?
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation
(d) None of these

Answer: B

Question: The colour of vapours formed on sublimation of

iodine solid is
(a) Purple (violet)
(b) Colourless
(c) Yellow
(d) Orange

Answer: A

Question: A gas which obeys the gas laws is known as:

(a) An ideal gas
(b) A heavier gas
(c) A lighter gas
(d) A real gas

Answer: A
Question: What s the term used to describe the phase
change as a liquid becomes a solid?
(a) Evaporation
(b) Condensation
(c) Freezing
(d) None of the above

Answer: C

Question: Which of the following phenomena would

increase on raising the temperature?
(a) Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases
(b) Evaporation, compression of gases, solubility
(c) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases
(d) Evaporation, solubility, diffusion, compression of gases

Answer: C

Question: The quantity of matter present in an object is

called its:
(a) Weight
(b) Gram
(c) Mass
(d) Density

Answer: C

Question : As solid melts to form liquid:

(a) Inter particle distance increases
(b) Inter molecular forces of attraction decreases
(c) Compressibility increases
(d) All of the above
Answer : D

Question : Which of the following is not characteristic of

solid:
(a) High Rigidity
(b) Regular Shape
(c) High density
(d) High compressibility

Answer : D

Question : The boiling point of water is:

(a) 101°C at atmospheric pressure
(b) 273K at atmospheric pressure
(c) 0°C at atmospheric pressure
(d) 0K at atmospheric pressure

Answer : A

Question : Which of the following has highest

intermolecular forces of attraction?
(a) Water at room temperature
(b) CO2 gas
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Iron metal

Answer : D

Question : Which of the following substances will undergo

sublimation?
(a) Common salt
(b) Odonil
(c) Sugar
(d) Sand

Answer : B

Question : The process of evaporation causes:

(a) Cooling
(b) Heating
(c) Dryness
(d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question : The conversion of solid to gas directly is called:

(a) Evaporation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Distillation
(d) condensation

Answer : B

Question : Evaporation of a liquid can take place:

(a) At its boiling point
(b) At all temperatures
(c) At its freezing point
(d) At a fixed temperature

Answer : B

Question : Which of the following describes a liquid state:

(a) Definite volume and definite shape
(b) Definite volume and no specific shape
(c) definite shape but no definite volume
(d) neither definite shape nor definite volume

Answer : B

Question : Wet clothes are kept for drying. Which of the

following does not help them in drying:
(a) Spreading it out
(b) Blowing wind over it
(c) Making the room a little warmer
(d) Cooling the room

Answer : D

Question : At higher altitudes the boiling points of liquids

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains the same
(d) Increases then decreases

Answer : B

Question : During evaporation particles of a liquid change

into vapours :
(a) From the surface
(b) From the bulk
(c) From the bottom
(d) From all over the liquid

Answer : A
Question : In which phenomenon does water change into
water vapour below its boiling point:
(a) Boiling
(b) Evaporation
(c) Freezing
(d) Sublimation

Answer : B

Question : We get the smell of hot food in the kitchen

outside the house because of:
(a) Boiling
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Diffusion

Answer : D

Question : Which are the favourable conditions for

liquefaction of petroleum gas:
(a) High pressure, high temperature
(b) Low pressure, low temperature
(c) High pressure, low temperature
(d) Low pressure, high temperature

Answer : C

Question : Latent heat of vapourisation is used to:

(a) Overcome forces of attraction between the liquid
particles at the boiling point
(b) Overcome forces of attraction between solid particles at
the freezing point
(c) Increase the kinetic energy of particles in the liquid state
(d) Increase the kinetic energy of the particles in the vapour
phase

Answer : A

Question : Which of the following has highest density?

(a) Kerosene
(b) Water
(c) Iron
(d) Wood

Answer : C

Question : Dry ice on heating produces:

(a) Liquid CO2
(b) Gas CO2
(c) Liquid water
(d) Water vapour

Answer : B

Question : Particles move randomly in:

(a) Water
(b) Sugar
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Dry ice

Answer : C

Question : When we blow air into the balloon it inflates

because:
(a) Air particles diffuse into the balloon
(b) Air particles collide with the walls of the balloon and
exert pressure on them
(c) Rubber is elastic in nature
(d) The temperature of air in the balloon increases

Answer : B

Question : When a bottle of soda water is opened, carbon

dioxide escapes, producing a fizz. This is due to:
(a) Decrease in solubility on decreasing temperature
(b) Decrease in solubility on increasing temperature
(c) Decrease in solubility on decreasing pressure
(d) Decrease in solubility on increasing pressure

Answer : C

Question. A mixture of oil and water can be separated by:

(a) Sublimation
(b) Crystallisation
(c) Chromatography
(d) Separating funnel

Answer : D

Questions 3 to 5 are based on the following information:

Four samples A, B, C, D are prepared by adding a pinch of
copper sulphate, a spatula of copper sulphate, a spatula of
chalk powder, and some milk, to water respectively.
3. Which one is the colloidal solution among them?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) B
(d) A

Answer : B

Question. Which of these will form a clear and transparent

solution:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) A and B
(d) B and D

Answer : C

Question. Which of these will exhibit the Tyndall effect?

(a) A and D
(b) B and C
(c) A and B
(d) D

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following represents a chemical

change?
(a) Extraction of copper from copper pyrites
(b) Distillation of water
(c) Melting of wax
(d) Dissolution of salt in water

Answer : A
Question. The sequence of steps for separating a mixture
of salt, sand and camphor is:
(a) Adding water, filtration, evaporation, sublimation
(b) Adding water, filtration, sublimation, evaporation
(c) Sublimation, adding water, filtration, evaporation
(d) Sublimation, adding water, evaporation, filtration

Answer : C

Question : Which of the following is the correct set of

apparatus for fractional distillation?
(a) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, water condenser
and beaker
(b) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, air condenser and
beaker
(c) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, fractionating
column, water condenser and flask
(d) Round bottomed flask, thermometer, fractionating
column, air condenser and flask

Answer : C

Question : In the separation of dyes A and B by

chromatography, component B has more solubility in the
solvent. Which component will rise faster?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) Both at the same speed
(d) Separation of dyes is independent of the solubility in
solvent

Answer : B
Question : Different components can be separated from
petroleum by:
(a) FiltrationA
(b) Chromatography
(c) Simple distillation
(d) Fractional distillation

Answer : D

Question: When we put some crystals of potassium

permanganate in a beaker containing water, we observe
that after sometime whole water has turned pink. This is
due to:
(a) Boiling
(b) Melting of potassium permanganate crystals
(c) Sublimation of crystals
(d) Diffusion

Answer: D

Question: Which of the following describes the liquid

phase?
(a) It has a definite shape and a definite volume
(b) It has a definite shape but not a definite volume
(c) It has a definite volume but not a definite shape
(d) It has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume

Answer: C

Question: Equal volumes of all gases under similar

conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal
numbers of molecules. This statement was made by:
(a) Gay- lussae
(b) Avogadro
(c) Berzilius
(d) John Dalton

Answer: B

Question: 0 ° C temperature is equal to

(a) 0 K
(b) 273 K
(c)-273 K
(d) 300 K

Answer: B

Question: Out of the following which is the densest state of

matter?
(a) Solids
(b) Liquids
(c) Gases
(d) Plasmas

Answer: A

Question: Rate of diffusion of a gas is:

(a) Directly proportional to its density
(b) Directly proportional to its molecular mass
(c) Inversely proportional to the square root of its density
(d) Inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular
mass

Answer: D
Question: Kinetic energy of molecules is directly
proportional to
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Atmospheric pressure

Answer: A

Question: Which condition out of the following will increase

the evaporation of water?
(a) Increase in temperature of water
(b) Decrease in temperature of water
(c) Less exposed surface area of water
(d) Adding common salt to water

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following statement is not true

regarding the characteristic of matter?
(a) Particles of a matter are randomly moving in all
directions.
(b) Kinetic energy of the particles increases with a rise in
temperature
(c) Kinetic energy of the particles of all maters remains the
same at a particular temperature.
(d) Particles of matter diffuse into each other on their own.

Answer: C
Question: Which one is a sublime substance?
(a) Table salt
(b) Sugar
(c) Iodine
(d) Potassium iodide

Answer: C

Question: Liquids have -

(a) fixed volume and fixed shape
(b) fixed shape and no fixed volume
(c) fixed volume and no fixed shape
(d) neither fixed volume nor fixed shape

Answer: C

Question: When we add sugar in water, particles of sugar

disappear because they -
(a) are very small
(b) get into the spaces between water particles
(c) are moving
(d) all above

Answer: D

Question: Which of the following substances becomes

liquid easily upon heating?
(a) butter
(b) glass
(c) sponge
(d) rubber band

Answer: A
Question: Gases are liquefied under
(a) high pressure, high temperature
(b) high pressure, low temperature
(c) low pressure, high temperature
(d) low pressure, low temperature

Answer: B

Question: Which is not the characteristic of matter –

(a) particles of a matter are continuously moving,
(b) particles of matter move faster on increasing
temperature,
(c) particles of matter intermix with each other on their own,
(d) particles of all maters have same kinetic energy.

Answer: D

Question: As solid melts to form liquid:

(a) Inter particle distance increases
(b) Inter molecular forces of attraction decreases
(c) Compressibility increases
(d) All of the above

Answer : D

Question: Which of the following is not characteristic of

solid:
(a) High Rigidity
(b) Regular Shape
(c) High density
(d) High compressibility

Answer : D
Question: The boiling point of water is:
(a) 101°C at atmospheric pressure
(b) 273K at atmospheric pressure
(c) 0°C at atmospheric pressure
(d) 0K at atmospheric pressure

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following has highest

intermolecular forces of attraction?
(a) Water at room temperature
(b) CO2 gas
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Iron metal

Answer : D

Question: Which of the following substances will undergo

sublimation?
(a) Common salt
(b) Odonil
(c) Sugar
(d) Sand

Answer : B

Question: The process of evaporation causes:

(a) Cooling
(b) Heating
(c) Dryness
(d) None of the above

Answer : A
Question: The conversion of solid to gas directly is called:
(a) Evaporation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Distillation
(d) condensation

Answer : B

Question: Evaporation of a liquid can take place:

(a) At its boiling point
(b) At all temperatures
(c) At its freezing point
(d) At a fixed temperature

Answer : B

Question: Which of the following describes a liquid state:

(a) Definite volume and definite shape
(b) Definite volume and no specific shape
(c) definite shape but no definite volume
(d) neither definite shape nor definite volume

Answer : B

Question: Wet clothes are kept for drying. Which of the

following does not help them in drying:
(a) Spreading it out
(b) Blowing wind over it
(c) Making the room a little warmer
(d) Cooling the room

Answer : D
Question: At higher altitudes the boiling points of liquids
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains the same
(d) Increases then decreases

Answer : B

Question: During evaporation particles of a liquid change

into vapours :
(a) From the surface
(b) From the bulk
(c) From the bottom
(d) From all over the liquid

Answer : B

Question: In which phenomenon does water change into

water vapour below its boiling point:
(a) Boiling
(b) Evaporation
(c) Freezing
(d) Sublimation

Answer : B

Question: We get the smell of hot food in the kitchen

outside the house because of:
(a) Boiling
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Diffusion
Answer : D

Question: Which are the favourable conditions for

liquefaction of petroleum gas:
(a) High pressure, high temperature
(b) Low pressure, low temperature
(c) High pressure, low temperature
(d) Low pressure, high temperature

Answer : C

Question: Latent heat of vapourisation is used to:

(a) Overcome forces of attraction between the liquid
particles at the boiling point
(b) Overcome forces of attraction between solid particles at
the freezing point
(c) Increase the kinetic energy of particles in the liquid
state
(d) Increase the kinetic energy of the particles in the vapour
phase

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following has highest density?

(a) Kerosene
(b) Water
(c) Iron
(d) Wood

Answer : C
Question: Dry ice on heating produces:
(a) Liquid CO2
(b) Gas CO2
(c) Liquid water
(d) Water vapour

Answer : B

Question: Particles move randomly in:

(a) Water
(b) Sugar
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Dry ice

Answer : C

Question: When we blow air into the balloon it inflates

because:
(a) Air particles diffuse into the balloon
(b) Air particles collide with the walls of the balloon and
exert pressure on them
(c) Rubber is elastic in nature
(d) The temperature of air in the balloon increases

Answer : B

Question: Cations migrate to _______ during electrolysis.

(a) Migrate to both cathode and anode
(b) cathode
(c) do not migrate to either cathode or anode
(d) anode.
Answer : B

Question: Liquids have ______ shape and _____ volume.

(a) definite, definite
(b) definite, indefinite
(c) indefinite, definite
(d) indefinite, indefinite.

Answer : C

Question: The inter particle distances are maximum in

_________ and minimum in ___________
(a) solids, liquids
(b) solids, gases
(c) gases, solids
(d) liquids, solids.

Answer : C

Question: The inter particle forces of attraction is

maximum in _______ and minimum in ______
(a) solids, liquids
(b) solids, gases
(c) gases, solids
(d) liquids, solids.

Answer : B

Question: Conversion of solid to gas is called

(a) vapourisation
(b) condensation
(c) liquefaction
(d) sublimation.

Answer : D

Question: The conversion that takes place at room

temperature is
(a) boiling
(b) evaporation
(c) melting
(d) freezing.

Answer : B

Question: Number of protons in parent atom is ______ the

anion.
(a) greater than
(b) smaller than
(c) equal to
(d) can be greater or smaller than.

Answer : C

Question: Number of electrons in parent atom is _______ the

cation.
(a) greater than
(b) smaller than
(c) equal to
(d) can be greater or smaller than.

Answer : A

Question: The formula of hydroxide radical is:

(a) H+
(b) H3O+
(c) OH–
(d) H–.

Answer : C

Question: Which is not a pure substance in the four options

given?
(a) alloy
(b) sugar
(c) distilled water
(d) copper wire.

Answer : A

Question: The characteristic property of mater is / are

(a) it has mass
(b) it has volume
(c) it can be perceived by our senses
(d) all three (A, B & C)

Answer : D
Question: The increasing order of inter particle attractions
of sugar, oxygen, gold, water is
(a) sugar < oxygen < gold < water
(b) sugar > oxygen > gold > water
(c) oxygen < water < sugar < gold
(d) oxygen > water > sugar > gold.

Answer : C

Question: The pressure exerted by a gas is due to

(a) inter particle collisions
(b) collisions with the walls of the container
(c) gravity
(d) atmospheric pressure.

Answer : B

Question: If a perfume bottle is opened in one corner of a

room, the smell can be felt after sometime in the opposite
corner. This shows that
(a) particles of matter are constantly moving
(b) the perfume is strong
(c) the room has fan which circulates the perfume
(d) none of these.

Answer : A
Question: The matter that has stronger inter particle forces
between an iron piece and a chalk piece is:
(a) iron
(b) chalk piece
(c) both
(d) neither.

Answer : A

Question: The quantity of matter in 1 kg of cotton is _______

that present in 1 kg of sugar.
(a) smaller than
(b) greater than
(c) equal to
(d) can not say.

Answer : B

Question: The volume of matter in 1 kg of cotton is ____

that present in 1 kg of sugar.
(a) smaller than
(b) grater than
(c) equal to
(d) can not say.

Answer : B

Question: The type of motion that is present in solids is:

(a) random
(b) linear (in a straight line)
(c) vibratory
(d) circular.

Answer : C

Question: The type of motion that is present in liquids is:

(a) random
(b) linear (in a straight line)
(c) vibratory
(d) circular.

Answer : A

Question: The type of motion that is present in gases is:

(a) random
(b) linear (in a straight line)
(c) vibratory
(d) circular.

Answer : A

Question: The physical state of matter whose volume can

change significantly by changing pressure only is:
(a) solid
(b) gas
(c) liquid
(d) all three.
Answer : B

Question: The physical state of matter whose volume can

change significantly by changing temperature only is:
(a) solid
(b) gas
(c) liquid
(d) all three.

Answer : D

Question: The density of matter will be highest in which

state?
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) can not say.

Answer : A

Question: The kinetic energy of the particles of a given

substance will be least in
(a) solid state
(b) liquid state
(c) gaseous state
(d) can not say.

Answer : A
Question: As solid melts to form liquid:
(a) All of the above
(b) Inter particle distance increases
(c) Inter molecular forces of attraction decreases
(d) Compressibility increases

Answer: A

Question: When we blow air into the balloon it inflates

because:
(a) Air particles collide with the walls of the balloon and
exert pressure on them
(b) Air particles diffuse into the balloon
(c) Rubber is elastic in nature
(d) The temperature of air in the balloon increases

Answer: A

Question: Particles move randomly in:

(a) Water
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Sugar
(d) Dry ice

Answer: B

Question: Dry ice on heating produces:

(a) Gas CO2
(b) Liquid CO2
(c) Liquid water
(d) Water vapour

Answer: A
Question: Which of the following has highest density?
(a) Wood
(b) Kerosene
(c) Water
(d) Iron

Answer: D

Question: latent heat of vapourisation is used to:

(a) Overcome forces of attraction between the liquid
particles at the boiling point
(b) Overcome forces of attraction between solid particles at
the freezing point
(c) Increase the kinetic energy of particles in the liquid state
(d) Increase the kinetic energy of the particles in the vapour
phase

Answer: A

Question: which are the favourable conditions for

liquefaction of petroleum gas:
(a) Low pressure, high temperature
(b) High pressure, high temperature
(c) High pressure, low temperature
(c) Low pressure, low temperature

Answer: C

Question: We get the smell of hot food in the kitchen

outside the house because of:
(a) Diffusion
(b) Boiling
(c) Evaporation
(d) Sublimation

Answer: A

Question: In which phenomenon does water change into

water vapour below its boiling point:
(a) Sublimation
(b) Boiling
(c) Freezing
(d) Evaporation

Answer: D

Question: During evaporation particles of a liquid change

into vapours :
(a) From the surface
(b) From the bulk
(c) From the bottom
(d) From all over the liquid

Answer: A

Question: At higher altitudes the boiling points of liquids

(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(a) Increases then decreases
(d) Remains the same

Answer: C
Question: Wet clothes are kept for drying. Which of the
following does not help them in drying:
(a) Cooling the room
(b) Spreading it out
(c) Blowing wind over it
(d) Making the room a little warmer

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following describes a liquid state:

(a) Definite volume and no specific shape
(b) Definite volume and definite shape
(c) definite shape but no definite volume
(d) neither definite shape nor definite volume

Answer: A

Question: Evaporation of a liquid can take place:

(a) At all temperatures
(b) At its boiling point
(c) At its freezing point
(d) At a fixed temperature

Answer: A

Question: The conversion of solid to gas directly is called:

(a) Evaporation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Distillation
(d) Condensation

Answer: B
Question: The process of evaporation causes:
(a) Cooling
(b) Heating
(c) Dryness
(d) None of the above

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following substances will undergo

sublimation?
(a) Sugar
(b) Common salt
(c) Odonil
(d) Sand

Answer: C

Question: Which of the following has highest

intermolecular forces of attraction?
(a) Iron metal
(b) Water at room temperature
(c) CO2 gas
(d) Ethyl alcohol

Answer: A

Question: The boiling point of water is:

(a) 0K at atmospheric pressure
(b) 273K at atmospheric pressure
(c) 0oC at atmospheric pressure
(d) 101oC at atmospheric pressure

Answer: D
Question: Which of the following is not characteristic of
solid:
(a) High compressibility
(b) High Rigidity
(c) Regular Shape
(d) High density

Answer: A

Question: The state of matter where matter is condensed

is:
(i) solid state
(ii) liquid state
(iii) gaseous state
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).

Answer : (iii)
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 15
Improvement in Food Resources
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 15
Improvement in Food Resources in Class 9.

Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources MCQ

Questions Class 9 Science with Answers
Question: Rohu and catla are types of

a) Freshwater fish

b) Marine water fish

c) Both Freshwater fish and Marine water fish

d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question: Leghorn is related to

a) Poultry

b) Apiculture

c) Dairy farming

d) Pisciculture

Answer : A

Question: What is the process of growing two or more

crops in a definite pattern?
a) Inter-cropping

b) Crop rotation

c) Mixed cropping

d) Organic cropping

Answer : A

Question: Pasturage is related to

a) Fishery

b) Cattle

c) Apiculture

d) Sericulture

Answer : C

Question: The management and production of fish is called

a) Apiculture

b) Pisciculture

c) Sericulture

d) Aquaculture

Answer : B

Question: What is the other name for Apis cerana indica?

a) Indian cow

b) Indian bee
c) Indian buffalo

d) None of the options

Answer : B

Question: Mullets, prawns, mussels are examples of

a) Marine fishes

b) Fresh-water fishes

c) Finned fishes

d) Shell fish

Answer : A

Question: Cyperinus and Parthenium are types of

a) Weeds

b) Diseases

c) Pesticides

d) Pathogens

Answer : A

Question: Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are

examples of

a) Fertilizers

b) Micro-nutrients

c) Macro-nutrients
d) Both Micro-nutrients and Fertilizers

Answer : C

Question: Using fertilizers in farming is an example of

a) High cost production

b) No cost production

c) None of the options

d) Low cost production

Answer : A

Question. Which one is an oil yielding plant among the

following?
(a) Lentil
(b) Sunflower
(c) Cauliflower
(d) Hibiscus

Answer : B

Question. Quality of honey bee depends on……………

(a) Pasturage
(b) Flowers availability
(c) Pollen collection
(d) All of them

Answer : D
Question. To enhances fish seed quality now worked on
breed these fish in ponds using ……………..
(a) Hormonal modification
(b) Gene transfer
(c) Hormonal stimulation
(d) Gene abbreviation

Answer : C

Question. Main sugar present in the honey is :-

(a) Maltose
(b) Levulose
(c) Dextrose
(d) Ribose

Answer : B

Question. Vitamin A and K is rich in…………..

(a) Rice crop
(b) Poultry feed
(c) Parasites
(d) Manure

Answer : B

Question. The energy currency of a cell is –

(a) ADP
(b) AMP
(c) ATP
(d) CTP

Answer: C
Question. It is not micronutrient present in soil
(a) Iron
(b) Manganese
(c) Chlorine
(d) Nitrogen

Answer: D

Question. There are present numerous exotic breeds of

poultry which have been successfully acclimatized in India.
One of the most popular exotic breeds of fowl in India,
which produces long white eggs, has a very small body
size, so needs less feed for its maintenance. Choose the
right name for the breed with all these characteristics.
(a) Rhode Island Red
(b) White Leghorn
(c) Light Sussex
(d) Black Minorcha

Answer: B

Question. Most of the human neurons are

(a) multipolar
(b) bipolar
(c) unipolar
(d) pseudo-unipolar

Answer: A

Question. Rice, maize, sorghum, provides us …………………

for energy requirement
(a) Proteiens
(b) Crabohydrates
(c) Vitamins
(d) Amino acids

Answer: B

Question. Preventive and control measures adopted for the

storage of grains include
(a) strict cleaning
(b) proper disjoining
(c) fumigation
(d) all of the above

Answer : D

Question …………………… occurs because of scarcity or

irregular distribution of rains
(a) Cyclone
(b) Earthquake
(c) Droughts
(d) Tsunami

Answer : C

Question. Root hair absorbs water from soil through –

(a) Osmosis
(b) Active transport
(c) Diffusion
(d) Endocytosis

Answer : A
Question. Weeds affect the crop plants by
(a) killing of plants in field before they grow
(b) dominating the plants to grow
(c) competing for various resources of crops (plants)
causing low availability of nutrients
(d) all of the above.

Answer : C

Question. Find out the wrong statement among the

following:
(a) White revolution is meant for increase in milk production
(b) Blue revolution is meant for increase in fish production
(c) Increasing food production without compromising with
environment quality is called as sustainable agriculture
(d) None of these

Answer: D

Question. Leghorn is an exotic breed of:

(a) Marine prawn
(b) Milch animal
(c) Poultry
(d) Drought animal

Answer : C

Question. Poultry fowl are susceptible to the following

pathogens
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) All of the above

Answer : D

Question. Weeds are the unwanted plants that grow along

with the cultivated plants. How do they affect the crop
plants?
(a) By killing plants in the field before they grow
(b) By dominating the plants to grow
(c) Competing for various resources of plants causing low
availability of nutrients
(d) All of above

Answer: C

Question. It is not way to improve crop

(a) by incorporation of gene
(b) inter varietal
(c) inter specific
(d) inter changeable fertilizers

Answer: D

Question. Which of the following species is an Indian cow?

(a) Bos domestica
(b) Bos indicus
(c) Bos vulgaris
(d) Bos bubalis

Answer: B
Question. We get proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins
from…………
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) Food
(d) Water

Answer: C

Question. It is does not the way to attack pest on crop

(a) They cut root, stem, leaf
(b) Suck the cell sap
(c) They bore into stem and fruits
(d) None of them

Answer: D

Question. It is not finned fish

(a) Mullets
(b) Bhetki
(c) Prawns
(d) Rohu

Answer: D

Question. Ribosomes are the centre for –

(a) Respiration
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Protein synthesis
(d) Fat synthesis

Answer: C
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 14
Natural Resources
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 14
Natural Resources in Class 9.

Chapter 14 Natural Resources MCQ Questions

Class 9 Science with Answers
Question: Soil is a part of
(A) atmosphere
(B) lithosphere
(C) hydrosphere
(D) ionosphere

Answer : B

Question: Maximum air in which we breath is present at

(A) troposphere
(B) stratosphere
(C) ionosphere
(D) mesosphere

Answer : A

Question: Biogeochemical cycles are also known as

(A) sedimentary cycles
(B) gaseous cycles
(C) material cycles
(D) cycles of water

Answer : C
Question: Which of the following is a free living nitrogen
fixing bacteria present in soil ?
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Nitrosomonas
(C) Rhizobium
(D) pseudomonas

Answer : A

Question: CO2 and O2 balance in atmosphere is due to

(A) Photosynthesis
(B) respiration
(C) leaf anatomy
(D) photorespiration

Answer : A

Question: The micro-organisms which helps in formation

of soil is
a) Lichen
b) Bacteria
c) Moss
d) B and c

Answer : A

Question. If there were no atmosphere around the Earth,

the temperature of the Earth will
(a) increase
(b) go on decreasing
(c) increase during day and decrease during night
(d) be unaffected
Answer : C

Question. Outer crust of earth is called ……………..

(a) Outer sphere
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) None of them

Answer : B

Question. When we breathe in air, nitrogen also goes inside

along with oxygen. What is the fate of nitrogen?
(a) It moves along with oxygen into the cells
(b) It comes out with the carbon dioxide during exhalation
(c) It is absorbed only by the nasal cells
(d) Nitrogen concentration is already more in the cells, so
itis not at all absorbed

Answer : B

Question. Microorganism living in pond called …………..

which is autotrophic
(a) Crab
(b) Fish
(c) Blue green algae
(d) Fungus

Answer : C

Question. What would happen, if all the oxygen present in

the environment is converted to ozone?
(a) We will be protected more
(b) It will become poisonous and kill all living forms
(c) Ozone is not stable, hence it will be toxic
(d) It will allow harmful sun radiations to reach earth and
damage many life forms

Answer : B

Question. Rainfall patterns depend on

(a) the underground water table
(b) the number of water bodies in an area
(c) the density pattern of human population in an area
(d) the prevailing season in an area

Answer : B

Question: Nitrogen fixation is

(A) Nitrogen Ammonia
(B) Nitrogen nitrates
(C) Nitrogen Amino acid
(D) Both A and B

Answer : D

Question: Soil erosion can be prevented by

(A) deforestation
(B) afforestation
(C) overgrazing
(D) removal of vegetation

Answer : B

Question: A renewable source of energy is

(A) petroleum
(B) coal
(C) nuclear fuel
(D) trees

Answer : D

Question: Nodules in the roots of legume plants contain

(A) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(B) sulphur fixing bacteria
(C) potassium fixing bacteria
(D) none of the above

Answer : A

Question: Which gas is manly responsible for the depletion

of ozone layer ?
(A) oxygen
(B) CFC
(C) Nitrogen dioxide
(D) All of the above

Answer : B

Question: Acid rain mainly contains

(A) nitric acid
(B) hydrochloric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid
(D) (A) and (C)

Answer : D

Question: Plants and animals are known as

(A) biotic resources
(B) Abiotic resources
(C) machines
(D) none of these

Answer : A

Question: Coal is an / a
(A) exhaustible resource
(B) inexhaustible resource
(C) potential resource
(D) none of these

Answer : A

Question: Ozonosphere occurs at height of

(A) 8-10km above poles
(B) 8-10km above equator
(C) 20-26 km above the earth surface
(D) 11-16km above equator

Answer : C

Question: Biosphere is made of

(A) living beings and their remains
(B) living beings, lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
(C) living beings and lithosphere
(D) living beings, lithosphere and hydrosphere.

Answer : B

Question: Soil erosion can be prevented by

(A) deforestation
(B) afforestation
(C) overgrazing
(D) removal of vegetation

Answer : B

Question: The life supporting zone of the earth is

a) Lithosphere
b) Biosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Atmosphere

Answer: B

Question: Depletion of ozone molecules in the stratosphere

is due to
a) Halogen compound
b) Fluorine compound
c) Chlorine compound
d) None of the options

Answer: A

Question: On moon the temperature ranges from -190

degree C to 110 degree C. This is due to
a) Water bodies present
b) No bio geo chemical cycle
c) No atmosphere
d) No water bodies present

Answer: C
Question: Life cannot sustain on Mars and Venus because
major component in atmosphere is
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Ozone

Answer : A

Question: Molecules of proteins contain

a) All of the options
b) Carbon
c) Nitrogen
d) Oxygen

Answer : A

Question: Atmosphere maintain the temperature of earth

because
a) It absorbs the heat rays
b) It contains water vapor
c) It reflects the heat rays
d) It hold air, which is bad conductor of heat

Answer : D

Question: Nitrogen fixation can be done by

a) All of the options
b) Industries
c) Rhizobium
d) Lightening

Answer : A
Question: Greenhouse gases are
a) Rhizobium
b) Lightening
c) All of the options
d) Industries

Answer : C

Question: Burning of fossil fuels add

a) CO2, SO2, NO2, gases in air
b) C, SO2, N2, gases in air
c) CH4, CO2, NO2, gases in air
d) CO, SO3, NO3, gases in air

Answer : A

Question. The protein deposited in the dead superficial

cells that make the skin epithelium impervious to water is
(a) keratin
(b) elastin
(c) collagen
(d) mucus

Answer : A

Question. In nutrient cycle, minerals tend to be dispersed

through
(a) evaporation
(b) assimilation
(c) surface and sub-surface run off
(d) convection

Answer : C
Question. Air, water, and soil is…………………….. component
(a) Biotic component
(b) Abiotic component
(c) A and b both
(d) None of them

Answer: B

Question. Increase harmful substances in air called

as……………..
(a) Air pollution
(b) Droplets
(c) Water vapor
(d) None of them

Answer : A

Question. If the carbon dioxide content in the atmosphere

is increased then which one of the following would not get
affected?
(a) Amount of the heat retained by the environment
(b) Process of photosynthesis in plants
(c) Global warming
(d) Existence of desert plants

Answer: D

Question. Ozone layer is getting depleted because of

(a) excessive use of automobiles
(b) excessive formation of industrial units
(c) excessive use of man-made compounds containing both
fluorine and chlorine
(d) excessive deforestation

Answer : C

Question. Total Earth’s surface covered by water is

(a) 75%
(b) 60%
(c) 85%
(d) 50%

Answer : A

Question. Which step is not involved in the carbon-cycle?

(o) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Respiration
(d) Burning of fossil fuels

Answer : B

Question. Marked temperature changes in an aquatic

environment can affect
(a) breeding of animals
(b) more growth of aquatic plants
(c) process of digestion in animals
(d) availability of nutrients.

Answer : A
Question. mog is the mixture of
(a) smoke + CO2
(b) smoke + nitrogen
(c) smoke + fog
(d) smoke + ozone

Answer : C

Question. Through which process is oxygen returned to the

atmosphere?
(a) Combustion
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Respiration
(d) Formation of nitrogen oxides

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following is not a "Greenhouse gas"

?
(a) SO2
(b) CO2
(c) N2O
(d) CH4

Answer : A

Question. The ‘water pollution’ can be defined in several

ways. Which of the following statements does not give the
correct definition?
(a) The addition of the undesirable substances to water
bodies
(b) The removal of the desirable substances from water
bodies
(c) A change in pressure of the water bodies
(d) A change in temperature of the water bodies

Answer: C

Question. A pollutant is any substance, chemical or other

factor that changes natural :
(a) Geo-chemical cycle
(b) Flora of a place
(c) Balance of our environment
(d) Wild life of a region

Answer: C

Question. Water is ……………….. conductor of heat

(a) Good
(b) Bad
(c) More
(d) Less

Answer : A

Question. Major component of the atmosphere on Mars

and Venus is
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Water vapour

Answer: C
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 13 Why
Do We Fall Ill
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 13 Why
Do We Fall Ill in Class 9.

Chapter 13 Why Do We Fall Ill MCQ Questions

Class 9 Science with Answers
Question: The disease caused due to worm is

a) Sleeping sickness

b) Tetanus

c) Rabies

d) Filariasis

Answer: D

Question: Penicillin is a drug that can

a) An antibiotic that can kill bacteria

b) Interfere in the biological pathway of bacteria

c) None of the options

d) Both Interfere in the biological pathway of bacteria and

An antibiotic that can kill bacteria

Answer: C

Question: The pathogens od disease are

a) Protozoa

b) Bacteria

c) Virus

d) All of the options

Answer : A

Question: HIV virus attacks one of the following cells in our

body

a) White blood cells

b) Red blood cells

c) Long cell

d) Liver cell

Answer : C

Question: The bacteria among the following is

a) Salmonella typhi

b) Plasmodium

c) Rabies virus

d) Trypanosome

Answer : D

Question: Diarrhea, cholera, typhoid are the diseases that

have one thing in common that is
a) All of the options

b) All of them are cured by antibiotics

c) All of them is transmitted by contaminated food and

water

d) All of them are caused by bacteria

Answer : A

Question: Plasmodium is an example of

a) Virus

b) Protozoa

c) Bacteria

d) Worm

Answer : B

Question: Malaria is caused due to

a) Both Protozoa and Anopheles mosquito

b) Protozoa

c) Anopheles mosquito

d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question: The BCG vaccine is given for the immunity

against
a) Jaundice

b) Hepatitis

c) Tuberculosis

d) Malaria

Answer: C

Question: The disease that affects our lungs is

a) Rabies

b) AIDS

c) Polio

d) Tuberculosis

Answer : D

Question: Larynx is called

a) Voice box

b) Respiratory organ

c) Music box

d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question. Congenital disease is

(a) Deficiency disease
(b) Present from the time of birth
(c) Spread from man to man
(d) That occurs during lifetime

Answer : A

Question. Which one of the following is not a viral disease?

(a) Dengue
(b) AIDS
(c) Typhoid
(d) Influenza

Answer : C

Question. Which one of the following is not a bacterial

disease?
(a) Cholera
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Anthrax
(d) Influenza

Answer : D

Question. Examples of communicable diseases are

Tuberculosis
(a) Diabetes
(b) Arthritis
(c) Cancer
(a) None

Answer : A
Question. Sleeping sickness is caused by ____________, a
protozoan.
(a) Trypanosoma
(b) Euglena
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Amoeba

Answer : A

Question. Which one of the following diseases is not

caused by bacteria?
(a) Typhoid
(b) Anthrax
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Malaria

Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following has a long term effect

on the health of an individual?
(a) Common cold
(b) Chicken pox
(c) Chewing tobacco
(d) Stress

Answer : C

Question. Many of the people suffer from the problem of

acnes and feel annoyed of the ugly skin texture caused due
to the acne spots. Can you guess the microorganism
causing these acne?
(a) H1N1 virus
(b) Trypanosoma
(c)Leishmania
(d) Staphylococcus

Answer : D

Question. Microbes are immediate cause of _______

disease.
(a) Infectious
(b) Non-infectious
(c) Acute
(d) Chronic.

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following diseases is caused by

worm?
(a) Measles
(b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Elephantiasis

Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following is not important for

individual health?
(a) Living in clean space
(b) Good economic condition
(c) Social equality and harmony
(d) Living in a large and well furnished house

Answer : D
Question. Malarial parasite after entering the human body
reaches the
(a) liver and then RBCs
(b) stomach and then RBCs
(c) liver and then WBCs
(d) stomach and then salivary glands

Answer : A

Question. We should not allow mosquitoes to breed in our

surroundings because they
(a) multiply very fast and cause pollution
(b) are vectors for many diseases
(c) bite and cause skin diseases
(d) are not important insects

Answer : B

Question. Larynx is called

(a) Voice box
(b) Music box
(c) Respiratory organ
(d) None of these

Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following has a long term effect

on the health of an individual?
(a) Common cold
(b) Chicken pox
(c) Chewing tobacco
(d) Stress
Answer : C

Question. TAB-vaccine is used to provide immunity against

Typhoid for a period of three years.What is the correct
abbreviation of TAB?
(a) Typhoid-Paratyphoid A and B Vaccine
(b) Typhoid-Partialtyphoid A and B Vaccine
(c)Typhoid-Peroxytyphoid A and B Vaccine
(d) Typhoid-Pertyphoid A and B Vaccine

Answer : A

Question. Plasmodium is an example of

(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Protozoa
(d) Worm

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following organism causes acne?

(a) Trypanosoma
(b) Lactobacillus
(c) Staphylococcus
(d) Plasmodium

Answer : C

Question. HIV virus attacks one of the following cells in our

body
(a) Red blood cells
(b) White blood cells
(c) Liver cell
(d) Long cell

Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following is not important for

individual health?
(a) Living in a clean place
(b) Good economic condition
(c) Social equality and harmony
(d) Living in large, well-furnished house

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is the literal meaning of

disease?
(a) Being happy
(b) Being unaware
(c) Being uncomfortable
(d) Being uncomplicated

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following bacteria cause peptic

ulcer?
(a) Helicobactor chlolecystus
(b) Helicobactor salomonis
(c) Helicobactor pylori
(d) Helicobactor hepaticus

Answer : C
Question. The disease caused due to worm is
(a) Tetanus
(b) Rabies
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Filariasis

Answer : D

Question. The main symptoms of the HIV-AIDS infection

are due to the fact that patient’s body can no longer fight
off many minor infections and hence becomes the reason
of the patient’s ultimate death.
This happens because:
(a) HIV virus alone causes all the infections
(b) HIV virus releases a poison in the body
(c) HIV virus damages the immune system of the body
(d) HIV virus directly attacks the human nervous system

Answer : C

Question. Acute diseases last for:

(a) Long period of time
(b) Only few hours
(c) Short period of time
(d) Life long

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is a chronic disease?

(a) Cold
(b) Diabetes
(c) Influenza
(d) Typhoid

Answer : B

More Science Study Material

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›
 Chapter 01 Matter in Our Surroundings

CBSE Class 9 Science Matter In Our Surroundings MCQs

(/mcq-chemistry-cbse-class-9-chemistry-matter-our-
surroundings-mcqs-set-b-311610.html)
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 12
Sound
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 12
Sound in Class 9.

Chapter 12 Sound MCQ Questions Class 9 Science

with Answers
Question. If the wave is propagating having
the number of waves shown in the figure per
second ,then the frequency of the wave is

(a) 5Hz
(b) 6Hz
(c) 3Hz
(d) 10Hz

Answer : A

Question. The characteristic of sound which enables us to

distinguish one sound from another having the same pitch
and loudness
(a) Timber
(b) Amplitude
(c) Shrillness
(d) Intensity

Answer : A

Question. Sound waves with frequency less than 20 Hz and

more than 20000 Hz is called
(a) Supersonic and ultrasonic
(b) Sonic boom and supersonic
(c) Infrasonic and sonic boom
(d) Infrasonic and ultrasonic

Answer : D

Question. The product of time-period and frequency is

(a) Infinity
(b) Zero
(c) Unity
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. Sound waves are

(a) Longitudinal
(b) Partly longitudinal, partly transverse
(c) Transverse
(d) Sometimes longitudinal, sometimes transverse

Answer : A
Question. The time period of a simple pendulum in a
spacecraft orbiting the earth is
(a) Infinity
(b) Zero
(c) One second
(d) Two seconds

Answer : A

Question. Speed of sound in vacuum is

(a) 300 m/s
(b) 600m/s
(c) 380m/s
(d) 340m/s

Answer : D

Question. The sound which is produced due to a mixture of

several frequencies is called
(a) A note
(b) A tone
(c) Frequency
(d) Amplitude

Answer : A

Question. Pitch of the wave is measured in terms of

(a) Speed of the wave
(b) Amplitude of the wave
(c) Frequency of the wave
(d) Time period of the wave

Answer : C
Question. The distance between any two compressions or
rarefactions in a longitudinal wave is
(a) One wavelength
(b) Half wavelength
(c) Twice the wavelength
(d) One fourth wavelength

Answer : A

Question. Sound waves are

(a) Longitudinal in n nature
(b) Transverse in nature
(c) Electromagnetic in nature
(d) Magnetic in nature

Answer : A

Question. Compression is a region of

(a) No pressure
(b) Low pressure
(c) Atmospheric pressure
(d) High pressure

Answer : D

Question. For its propagation sound requires

(a) All of the above
(b) Air
(c) Water
(d) Iron

Answer : A
Question. SI unit of frequency is
(a) Meter
(b) Hertz
(c) M/s
(d) M/s2

Answer : B

Question. In gases a sound wave is

(a) Longitudinal only
(b) Transverse only
(c) Both Transverse and Longitudinal
(d) Neither Transverse Nor Longitudinal

Answer : C

Question. A wave in slinky travelled two and fro in 5 sec the

length of the slinky is 5m. What is the velocity of wave?
(a) 10m.s
(b) 5m/s
(c) 2m/s
(d) 25m/s

Answer : C
Question. Before the main shock waves, the earthquake
produces the characteristic sound waves which some
animals like rhinoceros can hear. Can you guess the kind of
sound waves produced here?
(a) Infrasonic sounds
(b) Ultrasonic sounds
(c) Audible Sounds
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. The bats can fly in the darkness of night without

colliding with the other objects by emitting special sounds
while flying. Which characteristic of sound is used by the
bats to navigate?
(a) Ultrasound
(b) Infrasound
(c) Audible sound
(d) None of these

Answer : A
Question. Speed of sound depends upon
(a) Temperature of the medium
(b) Pressure of the medium
(c) Temperature of source producing sound
(d) Temperature and pressure of medium

Answer : A
Question. Which of the following can produce longitudinal
as well as transverse waves under different conditions?
(a) Bats
(b) Slinky
(c) Tuning fork
(d) None of these

Answer : B
Question. You must have seen the doctor checking the
sounds produced in the chest or heartbeat of a patient
using a medical instrument called Stethoscope. On what
principle does this Stethoscope work?
(a) Multiple refractions
(b) Multiple reflections
(c) Wave motion
(d) None of these

Answer : B
Question. What do dolphins, bats and porpoise use
(a) Ultrasound
(b) Infrasound
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of them

Answer : A
Question. You must have seen the doctor checking the
sounds produced in the chest or heartbeat of a patient
using a medical instrument called Stethoscope. On what
principle does this Stethoscope work?
(a) Multiple refractions
(b) Multiple reflections
(c) Wave motion
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. The bats can fly in the darkness of night without

colliding with the other objects by emitting special sounds
while flying. Which characteristic of sound is used by the
bats to navigate?
(a) Ultrasound
(b) Infrasound
(c) Audible sound
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. The sound can travel in air when:

(a) Particles of medium travel from one place to another
(b) There is no moisture in the atmosphere
(c) Disturbance travel from one place to another
(d) Both particles as well as disturbance travel from one
place to another

Answer : C

Question. On increasing the temperature, the speed of

sound in air:
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Does not change
(d) First increases then becomes constant

Answer : A

Question Loudness measures the sound energy reaching

the ear per second and depends on the amplitude of the
sound wave. What is the unit used to measure the loudness
of sound?
(a) hertz
(b) decibel
(c) meter/second
(d) second

Answer : B

Question . We can distinguish between a man’s voice and a

woman’s voice of the same loudness even without seeing
them. This is due to a characteristic of sound which
measures the shrillness of sounds. Can you choose the
correct unit of the quantity on which this characteristic of
sound depends?
(a) hertz
(b) meter/second
(c) meter
(d) unitless

Answer : A

Question . The sound can travel in air when:

(a) Particles of medium travel from one place to another
(b) There is no moisture in the atmosphere
(c) Disturbance travel from one place to another
(d) Both particles as well as disturbance travel from one
place to another

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following can produce longitudinal

as well as transverse waves under different conditions?
(a) Bats
(b) Slinky
(c) Tuning fork
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. The bats can fly in the darkness of night without

colliding with the other objects by emitting special sounds
while flying. Which characteristic of sound is used by the
bats to navigate?
(a) Ultrasound
(b) Infrasound
(c) Audible sound
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. If the speed of a wave is 380 m/s and its

frequency is 1900 Hz, then the wavelength of the wave will
be:
(a) 20 m
(b) 0.2 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 2 m

Answer : B

Question. A key of mechanical piano is first struck gently

and then struck again but much harder this time. What kind
of change in sound will you observe in the second case:
(a) Sound will be louder but the pitch will not be different
(b) Sound will be louder and the pitch will also be higher
(c) Sound will be louder but the pitch will be lower
(d) Both loudness and pitch will remain unaffected

Answer : C

Question. On increasing the temperature, the speed of

sound in air:
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Does not change
(c) First increases then becomes constant

Answer : A
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 11
Work and Energy
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 11
Work and Energy in Class 9.

Chapter 11 Work and Energy MCQ Questions Class

9 Science with Answers
Question. Water stored in a dam posseses:
(a) No energy
(b) potential energy
(c) kinetic energy
(d) electrical energy

Answer: B

Question. When a body falls freely towards the earth then

the total energy
(a) remains constant
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) first increases and then decreases

Answer: A

Question. Power of a woman is equal to:

(a) work /time
(b) work /time x work
(c) work x time
(d) time/work
Answer : A

Question. A spring is compresse The P.E of the

compressed spring
(a) increase
(b) becomes zero
(c) remains unchanged
(d) decrease

Answer: D

Question. The potential energy of a girl is maximum

(a) standing
(b) sleeping on the ground
(c) sitting on the ground
(d) sitting on the ground

Answer: A

Question. A child on a skateboard is moving at a speed of 2

m/s. After a force acts on the child, her speed is 3 m/s.
What can you say about the work done by the external
force on the child?
(a) Zero work was done
(b) negative work was done
(c) positive work was done
(d) Infinite work was done

Answer: C

Question. Mike applied 10 N of force over 3 m in 10

seconds. Joe applied the same force over the same
distance in 1 minute. Who did more work?
(a) Mike
(b) both did zero work
(c) both did the same work
(d) Joe

Answer: C

Question. Work done by tension in the string when a ball

tied to a string is being whirled around in a circle is
(a) tension does no work at all
(b) tension does negative work
(c) tension does positive work
(d) tension does zero work

Answer: A

Question. The value of 1KWH is

(a) 3.6 X 106 J
(b) 3.6 X 105J
(c) 3.6 X 107 J
(d) 3.6 X 109 J

Answer: A

Question. When force acts in opposite direction the work

done is
(a) negative
(b) Positive
(c) infinity
(d) Zero
Answer: A

Question. When a spring is compressed work is done on it.

Its elastic potential energy
(a) increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Disappears
(d) Does not change

Answer: B

Question. When a body rolls down an inclined plane, then it

has
(a) It has no energy
(b) Only Kinetic energy
(c) It has potential energy
(d) Both kinetic and potential energy

Answer: D

Question. On a rough surface a mass is ((a) pulled,((b)

pushed by a force acting at an angle with the surface.
(a) Pulling is easier
(b) Pushing is easier
(c) Pushing and pulling both are easier
(d) Pushing and pulling g are not easier

Answer: A

Question. A stone rubbed on a rough surface and placed on

the skin will show heating sensation, because
(a) Friction causes heat
(b) Heat cannot flow from the skin to
(c) Heat flows from the stone to skin
(d) Heat cannot flow

Answer: A

Question. Work done by a body from Force-distance curve

is
(a) Area under the curve
(b) Slope of the curve
(c) Line parallel to the distance axis
(d) Line parallel to the Force axis

Answer: A

Question. When a body falls freely towards the earth, then

its total energy
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases

Answer : C

Question. In the SI system, the unit of potential energy is

(a) newton
(b) joule
(c) watt
(d) metre per second

Answer : B
Question. Work done by centripetal force is
(a) >0
(b) ≥0
(c) <0
(d) 0

Answer : D

Question. What is the commercial unit of energy?

(a) electron volt
(b) W/s
(c) kW h
(d) joule

Answer : C

Question. When a body like earth is moving in a circular

path the work done in that case is zero because:
(a) Centripetal force acts in the direction of motion of the
body
(b) Centripetal force acts along the radius of circular path
(c) Gravitational force acts along the radius of circular path
(d) Centrifugal force acts perpendicular to the radius of
circular path

Answer : B

Question. 9800 joule of energy was spent to raise a mass

of 50kg, the mass was raised to a height of
(a) 20m
(b) 980m
(c) 10m
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. SI unit of power is

(a) watt
(b) joule
(c) newton
(d) metre

Answer : A

Question. A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on

her back and moves 200 m on a levelled road. The work
done against the gravitational force will be (g = 10 ms²)
(a) 6 × 10³ J
(b) 6 J
(c) 0.6 J
(d) zero

Answer : D

Question. Work done by a body is

(a) negative, positive or zero
(b) always positive
(c) always zero
(d) always negative

Answer : A
Question. A rocket rises up in the air due to the force
generated by the fuel. The work done by the:
(a) fuel is negative work and that of force of gravity is
positive work
(b) fuel is positive work and that of force of gravity is
negative work
(c) both fuel and force of gravity do positive work
(d) both fuel and force of gravity do negative work

Answer : B

Question. A body is falling from a height h. After it has

fallen a height h/2, it will possess
(a) only potential energy
(b) only kinetic energy
(c) half potential and half kinetic energy
(d) more kinetic and less potential energy

Answer : C

Question. If speed of a car becomes 2 times, its kinetic

energy becomes
(a) 4 times
(b) 8 times
(c) 16 times
(d) 12 times

Answer : A

Question. The form of energy possessed by a flying bird is:

(a) Kinetic energy
(b) Potential energy
(c) Both kinetic and potential energy
(d) Can’t say

Answer : C

Question. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m.

(a) Its potential energy increases and kinetic energy
decreases during the falls
(b) Its potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy during
the fall.
(c) The potential energy decreases and the kinetic energy
increases during the fall.
(d) The potential energy is ‘O’ and kinetic energy is
maximum while it is falling.

Answer : C

Question. The work done is '0' if

(a) The body shows displacement in the opposite direction

of the force applied.
(b) The body shows displacement in the same direction as
that of the force applied.
(c) The body shows a displacement in perpendicular
direction to the force applied.
(d) The body masses obliquely to the direction of the force
applied.

Answer : B

Question. Work done by the gravitational force of earth on

a satellite along a circular path is
(a) O
(b) minimum
(c) max
(d) all of these

Answer : A

Question. A body is falling from a height h. After it has

fallen to a height of h/2, it will possess:
(a) Only kinetic energy
(b) Half kinetic and half potential energy
(c) Only potential energy
(d) More kinetic and less potential energy

Answer : D

Question. When speed of the moving object is doubled its

(a) Acceleration is doubled
(b) Momentum becomes four times more
(c) K E. is increased to four times
(d) Potential energy is increased

Answer : C
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 10
Gravitation
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 10
Gravitation in Class 9.

Chapter 10 Gravitation MCQ Questions Class 9

Science with Answers
Question: The mass of an object is
(a) The amount of matter contained in the object,
independent of where that object is found
(b) the force of gravity on that object located at a particular
point in space
(c) dependent on whether the object is on the Earth or
elsewhere.
(d) divided by the Earth acceleration due to gravity to equal
force.

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following was NOT a contribution of

Newtons to science?
(a) the first good experimental measure of G, the
gravitational constant of proportionality
(b) the law of universal gravitation
(c) F = ma
(d) explanations of optical phenomena

Answer: A
Question: If the distance between objects increases, then
the gravitational force between the objects will:
(a) remain same
(b) none of these
(c) decrease
(d) Increase

Answer: C

Question: The relation between the weight of an object on

the moon (WM) and on the earth (WE)
(a) WM =6 WE
(b) We = 1/6WM
(c) WM= We
(d) WM =1/6 (We)

Answer: D

Question: The weight of an object is:

(a) lesser on earth and greater on moon
(b) Equal on both earth and moon
(c) Greater on earth and lesser on moon
(d) none of these

Answer: C

Question: The upward force exerted by the liquid displaced

by the body when it is placed inside the liquid is called
(a) Buoyant force
(b) Gravitational force
(c) Centripetal force
(d) Force of gravitation
Answer: A

Question: SI Unit of pressure is

(a) Pascal
(b) Newton
(c) m/s
(d) Dyne

Answer: A

Question: The force acting on an object perpendicular to

the surface is called
(a) weight
(b) Pressure
(c) Weight
(d) thrust

Answer: D

Question: The expression for finding the gravitational force

of attraction between any two bodies is
(a) F= G m1m2/r3
(b) F= G m1m2/r
(c) F= Gm1 m2/r2
(d) F = Gm1/r

Answer: C

Question: The force which keeps the body to move in

circular motion when accelerated is
(a) Force of gravitation
(b) Magnetic force
(c) Centripetal force
(d) Electrostatic force

Answer: C

Question: The time of ascent when measured from the

point of projection of a body projected upwards , the
(a) Time of ascent=Time of descent
(b) Time of ascent > Time of descent
(c) Time of ascent < Time of descent
(d) All of the above

Answer: A

Question: Weight of an object on the surface of the moon

is
(a) 1/6 that on the surface of the earth
(b) 1/5 th that on the surface of the earth
(c) 1/3 that on the surface of the earth
(d) 1/2 that on the surface of the earth

Answer: A

Question: The value of acceleration due to gravity at the

poles
(a) zero
(b) Same as at the equator
(c) Is less than at the equator
(d) Is more than at the equator

Answer: D
Question: The value of acceleration due to gravity at the
highest point of the motion of the body when a body is
projected upwards
(a) 9.8 m/s2 downwards
(b) 0 m/s2
(c) 6 m/s2
(d) 9.8 m/s2 upwards

Answer: A

Question: The value of acceleration due to gravity of the

surface of the earth is
(a) 9.8 m/s2
(b) 6 m/s2
(c) 8 m/s2
(d) 4.9 m/s2

Answer: A

Question. A body of mass 1kg is attracted by the earth with

a force which is equal to
(a) 9.8N
(b) 6.67x 1011
(c) 1 N
(d) 9.8m/s

Answer : A

Question. The SI unit of pressure is

(a) Nm2
(b) N/m
(c) N/m2
(d) N2/m2

Answer : C

Question. Two objects of different masses falling freely

near the surface of the moon would
(a) have same velocities at any instant
(b) have different acceleration
(c) experience forces of same magnitude
(d) undergo a change in their inertia

Answer : A

Question. Choose the correct unit for the relative density

among the following:
(a) kg/cm
(b) unitless
(c) kg/cm
(d) kg/m3

Answer : B

Question. The gravitational force causes

(a) Tides
(b) Motion of moon
(c) None of them
(d) Both a n b

Answer : D
Question. A girl stands on a box having 60 cm length, 40
cm breadth and 20 cm width in three ways. In which of the
following cases, pressure exerted by the box will be
(a) maximum when length and breadth form the base
(b) maximum when breadth and width form the base
(c) maximum when width and length form the base
(d) the same in all the above three cases

Answer : B

Question. The Earth attracts the moon with a gravitational

force of 1020N. The moon attracts the earth with a
gravitational force of
(a) Less than 1020N
(b) 1020N
(c) Greater than 1020N
(d) 10-20N

Answer : C

Question. The gravitational force between two bodies does

not depend on
(a) their separation
(b) their masses
(c) the product of their masses
(d) the medium between the two bodies

Answer : D

Question. An apple falls from a tree because of the

gravitational attraction between the earth and the apple. If
F1 is the magnitude of the force exerted by the earth on
the apple and F2 is the magnitude of the force exerted by
the apple on the earth, then
(a) F1 is very much greater than F2
(b) F2 is very much greater than F1
(c) F1 and F2 are equal
(d) F1 is only a little greater than F2

Answer : C

Question. In the relation F = GM mld2, the quantity G

(a) depends on the value ofg at the place of observation
(b) is used only when the Earth is one of the two masses
(c) is greatest at the surface of the Earth
(d) is universal constant of nature

Answer : D

Question. A rectangular block of wood of dimensions 40cm

x 20cm x 10cm is kept on a table top. The pressure is
greatest when it is rested on
(a) equal for all cases
(b) 20cm x 10 cm
(c) 40cm x 10cm
(d) 40cm x 20cm

Answer : B

Question. When a body is weighed in a liquid, the loss in

weight is equal to
(a) weight of liquid displaced by the body
(b) weight of water displaced by the body
(c) weight of body in air
(d) half the weight of body in air

Answer : A

Question. Two objects of different masses falling freely

near the surface of moon would:
(a) Have different accelerations
(b) Undergo a change in their inertia
(c) Have same velocities at any instant
(d) Experience forces of same magnitude

Answer : D

Question. The atmosphere is held to the Earth by

(a) gravity
(b) wind
(c) clouds
(d) Earth’s magnetic field

Answer : A

Question. Two particles are placed at some distance. If the

mass of each of the two particles is doubled, keeping the
distance between them unchanged, the value of
gravitational force between them will be:
(a) 1/4 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 1/2 times
(d) Unchanged

Answer: B
Question. The earth and the moon are attracted to each
other by gravitational force. The earth attracts the moon
with a force that is:
(a) More than that exerted by the moon
(b) Same as that exerted by the moon
(c) Less than that exerted by the moon
(d) Not related to that exerted by the moon

Answer: B

Question. The walls of a dam at the bottom are made thick

because
(a) it looks attractive
(b) it is conventional
(c) it is convenient
(d) water exerts large pressure at the bottom

Answer: D

Question. A mass weighing W can float if the upthrust U is

related as
(a) U > W
(b) U = W
(c) U < W
(d) U ≥ W

Answer : A
Question.The unit of G in the S.I. system is:
(a) Newton m2/kg2
(b) Newton m2 kg2
(c) Newton m kg
(d) Newton m2/kg
Answer: A

Question. The weight of a body is 120 N on the earth. If it is

taken to the moon, its weight will be about
(a) 120 N
(b) 60 N
(c) 20 N
(d) 720 N

Answer: C

Question. Newton’s law of gravitation is valid

(a) on the earth only
(b) on the moon only
(c) in the laboratory only
(d) everywhere

Answer: D

Question. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the

moon is 1/6th of its value on the surface of the earth as
they have different______.
(a) mass
(b) density
(c) radius
(d) All of the above

Answer: D

Question. An object weighing 5 N in air, weighs 4.5 N a

liquid. The buoyant force experienced by the object is
(a) (5 + 4.5) N
(b) 4.5/5 N
(c) 5/4.5 N
(d) 0.5 N

Answer: D

Question. Universal law of gravitation does not explain

(a) the tides on earth due to the moon
(b) the motion of electrons in an atom
(c) the motion of planets around the Sun
(d) the motion of the moon around the earth

Answer: B

Question. An apple and a stone dropped from certain

height accelerates
(a) equally
(b) differently
(c) depending on density
(d) depends on the position of the sun

Answer: A

Question. An astronaut in the orbit in a spacecraft

feels weightlessness
(a) due to the absence of gravity inside
(b) due to the fact that spacecraft has no energy
(c) because acceleration in the orbit is equal to acceleration
of gravity outside
(d) there is no gravity outside

Answer: C
Question. A coin and a feather are dropped together in a
vacuum.
(a) The coin will reach the ground first.
(b) The feather will reach the ground first.
(c) Both will reach the ground together.correct
(d) The feather will not fall down.

Answer: C

Question. The mass of the earth is:

(a) 6.4 × 1024
(b) 6 × 1010 kg
(c) 6 × 1024 kg
(d) 6 × 1019 kg

Answer: C

Question. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) g is same at all places on the surface of earth.
(b) g has its maximum value at the equator.
(c) g is less at the earth’s surface than at a height above it
or a depth below it.
(d) g is greater at the poles than at the equator

Answer: D

Question. The atmosphere is held to the earth by:

(a) gravity
(b) wind
(c) clouds
(d) earth’s magnetic field

Answer: A
Question. The mass of a body is measured to be 12 kg on
the earth. If it is taken to the moon, its mass will be
(a) 12 Kgcorrect
(b) 6 Kg
(c) 2 Kg
(d) 72 Kg

Answer: A

Question. What happens to the acceleration due to gravity

with the increase in altitude from the surface of the earth?
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) First decreases and then increases
(d) Remains same

Answer: B

Question. If more force is required to bring a body into a

unit acceleration, the body has
(a) less mass
(b) zero mass
(c) more mass
(d) mass is independent of force

Answer: C

Question. Newton’s law of gravitation is valid

(a) in laboratory
(b) only on the earth
(c) only in our solar system
(d) everywhere
Answer: D

Question. Weight of an object is highest at

(a) Center of earth
(b) Poles
(c) Above the earth’s surface
(d) Equator

Answer: B

Question. The value of acceleration due to gravity at the

Mount
Everest is
(a) g
(b) > g
(c) < g
(d) zero

Answer: C

Question. Which of the following statements is/are

correct?
1. Mass of an object is the measure of its inertia.
2. Heavier the object smaller is the inertia.
3. The mass of an object is variable.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Answer: A
Question. At which of the following locations is the value of
g largest?
(a) On top of the Mount Everest
(b) On top of Qutub Minar
(c) At a place on the equator
(d) A camp site in Antarctica

Answer: D

Question. The weight of a body is 120 N on the earth. If it is

taken to the moon, its weight will be about
(a) 120 Nwrong
(b) 60 N
(c) 20 Ncorrect
(d) 720 N

Answer: C

Question. The mass of moon is about 0.012 times that of

the earth and its diameter is about 0.25 times that of earth.
The value of G on the moon will be:
(a) Same as that on the earth
(b) About one-fifth of that on the earth
(c) About one-sixth of that on the earth
(d) About one-fourth of that on the earth

Answer: A

Question. A ball weighing 4 kg of density 4000 kgm-3 is

completely immersed in water of density103 kgm-3. What
will be the buoyant force acting on it?
(a) 100 N
(b) 10 N
(c) 1600N
(d) 16 N

Answer: B

Question. The acceleration due to gravity

(a) has the same value everywhere in space
(b) has the same value everywhere on the earth
(c) varies with the latitude on the earth
(d) is greater on the moon due to its smaller diameter

Answer: C

Question. Two objects of different masses falling freely

near the surface of moon would
(a) experience forces of different magnitudes
(b) have different accelerations
(c) have same velocities of any instant
(d) undergo a change in their inertia

Answer: C

Question. When a body is thrown up, the force of gravity is

(a) in the upward direction
(b) in the downward direction
(c) zero
(d) in the horizontal direction

Answer: B
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force
and Laws of Motion
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 9 Force
and Laws of Motion in Class 9.

Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion MCQ

Questions Class 9 Science with Answers
Question: In the following example, try to identify the
number of times the velocity of ball changes - A football
player kicks a football to another player of his team who
kicks the football towards the goal. The goalkeeper of the
opposite team collects the football and kicks it towards a
player of his own team.
(a) Five times
(b) Three times
(c) Four times
(d) Six times

Answer : B

Question: There will be a change in the speed or in the

direction of motion of a body when it is acted upon by
(a) An Unbalanced force
(b) Balanced Force
(c) Uniform force
(d) Zero Force

Answer : A
Question: A hammer of mass 500 g, moving at 50m/s,
strikes a nail. The nail stops the hammer in a very short
time of 0.01 s. The force of the nail on the hammer is
(a) 3500N
(b) 1000N
(c) 2500N
(d) 500N

Answer : C

Question: The action and reaction forces referred to in the

third law
(a) Must act on different objects
(b) Must act on the same objec
(c) May act on different objects
(d) Need not be equal in magnitude but act in the same
direction

Answer : A

Question: An object will continue to accelerate until the

(a) Resultant force begins to decrease
(b) The velocity changes direction
(c) Resultant force on it is increased continuously
(d) Resultant force on it is zero

Answer : D

Question: Qualitative definition of Force is given by

(a) Newtons first law of motion
(b) Newtons Second law of motion
(c) Newtons third law of motion
(d) Newtons law of gravitation

Answer : A

Question: The object shown below moves with

constant velocity. Two forces are acting on
the object. Considering negligible friction , the
resultant force will be

(a) 17 N leftwards
(b) 7N rightwards
(c) 3 N leftwards
(d) 10 N leftwards

Answer : C

Question: Type of inertia that tends to resist the change in

case of an -Athlete often jumps before taking a long jump
(a) Inertia of motion
(b) Inertia of rest
(c) Inertia of direction
(d) Uniformly accelerated motion

Answer : A

Question: A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin

which falls
(a) Behind him
(b) In front of him
(c) Falls outside the train
(d) Will not move

Answer : A

Question: A bullet of mass 20gm is fired from a gun of

mass 8kg with a velocity of 400 m/s, calculate the recoil
velocity of gun
(a) -2m/s
(b) 1m/s
(c) 2m/s
(d) -1m/s

Answer : D

Question: Rocket works on the principle of conservation of

(a) Energy
(b) Mass
(c) momentum
(d) velocity

Answer : C
Question: An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant
velocity of 4 m/ s on a frictionless horizontal table. The
force required to keep the object moving with the same
velocity is
(a) 8N
(b) 2N
(c) 32N
(d) 0 N

Answer : D

Question: Inertia is a measure of

(a) Mass
(b) velocity
(c) Force
(d) acceleration

Answer : A

Question: Formula to find the Force is

(a) F= ma
(b) F= m/a
(c) F= a/m
(d) a=Fm

Answer : A

Question: Force required in accelerating a 2 kg mass at 5

m/s2 and a 4 kg mass at 2 m/s2
(a) 2kg mass at 5m/s2 is less than 4 kg mass at 2 m/s2
(b) Same in both the cases
(c) 2kg mass at 5m/s2 is greater than 4 kg mass at 2 m/s2
(d) Zero in both the cases

Answer : C

Question.. If a bus starts suddenly, the passengers in the

bus will tend to fall
(a) In the direction opposite to the direction of motion of
bus.
(b) In the same direction as the direction of motion of bus.
(c) Sideways.
(d) None of the above.

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is the unit of linear

momentum?
(a) kg m/s
(b) kg ms
(c) kgms−2
(d) kg

Answer : B

Question. A plate, a ball and a child all have the same

mass. The one having more inertia is the
(a) plate
(b) ball
(c) child
(d) All have equal inertia

Answer : D
Question. Inertia is a property of a body by virtue of which
the body is
(a) Unable to change by itself the state of rest.
(b) Unable to change by itself the state of uniform motion in
a straight line.
(c) Unable to change by itself the direction of motion.
(d) Unable to change by itself the state of rest or uniform
motion in a straight line.

Answer : D

Question. A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his

hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal.
This enables the goalkeeper to:
(a) Exert large force on the ball
(b) Increases the force exerted by the ball on hands
(c) Increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) Decrease the rate of change of momentum

Answer : D

Question. The acceleration of an object is

(a) inversely proportional to its mass
(b) directly proportional to the applied force
(c) resisted by inertia
(d) all of the above

Answer : D

Question.: An object will continue to accelerate until

(a) The resultant force begins to decrease.
(b) The resultant force on it is zero.
(c) The velocity changes direction.
(d) The resultant force on it is increased continuously.

Answer : B

Question. The S.I. unit of force is

(a) Newton-metre
(b) Newton
(c) Newton per second
(d) Newton per square metre

Answer : B

Question.. Rate of change of momentum is equal to

(a) Acceleration
(b) Work done
(c) Force
(d) Impulse

Answer : C

Question. The action and reaction forces referred to in the

third law
(a) Must act on the same object.
(b) May act on different objects.
(c) Must act on different objects.
(d) Need not be equal in magnitude but must have the same
direction.

Answer : C
Question. If an object moves with a uniform velocity we
can conclude that
(a) there is no force acting on the body
(b) no unbalanced force acts on it
(c) an unbalanced force acts on the body
(d) it has uniform acceleration

Answer : B

Question. When a force is exerted on an object, it can

change its:
(a) State
(b) Position
(c) Shape
(d) All the above

Answer : D

Question . Rocket works on the principle of conservation of

(a) velocity
(b) Mass
(c) Linear Momentum
(d) Energy

Answer : C

Question. The seat belts are provided in the cars so that if

the car stops suddenly due to an emergency braking, the
persons sitting on the front seats are not thrown forward
violently and saved from getting injured. Can you guess the
law due to which a person falls in forward direction on the
sudden stopping of the car?
(a) Newton’s first law of motion
(b) Newton’s second law of motion
(c) Newton’s third law of motion
(d) Newton’s law of gravitation

Answer : A

Question. Two equal masses m each moving in the

opposite direction with the same speed v collide and stick
to each other. The velocity of the combined mass is
(a) v
(b) 2v
(c) v/2
(d) zero

Answer : D

Question. When unbalanced forces act on a body, the body:

(a) Must move with uniform velocity
(b) Must remain at rest
(c) Must experience acceleration
(d) Must move in a curved path

Answer : C

Question. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin

which falls behind him. Observing this statement what can
you say about the motion of the train?
(a) Accelerated
(b) Retarded
(c) Along circular tracks
(d) Uniform
Answer : A

Question. An object of mass 20 kg is moving with a

velocity of 10 m/s. Its momentum will be:
(a) 2000 kg.m/s
(b) 20 kg.m/s
(c) 2 kg.m/s
(d) 200 kg.m/s

Answer : D

Question. When a 12 N force acts on 3 kg mass for a

second, the change in velocity is (in m/s)
(a) 36
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 18

Answer : B

Question. The acceleration of an object is

(a) inversely proportional to its mass
(b) directly proportional to the applied force
(c) resisted by inertia
(d) all of the above

Answer : D

Question. If a bus starts suddenly, the passengers in the

bus will tend to fall
(a) In the direction opposite to the direction of motion of
bus.
(b) In the same direction as the direction of motion of bus.
(c) Sideways.
(d) None of the above.

Answer : A

Question. An object of mass 6 kg is sliding on horizontal

surface, with a uniform velocity of 8 m/ s . Assuming force
of friction offered by the surface to be zero, The force
required to maintain the motion of object with the same
uniform velocity is
(a) 0 Newton
(b) 2 Newtons
(c) 8 Newtons
(d) 32 Newtons

Answer : D

Question. A man wearing a bullet-proof vest stands on

roller skates. The total mass is 80 kg. A bullet of mass 20 g
is fired at 400 m/s. It is stopped by the vest and falls to the
ground. What is then the velocity of the man?
(a) 1 m/s
(b) 0.1 m/s
(c) 0.01 m/s
(d) 0 m/s

Answer: B
Question. Acceleration acts always in the direction
__________
(a) of the displacement
(b) of the initial velocity
(c) of the net force
(d) of the final velocity

Answer: C

Question. Which of the following situations involves the

Newton’s second law of motion?
(a) A force can stop a lighter vehicle as well as a heavier
vehicle which are moving
(b) A force exerted by a lighter vehicle on collision with a
heavier vehicle results in both the (vehicles coming to a
standstill
(c) A force can accelerate a lighter vehicle more easily than
a heavier vehicle which are moving
(d) A force exerted by the escaping air from a balloon in the
downward direction makes the balloon to go upwards

Answer: C

Question. A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his

hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal.
This enables the goalkeeper to:
(a) Exert large force on the ball
(b) Increases the force exerted by the ball on hands
(c) Increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) Decrease the rate of change of momentum.

Answer: D
Question. Essential characteristic of equilibrium is
(a) K. E equals zero
(b) acceleration equals zero
(c) momentum equals zero
(d) none of the above

Answer: B

Question. What is the momentum of a body of mass 2m

and velocity v/2?
(a) mv/4
(b) mv
(c) 2mv
(d) mv/2

Answer: B

Question. A mass M breaks into two pieces in the ratio 1 : 3

while at rest. If the heavier has a speed of v, the speed of
the lighter is
(a) v
(b) 2v
(c) 3v
(d) 4v

Answer: C

Question. Change in momentum when a car weighing

700kg changes its speed from 100m/s to 200 m/s is:
(a) 14000 kg.m/s
(b) 10500000 kg.m/s
(c) 21000000 kg.m/s
(d) 70000 kg.m/s

Answer: D

Question. The inertia of an object tends to cause the object

______.
(a) to increase its speed.
(b) to decrease its speed.
(c) to resist any change in the state of rest or of motion.
(d) to decelerate due to friction.

Answer: C

Question. Frictional force

(a) always in the opposite director of motion
(b) always opposes motion of a body
(c) always opposes relative motion between the surfaces of
contact
(d) always in the direction of motion

Answer: C

Question: A body of weight W is suspended from the

ceiling of a room through a rope of weight R. The ceiling
pulls the rope by a force of
(a) W
(b) R
(c) W + R
(d) (W+R)/2

Answer: C
Question. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of:
(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) velocity

Answer: C

Question. Friction is:

(a) useful to us
(b) harmful to us
(c) both useful as well as harmful to us
(d) none of them.

Answer: C

Question. A carpenter exerts a force of magnitude 1.5 N at

right angles to the surface of a nail of mass 3 gram to drive
it into the wood. If wood offers a resistive force of 0.6 N
and the time of interaction of hammer and the nail 0.01 s,
the depth through which the nail penetrates is
(a) 15m
(b) 1.5 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 1.5 mm

Answer: B

Question. A gun of mass 5kg fires 50gm bullet with a

velocity of 200m/s. Find the recoils velocity of the gun.
(a) -2 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) Zero
(d) 0.2m/s

Answer: A

Question. When no external force acts on an object, the

physical quantity that remains conserved is______.
(a) velocity
(b) momentum
(c) acceleration
(d) force

Answer: B

Question. A unit of force is

(a) Joule – m
(b) Joule
(c) Newton – m
(d) Kg ms−2

Answer: D

Question. __________ is a force, which always opposes the

motion of one body over the other body in contact with it
(a) Gravitational force
(b) Reaction force
(c) Normal force
(d) Frictional force

Answer: D
Question. Essential characteristic of equilibrium is
(a) K. E equals zero
(b) acceleration equals zero
(c) momentum equals zero
(d) none of the above

Answer: B

Question. The relation between acceleration, mass and

force is given by:
(a) a x F = m
(b) F = m/a
(c) F x m = a
(d) a = F/m

Answer: D

Question. Which of the following has the largest

momentum?
(a) A cat running down the street
(b) A pickup truck travelling down the highway.
(c) A large truck parked in a parking lot.
(d) A car parked in a parking lot.

Answer: B

Question. The acceleration of an object is

(a) inversely proportional to its mass
(b) directly proportional to the applied force
(c) resisted by inertia
(d) all of the above

Answer: D
Question. A mass M breaks into two pieces in the ratio 1 : 3
while at rest. If the heavier has a speed of v, the speed of
the lighter is
(a) v
(b) 2v
(c) 3v
(d) 4v

Answer: C

Question. A plate, a ball and a child all have the same

mass. The one having more inertia is the
(a) plate
(b) ball
(c) child
(d) All have equal inertia

Answer: A

Question. When a force is exerted on an object, it can

change its:
(a) State
(b) Position
(c) Shape
(d) All the above

Answer: D

Question. When a bus starts suddenly from rest, the

passengers sitting inside the bus move backwards. This
illustrates an example of
(a) Newton First Law of Motion
(b) Newton Second Law of Motion
(c) Newtons Third Law of Motion
(d) None of these

Answer: A

GAS LAWS

Question. The correct equation for Boyle's law is :-

(a) d2p/p = -dV/dT
(b) d2p/p + d2V/dT
(c) dp/p = -dV/dT
(d) dp/p = +dV/dT

Answer: A

Question. Under which of the following conditions, Van der

Waal's gas approaches ideal behaviour ?
(a) Extremely low pressure
(b) High pressure
(c) Low product of PV
(d) Low temperature

Answer: A

Question. A gas behaves like an ideal gas under conditions

of
(a) High pressure and low temperature
(b) High temperature and high pressure
(c) Low pressure and high temperature
(d) Low pressure and low temperature

Answer: A

Question. When the temperature is raised, the viscosity of

the liquid decreases.
This is because
(a) Attraction between the molecules increases
(b) Covalent and hydrogen bond forces decrease
(c) Volume of the solution decreases
(d) Increase in temperature increases the average kinetic
energy of the molecules which over-comesthe attractive
force between them

Answer: D

Question. Which of the following gases has the lowest

average speed at 25°C ?
(a) NH3
(b) O2
(c) CH4
(d) H2S

Answer: D

Question. If the four tubes of a car are filled to the same

pressure with N2, O2, H2 and Ne separately, then which one
will be filled first ?
(a) O2
(b) H2
(c) Ne
(d) N2

Answer: B

Question. An ideal gas expands according to PV =

constant. On expansion,the temperature of gas
(a) will rise
(b) will drop
(c) will remain constant
(d) cannot be determined because the external pressure is
not known

Answer: C

Question. Some assumptions from the kinetic molecular

theory are listed below. Which one is most frequently cited
to explain Charle's law ?
(a) Collisions of gas particle are elastic and total kinetic
energy of the gas is constant
(b) A gas consists of tiny particles moving in random
straight line motion
(c) The volume of the particle is negligible compared to the
volume of the gas
(d) The average kinetic energy of gas articles is proportional
to the Kelvin temperature

Answer: D
Question. Universal gas constant (R) is divided by
Avogadro's number (N0) then the value is equivalent to
(a) van der Waal's constant
(b) Rydberg's constant
(c) Planck's constant
(d) Boltzmann's constant

Answer: B

Question. The term that accounts for intermolecular force

in van der Waal's equation for non ideal gas is
(a) RT
(b) V – b
(c) (P +α/V2)
(d) (RT)–1

Answer: C

Question. According to the kinetic energy of gases, in an

ideal gas, between two successive collisions a gas
molecules travels
(a) in a circular path
(b) in a wavy path
(c) in a straight line path
(d) with an accelerated velocity

Answer: C

Question. The temperature at which real gases obey the

ideal gas laws over a wide range of pressure is called
(a) Critical temperature
(b) Boyle temperature
(c) Inversion temperature
(d) Reduced temperature

Answer: B

Question. A real gas at a very high pressure occupies

(a) Less volume then that of an ideal gas under identical
condition
(b) More volume than that of an ideal gas under identical
conditions
(c) Same volume than that of an ideal gas under identical
conditions
(d) Cannot be predicted

Answer: B

Question. Temperature according to kinetic theory, is a

measure of
(a) Average translational kinetic energy of gas molecules
(b) Intermolecular attraction
(c) Intermolecular distances
(d) Volume f gas

Answer: A

Question. A gas deviates from ideal behaviour at a high

pressure because its molecules
(a) Show the Tyndall effect
(b) Have kinetic energy
(c) Attract one another
(d) Are bound by covalent bonds
Answer: C

Question. Which statement about real gases is true ?

(a) Forces of attraction and repulsion exist between gas
particles as close range
(b) The behaviour of real gases can be exactly predicted
usig the ideal gas law
(c) The volume of the gas particle is zero
(d) The mass of the gas particles is zero

Answer: A

Question. It is easter to liquefy oxygen than hydrogen

because
(a) Oxygen has a higher critical temperature and a higher
inversion temperature than hydrogen
(b) The critical temperature and inversion temperature of
oxygen is very low
(c) Oxygen has a higher critical temperature and lower
inversion temperature than hydrogen
(d) Oxygen has a lower critical temperature and higher
inversion temperature than hydrogen

Answer: A
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 8
Motion
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 8
Motion in Class 9.

Chapter 8 Motion MCQ Questions Class 9 Science

with Answers
Question: From the given v-t graph (figure) it
can be inferred that the object is moving with

(a) uniform velocity

(b) non uniform velocity
(c) At rest
(d) moving with uniform acceleration

Answer: A

Question: What does the slope of distance -

time graph give?
(a) acceleration
(b) both[a] and [c] depending upon the time of graph
(c) Speed
(d) uniform speed

Answer: A

Question: In the total journey the body has

travelled up to a distance of
(a) 900m
(b) 800m
(c) 1000m
(d) 270m

Answer: D

Question: The velocity of the body at the point

B is
(a) 40m/s
(b) 20m/s
(c) 36m/s
(d) 50m/s

Answer: C

Question: At the point A the body is at a

distance of
(a) 180m
(b) 200m
(c) 300m
(d) 50m

Answer: A

Question: Distance covered by the body

during the interval from 10sec to 20 sec is
(a) 270m
(b) 200m
(c) 360m
(d) 400m

Answer: A

Question: From the figure the body is moving

with
(a) Zero Acceleration
(b) Zero velocity
(c) Variable Acceleration
(d) Constant Acceleration

Answer: D

Question: Distance covered by a body from velocity-time

graph is
(a) Area under the graph
(b) Equal to the slope of the graph
(c) Is denoted by a line parallel to the time axis at any point
on the distance axis
(d) Is denoted by a line parallel to the distance axis at any
point on the time axis

Answer: A
Question: The acceleration of a body from a velocity - time
graph is
(a) Area under the graph
(b) Equal to the slope of the graph
(c) Is denoted by a line parallel to the time axis at any point
on the distance axis
(d) Is denoted by a line parallel to the distance axis at any
point on the time axis

Answer: B

Question: An example of a body moving with constant

speed but still accelerating is
(a) A body moving in a helical path with constant speed
(b) A body moving with constant speed on a straight road
(c) A body moving with constant speed in a circular path
(d) A body moving with constant speed on a straight railway
track

Answer: C

Question: SI Unit of measurement of acceleration is

(a) m/s2
(b) m/s
(c) M
(d) m/hr

Answer: A

Question: Formula to find the average velocity of a body is

given by
(a) Vav=(u + v)/2
(b) Sn ={u + a/2(2n-1)}
(c) S= ut + 1/2 a t2
(d) V= u + at

Answer: A

Question: An object travels 20m in 5 sec and then another

40m in 5 se What is the average speed of the object?
(a) 2m/s
(b) 0 m/s
(c) 12m/s
(d) 6m/s

Answer: D

Question: A farmer moves along the boundary of a square

field of side 10 m in 40 sec. The magnitude of
displacement of the farmer at the end of 2 minutes 20
seconds from his initial position is
(a) 10 `sqrt(2m)`
(b) 30m
(c) 10m
(d) 40m

Answer: A

Question: A man travels a distance of 20 km from his home

to office, and 10 km towards his house back. Then the
displacement covered by the man in the whole trip is
(a) 30 Km
(b) 10 Km
(c) zero Km
(d) 50 Km

Answer: B

Question: Acceleration is a vector quantity, which indicates

that its value
(a) Can be positive, negative or zero
(b) Is always positive
(c) Is always negative
(d) Is zero

Answer: A

Question: Rate of change of displacement is called

(a) Velocity
(b) deceleration
(c) Speed
(d) acceleration

Answer: A

Question. 180° plane angle is equal to

(a) π/2 radian
(b) π radian
(c) 2π radian
(d) none of these

Answer: B
Question. Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a marry-go-
round which is moving with a constant speed of 10 m/s. It
implies that the boy is:
(a) At rest
(b) Moving with no acceleration
(c) In accelerated motion
(d) Moving with uniform velocity

Answer: C

Question. 1 km/ h = ________ m/s

(a) 3/50
(b) 18/5
(c) 50/3
(d) 5/18

Answer: D

Question. Which of the following statement is correct

regarding velocity and speed of a moving body?
(a) Velocity of a moving body is always higher than its
speed
(b) Speed of a moving body is always higher than its
velocity
(c) Speed of a moving body is its velocity in a given
direction
(d) Velocity of a moving body is its speed in a given
direction

Answer: D
Question. If car A is at 40 km/h and car B is at 10 km/h in
the opposite direction, what is the velocity of the car A
relative to the car B?
(a) 40 km/h
(b) 50 km/h
(c) 10 km/h
(d) 30 km/h

Answer: B

Question. Which of the following is most likely not a case

of uniform circular motion?
(a) Motion of the earth around the sun
(b) Motion of a toy train on a circular track
(c) Motion of a racing car on a circular track
(d) Motion of hours’ hand on the dial of a clock

Answer: C

Question. A man is moving with 36 kmph. The time of

reaction is 0.9 seconds. On seeing an obstacle in the path,
he applies brakes and decelerates at 5 m/s2, the total
distance covered before he stops is:
(a) 19 m
(b) 17 m
(c) 16 m
(d) 18 m

Answer: A
Question. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance
for a moving object is:
(a) Always less than 1
(b) Equal to 1 or less than 1
(c) Always more than 1
(d) Equal to 1 or more than one

Answer: B

Question. A car goes from a town A to another town B with

a speed of 40 km/h and returns back to the town A with a
speed of 60 km/h. The average speed of the car during the
complete journey is -
(a) 48 km/h
(b) 50 km/h
(c) zero
(d) none of these.

Answer: A

Question.______________ describes how fast something is

going, whereas, __________ describes how fast something is
going in a certain direction.
(a) rate, velocity
(b) rate, speed
(c) speed, velocity
(d) speed, acceleration

Answer: C
Question. Which of the following is a correct measure of
velocity?
(a) 30 s
(b) 30 m/s
(c) 30 South
(d) 30 m/s, South

Answer: D

Question. The speed at any instant of time is known as

(a) velocity
(b) given speed
(c) average speed
(d) instantaneous speed

Answer: D

Question. The slope of the distance-time graph is:

(a) Distance
(b) acceleration
(c) Speed
(d) Displacement

Answer: C

Question. In 12 minutes a car whose speed is 35 km/h

travels a distance of
(a) 7 km
(b) 3.5 km
(c) 14 km
(d) 28 km

Answer: A
Question. A body moves in a uniform circular motion
(a) it is moving with constant velocity.
(b) its acceleration is zero
(c) the body has an acceleration
(d) none of these

Answer: C

Question. A body whose speed is constant

(a) must be accelerated
(b) might be accelerated
(c) has a constant velocity
(d) can not be accelerated.

Answer: B

Question. The S.I. unit of acceleration is:

(a) ms-2
(b) ms
(c) ms2
(d) m

Answer: C

Question. A particle experiences constant acceleration for

20 seconds after starting from rest. If it travels a distance
s­1 in the first 10 seconds and distance s2 in the next 10
seconds then,
(a) s2 = s1
(b) s2 = 2s1
(c) s2 = 3s1
(d) s2 = 4s1
Answer: C

Question. A boy throws a ball up and catches it when the

ball falls back. In which part of the motion the ball is
accelerating?
(a) During downward motion
(b) When the ball comes to rest
(c) During upward motion
(d) When the boy catches the ball

Answer: A

Question. Speed of a body in particular direction can be

called
(a) acceleration
(b) displacement
(c) velocity
(d) distance

Answer: C

Question. A body performs an accelerated motion, with

uniform speed. The motion of body is
(a) Linear
(b) Circular
(c) Parabolic
(d) Irregular

Answer: B

Question. Choose the correct option:

(a) distance is a scalar, velocity is a vector , acceleration is a
vector.
(b) distance is a vector, velocity is a scalar, acceleration is a
vector.
(c) distance is a vector, velocity is a vector, acceleration is a
vector.
(d) distance is a scalar, velocity is a vector, acceleration is a
scalar.

Answer: A

Question: m/s2 is the SI unit of -

(a) distance
(b) displacement
(c) velocity
(d) acceleration

Answer : D

Question. A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity

u, the greatest height h to which it will rise is____________
(a) u/g
(b) u2/2g
(c) u2/g
(d) u/2g

Answer : B

Question. A car is travelling at a speed of 90 km/h. Brakes

are applied so as to produce a uniform acceleration of –
0.5 m/s2. Find how far the car will go before it is brought to
rest?
(a) 8100 m
(b) 900 m
(c) 625 m
(d) 620 m

Answer : C

Question. Speed of 90 km/h when expressed in m/s is

(a) 2.5
(b) 90000
(c) 250
(d) 25

Answer : D

Question: The distance covered in time t by a body having

initial velocity u and having a uniform acceleration a is
given by s = ut + ½ at2. This result follows from -
(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law
(c) Newton’s third law
(d) None of these.

Answer : D

Question. Name the instrument used to measure

instantaneous speed of a vehicle
(a) multimeter
(b) ammeter
(c) speedometer
(d) accelerator

Answer : C
Question. Area under a v – t graph represents a physical
quantity which has the unit
(a) m2
(b) m
(c) m3
(d) m s–1

Answer : B

Question. An object travels 20 m in 5 sec and then another

40 m in 5 sec. What is the average speed of the object?
(a) 6 m/s
(b) 2 m/s
(c) 12 m/s
(d) 0 m/s

Answer : A

Question. When a car driver travelling at a speed of 10 m/s

applies brakes and brings the car to rest in 20 s, then the
retardation will be:
(a) + 2 m/s2
(b) − 2 m/s2
(c) − 0.5 m/s2
(d) + 0.5 m/s2

Answer : D

Question. The slope of distance – time graph gives

instantaneous.
(a) acceleration
(b) speed
(c) velocity
(d) Distance covered

Answer : B

Question: A body moving along a straight line at 20 m/s

undergoes an acceleration of -4 m/s2. After two seconds
its speed will be -
(a) -8 m/s
(b) 12 m/s
(c) 16 m/s
(d) 28 m/s.

Answer : B

Question. The Rate of change of displacement is

called_________
(a) Velocity
(b) Deceleration
(c) Acceleration
(d) Speed

Answer : A

Question: a particle moves with uniform positive

acceleration. Its velocity-time graph will be
(a) a straight line parallel to the time axis
(b) a straight line inclined at an obtuse angle to the time
axis
(c) a straight line inclined at an acute angle to the time axis
(d) none of these.
Answer : C

Question: A person travels distance πR along the

circumference of a circle of radius R. Displacement of the
person is
(a) R
(b) 2R
(c) 2πR
(d) zero

Answer : B

Question. The speed at any instant of time is known as

(a) velocity
(b) given speed
(c) average speed
(d) instantaneous speed

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following situations are not

possible?
(a) A body moving with constant acceleration but with zero
velocity.
(b) A body moving horizontally with an acceleration in
vertical direction
(c) A body moving with a constant velocity in an accelerated
motion
(d) All of these

Answer : C
Question. Which of the following statement is correct
regarding velocity and speed of a moving body?
(a) Velocity of a moving body is always higher than its
speed
(b) Speed of a moving body is always higher than its
velocity
(c) Speed of a moving body is its velocity in a given
direction
(d) Velocity of a moving body is its speed in a given
direction

Answer : D

Question. A man is moving with 36 kmph. The time of

reaction is 0.9 seconds. On seeing an obstacle in the path,
he applies brakes and decelerates at 5 m/s2, the total
distance covered before he stops is:
(a) 19 m
(b) 17 m
(c) 16 m
(d) 18 m

Answer : A

Question. An object moves along a curved path. The

following quantities may remain constant during its
motion.
(a) speed
(b) velocity
(c) magnitude of acceleration
(d) Both 'a' and 'c'
Answer : D

Question. Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a marry-go-

round which is moving with a constant speed of 10 m/s. It
implies that the boy is:
(a) At rest
(b) Moving with no acceleration
(c) In accelerated motion
(d) Moving with uniform velocity

Answer : C

Question. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r.

The displacement after half a circle would be_______
(a) Zero
(b) π r
(c) 2 r
(d) 2π r

Answer : C

Question. If the displacement of an object is proportional

to square of time, then the object moves with________
(a) uniform velocity
(b) uniform acceleration
(c) increasing acceleration
(d) decreasing acceleration

Answer : B

Question. Area under a v – t graph represents a physical

quantity which has the unit
(a) m2
(b) m
(c) m3
(d) m s–1

Answer : B
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 7
Diversity in Living Organisms
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 7
Diversity in Living Organisms in Class 9.

Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms MCQ

Questions Class 9 Science with Answers
Question: What is the phylum of Octopus?

a) Mollusca

b) Arthropoda

c) Annelida

d) Cnidarian

Answer : A

Question: What is the mode of nutrition in bacteria?

a) Autotrophic and heterotrophic

b) Autotrophic

c) Heterotrophic

d) None of the options

Answer : A

Question: What does a bacteria lack?

a) Cell wall
b) DNA

c) Endoplasmic reticulum

d) Cytoplasm

Answer : C

Question: Which of the these are found filamentous

a) Spirogyra

b) Euglena

c) Chlamydomonas

d) Amoeba

Answer : A

Question: In which organism flame cells form the excretory

system?

a) Earthworms

b) Flatworms

c) Insects

d) Crabs

Answer : B

Question: Choose the vascular plants out of these

a) Liverworts

b) Mosses
c) Ferns

d) Hornworts

Answer : C

Question: Which sub group in plant kingdom produces

flowers?

a) Angiosperms

b) Fungi

c) Mosses

d) Ferns

Answer : A

Question: The excretory system in annelids is consisted of

tubes called?

a) Nephridia

b) Flame cells

c) Metanephridia

d) Protonephridia

Answer : A

Question: What is not poisoning among these?

a) Crab

b) Scorpion
c) Centipede

d) Spider

Answer : A

Question: What does Arthropod means?

a) Bonous legs

b) Jointed legs

c) Cartilaginous legs

d) Largest legs

Answer : B

Question: What is not possessed by bacteria?

a) All of the options

b) Membrane bound organelles

c) Nucleus

d) Nucleolus

Answer : A

Question: The mode of nutrition in fungi

a) Only parasitic

b) Only saprotrophic
c) Saprotrophic or parasitic

d) None of the options

Answer : C

Question: What is the exclusive marine phylum?

a) Echinodermata

b) Porifera

c) Cnidarians

d) Protozoa

Answer : A

Question: Which phylum of animals is also called

flatworms?

a) Platyhelminthes

b) Porifera

c) Coelenterata

d) Nematoda

Answer : A

Question: In which the reproductive organs are hidden?

a) Gymnosperms

b) Phanerogamae

c) Cryptogamae

d) Angiosperms

Answer : C

Question. Which among the following produce seeds?

(a) Thallophyta
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Gymnosperms

Answer : D

Question ………………. Is a living organism which does not

lived in sea water
(a) Corals
(b) Cactus
(c) Whales
(d) Octopus

Answer : B

Question. Which among the following is a common feature

of chrodates?
(a) Presence of notochord
(b) Presence of triploblastic condition
(c) Presence of coelom
(d) Presence of gill pouches

Answer : A

Question. In which group of animals, coelom is filled with

blood?
(a) Arthropoda
(b) Annelida
(c) Nematoda
(d) Echinodermata

Answer : A

Question.Find out the false statement.

(a) Aves are warm-blooded, egg laying and have four-
chambered heart.
(b) Aves have feather covered body, forelimbs are modified
as wing and breathe through lungs.
(c) Most of the mammals are viviparous.
(d) Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are oviparous.

Answer : D

Question.The locomotory organs of Echinodermata are

(a) tube feet
(b) muscular feet
(c) jointed legs
(d) parapodia

Answer : A
Question. Choose the option that best describes the
characteristics of the kingdom to which the mushroom
belongs:
(a) Unicellular prokaryotic organisms
(b) Saprophytic, eukaryotic, multicellular organisms
(c) Unicellular eukaryotic organisms
(d) Autotrophic eukaryotic organisms

Answer : B

Question. Organisms which makes there own food

called……….
(a) Autotrophic
(b) Heterotrophic
(c) Consumer
(d) Decomposer

Answer : A

Question. The book Systema Naturae was written by

(a) Linnaeus
(b) Haeckel
(c) Whittaker
(d) Robert Brown

Answer : A

Question.…………………. Is flowering plants

(a) Phanerogams
(b) Bryophyte
(c) Angiosperm
(d) Gymnosperm
Answer : C

Question. Well defined nucleus is absent in

(a) blue green algae
(b) diatoms
(b) algae
(d) yeast

Answer : A

Question. Which phylum of animals is also called

flatworms?
(a) Porifera
(b) Coelenterata
(c) Platyhelminthes
(d) Nematoda

Answer : C

Question. What does Arthropod means?

(a) bonous legs
(b) cartilaginous legs
(c) largest legs
(d) jointed legs

Answer : D

Question. Sycon is the example of …………….. from Animalia

(a) Porifera
(b) Dicots
(c) Cnidarian
(d) Plantyhelminthes
Answer : A

Question. In which organism flame cells form the excretory

system?
(a) flatworms
(b) earthworms
(c) insects
(d) crabs

Answer : A

Question. Among the following choose the correct option

that best describes the characteristics of spirogyr(a)
(a) Multicellular, auto trophic, root like rhizoids.
(b) Cytoplasmic strands, autotrophic, presence of rhizome.
(c) Presence of male cones, nonvascular, filaments.
(d) Filamentous, presence of Cytoplasmic strands, presence
of pyrenoids.

Answer : D

Question. Autotrophes uses ……………. For photosynthesis

(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Chlorophyll
(d) Oxygen

Answer : C

Question……………………. Runs along the back of animal

separating the nervous tissue from the gut
(a) Cilia
(b) String
(c) Notochord
(d) Bones

Answer : C

Question. Hydra is the example of……………….. from

Animalia
(a) Human being
(b) Cactus
(c) Dicots
(d) Cnidaria

Answer : D

Question. What is the phylum of Octopus?

(a) Arthropoda
(b) Mollusca
(c) Annelida
(d) cnidarian

Answer : B

Question. Pteridophyta with hidden reproductive organs

called………….
(a) Thallophyta
(b) Bryophyte
(c) Angiosperm
(d) Cryptogams

Answer : C
Question. Worms causing elephantiasis
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Filarial worms
(d) Pinworms

Answer : C

Question. Which among the following is a common feature

of chrodates?
(a) Presence of notochord
(b) Presence of triploblastic condition
(c) Presence of coelom
(d) Presence of gill pouches

Answer: A

Question. In which class birds are included ?

(a) Amphibia
(b) Pisces
(c) Reptilia
(d) Aves

Answer: D

Question. Which of the following is not the characteristic of

animals?
(a) Eukaryotic
(b) Heterotrophic
(c) Multicellular
(d) Photosynthetic
Answer: D

Question. Sound producing organ in birds is :-

(a) Trachea
(b) Pneumatic bones
(c) Syrinx
(d) Plumage

Answer: C

Question. Mammals are:

(a) warm-blooded
(b) cold-blooded
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer: A

Question: The plants which do not have well differentiated

body design fall under ?
(a) Thallophyta
(b) Protista
(c) Animalia
(d) None of these

Answer: A

Question. Which of the following is a member of Phylum

Echinodermata?
(a) Lionfish
(b) Starfish
(c) Jellyfish
(d) Sawfish
Answer: B

Question. Which of the following is not a bony fish ?

(a) Labeo rohita
(b) Anabas
(c) Hippocampus
(d) Chimera

Answer: D

Question. Balanoglossus is an example of:

(a) Urochordata
(b) Cephalochordata
(c) Protochordata
(d) Vertebrata

Answer: C

Question. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) Aves are warm blooded, egg laying and have four four-
chambered heart.
(b) Aves have feather covered body, fore limbs are modified
as wing and breathe through lungs.
(c) Most of the mammals are viviparous.
(d) Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are oviparous.

Answer: D

Question. Animals having identical right and left sides are

also known as
(a) Radially symmetrical
(b) Bilaterally symmetrical
(c) Laterally symmetrical
(d) Asymmetrical

Answer: B

Question. Which adaptation of the frog differentiates it

from the fish?
(a) Ability to live in water also
(b) Lays eggs in water
(c) Have a streamlined body
(d) Presence of mucous glands in the skin

Answer: A

Question. Canal system is present in phylum:

(a) Porifera
(b) Cnidaria
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Protozoa\

Answer: A

Question. System of scientific nomenclature was given by

(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Fransisco Redi
(d) Leeuwenhoek

Answer: B
Question. Which among the following produce seeds?
(a) Thallophyta
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Gymnosperms

Answer: D

Question. Who first tried to classify organisms?

(a) Ernst Haeckel.
(b) Charles Darwin.
(c) Aristotle.
(d) Carolus Linneaus.

Answer: A

Question. A cell with a well-defined nucleus is?

(a) Prokaryotic.
(b) Eukaryotic.
(c) Cyanobacteri(a)
(d) Fungi.

Answer: B

Question. The warm and humid tropical regions of the

earth, between the tropic of cancer amd the tropic of
capricorn are rich in the diversity of plant and animal life.
This is called ?
(a) Megadiversity
(b) Simple diversity
(c) Eco system
(d) None of these
Answer: A

Question. Who wrote the origin of evolution?

(a) Arastu.
(b) Aristotle.
(c) Charles Darwin.
(d) Ernst Haeckel.

Answer: C

Question. We call _ _ _ _ _ _ Amphibians of a plant kingdom.

(a) Thallophyta
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Angiosperms.
(d) All three.

Answer: B

Question. Plants with naked seeds are:

(a) Angiosperms.
(b) Gymnosperms.
(c) Both.
(d) None.

Answer: B

Question. Gymnosperms are kept under:

(a) Algae
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Tracheophyta
(d) None of them

Answer: C
Question. Choose the option that best describes the
characteristics of the kingdom to which the mushroom
belongs:
(a) Unicellular prokaryotic organisms
(b) Saprophytic, eukaryotic, multicellular organisms
(c) Unicellular eukaryotic organisms
(d) Autotrophic eukaryotic organisms

Answer: B

Question. Angispermic plants seeds with two cotyledons

are:
(a) Monocot.
(b) Dicot.
(c) Both.
(d) None.

Answer: B

Question. We see the primitive type of tissue

differentiation in animals in:
(a) Porifera
(b) Cnidaria
(c) Platyhelminthes.
(d) Nemetehelminthes.

Answer: C

Question. Among the following choose the correct option

that best describes the characteristics of spirogyr(a)
(a) Multicellular, auto trophic, root like rhizoids.
(b) Cytoplasmic strands, autotrophic, presence of rhizome.
(c) Presence of male cones, nonvascular, filaments.
(d) Filamentous, presence of Cytoplasmic strands, presence
of pyrenoids.

Answer: D

Question. We see true coelom in earthworm and leeches.

They belong to:
(a) Platyhelminthes.
(b) Nemetehelminthes.
(c) Nematodes.
(d) Annelids.

Answer: D
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 6
Tissues
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 6
Tissues in Class 9.

Chapter 6 Tissues MCQ Questions Class 9 Science

with Answers

Animal Tissues

Question. A tissue is a :
(a) group of separate organs that are coordinated in their
activities
(b) group of similar cells that function together in a
specialised activity
(c) layer of cells surrounding an organ
(d) sheet of cells, one layer thick

Answer: B

Question. Endothelium of the inner surface of blood

vessels in vertebrates is formed of
(a) simple squamous epithelium
(b) columnar epithelium
(c) cuboidal epithelium
(d) ciliated cells

Answer: A
Question. Cells of squamous epithelium are
(a) columnar
(b) tall with elongated nuclei
(c) flat plate-like
(d) cube like

Answer: C

Question. The protein deposited in the dead superficial

cells that make the skin epithelium impervious to water is
(a) keratin
(b) elastin
(c) collagen
(d) mucus

Answer: A

Question. Horns of most mammals are composed of

(a) bones
(b) cartilage
(c) keratin
(d) chitin

Answer: C

Question. Mammary glands are modified

(a) sebaceous gland
(b) sweat gland
(c) oil gland
(d) lymph gland

Answer: B
Question. Which of the following tissue has matrix, which
is the source of its structural and functional performances?
(a) connective tissue
(b) muscular tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer: A

Question. Wrinkling in old age is due to

(a) collagen
(b) myosin
(c) keratin
(d) actin

Answer: A

Question. Dermis of mammalian skin is mainly composed

of
(a) muscular tissue
(b) epithelial tissue
(c) connective tissue
(d) all of the above

Answer: C

Question. Fat is abundant in

(a) liver cells
(b) alveolar tissue
(c) lymph glands
(d) adipose tissue

Answer: D
Question. Tendon connects
(a) cartilage with muscles
(b) bone with muscles
(c) ligament with muscles
(d) bone with bone

Answer: B

Question. Cartilage is produced by

(a) osteoblasts
(b) epithelium
(c) fibroblasts
(d) chondroblasts

Answer: D

Question. Bone forming cells are

(a) osteoblasts
(b) osteoclasts
(c) chondroblasts
(d) chondroclasts

Answer: A

Question. Bone marrow is important for

(a) breakdown of WBC
(b) production of RBC
(c) breakdown of RBC
(d) production of WBC

Answer: B
Question. Haversian system is typically found in bones of
(a) fishes
(b) aves
(c) reptiles
(d) mammals

Answer: D

Question. Blood is
(a) acidic
(b) alkaline
(c) variable
(d) neutral

Answer: B

Question. Mammalian erythrocytes are

(a) circular
(b) biconcave
(c) non-nucleated
(d) all the above

Answer: D

Question. Life span of RBC is

(a) 50 days
(b) 75 days
(c) 120 days
(d) 100 days

Answer: C
Question. Red blood cell count is carried out by
(a) haemocytometer
(b) haemoglobinometer
(c) sphygmomanometer
(d) electrocardiogram

Answer: A

Question. Striated muscles are found in

(a) gall bladder
(b) wall of bronchi
(c) leg muscles
(d) lungs

Answer: C
Question. Find out incorrect sentence.
(a) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces.
(b) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at
corners.
(c) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues.
(d) Meristematic tissues, in its early stage, lack vacuoles.

Answer : C

Question. ……………………. Is smoothens bone surfaces at

joints.
(a) RBC
(b) Ligament
(c) Tendons
(d) Cartilage

Answer: D
Question. Heart can contract and relax by ………………
movement
(a) Muscular
(b) Fibres
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of them

Answer: A

Question. Lysosome is a cytoplasmic organelle

containingenzymesthat break down biological polymers.
Lysosomes function as the digestive system of the cell. It
is also called the suicide bag of the cell because:
(a) It causes any cell to commit suicide
(b) Its enzymes digest the cell itself
(c) Its enzymes kill surrounding cells
(d) All of the above

Answer: B

Question. While doing work and running, you move your

organs Like hands, legs etc. Which among the following is
correct?
(a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move
the bones.
(b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move
the bones.
(c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move
the bones.
(d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move
the bones.
Answer : D

Question. Full form of WBCs

(a) White blood cilia
(b) White bone cell
(c) White bone cilia
(d) White blood cells

Answer : D

Question. Adipose tissue is found below the………….. and

between …………………
(a) Heart, lungs
(b) Skin, internal organs
(c) Brain, kidneys
(d) Hairs, eyes

Answer: B

Question. ………………….. is present at the growing tips of

stem and roots and increases its length
(a) Parenchyma tissue
(b) Meristematic tissue
(c) Apical meristem
(d) Roots

Answer : C

Question. Cluster of cell called……………

(a) Cells
(b) Tissues
(c) Organ
(d) None of them
Answer : B

Question. Heart can contract and relax by ………………

movement
(a) Muscular
(b) Fibres
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of them

Answer : A

Question. Fats are stored in human body as

(a) Cuboidal epithelium
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Bones
(d) Cartilage

Answer : B

Question. Small pores present epidermis of leaf

called……………..
(a) Stomata
(b) Lignin
(c) Thick walls
(d) Epidermis

Answer : A

Question. Xylemis the specializedtissue of the plants that

transports water and nutrients from the soil to the upper
parts like stems and leaves of plant and provides
mechanical support to them. It is composed of four
different types of the cells. Which of the following is not
one a type of cell found in xylem tissues?
(a) Tracheids
(b) Vessels
(c) Xylem parenchyma
(d) Sieve tubes

Answer: D

Question. Which of the following cells is found in the

cartilaginous tissue of the body?
(a) Mast cells
(b) Basophils
(c) Osteocytes
(d) Chondrocytes

Answer : D

Question. Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has

been made possible by the presence of
(a) intercalary meristem
(b) conducting tissue
(c) apical meristem
(d) parenchymatous tissue

Answer : B

Question. Oesophagus, lining of mouth are covered

with…………
(a) Simple epithelium
(b) Squamous epithelium
(c) Sponge epithelium
9d) All of the above
Answer : B

Question. Simple epithelium is a tissue, which form the

outer protective layer of the skin of the animal body, is
composed of cells which are
(a) Hardened and provide support to organs
(b) Continuously diving to provide to form an organ
(c) Cemented directly to one another to form an irregular
layer
(d) Loosely connected to one another to form an irregular
layer

Answer: C

Question. ……………… tissues are loosely held and stores

food in plant
(a) Parenchyma tissue
(b) Meristematic tissue
(c) Permanent tissue
(d) None of them

Answer: C

Question. ………….is a single cell organism

(a) Human being
(b) Cactus
(c) Amoeba
(d) Rat

Answer: C
Question. ……………….. can secrete substances at the
epithelial surface which we called glandular epithelium
(a) Bile juices
(b) Gland cells
(c) Liver cells
(d) Nerve cells

Answer: B

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 Chapter 01 Matter in Our Surroundings
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 6
Tissue
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 6
Tissue in Class 9.

Chapter 6 Tissue MCQ Questions Class 9 Science

with Answers
Question. ………….is a single cell organism
(a) Human being
(b) Cactus
(c) Amoeba
(d) Rat

Answer : C

Question. If the tip of the sugarcane plant is removed from

the field, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due
to the presence of:
(a) Cambium
(b) Apical meristem
(c) Lateral meristem
(d) Intercalary meristem

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is also known as

packaging tissue?
(a) Adipose tissue
(b) Areolar tissue
(c) Ligaments
(d) Bones

Answer : B

Question. …………………….. is responsible for contraction and

relaxation of muscles
(a) Contractile
(b) Starch
(c) Galactose
(d) None of them

Answer : A

Question. Oesophagus, lining of mouth are covered

with…………
(a) Simple epithelium
(b) Squamous epithelium
(c) Sponge epithelium
(d) All of the above

Answer : B

Question. During a performance, if a dancer wants to stop

her dancing, which muscles will execute this decision?
(a) Striated
(b) Smooth
(c) Cardiac
(d) Involuntary

Answer : A
Question. Epidermis with thick waxy coating of cut in on its
outer surface were found in
(a) Aquatic plants
(b) Desert plants
(c) Terrestrial plants
(d) Pine trees

Answer : B

Question………………….. tissue is found between skin and

muscles, around blood vessels and bone marrow
(a) Blood
(b) Cartilage
(c) Areolar
(d) Tendons

Answer : C

Question. Cork is compactly arranged without intercellular

spaces with special type of substance called………..
(a) Stroma
(b) Lignin
(c) Thick walls
(d) Suberin

Answer : D

Question. Cluster of cell called……………

(a) Cells
(b) Tissues
(c) Organ
(d) None of them
Answer : B

Question. It is not suspended on plasma

(a) RBC
(b) WBC
(c) Nephrons
(d) Platelets

Answer : C

Question……………… tissues are loosely held and stores food

in plant
(a) Parenchyma tissue
(b) Meristematic tissue
(c) Permanent tissue
(d) None of them

Answer : C

Question. Intestine absorbs the digested food materials.

What type of epithelial cells are responsible for that?
(a) Stratified squamous epithelium
(b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Spindle fibres
(d) Cuboidal epithelium

Answer : B

Question. Fats are store in ………………………

(a) Connective tissue
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Adipose tissue
(d) Cartilage
Answer : C

Question. Lysosome is a cytoplasmic organelle

containingenzymesthat break down biological polymers.
Lysosomes function as the digestive system of the cell. It
is also called the suicide bag of the cell because:
(a) It causes any cell to commit suicide
(b) Its enzymes digest the cell itself
(c) Its enzymes kill surrounding cells
(d) All of the above

Answer : B

Question. Histamine secreting cells are found in

(a) connective tissues
(b) lungs
(c) muscular tissue
(d) nervous tissue

Answer : A

Question. Brain, spinal cord and nerves are made up

of…………………… tissue
(a) Adipose
(b) Cartilage
(c) Blood
(d) Nervous

Answer : D

Question. In A Science Quiz Competition, Nitu Are Asked A

Question Where She Had To Choose The Statement Which
Was/Were Incorrect?
(a) Lymph transports the nutrients that may have been
filtered out of the blood capillaries back into the heart to be
recirculated in the body.
(b) Lymph is a colorless fluid that is filtered out of the blood
capillaries and white blood cells are absent in it.
(c) Lymph brings CO2 and nitrogenous waste from tissue
fluid to blood.
(d) None of the above

Answer : B

Question. ……………….. can secrete substances at the

epithelial surface which we called glandular epithelium
(a) Bile juices
(b) Gland cells
(c) Liver cells
(d) Nerve cells

Answer : B

Question………………….. is present at the growing tips of

stem and roots and increases its length
(a) Parenchyma tissue
(b) Meristematic tissue
(c) Apical meristem
(d) Roots

Answer : C

Question. Outermost layer of cells in plant called

(a) Stroma
(b) Lignin
(c) Thick walls
(d) Epidermis

Answer : D

Question. Survival Of Plants In Terrestrial Environment Has

Been Made Possible By The Presence Of
(a) Intercalary meristem
(b) Conducting tissue
(c) Apical meristem
(d) Parenchymatous tissue

Answer : B

Question. Branched involuntary muscle fibres are found in

(a) limbs
(b) ureters
(c) heart
(d) tongue

Answer : C

Question. Blood is type of ………………… tissue

(a) Paranchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Transporting
(d) Connective

Answer : D

Question. Cells of the adipose tissue filled with…………..

(a) Water
(b) Fat globular
(c) Gluten
(d) Blood

Answer : B

Question. A person met with an accident in which two long

bones of his hand were dislocated. Which among the
following may be the possible reason for this?
(a) Tendon breaks
(b) Break of skeletal muscles tissue
(c) Ligament breaks
(d) Areoelar tissue breaks

Answer : C

Question. Two bones connected by special type of

connective tissue called as……….
(a) Chemical
(b) WBC
(c) RBC
(d) Ligament

Answer : D

Question. The signal that passes along the nerve fiber is

called………….
(a) Nerve chemical
(b) Nerve impulse
(c) Nerve message
(d) None of them

Answer : B
Question. Epithelial tissue always has an exposed outer
surface and an inner surface anchored to connective tissue
by a thin, non- cellular structure called the
(a) Nonstratified layer
(b) Stratified layer
(c) Basement membrane
(d) Fibroblast

Answer : C

Question. Epithelial tissue always has an exposed outer

surface and an inner surface anchored to connective tissue
by a thin, non- cellular structure called the
(a) Nonstratified layer
(b) Stratified layer
(c) Basement membrane
(d) Fibroblast

Answer : C

Question. While Doing Work And Running, You Move Your

Organs Like Hands, Legs Etc. Which Among The Following
Is Correct?
(a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move
the bones
(b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move
the bones
(c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move
the bones
(d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move
the bones
Answer : D

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 Chapter 01 Matter in Our Surroundings

CBSE Class 9 Science Matter In Our Surroundings MCQs

(/mcq-chemistry-cbse-class-9-chemistry-matter-our-
surroundings-mcqs-set-b-311610.html)

 Chapter 02 Is Matter Around Us Pure

MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 5 The
Fundamental Chapter of Life
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 5 The
Fundamental Chapter of Life in Class 9.

Chapter 5 The Fundamental Chapter of Life MCQ

Questions Class 9 Science with Answers
Question. Which of the following can be made into crystal?
(a) A bacterium
(b) An Amoeba
(c) A virus
(d) A sperm

Answer : C

Question..Animal cell lacking nuclei would also lack in

(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Chromosome
(c) Lysosome
(d) Ribosome

Answer : B

Question. The process of plasmolysis in plant cell is

defined as:
(a) Breakdown of plasma membrane in hypotonic solution.
(b) Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium.
(c) Shrinkage of Nucleoplasm.
(d) None of these
Answer : B

Question. Which of the following are covered by a single

membrane?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Vacuole
(c) Lysosome
(d) Plastid

Answer : B

Question. The proteins and lipids, essential for building the

cell membrane, are manufactured by
(a) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) plasma membrane
(d) mitochondria

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following statement marks as a

difference between plant cell and animal cell?
(a) Plant cells have cell wall which animal cells do not.
(b) Plant cells do not have vacuole while animal cells do
have.
(c) Plant cells have only cell membrane while animal cells
have both cell wall as well as cell membrane.
(d) Plant cells have more plastids while animal cells have
few plastids.

Answer : C
Question. Cell wall is absent in
(a) Plants
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) Mycoplasma

Answer : D

Question. Cell arises from pre-existing cell was stated by

(a) Haeckel
(b) Virchow
(c) Hooke
(d) Schleiden

Answer : B

Question. Living cells were discovered by

(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Purkinje
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Robert Brown

Answer : C

Question. You must have observed that a fruit when unripe

is green but it becomes beautifully coloured when ripe.
According to you what is the reason behind this colour
change.
(a) Chloroplasts change to chromosplasts
(b) Chromosplasts change to chromosomes
(c) Chloroplasts change to chromosomes
(d) Chromosplasts change to chloroplasts
Answer : A

Question. The primary function of smooth endoplasmic

reticulum in liver cells is
(a) protein synthesis
(b) catabolism of proteins
(c) detoxification
(d) carbohydrate metabolism

Answer : C

Question. Among the following statements which one is

incorrect?
(a) Golgi apparatus is involved with formation of lysosomes.
(b) Nucleus, mitochondria and plastid have DNA, hence they
are able to make their own structural proteins.
(c) Lysosomes are called the suicide bags as they eat up
their own cells.
(d) Cytoplasm is called known as protoplasm.

Answer : D

Question. Chromosomes are made up of

(a) DNA
(b) Protein
(c) DNA and protein
(d) RNA

Answer : C

Question. Cell membrane engulfed food from its external

environment called
(a) Reverse Osmosis
(b) Diffusion
(c) Endocytosis
(d) Circulation

Answer : C

Question. Human body is originated from……………

(a) mother
(b) Stomach of mother
(c) Single cell
(d) None of them

Answer : C

Question. Priya Is Writing Some Statements, Choose The

Correct Statement And Help Him:
(a) Lysosomes serve as intracellular digestive system so it
is as called digestive bags.
(b) Lysosomes are also known as suicide bags of the cell
and works as a kind of garbage disposal system.
(c) During the transformation of a tadpole into frog, the
embryonic tissues such as gills and tail are digested by the
lysosomes and utilized by other body cells.
(d) All the above

Answer : D

Question. …………………….. is allows or permits the entry and

exit of some material in and out of the cell
(a) Cell envelope
(b) Cell cover
(c) Cell membrane
(d) Cell protector

Answer : C

Question. ……………………. Is a complex substance and

provides structural strength to plant
(a) Cellulose
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Minerals
(d) Lipids

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following are covered by a single

membrane?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Vacuole
(c) Lysosome
(d) Plastid

Answer : B

Question. ………………Is not multicellular organism

(a) Human
(b) Plant
(c) Amoeba
(d) Cactus

Answer : C
Question. Which Out Of The Following Is Not A Function Of
Vacuole?
(a) Storage
(b) Providing turgidity and rigidity to the cell
(c) Waste excretion
(d) Locomotion

Answer : B

Question. Rod shaped structure present in nucleus

called………….
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Vacuole
(c) Proteins
(d) Chromosomes

Answer : D

Question. White or colorless plastids known as……………

(a) Plasmodium
(b) Plastid
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Leucoplast

Answer : D

Question. Silver nitrate solution is used to study

(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) nucleus
(d) mitochondria

Answer : B
Question. The cell is swell up by ……………… solution
(a) Hypertonic solution
(b) Hypotonic solution
(c) Isotonic solution
(d) None of them

Answer : B

Question. Nucleus plays vital role in cellular ……………

(a) Circulation
(b) Transportation
(c) Reproduction
(d) Digestion

Answer : C

Question. Fluid content present in cell called………….

(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Vacuole
(c) Proteins
(d) Chromosomes

Answer : A
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 5
Periodic Classification of Elements
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 5
Periodic Classification of Elements in Class 9.

Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

MCQ Questions Class 9 Science with Answers
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS

Question. Dobereiner, in 1829, pointed out that when

elements are arranged in the order of increasing relative
atomic masses, in a triad, the relative atomic mass of the
middle element was approximatery equal to the mean of
the relative atomic masses of the first and third elements.
Name the element which is in between the elements
calcium and barium :
(a) Beryllium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Strontium
(d) Iodine
Answer : C

Question. The third member of the Dobereiner triad

consisting of lithium and sodium is :
(a) Potassium
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Boron
(d) Barium
Answer : A

Question. If the two members of a Dobereiner triad are

chlorine and iodine, the third member of this triad is :
(a) Fluorine
(b) Bromine
(c) Sodium
(d) Calcium
Answer : B

Question. If the two members of a Dobereiner triad are

sulphur and selenium, the third member of this triad is :
(a) Calcium
(b) Barium
(c) Strontium
(d) Tellurium
Answer : D

Question. If the two members of a Dobereiner triad are

phosphorus and antimony, the third member of this triad is
:
(a) Arsenic
(b) Sulphur
(c) Iodine
(d) Calcium
Answer : A
Question. Who gave the 'law of octaves'?
(a) Dobereiner
(b) Lothar meyer
(c) Mendeleef
(d) Newlands
Answer : D

Question. Lothar Meyer obtained the curve for the known

elements plotting their atomic volumes against :
(a) Atomic numbers
(b) Atomic masses
(c) Densities
(d) Ionization energies
Answer : B

Question. In Lothar Meyer plot, the peaks are occupied by :

(a) Alkali metals
(b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) Halogens
(d) Noble gases
Answer : A

Question. According to Mendeleef periodic law, the

properties of elements are periodic function of their :
(a) Atomic mass
(b) Atomic numbers
(c) Atomic volumes
(d) Densities
Answer : A
Question. Mendeleef periodic table had no place for
(a) Alkali metals
(b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) Halogens
(d) Noble gases
Answer : D

Question. The basis of the modern long form of the

periodic table is :
(a) Atomic masses
(b) Atomic number
(c) Atomic size
(d) Atomic volume
Answer : B

Question. The elements with atomic numbers 2, 10, 18, 36,

54 and 86 are all :
(a) Halogens
(b) Noble gases
(c) Noble metals
(d) Light metals
Answer : B

Question. In the periodic table :

(a) There are two elements in the first period
(b) There are eighteen elements in the third period
(c) The horizontal rows are called groups
(d) The vertical columns are called periods
Answer : A

Question. How many periods are there in the long form of

the periodic table?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer : B

Question. Elements in the vertical group of the periodic

table have generally the same :
(a) Atomic size
(b) Electronic configuration
(c) Number of electrons
(d) Number of electrons in the outermost shell of their
atoms
Answer : D

Question. The elements with atomic numbers 3, 11, 19, 37

and 55 belong to :
(a) Alkali metals
(c) Alkaline earth metals
(b) Halogens
(d) Noble gases
Answer : A
Question. The elements with atomic numbers 4, 12, 20, 38
and 56 belong to :
(a) Alkali metals
(b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) Halogens
(d) Noble gases
Answer : B

Question. The elements with atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53

and 85 belong to :
(a) Alkali metals
(b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) Halogens
(d) Noble gases
Answer : C

Question. The atomic number of the element next to 16S in

the same group is :
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 34
(d) 42
Answer : C

Question. The atomic number of the element next to 53I in

the same group is :
(a) 55
(b) 61
(c) 85
(d) 93
Answer : C

Question. The atomic number of the element next to 2He in

the same group is :
(a) 4
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 52
Answer : B

Question. The elements belonging to IA to VIIA and 0

groups are known as :
(a) Alkali metals
(c) Representative elements
(c) Transition elements
(d) Inner-transition elements
Answer : B

Question. The elements belonging to IIIB to VIII and IB and

IIB are known as :
(a) Representative elements
(b) Transition elements
(c) Lanthanides
(d) Actinides
Answer : B

Question. Each transition series contains a total of :

(a) 2 elements
(b) 8 elements
(c) 10 elements
(d) 18 elements
Answer : C

Question. The number of elements in each of the inner

transition series is :
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 14
Answer : D
Question. The third member of the Dobereiner triad
consisting of lithium and sodium is :
(a) Potassium
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Boron
(d) Barium
Answer : A

Question. If the two members of a Dobereiner triad are

chlorine and iodine, the third member of this triad is :
(a) Fluorine
(b) Bromine
(c) Sodium
(d) Calcium
Answer : B
Question. If the two members of a Dobereiner triad are
sulphur and selenium, the third member of this triad is :
(a) Calcium
(b) Barium
(c) Strontium
(d) Tellurium
Answer : D

Question. If the two members of a Dobereiner triad are

phosphorus and antimony, the third member of this triad is
:
(a) Arsenic
(b) Sulphur
(c) Iodine
(d) Calcium
Answer : A

Question. Who gave the 'law of octaves'?

(a) Dobereiner
(b) Lothar meyer
(c) Mendeleef
(d) Newlands
Answer : D

Question. Upto which element, the Law of Octaves was

found to be applicable
(a) Oxygen
(b) Calcium
(c) Cobalt
(d) Potassium
Answer : B
Question. Increasing order of electro negativity is
(a) Bi < P < S < Cl
(b) P < Bi < S < Cl
(c) S < Bi < P < Cl
(d) Cl < S < Bi < P
Answer : A

Question. Which of the given elements A, B, C, D and E with

atomic number 2, 3, 7, 10 and 30 respectively belong to the
same period?
(a) A, B, C
(b) B, C, D
(c) A, D, E
(d) B, D, E
Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statements about the

Modern Periodic Table is correct:
(a) It has 18 horizontal rows known as Periods
(b) It has 7 vertical columns known as Periods
(c) It has 18 vertical columns known as Groups
(d) It has 7 horizontal rows known as Groups
Answer : C

Question. The most distinctive property of the noble gases

is that they are:
(a) Unreactive
(b) Radioactive
(c) Metalloid
(d) Metallic
Answer : A
Question. The group number, number of valence electrons,
and valency of an element with the atomic number 15,
respectively, are:
(a) 16, 5 and 2
(b) 15, 5 and 3
(c) 16, 6 and 3
(d) 15, 6 and 2
Answer : B

Question. Which of the p-block elements are not

representative elements?
(a) Alkali metals (I-A)
(b) Group-14 elements (IV-A)
(c) Group-18 elements (VIII-A)
(d) Halogens (VII-A)
Answer : C

Question. Element X forms a chloride with the formula

XCl2, which is a solid with high melting point. X would
most likely be:
(a) Si
(b) Al
(c) Na
(d) Mg
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following pairs has both members

from the same period of the periodic table.
(a) Na – Ca
(b) Na – Cl
(c) Ca – Cl
(d) Cl – Br
Answer : B

Question. In the Modern Periodic Table, if an element with

atomic number 'X' is an inert gas, then an element with
atomic number (X-1) will be placed in:
(a) Group 16
(b) Group 17
(c) Group 15
(d) Group 18
Answer : B

Question. An element 'Z' has the electronic configuration 2,

8. Name the element 'Z' and determine its atomic number.
(a) Argon, 10
(b) Neon, 8
(c) Neon, 10
(d) Helium,10
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following forms the most stable

gaseous negative ion?
(a) F
(b) Cl
(c) Br
(d) I
Answer : B
Question. which of the following elements are found in
pitch blende?
(a) Actinium and protoactinium
(b) Neptunium and plutonium
(c) Actinium only
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer : B

Question. How many periods and groups are present in the

periodic table?
(a) 7 periods and 18 groups
(b) 8 periods and 7 groups
(c) 7 periods and 7 groups
(d) 8 periods and 8 groups
Answer : A

Question. Which of the following statements is not a

correct statement about the trends when going from, left to
right across the periods of the Periodic Table?
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
(b) The number of valence electrons increases.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
(d) The oxides become more acidic.
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following properties generally

decreases along a period?
(a) Ionization Energy
(b) Metallic Character
(c) Electron Affinity
(d) Valency.
Answer : B

Question.The electronic configuration of halogen is

(a) ns² np6
(b) ns² np3
(c) ns² np5
(d) ns²Answer
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is the correct order of the

atomic radii of the elements oxygen, fluorine and nitrogen?
(a) O < F < N
(b) N < F < O
(c) O < N < F
(d) F < O < N
Answer : D

Question. Element X forms a chloride with the formula

XCl2 , which is a solid with a high melting point. X would
most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Si
Answer : B

Question. Which group elements are called transition

metals?
(a) Group number 1 to 2
(b) Group number 13 to 18
(c) Group number 3 to 12
(d) Group number 1 to 8
Answer : C

Question. The element with atomic number 35 belongs to

(a) d – Block
(b) f – Block
(c) p – Block
(d) s – Block
Answer : C

Question. 14 elements after actinium is called

(a) Lanthanides
(b) Actinides
(c) d-block elements
(d) p-block elements
Answer : B

Question. The group number and period number

respectively of an element with atomic number 8 is
(a) 6, 2
(b) 16, 2
(c) 6, 8
(d) 16, 4
Answer : A

Question. In the third period of the Periodic Table the

element having smallest size is
(a) Na
(b) Ar
(c) Cl
(d) Si
Answer : B

Question. The increasing order of the atomic radii of

elements Na, Rb, K, Mg is
(a) Na < K < Mg < Rb
(b) K < Na < Mg < Rb
(c) Na < Mg < K < Rb
(d) Mg < Na < K < Rb
Answer : C

Question. An element with atomic number will form a basic

oxide _________.
(a) 7
(b) 17
(c) 14
(d) 11
Answer : D

Question. The correct order of the increasing radii of the

elements Na, Si, Al and P is
(a) Si, Al, P, Na
(b) P, Si, Al, Na
(c) Al, Si, P, Na
(d) Al, P, Si, Na
Answer : B

Question. Which is not true about noble gases?

(a) They are non-metallic in nature
(b) They exist in atomic form
(c) They are radioactive in nature
(d) Xenon is the most reactive among these
Answer : C

Question. Identify the wrong sequence of the elements in a

group
(a) Ca, Sr, Ba
(b) Cu, Au, Ag
(c) N, P, As
(d) Cl, Br, I
Answer : B

Question. Mendeleev predicted the existence of two

elements and named them as eka-silicon and eka-
aluminium. Identify the elements which took their position
at later stage
(a) Si and Ge
(b) Si and Ga
(c) Ge and Ga
(d) Si and Al
Answer : C

Question. The element with atomic number 3 to 10 belong

to the second period. Identify the most electropositive and
most electronegative element.
(a) F, Li
(b) Li, F
(c) Li, Ne
(d) Ne, Li
Answer : B
Very Short Answer Questions
Question. Did Döbereiner’s triads also exist in the columns
of Newland’s Octaves? Compare and find out.
Answer : Yes, it exists in the Newland’s octave. It is Li, Na
and K.

Question. What were the limitations of Newlands’ Law of

Octaves?
Answer : • Newlands’ law was applicable only till calcium,
after Ca, every eighth element did not possess properties
similar to first.
• New elements discovered did not fit into the law.
• Wrong order of arrangement of elements was done, e.g.
Co and Ni do not resemble halogen were found together in
same slot, Fe being similar to Co and Ni was separated and
kept in different slot.

Question. Besides gallium, which other elements have

since been discovered that were left by Mendeleev in his
Periodic Table? (any two)
Answer : Besides gallium, germanium and scandium have
been discovered.

Question. Why do you think noble gases are placed in a

separate group?
Answer : Noble gases are inactive, do not resemble other
elements and all of them show same properties, hence they
are grouped separately.
Question. Name two elements you would expect to show
chemical reactions similar to magnesium.
What is the basis for your choice?
Answer : Calcium and barium.
Reason : (i) Both of them belong to same group as
magnesium.
(ii) Ba and Ca has same valence electrons as Mg, and will
show same properties as of magnesium.

Question. (a) Lithium, sodium, potassium are all metals

that react with water to liberate hydrogen gas. Is there any
similarity in the atoms of these elements?
(b) Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of
extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms
have in common?
Answer : (a) All these metals are highly reactive, they have
same valence electrons i.e. 1 and can readily loose
electrons to become positive ions.
(b) Helium and neon have completely filled outermost shell.

Question. By considering their position in the Periodic

Table, which one of the following elements would you
expect to have maximum metallic characteristics?
Ga, Ge, As, Se, Be
Answer : Among the given elements Be will show maximum
metallic characteristics as it belongs to extreme left of the
Periodic Table.
Short Answer Questions
Question. (a) What property do all elements in the same
column of the Periodic Table as boron have in common?
(b) What property do all elements in the same column of
the Periodic Table as fluorine have in common?
Answer : (a) All other elements have same valence
electrons and their valency is 3.
(b) All are non-metals, they have same valence electrons
i.e., 7 and their valency is 1, all of them gain electrons to
form negative ions.

Question. The position of three elements A, B and C in the

Periodic Table are shown below:

CBSE Class 9 Science Periodic Classification of

Elements MCQs

(a) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.

(b) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive than
A.
(c) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B?
(d) Which type of ion, cation or anion, will be formed by
element A?
Answer : (a) ‘A’ is non-metal.
(b) ‘C’ is less reactive than ‘A’
(c) ‘C’ is smaller in size than ‘B’
(d) ‘A’ will form negatively charged ion — Anion
Question. How does the electronic configuration of an
atom relate to its position in the Modern Periodic Table?
Answer : The position of element depends upon its
electronic configuration. The number of shells is equal to
the period number. The valence electrons decides the group
number in which it will be, elements with 1 valence
electrons belong to group 1.
Elements with 2 valence electrons belong to group 2.

Question. Compare and contrast the arrangement of

elements in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table and the Modern
Periodic Table.
Answer :

CBSE Class 9 Science Periodic Classification of Elements

MCQs-
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 4
Structure of the Atom
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 4
Structure of the Atom in Class 9.

Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom MCQ Questions

Class 9 Science with Answers
Question: The electronic configuration of the element with
atomic number 19 is
(A) 2,8,7
(B) 2,9,8
(C) 2,8,8,1
(D) 2,10,7

Answer: C

Question: The valence electrons of an element are

reponsible for
(A) Physical properties of an element
(B) Chemical properties of an element
(C) Both the properties
(D) None of these

Answer: B

Question: An element has electronic configuration 2,8,4 it

will be classified as
(A) Metal
(B) Non metal
(C) Metalloid
(D) None of these

Answer: C

Question: Isotopes of an element do not have

(A) Same number of element
(B) Same physical properties
(C) Same chemical properties
(D) Same elecrical charge on the nucleus

Answer: B

Question: Amongst element X (2,8,6) and (2,8,8) which is

more reactive and why ?
(A) X because it is a metal
(B) Y because it is non metal
(C) X because it has 6 valence electrons
(D) Y because it is gas

Answer: C

Question: Cathode rays have

(A) Mass only
(B) Charge only
(C) Both mass and charge
(D) Neither mass nor charge

Answer: C

Question: Which of these is a pairs isobar ?

(A) 6C12, 8O16
(B) 6C13, 6C14
(C) 20Ca40, 18Ar40
(D) None of these

Answer: C

Question: 7N15 and 8O16 are a pair of

(A) Isotopes
(B) Isobars
(C) Isotones
(D) None of these

Answer: C

Question: The nucleus of the hydrogen atom is called as

(A) Neutron
(B) Electron
(C) Proton
(D) Nucleons

Answer: C

Question: The e/m value for cathode rays

(A) varies with the nature of the gas
(B) does not vary with the nature of gas
(C) could not be determinde by J.J. Thomson
(D) Both (B) & (C) are correct
Answer: B

Question: Cathode raysget deflected in a electric field

towards
(A) Positive plate
(B) Negative Plate
(C) No deflection takes place
(D) First towards negative plate and then towards positive
plate

Answer: A

Question: Isotopes differ in

(A) No. of electrons
(B) No. of protons
(C) No. of neutrons
(D) Chemical reactivity

Answer: C

Question: The atomic number of an element ‘y’ is 20. The

electronic configuration of the ion having inert gas
configuration is
(A) 2,8,10
(B) 2,18
(C) 2,10,8
(D) 2,8,8

Answer: D

Question: Which amonght the following statement is true?

(A) a rays are cathode rays
(B) Electrons make up the cathode rays
(C) Protons make up the cathode rays
(D) Electron magnetic radiation make up the cathode rays

Answer: B

Question: The isotope of hydrogen that contains the same

numer of protons and neutrons in its nucleus is called
(A) Protium
(B) Deutrium
(C) Tritium
(D) None of these

Answer: B

Question: a particle is emitted by 92X238 during

redioactivity. The new specie y should be :
(A) 90Y234
(B) 90Y238
(C) 92Y234
(D) 94Y234

Answer: A

Question: When an a-particle is emitted

(A) Element moves 2 places to the right in the periodic table
(B) Element moves one place to the left
(C) Element moves 2 places to the left in the periodic table
(D) Elements maintains its position
Answer: C

Question: If the nuclide of actinium 89Ac228, emits b

particle, the daughter nuclide will be
(A) 88Ra228
(B) 90Th228
(C) 87Fr224
(D) 90Th229

Answer: B

Question: The relative atomic masses of many elements

are not whole numbers because
(A) They can’t be determined very accurately
(B) The atoms ionize during the determination
(C) of the existence of isotopes
(D) of the presence of impurities

Answer: C

Question: The energy associated with an orbit

(a) increases with his distance from the nucleus
(b) decreases with increase in the distance from nucleus
(c) remains constant whatever may be the distance
(d) none of these

Answer: A

Question: The orbits are numbered by

(a) 100, 200, 300....
(b) 10, 20, 30....
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4....
(d) 5, 10, 15....

Answer: C

Question: The shells or orbits are denoted by

(a) K, L, M, N,.....
(b) a, b, c, d,....
(c) A, B, C, d,....
(d) V, W, X, Y, Z,....

Answer: A

Question: The shell which has two electrons is

(a) first shell
(b) second shell
(c) third shell
(d) fourth shell

Answer: A

Question: Maximum number of electrons, the third shell

can accommodate is
(a) 32
(b) 2
(c) 8
(d) 18

Answer: D

Question: In general, the nth shell can accommodate_____

electrons where ‘n’ stands for number of the shell.
(a) 3n2
(b) 2n2
(c) n2
(d) 2n

Answer: B

Question: The distribution of _____ in various orbits of an

atom is called electronic configuration of element
(a) neutrons
(b) protons
(c) electrons
(d) all of these

Answer: C

Question: The electronic configuration of oxygen

(a) 2, 7
(b) 2, 6
(c) 2, 4, 2
(d) 4, 4

Answer: B

Question: 2, 8,1 is the electronic configuration of

(a) lithium
(b) potassium
(c) helium
(d) sodium

Answer: D
Question: Number of electrons in the outermost shell of
carbon is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 8

Answer: A

Question: Total number of electrons in an atom of nitrogen

is
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 7

Answer: D

Question: The noble gases from the following are

(a) O2, N2, H2
(b) Cl, F, Br
(c) He, Ne, Ar
(d) Na, K, Ca

Answer: C

Question: Noble gases do not react with other elements to

form compounds because
(a) they are unstable
(b) they are gases
(c) they are stable
(d) they are already compounds
Answer: C

Question: In a chemical reaction, ___________ participate.

(a) valence electrons
(b) all electrons of the atom
(c) protons
(d) electrons and protons

Answer: A

Question: The valency of an element is its

(a) electronic configuration
(b) combining capacity
(c) atomic number
(d) mass number

Answer: A

Question: Atoms combine to attain stable configuration by

(a) sharing electrons
(b) sharing, accepting or donating electrons
(c) donating electrons
(d) accepting electrons

Answer: B

Question: A chlorine atom has ____ protons, _____

electrons and _____ neutrons.
(a) 18, 17, 18
(b) 17, 18, 18
(c) 17, 17, 18
(d) 17, 17, 17
Answer: C

Question: The number of electrons shared between two

oxygen atoms is
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer: D

Question: . The number of electrons shared by each

chlorine atom to form a molecule is
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 7

Answer: B

Question: In a CO2 molecule, the total number of electrons

shared between a carbon and two oxygen atoms are
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 6

Answer: B

Question: In the formation of NaCl, sodium atom

(a) receives an electron
(b) shares an electron
(c) does not react
(d) donates an electron

Answer: D

Question: Sodium ion (Na+) has ____ number of electrons

(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 11
(d) 13

Answer: A

Question: When chlorine atom becomes chloride ion it

(a) loses an electron gains an electron
(b) gains an electron
(c) electrostatic force
(d) magnetic force

Answer: B

Question: Sodium and chlorine atoms are held together in

NaCl by
(a) electromagnetic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) electrostatic force
(d) magnetic force

Answer: C

Question: An atom that becomes charged by gaining or

losing an electron is called
(a) cation
(b) anion
(c) ion
(d) electron

Answer: C

Question: Compound formed by sharing electrons is called

(a) ionic compound
(b) electrovalent compound
(c) covalent compound
(d) coordinate compound

Answer: C

Question: Cations are carry

(a) both positive and negative charges
(b) neutral charge
(c) negative charge
(d) positive charge

Answer: D

Question: Mg →Mg2+ ______

(a) 2 electrons
(b) 1 electrons
(c) no electrons
(d) 2 protons
Answer: A

Question: An aluminium ion carries _____ units of positive

charge
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4

Answer: B

Question: Question: Oxygen atom becomes an oxide ion by

(a) losing two electrons
(b) gaining two electrons
(c) gaining one electron
(d) losing one electron

Answer: B

Question: The scientist who put forward the atomic theory

in 1808 was
(a) Dalton
(b) Lavoiser
(c) Galileo
(d) Thomson

Answer: A

Question: According to the atomic theory

(a) matter is not created but can be destroyed in a chemical
reaction.
(b) matter is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical
reaction
(c) matter is created but not destroyed in a chemical
reaction
(d) matter can be created and destroyed in a chemical
reaction

Answer: B

Question: Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Elements combine in fixed proportion by volume to form
compounds
(b) Elements combine in fixed proportions by weights to
form compounds
(c) elements combine in fixed proportion by mass to form
compounds
(d) None of these

Answer: C

Question: The scientist who measured the mass and

charge of an electron was
(a) Goldstein
(b) Rutherford
(c) Dalton
(d) Thomson
Answer: D

Question: The mass of an electron is

(a) 1837 times the mass of proton
(b)1/1837 th times the mass of hydrogen atom
(c)1/1831 th times the mass of oxygen atom
(d)1/1837 th times the mass of carbon atom

Answer: B

Question: The mass of proton is about the same as that of

(a) carbon atom
(b) an electron
(c) hydrogen ion
(d) oxygen atom

Answer: C

Question: Rutherford directed a stream of _____ on a thin

gold leaf in the scattering experiment
(a) alpha particles
(b) beta particles
(c) gamma particles
(d) X-rays

Answer: A

Question: Based on his experiments, Rutherford concluded

that the positive charge of an atom is
(a) spread all over the atom
(b) revolves around the atom in orbits
(c) exists in the empty space
(d) present in the nucleus

Answer: D

Question: Atomic number of an atom is the

(a) number of protons + number of neutrons
(b) number of neutrons
(c) number of electrons + number of protons
(d) number of protons

Answer: D

Question: Atomic number of an element is denoted by

(a) X
(b) A
(c) Z
(d) N

Answer: C

Question: In a neutral atom, the number of protons is equal

to
(a) half the number of electrons
(b) number of electrons
(c) number of neutrons
(d) number of neutrons + number of electrons
Answer: B

Question: Atomic mass of an element is the number of

times by which the mass of its atom is greater than
(a) 1/12 th mass of carbon atom
(b) 1/12 th mass of hydrogen atom
(c) 1/12 th mass of oxygen atom
(d) 1/12 th mass of helium atom

Answer: A

Question: Neutrons were discovered by

(a) Joseph Thomson
(b) James Chadwick
(c) Ernest Rutherford
(d) John Dalton

Answer: B

Question: Mass of neutron is equal to

(a) that of an electron
(b) half the mass of an electron
(c) the mass of a proton
(d) half the mass of a proton

Answer: C
Question: The mass number of an element is the sum of
the numbers of
(a) protons and electrons
(b) electrons and neutrons
(c) protons, electrons and neutrons
(d) protons and neutrons

Answer: D

Question: The mass number of an element is denoted by

(a) A
(b) Z
(c) X
(d) N

Answer: A

Question: The element with the same atomic and mass

number is
(a) oxygen
(b) hydrogen
(c) helium
(d) carbon

Answer: B

Question: In the periodic table, the elements are arranged

in the
(a) increasing order of atomic mass
(b) decreasing order of atomic number
(c) alphabetical order
(d) increasing order of atomic number

Answer: D

Question: The symbol of the element sodium is

(a) Si
(b) S
(c) Na
(d) N

Answer: C

Question: K is the symbol of

(a) potassium
(b) calcium
(c) krypton
(d) aluminium

Answer: A

Question: The element with the same atomic number and

mass number is
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Helium
(d) Carbon
Answer: B

Question: The mass of an electron is

(a) 1837 times the mass of proton
(b) 1/1837th times the mass of oxygen atom
(c) 1/1837th times the mass of carbon atom
(d) 1/1837th times the mass of hydrogen atom

Answer: D

Question: The scientist who put forward the atomic theory

in 1808 was
(a) Dalton
(b) Lavoiser
(c) Galileo
(d) Thomson

Answer: B

Question: The mass number of an element is the sum of

the number of
(a) Proton and electron
(b) Electron and neutrons
(c) Protons, electrons and neutrons
(d) Protons and neutrons

Answer: A
Question: Rutherford directed a stream of __________on a
thin Gold leaf in the scattering experiment
(a) Alpha particle
(b) Beta particle
(c) Gamma particle
(d) X-rays

Answer: D

Question: In the periodic table, the elements are arranged

in the
(a) Increasing order of atomic mass
(b) Decreasing order of atomic number
(c) Alphabetical order
(d) Increasing order of atomic number

Answer: A

Question: In a neutral atom, the number of protons is equal

to
(a) Number of electrons
(b) Half the number of electrons
(c) Number of neutrons
(d) Number of electrons and neutrons

Answer: C

Question: The mass number of an element is denoted by

(a) A
(b) Z
(c) X
(d) N

Answer: D

Question: The e/m ratio of an electron for all types of

substances is
(a) constant
(b) less than one
(c) greater than one
(d) zero

Answer: A

Question: A proton is identical to

(a) the nucleus of berellium
(b) the nucleus of helium
(c) a molecule of a hydrogen
(d) an atom of hydrogen

Answer: A

Question: An particle is
(a) a hydrogen molecule
(b) a helium nucleus
(c) an electron
(d) a proton
Answer: A

Question: The atomic number of an element is determined

by
(a) the number of electrons in one atom
(b) the number of neutrons in one atom
(c) the valency of the element
(d) the number of protons in one atom

Answer: D

Question: The value of e/m of an electron was measured by

(a) Millikan
(b) J.J. Thomson
(c) Dalton
(d) Rutherford

Answer: B

Question: The atomic number of an element is 11 and its

mass number is 23. The respective number of electrons,
protons and neutrons in this atom will be
(a) 11, 11, 12
(b) 11, 12, 11
(c) 12, 11, 11
(d) 23, 11, 23

Answer: D
Question: The number of electrons in the outer shell of the
most stable or inert atoms is
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following pairs are isotopes?

(a) Oxygen and ozone
(b) Ice and steam
(c) Nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide
(d) Hydrogen and deuterium

Answer: A

Question: An atom which has a mass number of 14 and has

8 neutrons is an
(a) isotope of oxygen
(b) isobar of oxygen
(c) isotope of carbon
(d) isobar of carbon

Answer: D

Question: Which of the following has an equal number of

neutrons and protons?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Deuterium
(c) Fluorine
(d) Chlorine

Answer: D

Question: Members of which of the following have similar

chemical properties?
(a) Isotope
(b) Isobars
(c) Allotropes
(d) Both isotopes and allotropes

Answer: C

Question: An atom of an element has 26 electrons and has

a mass number 56. The nucleus of this atom contains
______ neutrons
(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 30
(d) 56

Answer: B

Question: For an element with atomic number 19, the 19th

electron will occupy
(a) L-shell
(b) M-shell
(c) N-shell
(d) K-shell

Answer: A

Question: The number of electrons in an element with

atomic number X and atomic mass Y will be
(a) X – Y
(b) Y – X
(c) X + Y
(d) X

Answer: C

Question: A natural phenomenon that supports the

experimental conclusion that atoms are divisible is
(a) allotropy
(b) radioactivity
(c) cracking
(d) none of these

Answer: C

Question: The number of valence electrons determines:

(a) Chemical properties of elements
(b) Physical properties of elements
(c) Both physical and chemical properties of elements
(d) Neither physical nor chemical properties of elements

Answer: A

Question: Cathode rays have :

(a) Charge only
(b) Mass only
(c) Charge as well as mass
(d) Neither charge nor mass

Answer: B

Question: Which of the following are isobars: 18Ar40, 19

K39 ,20 Ca40, 19[K+]39
(a) 18 Ar40,20 Ca40,
(b) 19 K39 , 19+[K+]39
(c) 18 Ar40,19 K39
(d) 18 Ar40,19 K39 ,20 Ca40

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following are isotopes: 1 1 H,

1 2D,1 3 T,1 1 H+
(a) 1 1 H, 1 2D,1 3 T
(b) 1 1 H, 1 1 H+
(c) 1 1 H, 1 2D,1 1 H+
(d) 1 1 H, 1 3 T,1 1 H+
Answer: A

Question: The electronic configuration of Cl- ion is:

(a) 2,8,8
(b) 2,8,7
(c) 2,8,6
(d) 2,8,8,1

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following does not have one

electron in its valance shell
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) Li
(d) H

Answer: B

Question: Which of the following does not have 8 valence

electrons:
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Cl

Answer: A
Question: How many electrons, protons and neutrons are
present in X+, if atomic number of X is 19 and its mass
number is 39
(a) E=19, P=19, N= 20
(b) E=18, P=19, N= 20
(c) E=18, P=19, N= 19
(d) E=19, P=20, N= 20

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following statements does not

belong to Bohrs model?
(a) The electrons radiate energy during revolution due to
force of attraction between nucleus and electrons
(b) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantized
(c) The electrons in the orbit nearest to the nucleus is the
lowest energy
(d) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in different orbits
having fixed energies

Answer: A

Question: When a gold foil is bombarded by a beam of α

particle, only a few of them get deflected whereas most go
straight undeflecte This is because
(a) The volume of nucleus is much smaller than that of the
atom
(b) The force of attraction exerted on α particles by the
electrons is insufficient
(c) The force of repulsion acting on the fast moving α
particles is very small
(d) The neutrons have no effect on α particles

Answer: A

More Questions...........................

Question: The highest value of e/m ratio for anode rays is

observed when the discharge tube is filled with:
(a) N2
(b) H2
(c) He
(d) Ar

Answer: B

Question: Which of the following statement is correct

about proton?
(a) It is an ionized Hydrogen atom
(b) It is the nucleus of deuterium
(c) It is an ionized hydrogen molecule
(d) It is an α particle with unit positive charge

Answer: A

Question. The ion of an element has 3 positive charges.

Mass number of the atom is 27 and the number of
neutrons is 14. What is the number of electrons in the ion?
(a) 13
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer : B

Question: Na+ has 12 neutrons and 10 electrons. Which of

the following statements is correct?
(a) Na+ has atomic number 11 and mass number 23.
(b) Na+ has atomic number 10 and mass number 22.
(c) Na+ has atomic number 10 and mass number 23.
(d) Na+ has atomic number 11 and mass number 22.

Answer: A

Question: Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species

are given:

X
Y
P
7
8

N 9
8
(a) 16,16; 1sobars
(b) 16,16; isotopes
(c) 17,15; isotopes
(d) 17,15; isotopes

Answer: A

Question: The electronic configuration of Cl(17) is:

(a) 2,8,7
(b) 2,2, 8,5
(c) 2,8,2,5
(d) 2,2,5,8

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following are positively charged

ions:
Atoms Protons Electrons Neutrons
A 17 17 18

B 12 10 12

C 16 17 20

D 1

E 18 18 22

F 10 10 10
(a) B and D
(b) A and B
(c) C and D
(d) D and F

Answer: A

Question: If K, L, M, N shells of an atom are full, the total

number of electrons in the atom are:
(a) 60
(b) 26
(c) 42
(d) 36

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following is correct?

Column 1 Column 2

A. Electrons i. Positive charge

B. Protons ii. No charge
C. Neutrons iii. Negative charge
(a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
Answer: A

Question: A student weighs 30kg. Suppose his body is

entirely made of electrons. How any electrons are there in
his body? Mass of an electron= 9.1X10-31kg
(a) 3.29 X1031
(b) 3.29 X1030
(c) 3.29 X1023
(d) 3.29 X1032

Answer: A

Question: The charge/ mass ratio of electron:

(a) Remains constant
(b) Depends on the nature of the electrodes
(c) Depends upon nature of the gas
(d) Depends on both nature of the gas and nature of the
electrode

Answer: A

Question: Who discovered the electron?

(a) Rutherford
(b) Chadwick
(c) Thomson
(d) Goldstein

Answer : C
Question: The fluorescence on the walls of discharge tube
is due to:
(a) Cathode rays
(b) Anode rays
(c) Canal rays
(d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question: The isotope used to remove the brain tumours

and treatment of cancer is
(a) U-235
(b) Na-24
(c) Iodine
(d) C0-60

Answer : D

Question: The nucleons are

(a) Protons and electrons
(b) Neutrons and electrons
(c) Protons and neutrons
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question: How many electrons in a Hydrogen (H) atom:

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Answer : A

Question: The atomic number of the element with

maximum number of unpaired electrons is:
(a) 23
(b) 33
(c) 15
(d) 26

Answer : D

Question: 13Al27 is a stable isotope. 13Al29 is expected to

disintegrate by:
a.α emission
(b) β emission
(c) Positron emission
(d) Proton emission

Answer : B

Question: The atomic number of an element having mass

number 23 and number of neutron 12 is ________.
(a) 23
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 35
Answer: B

Question: Isotopes are

(a) atoms of the same element
(b) atoms of different elements
(c) molecules of the same element
(d) radicals of the same element

Answer : A

Question: What property of an element determines its

chemical behaviour?
(a) Size of an element
(b) Valency of an element
(c) Molar mass of the element
(d) None of these

Answer. B

Question: What property of an element determines its

chemical behaviour?
(a) Size of an element
(b) Valency of an element
(c) Molar mass of the element
(d) None of these

Answer : B
Question: Which of the following isotope is used in the
treatment of blood cancer?
(a) P-32
(b) I-131
(c) Co-60
(d) any of these

Answer : A

Question: When alpha-particles are sent through a thin

metal foil, most of them go straight through the foil
because
(a) alpha-particles are positively charged
(b) alpha-particles are much smaller than electrons
(c) alpha-particles move with low velocity
(d) most part of the atom is empty

Answer : D

Question: The electronic configuration of an atom with

atomic number 19 is:
(a) 2, 8, 8, 1
(b) 1, 2, 2, 8
(c) 2, 8, 9
(d) 2, 10, 7

Answer : A

Question: The charge/ mass ratio of electron:

(a) Depends on the nature of the electrodes
(b) Depends upon nature of the gas
(c) Remains constant
(d) Depends on both nature of the gas and nature of the
electrodea

Answer : c

Question: A student weighs 30kg. Suppose his body is

entirely made of electrons. How any electrons are there in
his body? Mass of an electron= 9.1X10-31kg
(a) 3.29 X1031
(b) 3.29 X1030
(c) 3.29 X1023
(d) 3.29 X1032

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following is correct?

Column 1 Column2
(a) Electrons i. Positive charge
(b) Protons ii. No charge
(c) Neutrons iii. Negative charge
(a) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(b) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iii

Answer : C
Question: If K, L, M, N shells of an atom are full, the total
number of electrons in the atom are:
(a) 60
(b) 26
(c) 42
(d) 36

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following are positively charged

ions:

(a) A and B
(b) C and D
(c) B and D
(d) D and F

Answer : C

Question: The electronic configuration of Cl(17) is:

(a) 2,8,7
(b) 2,2, 8,5
(c) 2,8,2,5
(d) 2,2,5,8
Answer : A

Question: Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species

are given:

The mass number of x and Y and their relation is

(a) 16,16; isotopes
(b) 17,15; isotopes
(c) 17,15; isotopes
(d) 16,16; 1sobars

Answer : D

Question: Na+ has 12 neutrons and 10 electrons. Which of

the following statements is correct?
(a) Na+ has atomic number 10 and mass number 22.
(b) Na+ has atomic number 11 and mass number 23.
(c) Na+ has atomic number 10 and mass number 23.
(d) Na+ has atomic number 11 and mass number 22.

Answer : B

Question: Which of the following statement is correct

about proton?
(a) It is the nucleus of deuterium
(b) It is an ionized hydrogen molecule
(c) It is an ionized Hydrogen atom
(d) It is an α particle with unit positive charge

Answer : C

Question: The highest value of e/m ratio for anode rays is

observed when the discharge tube is filled with:
(a) N2
(b) H2
(c) He
(d) Ar

Answer : B

Question: When a gold foil is bombarded by a beam of α

particle, only a few of them get deflected whereas most go
straight undeflecte(d) This is because
(a) The force of attraction exerted on α particles by the
electrons is insufficient
(b) The volume of nucleus is much smaller than that of the
atom
(c) The force of repulsion acting on the fast moving α
particles is very small
(d) The neutrons have no effect on α particles

Answer : B

Question: Which of the following statements does not

belong to Bohr’s model?
(a) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantized
(b) The electrons in the orbit nearest to the nucleus is the
lowest energy
(c) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in different orbits
having fixed energies
(d) The electrons radiate energy during revolution due to
force of attraction between nucleus and electrons

Answer : D

Question: How many electrons, protons and neutrons are

present in X+, if atomic number of X is 19 and its mass
number is 39
(a) E=19, P=19, N= 20
(b) E=18, P=19, N= 20
(c) E=18, P=19, N= 19
(d) E=19, P=20, N= 20

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following does not have 8 valence

electrons:
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Cl-

Answer : A
Question: Which of the following does not have one
electron in its valance shell
(a) Na
(b) Li
(c) H
(d) Ca

Answer : D

Question: The electronic configuration of Cl- ion is:

(a) 2,8,7
(b) 2,8,8
(c) 2,8,6
(d) 2,8,8,1

Answer : 17 A

Answer: 18 C

Question: Cathode rays have :

(a) Charge only
(b) Mass only
(c) Charge as well as mass
(d) Neither charge nor mass
Answer : A

Question: The number of valence electrons determines:

(a) Physical properties of elements
(b) Chemical properties of elements
(c) Both physical and chemical properties of elements
(d) Neither physical nor chemical properties of elements

Answer : B
Question: Which of the following correctly represents the
electronic distribution in the Mg atom?
(a) 3, 8, 1
(b) 2, 8, 2
(c) 1, 8, 3
(d) 8, 2, 2

Answer : B

Question: The electron should be filled in the orbital in

accordance with the increasing order of their energy. This
statement is related with
(a) Affbau principle
(b) Pauli principle
(c) Hund's principle
(d) Plank's rules

Answer : A

Question: The ion of an element has 3 positive charges.

Mass number of the atom is 27 and the number of
neutrons is 14. What is the number of electrons in the ion?
(a) 13
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer : B

Question: An neutral element A has 3 electrons, the atomic

number of an element is _______.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 3

Answer : C

Question: The isotope deuterium of hydrogen has

(a) No neutrons and one proton
(b) One neutrons and two protons
(c) One electron and two neutron
(d) One proton and one neutron

Answer : D

Question: What prevents an atom from being collapsed?

(a) The nuclear forces
(b) Movement of electrons in discrete energy levels
(c) The electron-electron repulsions
(d) All of these

Answer. B
Question: Which of the following statements about
Rutherford’s model of atom are correct?
(i) Considered the nucleus as positively charge(d)
(ii) Established that the a-particles are four times as heavy
as a hydrogen atom.
(iii) Can be compared to solar system.
(iv) Was in agreement with Thomson’s model.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) only (i)

Answer : A

Question: What is an electron?

(a) A wave
(b) A particle
(c) Either of two, depending on how it is observed
(d) Neither of these

Answer : C

Question: The nucleus of an atom contains:

(a) Protons
(b) Electrons
(c) Protons and neutrons
(d) Neutrons

Answer : C
Question: Which scientist gave the concept of fixed energy
levels around the nucleus?
(a) Ernest Rutherford
(b) Neils Bohar
(c) J.J.Thomsan
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question: In an atom, the constituent electrons:

(a) Do not move
(b) Are uniformly distributed
(c) Move around the nucleus in fixed energy levels.
(d) Move around the nucleus in a random way.

Answer : C

Question: Which of the following pairs are isotopes?

(a) Oxygen and ozone
(b) Ice and steam
(c) Nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide
(d) Hydrogen and deuterium

Answer : D

Question:Which of the following has a charge of +1 and a

mass of 1 amu?
(a) A neutron
(b) A proton
(c) An electron
(d) A helium nucleus

Answer : B
Question: Members of which of the following have similar
chemical properties?
(a) Isotope
(b) Isobars
(c) Allotropes
(d) Both isotopes and allotropes

Answer : C

Question: J. J. Thomson was awarded the Nobel Prize for

Physics for his work on the discovery of electrons. Which
of the following was/were suggested by Thomson in his
model of atom?
(a) An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the
electrons are embedded in it.
(b) An atom consists of a negatively charged sphere and the
electrons are embedded in it.
(c) The negative and positive charges are equal in
magnitude.
(d) Both (1) and (3)

Answer : D
Question. Which of the following does not have 8 valence
electrons:
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Cl

Answer : A
Question. Which of the following particles was discovered
first?
(a) Neutron
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Meson

Answer : B

Question. Isotopes of an element have:

(a) the same physical properties
(b) different chemical properties
(c) different number of neutrons
(d) different atomic numbers

Answer : C

Question. The electron should be filled in the orbital in

accordance with the increasing order of their energy. This
statement is related with
(a) Affbau principle
(b) Pauli principle
(c) Hund's principle
(d) Plank's rules

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following elements has the electron

configuration 2?
(a) Magnesium
(b) Helium
(c) Sodium
(d) Hydrogen

Answer : B

Question. Light energy is treated as a form of matter

because it consists of:
(a) Photons or bundles of energy
(b) Electrons or wave like matter
(c) Neutrons
(d) None of the Above

Answer : A

Question : Though the three fundamental particles are

present in almost all elements, one element does not
possess:
(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electron
(d) Nucleons

Answer : B

Question. According to J.J Thomson, an atom is a

positively charged sphere. Which sub-atomic particles is
embedded in it?
(a) Electrons
(b) Canal Rays
(c) Protons
(d) Neutrons
Answer : A

Question. The smallest fundamental particle, of an atom

with unit negative charge is called:
(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Neutron
(d) Alpha-particle

Answer : A

Question. Neutron Possesses

(a) Positive charge
(b) No charge
(c) Negative charge
(d) None of the above.

Answer : B

Question. Each of the stationary orbits are associated with:

(a) A certain amount of velocity.
(b) A certain amount of mass.
(c) A certain amount of energy.
(d) A certain amount of force.

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is the correct electronic

configuration for magnesium?
(a) 2, 8, 1
(b) 2, 8, 3
(c) 2, 8, 4
(d) 2, 8, 2
Answer : D

Question. What are the essential conditions for the

production of anode rays?
(a) High voltage and low pressure
(b) High voltage and high pressure
(c) Low voltage and high pressure
(d) Low voltage and low pressure

Answer : A

Question. The charge/ mass ratio of electron:

a) Depends on the nature of the electrodes
b) Depends upon nature of the gas
c) Remains constant
d) Depends on both nature of the gas and nature of the
electrode

Answer : C

Question. A student weighs 30kg. Suppose his body is

entirely made of electrons. How any electrons are there in
his body? Mass of an electron= 9.1X10-31kg
a) 3.29 X1031
b) 3.29 X1030
c) 3.29 X1023
d) 3.29 X1032

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following is correct?

 Column 1 Column2

A. Electrons i. Positive charge

B. Protons ii. No charge

C. Neutrons iii. Negative charge

a) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
b) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
d) A-ii, B-i, C-iii

Answer : B

Question. If K, L, M, N shells of an atom are full, the total

number of electrons in the atom are:
a) 60
b) 26
c) 42
d) 36

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following are positively charged

ions:
a) A and B
b) C and D
c) B and D
d) D and F

Answer : C

Question. The electronic configuration of Cl(17) is:

a) 2,8,7
b) 2,2, 8,5
c) 2,8,2,5
d) 2,2,5,8

Answer : A

Question. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species

are given:

The mass number of x and Y and their relation is

a) 16,16; isotopes
b) 17,15; isotopes
c) 17,15; isotopes
d) 16,16; 1sobars

Answer : D

Question. Na+ has 12 neutrons and 10 electrons. Which of

the following statements is correct?
a) Na+ has atomic number 10 and mass number 22.
b) Na+ has atomic number 11 and mass number 23.
c) Na+ has atomic number 10 and mass number 23.
d) Na+ has atomic number 11 and mass number 22.

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statement is correct

about proton?
a) It is the nucleus of deuterium
b) It is an ionized hydrogen molecule
c) It is an ionized Hydrogen atom
d) It is an α particle with unit positive charge

Answer : C

Question. The highest value of e/m ratio for anode rays is

observed when the discharge tube is filled with:
a) N2
b) H2
c) He
d) Ar

Answer : B

Question. When a gold foil is bombarded by a beam of α

particle, only a few of them get deflected whereas most go
straight undeflected) This is because
a) The force of attraction exerted on α particles by the
electrons is insufficient
b) The volume of nucleus is much smaller than that of the
atom
c) The force of repulsion acting on the fast moving α
particles is very small
d) The neutrons have no effect on α particles

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statements does not

belong to Bohr’s model?
a) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantized
b) The electrons in the orbit nearest to the nucleus is the
lowest energy
c) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in different orbits
having fixed energies
d) The electrons radiate energy during revolution due to
force of attraction between nucleus and electrons

Answer : D

Question. How many electrons, protons and neutrons are

present in X+, if atomic number of X is 19 and its mass
number is 39
a) E=19, P=19, N= 20
b) E=18, P=19, N= 20
c) E=18, P=19, N= 19
d) E=19, P=20, N= 20

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following does not have 8 valence

electrons:
a) He
b) Ne
c) Ar
d) Cl-

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following does not have one

electron in its valance shell
a) Na
b) Li
c) H
d) Ca

Answer : D

Question. The electronic configuration of Cl- ion is:

a) 2,8,7
b) 2,8,8
c) 2,8,6
d) 2,8,8,1

Answer : B

Answer : C
Question. Cathode rays have :
a) Charge only
b) Mass only
c) Charge as well as mass
d) Neither charge nor mass

Answer : A

Question. The number of valence electrons determines:

a) Physical properties of elements
b) Chemical properties of elements
c) Both physical and chemical properties of elements
d) Neither physical nor chemical properties of elements

Answer : B
MCQ for Class 9 Science Chapter 3
Atoms and Molecules
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following
multiple-choice questions with answers for Chapter 3
Atoms and Molecules in Class 9.

Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules MCQ Questions

Class 9 Science with Answers
Question : If isotopic distribution of C-12 & C-14 is 98%
and 2% respect(d)ely, then number of C-14 atoms in 12 g
of C is:
(a) 1.244X1022
(b) 1.244X1023
(c) 3.88X1022
(d) 3.88X1022

Answer : A

Question : Identify the correct symbol of gold:

(a) Go
(b) Ge
(c) Gd
(d) Au

Answer : D

Question : The combining capacity of an element is called

(a) Valency
(b) Atomicity
(c) Atomic number
(d) Valence electrons

Answer : A

Question : Which is not represented by 1mole of Nitrogen

gas?
(a) 6.023X1023 molecules of N2
(b) 12.046 X1023 atoms of N2
(c) 6.023X1023 atoms of N2
(d) 28g of N2

Answer : C

Question : 18g of water is electrolyse(d) The weight of

oxygen obtained is:
(a) 16g
(b) 8g
(c) 4g
(d) 1g

Answer : A

Question : The balancing of chemical equations is in

accordance with:
(a) Law of combining volumes
(b) Law of constant proportions
(c) Law of conservation of mass
(d) Both b and c

Answer : D

Question : Which of the following is a correct statement:

(a) Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
(b) Na2S is sodium sulphite, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphide,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
(c) Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphate,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphite
(d) Na2S is sodium sulphite, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphide

Answer : A

Question : The formula of Calcium phosphate is:

(a) CaPO4
(b) Ca(PO4)2
(c) Ca3(PO4)2
(d) Ca2(PO4)3

Answer : C

Question : Molecular weight of CuSO4.5H2O is equal to:

(a) 249.5
(b) 159.5
(c) 159.5 X90
(d) 159.5 +10 + 16
Answer : A

Question : How many moles of electrons weigh 1 kg. Mass

of an electron is 9.1X10-31
(a) 6.022X1023
(b) 6.022X1023/9.1X10-31
(c) 1X1031/9.1
(d) 108/9.1X6.022

Answer : D

Question : Arrange the following in increasing number of

molecules:
(a) 0.5moles of H2
(b) 4g of H2
(c) 18g of H2O
(d). 2.2g of CO2
(a) I <iii<(d)< ii
(b) Iv< i<iii<ii
(c) I<ii<iii<(d)
(d) Iv<iii<ii<i

Answer : B

Question : Out of 1 g of oxygen gas, 1 g of oxygen atoms

and 1g of ozone , maximum number of atoms are present
in:
(a) 1g of oxygen gas
(b) 1g of oxygen atoms
(c) 1 g of ozone
(d) All have equal number of atoms

Answer : D

Question. If isotopic distribution of C-12 & C-14 is 98% and

2% respectively, then number of C-14 atoms in 12 g of C is:
(a) 1.244X1022
(b) 1.244X1023
(c) 3.88X1022
(d) 3.88X1022

Answer : A

Question. Identify the correct symbol of gold:

(a) Go
(b) Ge
(c) Gd
(d) Au

Answer : D

Question. The combining capacity of an element is called

(a) Valency
(b) Atomicity
(c) Atomic number
(d) Valence electrons

Answer : A
Question. Which is not represented by 1mole of Nitrogen
gas?
(a) 6.023X1023 molecules of N2
(b) 12.046 X1023 atoms of N2
(c) 6.023X1023 atoms of N2
(d) 28g of N2

Answer : C

Question. 18g of water is electrolysed) The weight of

oxygen obtained is:
(a) 16g
(b) 8g
(c) 4g
(d) 1g

Answer : A

Question. The balancing of chemical equations is in

accordance with:
(a) Law of combining volumes
(b) Law of constant proportions
(c) Law of conservation of mass
(d) Both b and c

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is a correct statement:

(a) Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
(b) Na2S is sodium sulphite, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphide,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
(c) Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphate,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphite
(d) Na2S is sodium sulphite, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphide

Answer : A

Question. The formula of Calcium phosphate is:

(a) CaPO4
(b) Ca(PO4)2
(c) Ca3(PO4)2
(d) Ca2(PO4)3

Answer : C

Question. Molecular weight of CuSO4.5H2O is equal to:

(a) 249.5
(b) 159.5
(c) 159.5 X90
(d) 159.5 +10 + 16

Answer : A

Question. How many moles of electrons weigh 1 kg. Mass

of an electron is 9.1X10-31
(a) 6.022X1023
(b) 6.022X1023/9.1X10-31
((c) 1X1031/9.1
(d) 108/9.1X6.022

Answer : D
Question. Arrange the following in increasing number of
molecules:
i. 0.5moles of H2
ii. 4g of H2
iii. 18g of H2O
iv. 2.2g of CO2
(a) I
(b) Iv< i
(c) I
(d) Iv

Answer : B

Question. Out of 1 g of oxygen gas, 1 g of oxygen atoms

and 1g of ozone , maximum number of atoms are present
in:
(a) 1g of oxygen gas
(b) 1g of oxygen atoms
(c) 1 g of ozone
(d) All have equal number of atoms

Answer : D

Question. The number of atoms present in 0.5 moles of

Nitrogen atoms is same as in:
(a) 12 g of C
(b) 24 g of Mg
(c) 8 g of O
(d) 32 g of S

Answer : C
Question. Which of the following is not a postulate of
Dalton’s atomic theory:
(a) All matter is made up of atoms
(b) Atoms are tiny indivisible and indestructive ultimate
particles
(c) Atoms combine in small whole number ratios to form
compounds
(d) Atoms of different elements can have the same mass

Answer : D

Question. 16g of S8 contains:

(a) 6.023x1023 Atoms of S
(b) 6.023x1023/8 atoms of s
(c) 6.023x1023/2 atoms of S
(d) 6.023x1023/16 atoms of S

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following has the smallest number

of molecules?
(a) 0.1 moles of CO2
(b) 2g of H2 at STP
(c) 16g of O2 gas
(d) 3.4g of NH3

Answer : A

Question. An element X has valency equal to 3. What will

be its formula with carbonate ions?
(a) X2CO3
(b) XCO3
(c) X2(CO3)3
(d) X(CO3)3

Answer : C

Question. The mass of a single atom of an element X is

2.65X 10-23g. The atomic mass and name of the element
is:
(a) 16u, oxygen
(b) 16u, Sulphur
(c) 32u, oxygen
(d) 32u, Sulphur

Answer : A

Question.
(a) Oxygen:
(b) diatomic
(c) Ozone :_______
i. Monoatomic
ii. Diatomic
iii. Triatomic
iv. Tetra atomic

Answer : C

Question.
(a) 24g of Mg: 1 mole
(b) 35.5g of Cl2: _________
i. 0.5mol
ii. 1 mol
iii. 2moles
iv. 2.5 moles

Answer : A
Question : The number of atoms present in 0.5 moles of
Nitrogen atoms is same as in:
(a) 12 g of C
(b) 24 g of Mg
(c) 8 g of O
(d) 32 g of S

Answer : C

Question : Which of the following is not a postulate of

Dalton’s atomic theory:
(a) All matter is made up of atoms
(b) Atoms are tiny ind(d)isible and indestruct(d)e ultimate
particles
(c) Atoms combine in small whole number ratios to form
compounds
(d) Atoms of different elements can have the same mass

Answer : D

Question : 16g of S8 contains:

(a) 6.023x1023 Atoms of S
(b) 6.023x1023/8 atoms of s
(c) 6.023x1023/2 atoms of S
(d) 6.023x1023/16 atoms of S
Answer : D

Question : Which of the following has the smallest number

of molecules?
(a) 0.1 moles of CO2
(b) 2g of H2 at STP
(c) 16g of O2 gas
(d) 3.4g of NH3

Answer : A

Question : An element X has valency equal to 3. What will

be its formula with carbonate ions?
(a) X2CO3
(b) XCO3
(c) X2(CO3)3
(d) X(CO3)3

Answer : C

Question : The mass of a single atom of an element X is

2.65X 10-23g. The atomic mass and name of the element
is:
(a) 16u, oxygen
(b) 16u, Sulphur
(c) 32u, oxygen
(d) 32u, Sulphur
Answer : A

Question :
(a) Oxygen: diatomic
(b) Ozone :_______
(a) Monoatomic
(b) Diatomic
(c) Triatomic
(d) Tetra atomic

Answer : C

Question :
(a) 24g of Mg: 1 mole
(b) 35.5g of Cl2: _________
(a) 0.5mol
(b) 1 mol
(c) 2moles
(d) 2.5 moles

Answer : A
Question : An element X is tetravalent and another element
Y is d(d)alent. The compound formed by these two
elements will be:
(a) XY
(b) XY2
(c) X2Y
(d) XY4

Answer : B
Question : Which of the following represents 12 u?
(a) Mass of 1 hydrogen atom
(b) Mass of C-12 atom
(c) Mass of 0-16 atom
(d) 1/12th of mass of C-12 atom

Answer : D

Question : The word “mole” was introduced around 1896

by:
(a) Wilhelm Ostwald
(b) John Dalton
(c) Avogadro
(d) Vergilious

Answer : A

Question : One gram of which of the following contains

largest number of oxygen atoms?
(a) O
(b) O2
(c) O3
(d) All contains same

Answer : C

Question : Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate is

(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 48
(d) 36
Answer : A

Question : A change in the physical state can be brought

about
(a) only when energy is g(d)en to the system
(b) only when energy is taken out from the system
(c) when energy is either g(d)en to, or taken out from the
system
(d) without any energy change

Answer : C

Question : What is the formula mass unit of ZnO?

(a) 18 u
(b) 81 u
(c) 88 u
(d) 188 u

Answer : B

Question : Formula for Aluminium Oxide is:

(a) AlO
(b) AlO2
(c) Al3O2
(d) Al2O3

Answer : D

Question : How many molecules are present in one gram of

hydrogen?
(a) 6.02 × 1023
(b) 3.01 × 1023
(c) 2.5 × 1023
(d) 1.5 × 1023

Answer : B

Question : The correct symbol for silver is:

(a) Ag
(b) S
(c) Ar
(d) AI

Answer : A

Question : 1 u or 1 amu means

(a) 1/12th mass of C-12 atoms
(b) Mass of C-12 atom
(c) Mass of O-16 atom
(d) Mass of Hydrogen molecule

Answer : A

Question : The chemical symbol for sodium is

(a) So
(b) Sd
(c) NA
(d) Na

Answer : D

Question : Who laid the foundation of laws of Chemical

Combination:
(a) Democritus
(b) Lavoisier
(c) Dalton
(d) Proust

Answer : B

Question : The molecule having an atomicity of 4 is:

(a) Sulphate molecule
(b) Ozone molecule
(c) Phosphorus molecule
(d) Methane molecule

Answer : C

Question : The percentage of copper and oxygen in

samples of CuO obtained by different methods were found
to be the same. The illustrate the law of:
(a) Constant proportion
(b) Conservation of mass
(c) Multiple proportions
(d) Reciprocal proportions

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following is not a postulate of

Daltons atomic theory:
(a) Atoms of different elements can have the same mass
(b) All matter is made up of atoms
(c) Atoms are tiny indivisible and indestructive ultimate
particles
(d) Atoms combine in small whole number ratios to form
compounds
Answer: A

Question: a. 24g of Mg: 1 mole

b. 35.5g of Cl2: _________

(a) 0.5mol
(b) 1 mol
(c) 2moles
(d) 2.5 moles

Answer: A

Question: a. Oxygen: diatomic

b. Ozone :_______

(a) Triatomic
(b) Monoatomic
(c) Diatomic
(d) Tetra atomic

Answer: A

Question: The mass of a single atom of an element X is

2.65X 10-23g. The atomic mass and name of the element
is:
(a) 16u, Sulphur
(b) 16u, oxygen
(c) 32u, oxygen
(d) 32u, Sulphur

Answer: B
Question: An element X has valency equal to 3. What will
be its formula with carbonate ions?
(a) X2(CO3)3
(b) X2CO3
(c) XCO3
(d) X(CO3)3

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following has the smallest number

of molecules?
(a) 2g of H2 at STP
(b) 3.4g of NH3
(c) 0.1 moles of CO2
(d) 16g of O2 gas

Answer: C

Question: 16g of S8 contains:

(a) 6.023x1023/16 atoms of S
(b) 6.023x1023 Atoms of S
(c) 6.023x1023/8 atoms of s
(d) 6.023x1023/2 atoms of S

Answer: A

Question: The number of atoms present in 0.5 moles of

Nitrogen atoms is same as in:
(a) 12 g of C
(b) 8 g of O
(c) 24 g of Mg
(d) 32 g of S
Answer: B

Question: Out of 1 g of oxygen gas, 1 g of oxygen atoms

and 1g of ozone , maximum number of atoms are present
in:
(a) All have equal number of atoms
(b) 1g of oxygen gas
(c) 1g of oxygen atoms
(d) 1 g of ozone

Answer: A

Question: Arrange the following in increasing number of

molecules:
i. 0.5moles of H2
ii. 4g of H2
iii. 18g of H2O
iv. 2.2g of CO2
(a) iv < i < iii < ii
(b) i < iii < iv < ii
(c) iv < iii < ii < i
(d) i < ii < iii < iv

Answer: A

More Questions.......................

Question: How many moles of electrons weigh 1 kg. Mass

of an electron is 9.1X10-31
(a) 108/9.1X6.022
(b) 6.022X1023
(c) 6.022X1023/9.1X10-31
(d) 1X1031/9.1

Answer: A

Question: Molecular weight of CuSO4.5H2O is equal to:

(a) 159.5 X90
(c) 249.5
(b) 159.5
(d) 159.5 +10 + 16

Answer: C

Question: The formula of Calcium phosphate is:

(a) Ca3(PO4)2
(b) CaPO4
(c) Ca(PO4)2
(d) Ca2(PO4)3

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following is a correct statement:

(a) Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
(b) Na2S is sodium sulphite, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphide,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
(c)Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphate,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphite
(d) Na2S is sodium sulphite, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphide

Answer: A
Question: The balancing of chemical equations is in
accordance with:
(a) Both b and c
(b) Law of combining volumes
(c) Law of constant proportions
(d) Law of conservation of mass

Answer: A

Question: 18g of water is electrolyse The weight of oxygen

obtained is:
(a) 8g
(b) 16g
(c) 4g
(d) 1g

Answer: B

Question: Which is not represented by 1mole of Nitrogen

gas?
(a) 6.023X1023 atoms of N2
(b) 6.023X1023 molecules of N2
(c) 12.046 X1023 atoms of N2
(d) 28g of N2

Answer: A

Question: The combining capacity of an element is called

(a) Valency
(b) Atomicity
(c) Atomic number
(d) Valence electrons
Answer: A

Question: Identify the correct symbol of gold:

(a) Au
(b) Go
(c) Ge
(d) Gd

Answer: A

Question: If isotopic distribution of C-12 & C-14 is 98% and

2% respectively, then number of C-14 atoms in 12 g of C is:
(a) 1.244X1022
(b) 1.244X1023
(c) 3.88X1022
(d) 3.88X1022

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following contains maximum

number of molecules?
(a) 19 CO2
(b) 1 g N2
(c) 1 g H2
(d) 1 g CH4

Answer : C

Question: The molecular formula of potassium nitrate is

________.
(a) KNO3
(b) KNO
(c) KNO2
(d) KON

Answer : A

Question: What is the latin name of sodium?

(a) Kalium
(b) Plumbum
(c) Natrium
(d) None of the above

Answer : C

Question: The combining capacity of an element is called

(a) Valency
(b) Atomicity
(c) Atomic number
(d) Valence electron

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following statements is not true

about an atom?
(a) Atoms are not able to exist independently.
(b) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and
ions are formed.
(c) Atoms are always neutral in nature.
(d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter
that we can see, feel or touch.

Answer : D
Question: The law of definite proportions was given by:
(a) John Dalton
(b) Humphry davy
(c) Proust
(d) Michael Faraday

Answer : C

Question: The most remarkable concept that Dalton’s

atomic theory proposed was that of the:
(a) atomic weight
(b) atomic mass
(c) molar mass
(d) none of the above

Answer : B

Question: Who coined the term ‘Parmanu’ for the smallest

indivisible particles?
(a) Leucippus
(b) L. Lavoisier
(c) Kanad
(d) None of them

Answer : C

Question: Identify the correct symbol of Gold.

(a) Go
(b) Gd
(c) Ge
(d) Au

Answer : D
Question: Which one of the following phrases would be
incorrect to use?
(a) A mole of an element
(b) A mole of a compound
(c) An atom of an element
(d) An atom of a compound

Answer : D

Question: The chemical symbol for barium is:

(a) B
(b) Ba
(c) Be
(d) Bi

Answer : B

Question: The molecular formula of potassium nitrate is

________.
(a) KNO3
(b) KNO
(c) KNO2
(d) KO

Answer : A

Question: The atomic mass of carbon is:

(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 23

Answer : A
Question: Who coined the term ‘Parmanu’ for the smallest
indivisible particles?
(a) Leucippus
(b) L. Lavoisier
(c) Kanad
(d) None of them

Answer : C

Question: The mass of sodium in 11.7 g of sodium chloride

is:
(a) 2.3g
(b) 4.6g
(c) 6.9g
(d) 7.1g

Answer : B

Question . Which of the following correctly represents

360g of water?
(i) 2 moles of water
(ii) 20 moles of water
(iii) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of water
(iv) 1.2044 × 1025 molecules of water
(a) (i)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer. (d) (ii) and (iv)

Question . The molecular formula of potassium nitrate is
________.
(a) KNO3
(b) KNO
(c) KNO2
(d) KON

Answer : A

Question . Which of the following contains maximum

number of molecules?
(a) 19 CO2
(b) 1 g N2
(c) 1 g H2
(d) 1 g CH4

Answer : C

Question . 3.42 g of sucrose are dissolved in 18 g of water

in a beaker. The numbers of oxygen atoms in the solution
are:
(a) 6.68 ×1023
(b) 6.09 ×1022
(c) 6.022 ×1023
(d) 6.022 ×1021

Answer : A

Question . What is the formula mass unit of ZnO?

(a) 18 u
(b) 81 u
(c) 88 u
(d) 188 u

Answer : B

Question: The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is

(a) Ni
(b) N2
(c) N+
(d) N

Answer : B

Question: The molecule having an atomicity of 4 is:

(a) Sulphate molecule
(b) Ozone molecule
(c) Phosphorus molecule
(d) Methane molecule

Answer : C

Question: How many times an atom of sulphur is heavier

than an atom of carbon?
(a) 32 times
(b) 12 times
(c) 8/3 times
(d) 12/32 times

Answer : C

Question . Which of the following represents a correct

chemical formula?
(a) CaCl
(b) BiPO4
(c) NaSO4
(d) NaS

Answer : B

Question : Which of the following statements is not true

about an atom?
(a) Atoms are not able to exist independently.
(b) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and
ions are forme(d)
(c) Atoms are always neutral in nature.
(d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter
that we can see, feel or touch.

Answer : D

Question: Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate is

(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 48
(d) 36

Answer : A

Question: The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 is

approx.
(a) 6 × 1022
(b) 6
(c) 12 × 1023
(d) 1.2 × 1023

Answer : D
Question: The molecule having an atomicity of 4 is:
(a) Sulphate molecule
(b) Ozone molecule
(c) Phosphorus molecule
(d) Methane molecule

Answer : C

Question: Choose the law of conservation of mass

(a) Mass neither be created nor formed
(b) Mass can neither be created nor reform
(c) Mass can neither be created nor destroyed
(d) Mass can neither be created nor alive

Answer : C

Question: The number of molecules in 16.0g of oxygen is:

(a) 6.02 × 1023
(b) 6.02 ×10−23
(c) 3.01 × 10−23
(d) 3.01 × 10−23

Answer : D

Question: 4g of iodine and 14.2g of chlorine are made to

react completely to yield a mixture of ICl and ICl3 .
Calculate the ratio of moles of ICl and ICl3 :
(a) 1: 1
(b) 2: 1
(c) 3: 1
(d) 1: 2

Answer : A
Question: One gram of which of the following contains
largest number of oxygen atoms?
(a) O
(b) O2
(c) O3
(d) All contains same

Answer : C

Question: The law of definite proportions was given by:

(a) John Dalton
(b) Humphry davy
(c) Proust
(d) Michael Faraday

Answer : C

Question: Atomic radius is measured in…………

(a) Kg
(b) cm
(c) Mm
(d) nm

Answer : D

Question: The chemical symbol for barium is:

(a) B
(b) Ba
(c) Be
(d) Bi

Answer : B
Question : Which of the following represents the correct
relation between Avogadro’s number (No), number of
particles (N) and moles (n)?
(a) n = N / No
(b) n = No / N
(c) n = N No
(d) all are correct

Answer : A

Question : When an atom loses electrons, it is called a (an)

______ and has a _____ charge.
(a) Anion, positive
(b) Cation, positive
(c) Anion, negative
(d) Cation, negative

Answer : B

Question: Selenium ingested in the amount of 90

micrograms per day causes loss of hair. How many
selenium atoms are in this size sample? (Atomic weight:
Se = 78.96.)
(a) 6.9 × 1023
(b) 8.8 × 1017
(c) 8.8 × 1022
(d) 6.9 × 1017

Answer : D
Question : …………….. for some elements as proposed by
Dalton.
(a) Shape
(b) Initiator
(c) Symbol
(d) Color

Answer : C

Question: The percentage of copper and oxygen in samples

of CuO obtained by different methods were found to be the
same. The illustrate the law of:
(a) Constant proportion
(b) Conservation of mass
(c) Multiple proportions
(d) Reciprocal proportions

Answer : A

Question: The number of atom in 4.25g of NH3 is

approximately:
(a) 1×1023
(b) 2×1023
(c) 4×1023
(d) 6×1023

Answer : D

Question: How many molecules are present in one gram of

hydrogen?
(a) 6.02×1023
(b) 3.01×1023
(c) 2.5×1023
(d) 1.5×1023

Answer : B

Question: Which of the following is not a postulate of

Daltons atomic theory:

a) Atoms of different elements can have the same mass

b) All matter is made up of atoms
c) Atoms are tiny indivisible and indestructive ultimate
particles
d) Atoms combine in small whole number ratios to form
compounds

Answer : A

Question:
a. 24g of Mg: 1 mole

b. 35.5g of Cl2: _________

a) 0.5mol
b) 1 mol
c) 2moles
d) 2.5 moles

Answer : A

Question:
a. Oxygen: diatomic
b. Ozone :_______

a) Tetra atomic
b) Monoatomic
c) Diatomic
d) Triatomic

Answer : D

Question: The mass of a single atom of an

element X is 2.65X 10-23g. The atomic mass
and name of the element is:
a) 16u, oxygen
b) 16u, Sulphur
c) 32u, oxygen
d) 32u, Sulphur

Answer : A

Question: An element X has valency equal to

3. What will be its formula with carbonate
ions?
a) X2(CO3)3
b) X2CO3
c) XCO3
d) X(CO3)3

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following has the

smallest number of molecules?
 a) 2g of H2 at STP
b) 3.4g of NH3
c) 0.1 moles of CO2
d) 16g of O2 gas

Answer : C

Question: 16g of S8 contains:

a) 6.023x1023/8 atoms of s
b) 6.023x1023 Atoms of S
c) 6.023x1023/16 atoms of S
d) 6.023x1023/2 atoms of S

Answer : C

Question: The number of atoms present in 0.5

moles of Nitrogen atoms is same as in:
a) 8 g of O
b) 12 g of C
c) 24 g of Mg
d) 32 g of S

Answer : A

Question: Out of 1 g of oxygen gas, 1 g of

oxygen atoms and 1g of ozone , maximum
number of atoms are present in:
a) 1g of oxygen atoms
b) 1g of oxygen gas
c) All have equal number of atoms
d) 1 g of ozone
Answer : A

Question: Arrange the following in increasing

number of molecules:
i. 0.5moles of H2

ii. 4g of H2

iii. 18g of H2O

iv. 2.2g of CO2

a) iv < i < iii < ii

b) i < iii < iv < ii
c) iv < iii < ii < i
d) i < ii < iii < iv

Answer : A

Question: How many moles of electrons

weigh 1 kg. Mass of an electron is 9.1X10-31
a) 108/9.1X6.022
b) 6.022X1023
c) 6.022X1023/9.1X10-31
d) 1X1031/9.1

Answer: A

Question: Molecular weight of CuSO4.5H2O is

equal to:
a) 249.5
 b) 159.5
c) 159.5 X90
d) 159.5 +10 + 16

Answer: A

Question: The formula of Calcium phosphate

is:
a) Ca3(PO4)2
b) CaPO4
c) Ca(PO4)2
d) Ca2(PO4)3

Answer: A

Question: Which of the following is a correct

statement:
a) Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
b) Na2S is sodium sulphite, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphide,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
c) Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphate,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphite
d) Na2S is sodium sulphite, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite,
Na2SO4 is sodium sulphide

Answer: Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium

sulphite, Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate

Question: The balancing of chemical

equations is in accordance with:
 a) Both b and c
b) Law of combining volumes
c) Law of constant proportions
d) Law of conservation of mass

Answer: A

Question: 18g of water is electrolyse The

weight of oxygen obtained is:
a) 16g
b) 8g
c) 4g
d) 1g

Answer: A

Question: Which is not represented by 1mole

of Nitrogen gas?
a) 6.023X1023 atoms of N2
b) 6.023X1023 molecules of N2
c) 12.046 X1023 atoms of N2
d) 28g of N2

Answer: A

Question: The combining capacity of an

element is called
a) Valency
b) Atomicity
c) Atomic number
d) Valence electrons
Answer: A

Question: Identify the correct symbol of gold:

a) Au
b) Go
c) Ge
d) Gd

Answer: A

Question: If isotopic distribution of C-12 & C-

14 is 98% and 2% respectively, then number of
C-14 atoms in 12 g of C is:
a) 1.244X1022
b) 1.244X1023
c) 3.88X1022
d) 3.88X1022

Answer: A

Question. Which of the following contains maximum

number of molecules?
(a) 19 CO2
(b) 1 g N2
(c) 1 g H2
(d) 1 g CH4

Answer : C

Question. The molecular formula of potassium nitrate is

________.
(a) KNO3
(b) KNO
(c) KNO2
(d) KON

Answer : A

Question. What is the latin name of sodium?

(a) Kalium
(b) Plumbum
(c) Natrium
(d) None of the above

Answer : C

Question. The combining capacity of an element is called

(a) Valency
(b) Atomicity
(c) Atomic number
(d) Valence electron

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following statements is not true

about an atom?
(a) Atoms are not able to exist independently.
(b) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and
ions are formed.
(c) Atoms are always neutral in nature.
(d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter
that we can see, feel or touch.

Answer : D
Question. The law of definite proportions was given by:

(a) John Dalton

(b) Humphry davy
(c) Proust
(d) Michael Faraday

Answer : C

Question. The most remarkable concept that Dalton’s

atomic theory proposed was that of the:
(a) atomic weight
(b) atomic mass
(c) molar mass
(d) none of the above

Answer : B

Question. Who coined the term ‘Parmanu’ for the smallest

indivisible particles?
(a) Leucippus
(b) L. Lavoisier
(c) Kanad
(d) None of them

Answer : C

Question. Identify the correct symbol of Gold.

(a) Go
(b) Gd
(c) Ge
(d) Au
Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following phrases would be

incorrect to use?
(a) A mole of an element
(b) A mole of a compound
(c) An atom of an element
(d) An atom of a compound

Answer : D

Question. The chemical symbol for barium is:

(a) B
(b) Ba
(c) Be
(d) Bi

Answer : B

Question. The molecular formula of potassium nitrate is

________.
(a) KNO3
(b) KNO
(c) KNO2
(d) KO

Answer : A

Question. The atomic mass of carbon is:

(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 23
Answer : A

Question. Who coined the term ‘Parmanu’ for the smallest

indivisible particles?
(a) Leucippus
(b) L. Lavoisier
(c) Kanad
(d) None of them

Answer : C

Question. The mass of sodium in 11.7 g of sodium chloride

is:
(a) 2.3g
(b) 4.6g
(c) 6.9g
(d) 7.1g

Answer : B

Question . Which of the following correctly represents

360g of water?
(i) 2 moles of water
(ii) 20 moles of water
(iii) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of water
(iv) 1.2044 × 1025 molecules of water
(a) (i)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer. (d) (ii) and (iv)

Question . The molecular formula of potassium nitrate is

________.
(a) KNO3
(b) KNO
(c) KNO2
(d) KON

Answer : A

Question . Which of the following contains maximum

number of molecules?
(a) 19 CO2
(b) 1 g N2
(c) 1 g H2
(d) 1 g CH4

Answer : C

Question . 3.42 g of sucrose are dissolved in 18 g of water

in a beaker. The numbers of oxygen atoms in the solution
are:
(a) 6.68 ×1023
(b) 6.09 ×1022
(c) 6.022 ×1023
(d) 6.022 ×1021

Answer : A
Question . What is the formula mass unit of ZnO?
(a) 18 u
(b) 81 u
(c) 88 u
(d) 188 u

Answer : B

Question. The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is

(a) Ni
(b) N2
(c) N+
(d) N

Answer : B

Question. The molecule having an atomicity of 4 is:

(a) Sulphate molecule
(b) Ozone molecule
(c) Phosphorus molecule
(d) Methane molecule

Answer : C

Question. How many times an atom of sulphur is heavier

than an atom of carbon?
(a) 32 times
(b) 12 times
(c) 8/3 times
(d) 12/32 times

Answer : C
Question . Which of the following represents a correct
chemical formula?
(a) CaCl
(b) BiPO4
(c) NaSO4
(d) NaS

Answer : B

Question . Which of the following statements is not true

about an atom?
(a) Atoms are not able to exist independently.
(b) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and
ions are forme(d)
(c) Atoms are always neutral in nature.
(d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter
that we can see, feel or touch.

Answer : D

Question. Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate is

(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 48
(d) 36

Answer : A

Question. The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 is

approx.
(a) 6 × 1022
(b) 6
(c) 12 × 1023
(d) 1.2 × 1023

Answer : D

Question. The molecule having an atomicity of 4 is:

(a) Sulphate molecule
(b) Ozone molecule
(c) Phosphorus molecule
(d) Methane molecule

Answer : C

Question . Choose the law of conservation of mass

(a) Mass neither be created nor formed
(b) Mass can neither be created nor reform
(c) Mass can neither be created nor destroyed
(d) Mass can neither be created nor alive

Answer : C

Question. The number of molecules in 16.0g of oxygen is:

(a) 6.02 × 1023
(b) 6.02 ×10−23
(c) 3.01 × 10−23
(d) 3.01 × 1023

Answer : D

Question.4g of iodine and 14.2g of chlorine are made to

react completely to yield a mixture of ICl and ICl3 .
Calculate the ratio of moles of ICl and ICl3 :
(a) 1: 1
(b) 2: 1
(c) 3: 1
(d) 1: 2

Answer : A

Question. One gram of which of the following contains

largest number of oxygen atoms?
(a) O
(b) O2
(c) O3
(d) All contains same

Answer : C

Question. The law of definite proportions was given by:

(a) John Dalton
(b) Humphry davy
(c) Proust
(d) Michael Faraday

Answer : C

Question . Atomic radius is measured in…………

(a) Kg
(b) cm
(c) Mm
(d) nm

Answer : D
Question. The chemical symbol for barium is:
(a) B
(b) Ba
(c) Be
(d) Bi

Answer : B

Question . Which of the following represents the correct

relation between Avogadro’s number (No), number of
particles (N) and moles (n)?
(a) n = N / No
(b) n = No / N
(c) n = N No
(d) all are correct

Answer : A

Question 23. When an atom loses electrons, it is called a

(an) ______ and has a _____ charge.
(a) Anion, positive
(b) Cation, positive
(c) Anion, negative
(d) Cation, negative

Answer : B

Question. Selenium ingested in the amount of 90

micrograms per day causes loss of hair. How many
selenium atoms are in this size sample? (Atomic weight:
Se = 78.96.)
(a) 6.9 × 1023
(b) 8.8 × 1017
(c) 8.8 × 1022
(d) 6.9 × 1017

Answer : D

Question . …………….. for some elements as proposed by

Dalton.
(a) Shape
(b) Initiator
(c) Symbol
(d) Color

Answer : C

Question. The percentage of copper and oxygen in

samples of CuO obtained by different methods were found
to be the same. The illustrate the law of:
(a) Constant proportion
(b) Conservation of mass
(c) Multiple proportions
(d) Reciprocal proportions

Answer : A

Question. The number of atom in 4.25g of NH3 is

approximately:
(a) 1×1023
(b) 2×1023
(c) 4×1023
(d) 6×1023

Answer : D
Question. How many molecules are present in one gram of
hydrogen?
(a) 6.02×1023
(b) 3.01×1023
(c) 2.5×1023
(d) 1.5×1023

Answer : B

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