READING Ex
READING Ex
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Questions 1-7
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A–G.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i A unique sensory experience
ii Getting back to basics
iii The gift that keeps on giving
iv Variations in alcohol content
v Old methods of transportation
vi Culinary applications
vii Making kefir
viii A fortunate accident
ix Kefir gets an image makeover
x Ways to improve taste
1 Section A
2 Section B
3 Section C
4 Section D
5 Section E
6 Section F
7 Section G
Questions 8–11
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 8–11 on your answer sheet.
8 What do kefir grains look like?
9 What needs to happen to kefir while it is ripening?
10 What will the yeast cultures have consumed before kefir is ready to drink?
11 The texture of kefir in the mouth is similar to what?
Questions 12 and 13
Choose TWO letters, A–E.
Write the correct letters in boxes 12 and 13 on your answer sheet.
Which TWO products are NOT mentioned as things which kefir can replace?
A Ordinary cow’s milk
B Buttermilk
C Sour cream
D Starter yeast
E Yoghurt
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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
Questions 14-21
Reading Passage 2 has nine paragraphs, A–I.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–H from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–xi, in boxes 14–21 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i A historical delicacy
ii The poor may benefit
iii Presentation is key to changing attitudes
iv Environmentally friendly production
v Tradition meets technology
vi A cultural pioneer
vii Western practices harm locals
viii Good source of nutrients
ix Growing popularity
x A healthy choice
xi A safety risk
14 Section A
15 Section B
16 Section C
17 Section D
18 Section E
19 Section F
20 Section G
21 Section H
Questions 22–26
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 22–26 on your answer sheet.
Van Huis
Insects use food intake economically in the production of protein as they waste less 22…………………
Durst
Traditional knowledge could be combined with modern methods for mass production instead of just covering 23…………………
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
Love stories
“Love stories” are often associated – at least in the popular imagination – with fairy tales, adolescent day dreams, Disney movies and other frivolous pastimes. For
psychologists developing taxonomies2 of affection and attachment, however, this is an area of rigorous academic pursuit. Beginning in the early 1970s with the
groundbreaking contributions of John Alan Lee, researchers have developed classifications that they believe better characterise our romantic predispositions. This
involves examining not a single, universal, emotional expression (“love”), but rather a series of divergent behaviours and narratives that each has an individualised
purpose, desired outcome and state of mind. Lee’s gritty methodology painstakingly involved participants matching 170 typical romantic encounters (e.g., “The night
after I met X…”) with nearly 1500 possible reactions (“I could hardly get to sleep” or “I wrote X a letter”). The patterns unknowingly expressed by respondents
culminated in a taxonomy of six distinct love “styles” that continue to inform research in the area forty years later.
The first of these styles – eros – is closely tied in with images of romantic love that are promulgated in Western popular culture. Characteristic of this style is a
passionate emotional intensity, a strong physical magnetism – as if the two partners were literally being “pulled” together – and a sense of inevitability about the
relationship. A related but more frantic style of love called mania involves an obsessive, compulsive attitude toward one’s partner. Vast swings in mood from ecstasy to
agony – dependent on the level of attention a person is receiving from his or her partner – are typical of manic love.
Two styles were much more subdued, however. Storge is a quiet, companionate type of loving – “love by evolution” rather than “love by revolution”, according to
some theorists. Relationships built on a foundation of platonic affection and caring are archetypal of storge. When care is extended to a sacrificial level of doting,
however, it becomes another style – agape. In an agape relationship one partner becomes a “caretaker”, exalting the welfare of the other above his or her own needs.
The final two styles of love seem to lack aspects of emotion and reciprocity altogether. The ludus style envisions relationships primarily as a game in which it is best to
“play the field” or experience a diverse set of partners over time. Mutually-gratifying outcomes in relationships are not considered necessary, and deception of a partner
and lack of disclosure about one’s activities are also typical. While Lee found that college students in his study overwhelmingly disagreed with the tenets of this style,
substantial numbers of them acted in a typically ludic style while dating, a finding that proves correct the deceit inherent in ludus. Pragma lovers also downplayed
emotive aspects of relationships but favoured practical, sensible connections. Successful arranged marriages are a great example of pragma, in that the couple decides to
make the relationship work; but anyone who seeks an ideal partner with a shopping list of necessary attributes (high salary, same religion, etc.) fits the classification.
Robert J. Sternberg’s contemporary research on love stories has elaborated on how these narratives determine the shape of our relationships and our lives. Sternberg and
others have proposed and tested the theory of love as a story, “whereby the interaction of our personal attributes with the environment – which we in part create – leads
to the development of stories about love that we then seek to fulfil, to the extent possible, in our lives.” Sternberg’s taxonomy of love stories numbers far more, at
twenty-six, than Lee’s taxonomy of love styles, but as Sternberg himself admits there is plenty of overlap. The seventh story, Game, coincides with ludus, for example,
while the nineteenth story, Sacrifice, fits neatly on top of agape.
Sternberg’s research demonstrates that we may have predilections toward multiple love stories, each represented in a mental hierarchy and varying in weight in terms of
their personal significance. This explains the frustration many of us experience when comparing potential partners. One person often fulfils some expected narratives –
such as a need for mystery and fantasy – while lacking the ability to meet the demands of others (which may lie in direct contradiction). It is also the case that stories
have varying abilities to adapt to a given cultural milieu and its respective demands. Love stories are, therefore, interactive and adaptive phenomena in our lives rather
than rigid prescriptions.
Steinberg also explores how our love stories interact with the love stories of our partners. What happens when someone who sees love as art collides with someone who
sees love as a business? Can a Sewing story (love is what you make it) co-exist with a Theatre story (love is a script with predictable acts, scenes and lines)? Certainly,
it is clear that we look for partners with love stories that complement and are compatible with our own narratives. But they do not have to be an identical match.
Someone who sees love as mystery and art, for example, might locate that mystery better in a partner who views love through a lens of business and humour. Not all
love stories, however, are equally well predisposed to relationship longevity; stories that view love as a game, as a kind of surveillance or as addiction are all unlikely to
prove durable.
Research on love stories continues apace. Defying the myth that rigorous science and the romantic persuasions of ordinary people are incompatible, this research
demonstrates that good psychology can clarify and comment on the way we give affection and form attachments.
—————
2
Taxonomy = the science of classifying and categorising data.
Questions 27-34
Look at the following statements (Questions 27–34) and the list of styles in the box below.
Match each statement with the correct term, A–F.
Write the correct letter, A–F, in boxes 27–34 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
27 My most important concern is that my partner is happy.
28 I enjoy having many romantic partners.
29 I feel that my partner and I were always going to end up together.
30 I want to be friends first and then let romance develop later.
31 I always feel either very excited or absolutely miserable about my relationship.
32 I prefer to keep many aspects of my love life to myself.
33 When I am in love, that is all I can think about.
34 I know before I meet someone what qualities I need in a partner.
List of Love Styles
A Eros
B Mania
C Storge
D Agape
E Ludus
F Pragma
Questions 35–40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 35–40 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
35 People’s notions of love affect their relationships, rather than vice versa.
36 Some of our love stories are more important to us than others.
37 Our love stories can change to meet the needs of particular social environments.
38 We look for romantic partners with a love story just like our own.
39 The most successful partners have matching love stories.
40 No love story is more suited to a long relationship than any other.
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
ELECTRORECEPTION
A
Open your eyes in sea water and it is difficult to see much more than a murky, bleary green colour. Sounds, too, are garbled and difficult to comprehend. Without
specialised equipment humans would be lost in these deep sea habitats, so how do fish make it seem so easy? Much of this is due to a biological phenomenon known as
electroreception – the ability to perceive and act upon electrical stimuli as part of the overall senses. This ability is only found in aquatic or amphibious species because
water is an efficient conductor of electricity.
B
Electroreception comes in two variants. While all animals (including humans) generate electric signals, because they are emitted by the nervous system, some animals
have the ability – known as passive electroreception – to receive and decode electric signals generated by other animals in order to sense their location.
C
Other creatures can go further still, however. Animals with active electroreception possess bodily organs that generate special electric signals on cue. These can be used
for mating signals and territorial displays as well as locating objects in the water. Active electroreceptors can differentiate between the various resistances that their
electrical currents encounter. This can help them identify whether another creature is prey, predator or something that is best left alone. Active electroreception has a
range of about one body length – usually just enough to give its host time to get out of the way or go in for the kill.
D
One fascinating use of active electroreception – known as the Jamming Avoidance Response mechanism – has been observed between members of some species known
as the weakly electric fish. When two such electric fish meet in the ocean using the same frequency, each fish will then shift the frequency of its discharge so that they
are transmitting on different frequencies. Doing so prevents their electroreception faculties from becoming jammed. Long before citizens’ band radio users first had to
yell “Get off my frequency!” at hapless novices cluttering the air waves, at least one species had found a way to peacefully and quickly resolve this type of dispute.
E
Electroreception can also play an important role in animal defences. Rays are one such example. Young ray embryos develop inside egg cases that are attached to the
sea bed. The embryos keep their tails in constant motion so as to pump water and allow them to breathe through the egg’s casing. If the embryo’s electroreceptors detect
the presence of a predatory fish in the vicinity, however, the embryo stops moving (and in so doing ceases transmitting electric currents) until the fish has moved on.
Because marine life of various types is often travelling past, the embryo has evolved only to react to signals that are characteristic of the respiratory movements of
potential predators such as sharks.
F
Many people fear swimming in the ocean because of sharks. In some respects, this concern is well grounded – humans are poorly equipped when it comes to
electroreceptive defence mechanisms. Sharks, meanwhile, hunt with extraordinary precision. They initially lock onto their prey through a keen sense of smell (two
thirds of a shark’s brain is devoted entirely to its olfactory organs). As the shark reaches proximity to its prey, it tunes into electric signals that ensure a precise strike on
its target; this sense is so strong that the shark even attacks blind by letting its eyes recede for protection.
G
Normally, when humans are attacked it is purely by accident. Since sharks cannot detect from electroreception whether or not something will satisfy their tastes, they
tend to “try before they buy”, taking one or two bites and then assessing the results (our sinewy muscle does not compare well with plumper, softer prey such as seals).
Repeat attacks are highly likely once a human is bleeding, however; the force of the electric field is heightened by salt in the blood which creates the perfect setting for
a feeding frenzy. In areas where shark attacks on humans are likely to occur, scientists are exploring ways to create artificial electroreceptors that would disorient the
sharks and repel them from swimming beaches.
H
There is much that we do not yet know concerning how electroreception functions. Although researchers have documented how electroreception alters hunting, defence
and communication systems through observation, the exact neurological processes that encode and decode this information are unclear. Scientists are also exploring the
role electroreception plays in navigation. Some have proposed that salt water and magnetic fields from the Earth’s core may interact to form electrical currents that
sharks use for migratory purposes.
Questions 1-6
Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs, A–H.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 1–6 on your answer sheet.
1 How electroreception can be used to help fish reproduce
2 A possible use for electroreception that will benefit humans
3 The term for the capacity which enables an animal to pick up but not send out electrical signals
4 Why only creatures that live in or near water have electroreceptive abilities
5 How electroreception might help creatures find their way over long distances
6 A description of how some fish can avoid disrupting each other’s electric signals
Questions 7–9
Label the diagram.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 7–9 on your answer sheet.
Shark’s 7 ………………… alert the young ray to its presence
Embryo moves its 8 ………………… in order to breathe
Embryo stops sending 9 ………………… when predator close by
Questions 10–13
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE words from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 10–13 on your answer sheet.
Shark Attack
A shark is a very effective hunter. Firstly, it uses its 10……………….. to smell its target. When the shark gets close, it uses 11……………….. to guide it toward an
accurate attack. Within the final few feet the shark rolls its eyes back into its head. Humans are not popular food sources for most sharks due to
their 12………………… Nevertheless, once a shark has bitten a human, a repeat attack is highly possible as salt from the blood increases the intensity of
the 13…………………
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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-27 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
FAIR GAMES?
For seventeen days every four years the world is briefly arrested by the captivating, dizzying spectacle of athleticism, ambition, pride and celebration on display at the
Summer Olympic Games. After the last weary spectators and competitors have returned home, however, host cities are often left awash in high debts and costly
infrastructure maintenance. The staggering expenses involved in a successful Olympic bid are often assumed to be easily mitigated by tourist revenues and an increase
in local employment, but more often than not host cities are short changed and their taxpayers for generations to come are left settling the debt.
Olympic extravagances begin with the application process. Bidding alone will set most cities back about $20 million, and while officially bidding only takes two years
(for cities that make the shortlist), most cities can expect to exhaust a decade working on their bid from the moment it is initiated to the announcement of voting results
from International Olympic Committee members. Aside from the financial costs of the bid alone, the process ties up real estate in prized urban locations until the
outcome is known. This can cost local economies millions of dollars of lost revenue from private developers who could have made use of the land, and can also mean
that particular urban quarters lose their vitality due to the vacant lots. All of this can be for nothing if a bidding city does not appease the whims of IOC members –
private connections and opinions on government conduct often hold sway (Chicago’s 2012 bid is thought to have been undercut by tensions over U.S. foreign policy).
Bidding costs do not compare, however, to the exorbitant bills that come with hosting the Olympic Games themselves. As is typical with large-scale, one-off projects,
budgeting for the Olympics is a notoriously formidable task. Los Angelinos have only recently finished paying off their budget-breaking 1984 Olympics; Montreal is
still in debt for its 1976 Games (to add insult to injury, Canada is the only host country to have failed to win a single gold medal during its own Olympics). The tradition
of runaway expenses has persisted in recent years. London Olympics managers have admitted that their 2012 costs may increase ten times over their initial projections,
leaving tax payers 20 billion pounds in the red.
Hosting the Olympics is often understood to be an excellent way to update a city’s sporting infrastructure. The extensive demands of Olympic sports include aquatic
complexes, equestrian circuits, shooting ranges, beach volleyball courts, and, of course, an 80,000 seat athletic stadium. Yet these demands are typically only necessary
to accommodate a brief influx of athletes from around the world. Despite the enthusiasm many populations initially have for the development of world-class sporting
complexes in their home towns, these complexes typically fall into disuse after the Olympic fervour has waned. Even Australia, home to one of the world’s most
sportive populations, has left its taxpayers footing a $32 million-a-year bill for the maintenance of vacant facilities.
Another major concern is that when civic infrastructure developments are undertaken in preparation for hosting the Olympics, these benefits accrue to a single
metropolitan centre (with the exception of some outlying areas that may get some revamped sports facilities). In countries with an expansive land mass, this means vast
swathes of the population miss out entirely. Furthermore, since the International Olympic Committee favours prosperous “global” centres (the United Kingdom was
told, after three failed bids from its provincial cities, that only London stood any real chance at winning), the improvement of public transport, roads and
communication links tends to concentrate in places already well-equipped with world-class infrastructures. Perpetually by-passing minor cities create a cycle of
disenfranchisement: these cities never get an injection of capital, they fail to become first-rate candidates, and they are constantly passed over in favour of more secure
choices.
Finally, there is no guarantee that the Olympics will be a popular success. The “feel good” factor that most proponents of Olympic bids extol (and that was no doubt
driving the 90 to 100 per cent approval rates of Parisians and Londoners for their cities’ respective 2012 bids) can be an elusive phenomenon, and one that is tied to that
nation’s standing on the medal tables. This ephemeral thrill cannot compare to the years of disruptive construction projects and security fears that go into preparing for
an Olympic Games, nor the decades of debt repayment that follow (Greece’s preparation for Athens 2004 famously deterred tourists from visiting the country due to
widespread unease about congestion and disruption).
There are feasible alternatives to the bloat, extravagance and wasteful spending that comes with a modern Olympic Games. One option is to designate a permanent host
city that would be re-designed or built from scratch especially for the task. Another is to extend the duration of the Olympics so that it becomes a festival of several
months. Local businesses would enjoy the extra spending and congestion would ease substantially as competitors and spectators come and go according to their specific
interests. Neither the “Olympic City” nor the extended length options really get to the heart of the issue, however. Stripping away ritual and decorum in favour of
concentrating on athletic rivalry would be preferable.
Failing that, the Olympics could simply be scrapped altogether. International competition could still be maintained through world championships in each discipline.
Most of these events are already held on non-Olympic years anyway – the International Association of Athletics Federations, for example, has run a biennial World
Athletics Championship since 1983 after members decided that using the Olympics for their championship was no longer sufficient. Events of this nature keep world-
class competition alive without requiring Olympic-sized expenses.
Questions 14-18
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–K, below.
Write the correct letter, A–K, in boxes 14–18 on your answer sheet.
14 Bids to become a host city
15 Personal relationships and political tensions
16 Cost estimates for the Olympic Games
17 Purpose-built sporting venues
18 Urban developments associated with the Olympics
A often help smaller cities to develop basic infrastructure.
B tend to occur in areas where they are least needed.
C require profitable companies to be put out of business.
D are often never used again once the Games are over.
E can take up to ten years to complete.
F also satisfy needs of local citizens for first-rate sports facilities.
G is usually only successful when it is from a capital city.
H are closely related to how people feel emotionally about the Olympics.
I are known for being very inaccurate.
J often underlie the decisions of International Olympic Committee members.
K are holding back efforts to reform the Olympics.
Questions 19–25
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 19–25 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
19 Residents of host cities have little use for the full range of Olympic facilities.
20 Australians have still not paid for the construction of Olympic sports facilities.
21 People far beyond the host city can expect to benefit from improved infrastructure.
22 It is difficult for small cities to win an Olympic bid.
23 When a city makes an Olympic bid, a majority of its citizens usually want it to win.
24 Whether or not people enjoy hosting the Olympics in their city depends on how athletes from their country perform in Olympic events.
25 Fewer people than normal visited Greece during the run up to the Athens Olympics.
Questions 26 and 27
Choose TWO letters, A–E.
Write the correct letters in boxes 26 and 27 on your answer sheet.
Which TWO of the following does the author propose as alternatives to the current Olympics?
A The Olympics should be cancelled in favour of individual competitions for each sport.
B The Olympics should focus on ceremony rather than competition.
C The Olympics should be held in the same city every time.
D The Olympics should be held over a month rather than seventeen days.
E The Olympics should be made smaller by getting rid of unnecessary and unpopular sports.
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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
Time Travel
Time travel took a small step away from science fiction and toward science recently when physicists discovered that sub-atomic particles known as neutrinos – progeny
of the sun’s radioactive debris – can exceed the speed of light. The unassuming particle – it is electrically neutral, small but with a “non-zero mass” and able to
penetrate the human form undetected – is on its way to becoming a rock star of the scientific world.
Researchers from the European Organisation for Nuclear Research (CERN) in Geneva sent the neutrinos hurtling through an underground corridor toward their
colleagues at the Oscillation Project with Emulsion-Tracing Apparatus (OPERA) team 730 kilometres away in Gran Sasso, Italy. The neutrinos arrived promptly – so
promptly, in fact, that they triggered what scientists are calling the unthinkable – that everything they have learnt, known or taught stemming from the last one hundred
years of the physics discipline may need to be reconsidered.
The issue at stake is a tiny segment of time – precisely sixty nanoseconds (which is sixty billionths of a second). This is how much faster than the speed of light the
neutrinos managed to go in their underground travels and at a consistent rate (15,000 neutrinos were sent over three years). Even allowing for a margin of error of ten
billionths of a second, this stands as proof that it is possible to race against light and win. The duration of the experiment also accounted for and ruled out any possible
lunar effects or tidal bulges in the earth’s crust.
Nevertheless, there’s plenty of reason to remain sceptical. According to Harvard University science historian Peter Galison, Einstein’s relativity theory has been
“pushed harder than any theory in the history of the physical sciences”. Yet each prior challenge has come to no avail, and relativity has so far refused to buckle.
So is time travel just around the corner? The prospect has certainly been wrenched much closer to the realm of possibility now that a major physical hurdle – the speed
of light – has been cleared. If particles can travel faster than light, in theory travelling back in time is possible. How anyone harnesses that to some kind of helpful end is
far beyond the scope of any modern technologies, however, and will be left to future generations to explore.
Certainly, any prospective time travellers may have to overcome more physical and logical hurdles than merely overtaking the speed of light. One such problem,
posited by René Barjavel in his 1943 text Le Voyageur Imprudent is the so-called grandfather paradox. Barjavel theorised that, if it were possible to go back in time, a
time traveller could potentially kill his own grandfather. If this were to happen, however, the time traveller himself would not be born, which is already known to be
true. In other words, there is a paradox in circumventing an already known future; time travel is able to facilitate past actions that mean time travel itself cannot occur.
Other possible routes have been offered, though. For Igor Novikov, astrophysicist behind the 1980s’ theorem known as the self-consistency principle, time travel is
possible within certain boundaries. Novikov argued that any event causing a paradox would have zero probability. It would be possible, however, to “affect” rather than
“change” historical outcomes if travellers avoided all inconsistencies. Averting the sinking of the Titanic, for example, would revoke any future imperative to stop it
from sinking – it would be impossible. Saving selected passengers from the water and replacing them with realistic corpses would not be impossible, however, as the
historical record would not be altered in any way.
A further possibility is that of parallel universes. Popularised by Bryce Seligman DeWitt in the 1960s (from the seminal formulation of Hugh Everett), the many-worlds
interpretation holds that an alternative pathway for every conceivable occurrence actually exists. If we were to send someone back in time, we might therefore expect
never to see him again – any alterations would divert that person down a new historical trajectory.
A final hypothesis, one of unidentified provenance, reroutes itself quite efficiently around the grandfather paradox. Non-existence theory suggests exactly that – a
person would quite simply never exist if they altered their ancestry in ways that obstructed their own birth. They would still exist in person upon returning to the
present, but any chain reactions associated with their actions would not be registered. Their “historical identity” would be gone.
So, will humans one day step across the same boundary that the neutrinos have? World-renowned astrophysicist Stephen Hawking believes that once spaceships can
exceed the speed of light, humans could feasibly travel millions of years into the future in order to repopulate earth in the event of a forthcoming apocalypse. This is
because, as the spaceships accelerate into the future, time would slow down around them (Hawking concedes that bygone eras are off limits – this would violate the
fundamental rule that cause comes before effect).
Hawking is therefore reserved yet optimistic. “Time travel was once considered scientific heresy, and I used to avoid talking about it for fear of being labelled a crank.
These days I’m not so cautious.”
Questions 28-33
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 28–33 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
28 It is unclear where neutrinos come from.
29 Neutrinos can pass through a person’s body without causing harm.
30 It took scientists between 50-70 nanoseconds to send the neutrinos from Geneva to Italy.
31 Researchers accounted for effects the moon might have had on the experiment.
32 The theory of relativity has often been called into question unsuccessfully.
33 This experiment could soon lead to some practical uses for time travel.
Questions 34–39
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 34–39 on your answer sheet.
René Barjavel Grandfather paradox Time travel would allow for 34…………… that would actually make time travel impossib
Igor Novikov Self-consistency principle It is only possible to alter history in ways that result in no 35………………….
Each possible event has an 37…………………, so a time traveller changing the past wou
36……………… Many-worlds interpretation
simply end up in a different branch of history than the one he left.
If a time traveller changed the past to prevent his future life, he would not have
Unknown 38………………
a 39………………… as the person never existed.
Question 40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in box 40 on your answer sheet.
Stephen Hawking has stated that
A Human time travel is theoretically possible, but is unlikely to ever actually occur.
B Human time travel might be possible, but only moving backward in time.
C Human time travel might be possible, but only moving forward in time.
D All time travel is impossible.
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
“For the strength of the pack is the wolf, and the strength of the wolf is the pack.”
– Rudyard Kipling, The Law for the Wolves
A wolf pack is an extremely well-organised family group with a well-defined social structure and a clear-cut code of conduct. Every wolf has a certain place and
function within the pack and every member has to do its fair share of the work. The supreme leader is a very experienced wolf – the alpha – who has dominance over
the whole pack. It is the protector and decision-maker and directs the others as to where, when and what to hunt. However, it does not lead the pack into the hunt, for it
is far too valuable to risk being injured or killed. That is the responsibility of the beta wolf, who assumes second place in the hierarchy of the pack. The beta takes on
the role of enforcer – fighter or ‘tough guy’– big, strong and very aggressive. It is both the disciplinarian of the pack and the alpha’s bodyguard.
The tester, a watchful and distrustful character, will alert the alpha if it encounters anything suspicious while it is scouting around looking for signs of trouble. It is also
the quality controller, ensuring that the others are deserving of their place in the pack. It does this by creating a situation that tests their bravery and courage, by starting
a fight, for instance. At the bottom of the social ladder is the omega wolf, subordinate and submissive to all the others, but often playing the role of peacemaker by
intervening in an intra-pack squabble and defusing the situation by clowning around. Whereas the tester may create conflict, the omega is more likely to resolve it.
The rest of the pack is made up of mid- to low-ranking non-breeding adults and the immature offspring of the alpha and its mate. The size of the group varies from
around six to ten members or more, depending on the abundance of food and numbers of the wolf population in general.
Wolves have earned themselves an undeserved reputation for being ruthless predators and a danger to humans and livestock. The wolf has been portrayed in fairy tales
and folklore as a very bad creature, killing any people and other animals it encounters. However, the truth is that wolves only kill to eat, never kill more than they need,
and rarely attack humans unless their safety is threatened in some way. It has been suggested that hybrid wolf-dogs or wolves suffering from rabies are actually
responsible for many of the historical offences as well as more recent incidents.
Wolves hunt mainly at night. They usually seek out large herbivores, such as deer, although they also eat smaller animals, such as beavers, hares and rodents, if these
are obtainable. Some wolves in western Canada are known to fish for salmon. The alpha wolf picks out a specific animal in a large herd by the scent it leaves behind.
The prey is often a very young, old or injured animal in poor condition. The alpha signals to its hunters which animal to take down and when to strike by using tail
movements and the scent from a gland at the tip of its spine above the tail.
Wolves kill to survive. Obviously, they need to eat to maintain strength and health but the way they feast on the prey also reinforces social order. Every member of the
family has a designated spot at the carcass and the alpha directs them to their places through various ear postures: moving an ear forward, flattening it back against the
head or swivelling it around. The alpha wolf eats the prized internal organs while the beta is entitled to the muscle-meat of the rump and thigh, and the omega and other
low ranks are assigned the intestinal contents and less desirable parts such as the backbone and ribs.
The rigid class structure in a wolf pack entails frequent displays of supremacy and respect. When a higher-ranking wolf approaches, a lesser-ranking wolf must slow
down, lower itself, and pass to the side with head averted to show deference; or, in an extreme act of passive submission, it may roll onto its back, exposing its throat
and belly. The dominant wolf stands over it, stiff-legged and tall, asserting its superiority and its authority in the pack.
Questions 1-6
Classify the following statements as referring to
A the alpha wolf
B the beta wolf
C the tester wolf
D the omega wolf
Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D in boxes 1–6 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
1 It is at the forefront of the pack when it makes a kill.
2 It tries to calm tensions and settle disputes between pack members.
3 It is the wolf in charge and maintains control over the pack.
4 It warns the leader of potential danger.
5 It protects the leader of the pack.
6 It sets up a trial to determine whether a wolf is worthy of its status in the pack.
Questions 7–13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 7–13 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
7 Wolves are a constant danger to humans.
8 Crossbred wolves or sick wolves are most likely to blame for attacks on people.
9 Canadian wolves prefer to eat fish, namely salmon.
10 The wolf pack leader identifies a particular target for attack by its smell.
11 When wolves attack a herd, they go after the healthiest animal.
12 The piece of a dead animal that a wolf may eat depends on its status in the pack.
13 A low-ranking wolf must show submission or the dominant wolf will attack it.
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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
Environmental medicine
– also called conservation medicine, ecological medicine, or medical geology –
A
In simple terms, environmental medicine deals with the interaction between human and animal health and the environment. It concerns the adverse reactions that people
have on contact with or exposure to an environmental excitant1. Ecological health is its primary concern, especially emerging infectious diseases and pathogens from
insects, plants and vertebrate animals.
B
Practitioners of environmental medicine work in teams involving many other specialists. As well as doctors, clinicians and medical researchers, there may be marine
and climate biologists, toxicologists, veterinarians, geospatial and landscape analysts, even political scientists and economists. This is a very broad approach to the
rather simple concept that there are causes for all illnesses, and that what we eat and drink or encounter in our surroundings has a direct impact on our health.
C
Central to environmental medicine is the total load theory developed by the clinical ecologist Theron Randolph, who postulated that illness occurs when the body’s
ability to detoxify environmental excitants has reached its capacity. His wide-ranging perception of what makes up those stimuli includes chemical, physical, biological
and psychosocial factors. If a person with numerous and/or chronic exposures to environmental chemicals suffers a psychological upset, for example, this could
overburden his immune system and result in actual physical illness. In other words, disease is the product of multiple factors.
D
Another Randolph concept is that of individual susceptibility or the variability in the response of individuals to toxic agents. Individuals may be susceptible to any
number of excitants but those exposed to the same risk factors do not necessarily develop the same disease, due in large part to genetic predisposition; however, age,
gender, nutrition, emotional or physical stress, as well as the particular infectious agents or chemicals and intensity of exposure, all contribute.
E
Adaptation is defined as the ability of an organism to adjust to gradually changing circumstances of its existence, to survive and be successful in a particular
environment. Dr Randolph suggested that our bodies, designed for the Stone Age, have not quite caught up with the modern age and consequently, many people suffer
diseases from maladaptation, or an inability to deal with some of the new substances that are now part of our environment. He asserted that this could cause exhaustion,
irritability, depression, confusion and behavioural problems in children. Numerous traditional medical practitioners, however, are very sceptical of these assertions.
F
Looking at the environment and health together is a way of making distant and nebulous notions, such as global warming, more immediate and important. Even a slight
rise in temperature, which the world is already experiencing, has immediate effects. Mosquitoes can expand their range and feed on different migratory birds than usual,
resulting in these birds transferring a disease into other countries. Suburban sprawl is seen as more than a socioeconomic problem for it brings an immediate imbalance
to the rural ecosystem, increasing population density so people come into closer contact with disease-carrying rodents or other animals. Deforestation also displaces
feral animals that may then infect domesticated animals, which enter the food chain and transmit the disease to people. These kinds of connections are fundamental to
environmental medicine and the threat of zoonotic disease looms larger.
G
Zoonoses, diseases of animals transmissible to humans, are a huge concern. Different types of pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites, cause
zoonoses. Every year, millions of people worldwide get sick because of foodborne bacteria such as salmonella and campylobacter, which cause fever, diarrhoea and
abdominal pain. Tens of thousands of people die from the rabies virus after being bitten by rabid animals like dogs and bats. Viral zoonoses like avian influenza (bird
flu), swine flu (H1N1 virus) and Ebola are on the increase with more frequent, often uncontainable, outbreaks. Some animals (particularly domestic pets) pass on fungal
infections to humans. Parasitic infection usually occurs when people come into contact with food or water contaminated by animals that are infected with parasites like
cryptosporidium, trichinella, or worms.
H
As the human population of the planet increases, encroaching further on animal domains and causing ecological change, inter-professional cooperation is crucial to
meet the challenges of dealing with the effects of climate change, emergent cross-species pathogens, rising toxicity in air, water and soil, and uncontrolled development
and urbanisation. This can only happen if additional government funds are channelled into the study and practice of environmental medicine.
———————–
1
an excitant is a substance which causes a physiological or behavioural response in a person
Questions 14-19
Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs, A–H.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 14–19 on your answer sheet.
14 an explanation of how population expansion exposes humans to disease
15 the idea that each person can react differently to the same risk factors
16 types of disease-causing agents that move between species
17 examples of professionals working in the sphere of environmental medicine
18 a definition of environmental medicine
19 how ill health results from an accumulation of environmental stressors
Questions 20–26
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 20–26 on your answer sheet.
20 According to Dr Randolph, people get sick because of ……………….. – in other words, a failure to adjust to the modern environment.
21 Vague, far-off concepts like global warming are made more urgent when ……………….. are studied together.
22 Rising temperatures result in more widespread distribution of disease because some insects are able to …………………
23 Large-scale removal of trees forces wildlife from their habitat and brings them into contact with …………………
24 Uncontrollable …………………. of zoonotic viruses are becoming more numerous.
25 Collaboration between many disciplines is needed to confront the problems of urban development, pollution, …………………. and new pathogens.
26 Environmental medicine should receive more ………..……….. to help it meet future demands.
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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
Questions 27-33
Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs, A–H.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–H from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–xi, in boxes 27–33 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Gender bias in televised sport
ii More money-making opportunities
iii Mixed views on TV’s role in sports
iv Tickets to top matches too expensive
v A common misperception
vi Personal stories become the focus
vii Sports people become stars
viii Rules changed to please viewers
ix Lower-level teams lose out
x Skill levels improve
xi TV appeal influences sports’ success
27 Paragraph B
28 Paragraph C
29 Paragraph D
30 Paragraph E
31 Paragraph F
32 Paragraph G
33 Paragraph H
Questions 34–37
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 34–37 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
34 Television networks were slow to recognise opportunities to make money from televised sport.
35 The average sports fan travelled a long way to watch matches before live television broadcasts.
36 Television has reduced the significance of an athlete’s amateur status.
37 The best athletes are now more interested in financial success rather than sporting achievement.
Questions 38–40
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 38–40 on your answer sheet.
Effect of television on individual sports
Ice skating – viewers find ‘figures’ boring so they are replaced with a 38………………..
Tour de France great for TV, but wrestling initially dropped from Olympic Games due to 39………………..
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Questions 1-6
Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs, A–H.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 1–6 on your answer sheet.
1 results of animal experiments
2 recognition of the scientists’ valuable work
3 a statement about the beginning of mass production
4 Fleming’s cautionary advice
5 examples of uses for penicillin
6 the starting point for Fleming’s original research
Questions 7–10
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 7–10 on your answer sheet.
Questions 11–13
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 11–13 on your answer sheet
Timeline
1928 Fleming’s discovery of penicillin
1929 Fleming’s research published
1938 Florey begins work on penicillin
1940 The first human subject 11……………….
1941 Collaboration with 12…………….….
1944 Two of the scientists are knighted
1945 Three of them share a 13..……………….
1990 Heatley’s work is acknowledged
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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
Questions 14-19
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 14–19 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
14 Daylight savings time has been in continual use since ancient times.
15 Today, DST is very similar to how George Vernon Hudson suggested it.
16 DST was not considered successful during World Wars I and II.
17 The USA finalised its DST policy in 1966.
18 Around the world, there is now general agreement on how DST should be used.
19 Frequent changes to DST over a short time span have caused problems in some countries.
Questions 20–26
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 20 –26 on your answer sheet.
Advantages and disadvantages of Daylight Saving Time
Advantages Disadvantages
More opportunities for 20……………….. after work. Dairy farmers find that DST upsets their 23………………..
People use less power in their homes because they don’t need as much lighting. More dangerous for 24……………….. following re-setting of clocks in autumn.
Better lighting during 21……………….. leads to fewer car crashes following the spring Loss of sleep can lead to 25……………….., inferior performance at work and poore
change to DST. general health because of fatigue.
Some industries, such as 22……………….., earn more money with DST. Darker mornings may lead to more 26……………….
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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
WILLPOWER
A
Although willpower does not shape our decisions, it determines whether and how long we can follow through on them. It almost
single-handedly determines life outcomes. Interestingly, research suggests the general population is indeed aware of how essential
willpower is to their wellbeing; survey participants routinely identify a ‘lack of willpower’ as the major impediment to making
beneficial life changes. There are, however, misunderstandings surrounding the nature of willpower and how we can acquire more of
it. There is a widespread misperception, for example, that increased leisure time would lead to subsequent increases in willpower.
B
Although the concept of willpower is often explained through single-word terms, such as ‘resolve’ or ‘drive’, it refers in fact to a
variety of behaviours and situations. There is a common perception that willpower entails resisting some kind of a ‘treat’, such as a
sugary drink or a lazy morning in bed, in favour of decisions that we know are better for us, such as drinking water or going to the
gym. Of course this is a familiar phenomenon for all. Yet willpower also involves elements such as overriding negative thought
processes, biting your tongue in social situations, or persevering through a difficult activity. At the heart of any exercise of willpower,
however, is the notion of ‘delayed gratification’, which involves resisting immediate satisfaction for a course that will yield greater or
more permanent satisfaction in the long run.
C
Scientists are making general investigations into why some individuals are better able than others to delay gratification and thus
employ their willpower, but the genetic or environmental origins of this ability remain a mystery for now. Some groups who are
particularly vulnerable to reduced willpower capacity, such as those with addictive personalities, may claim a biological origin for
their problems. What is clear is that levels of willpower typically remain consistent over time (studies tracking individuals from early
childhood to their adult years demonstrate a remarkable consistency in willpower abilities). In the short term, however, our ability to
draw on willpower can fluctuate dramatically due to factors such as fatigue, diet and stress. Indeed, research by Matthew Gailliot
suggests that willpower, even in the absence of physical activity, both requires and drains blood glucose levels, suggesting that
willpower operates more or less like a ‘muscle’, and, like a muscle, requires fuel for optimum functioning.
D
These observations lead to an important question: if the strength of our willpower at the age of thirty-five is somehow pegged to our
ability at the age of four, are all efforts to improve our willpower certain to prove futile? According to newer research, this is not
necessarily the case. Gregory M. Walton, for example, found that a single verbal cue – telling research participants how strenuous
mental tasks could ‘energise’ them for further challenging activities – made a profound difference in terms of how much willpower
participants could draw upon to complete the activity. Just as our willpower is easily drained by negative influences, it appears that
willpower can also be boosted by other prompts, such as encouragement or optimistic self-talk.
E
Strengthening willpower thus relies on a two-pronged approach: reducing negative influences and improving positive ones. One of the
most popular and effective methods simply involves avoiding willpower depletion triggers, and is based on the old adage, ‘out of
sight, out of mind’. In one study, workers who kept a bowl of enticing candy on their desks were far more likely to indulge than those
who placed it in a desk drawer. It also appears that finding sources of motivation from within us may be important. In another study,
Mark Muraven found that those who felt compelled by an external authority to exert self-control experienced far greater rates of
willpower depletion than those who identified their own reasons for taking a particular course of action. This idea that our mental
convictions can influence willpower was borne out by Veronika Job. Her research indicates that those who think that willpower is a
finite resource exhaust their supplies of this commodity long before those who do not hold this opinion.
F
Willpower is clearly fundamental to our ability to follow through on our decisions but, as psychologist Roy Baumeister has discovered,
a lack of willpower may not be the sole impediment every time our good intentions fail to manifest themselves. A critical precursor,
he suggests, is motivation – if we are only mildly invested in the change we are trying to make, our efforts are bound to fall short.
This may be why so many of us abandon our New Year’s Resolutions – if these were actions we really wanted to take, rather than
things we felt we ought to be doing, we would probably be doing them already. In addition, Muraven emphasises the value of
monitoring progress towards a desired result, such as by using a fitness journal, or keeping a record of savings toward a new
purchase. The importance of motivation and monitoring cannot be overstated. Indeed, it appears that, even when our willpower
reserves are entirely depleted, motivation alone may be sufficient to keep us on the course we originally chose.
Questions 27-33
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 27–32 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
27 Willpower is the most significant factor in determining success in life.
28 People with more free time typically have better willpower.
29 Willpower mostly applies to matters of diet and exercise.
30 The strongest indicator of willpower is the ability to choose long-term rather than short-term rewards.
31 Researchers have studied the genetic basis of willpower.
32 Levels of willpower usually stay the same throughout our lives.
33 Regular physical exercise improves our willpower ability.
Questions 34 –39
Look at the following statements (Questions 37–40) and the list of researchers below.
Match each statement with the correct person, A–D.
Write the correct letter, A–D, in boxes 37–40 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use some letters more than once.
This researcher …
34 identified a key factor that is necessary for willpower to function.
35 suggested that willpower is affected by our beliefs.
36 examined how our body responds to the use of willpower.
37 discovered how important it is to make and track goals.
38 found that taking actions to please others decreases our willpower.
39 found that willpower can increase through simple positive thoughts.
List of People
A Matthew Gailliot
B Gregory M. Walton
C Mark Muraven
D Veronika Job
E Roy Baumeister
Question 40
Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor in willpower?
Willpower is affected by:
A physical factors such as tiredness
B our fundamental ability to delay pleasure
C the levels of certain chemicals in our brains
D environmental cues such as the availability of a trigger
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Questions 1-7
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A–G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B–H from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Stability of remittances in difficult times
ii Effect of cutback in transaction fees
iii Targeted investments and contributions
iv Remittances for business investment
v How to lower transmission fees
vi Motivations behind remittances
vii Losses incurred during transmission
viii Remittances worth more than official aid
ix How recipients utilise remittances
x Frequency and size of remittances
xi Poor returns on migrant savings
Example:
Paragraph G xi
1 Paragraph A
2 Paragraph B
3 Paragraph C
4 Paragraph D
5 Paragraph E
6 Paragraph F
7 Paragraph H
Questions 8–13
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 8–13 on your answer sheet.
Countries are unwilling to enforce lower transaction fees as they are worried about 8……………….., and villagers lose out when post offices have a special
relationship with one particular money transfer agency.
Each remittance might be small but the total cost of remittance fees is huge. Governments should 9……………….. on small amounts and end the current post office
system or make it more competitive. Another idea would be for a large non-profit association, capable of handling complicated 10……………….. to take charge of
migrant remittances.
Migrants who send money home are able to save money, too, but it receives little or no interest from 11………………… If a country or organisation sold bonds that
earned a reasonable rate of interest for the investor, that money could fund the development of homeland 12………………… The bonds could be sold at the remittance
centre, which could also take donations from 13..……………….. to fund charitable projects in their home country.
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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
Questions 14-19
Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A–F.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–F from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–ix, in boxes 14–19 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i A finely balanced measuring machine
ii Head injuries are a window into the brain
iii Measuring changes in body weight
iv Measuring fatigue through finger movements
v Reasons for the development of the ergograph
vi Effects of fatigue on young factory workers
vii Reasons behind early physiological research
viii Estimating the difficulty of reading tasks
ix Mosso’s theory supported by experimental results
14 Paragraph A
15 Paragraph B
16 Paragraph C
17 Paragraph D
18 Paragraph E
19 Paragraph F
Question 20
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in box 20 on your answer sheet.
The text suggests that Mosso undertook his original research because he wanted to
A support previous researchers’ results.
B make a more accurate measuring device.
C rebuild an existing machine.
D study the movement of frog muscles.
Questions 21–25
Label the diagram below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 21–25 on your answer sheet.
The Ergograph
Question 26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in box 26 on your answer sheet.
What is the writer’s overall purpose in writing this article?
A to describe Mosso’s early research into human physiology
B to argue that Angelo Mosso was an original designer
C to discuss differences between Mosso and other early researchers
D to link Mosso’s experiments to modern brain imaging technology
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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
Questions 27-29
Choose THREE letters A – G
Write the correct letters A – G, in boxes 27–29 on your answer sheet.
Which THREE of the following are given as reasons for the arguments that someone else wrote Shakespeare’s works?
A Shakespeare did not come from Stratford.
B We have little information about Shakespeare’s life.
C We know that Shakespeare did not go overseas.
D Shakespeare went to prison for owing money.
E Shakespeare spoke only the English language.
F Shakespeare’s life appears to have been limited.
G The plays suggest that the writer was familiar with a high-class lifestyle.
Questions 30–35
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 30–35 on your answer sheet
He was an actor.
Shakespeare He had 30……………….. for printing and putting on the plays.
31……………….. consulted Shakespeare before approving performance of the plays.
Question 36
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in box 36 on your answer sheet.
The sonnets are useful for researchers because they are
A shorter and easier than the plays.
B all written to the same person.
C more personal than the plays.
D addressed to a lower-class person.
Questions 37–40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–G, below.
Write the correct letter, A–G, in boxes 37–40 on your answer sheet.
37 W.H. was probably a young man because
38 W.H. could have been Marlowe’s friend because
39 W.H.’s name could have been Henry Wriothesley because
40 W.H. could have been De Vere’s friend because
A W.H. had some influence with important people.
B the poems are addressed to the writer’s child.
C the content of the poems strongly suggests this.
D W.H. was able to provide financial support.
E W.H. had been to Cambridge University.
F W.H. had a lot of high-class enemies.
G the poet may have changed the order of his initials
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Questions 1-9
The text has ten paragraphs labelled A–J.
Choose the correct heading for sections B–J from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–xii, in boxes 1-9 on your answer sheet.
The first one is done for you as an example below.
Paragraph Headings
i An Australian sporting icon
ii A new love
iii Early competition
iv Winning isn’t everything
v Family support for running
vi Her first Olympics
vii Adored by her nation
viii Aboriginal identity on the track
ix Winning the top medal at home
x Second on the big stage
xi A difficult childhood
xii Losing in Sydney
e.g Paragraph 1 ___i___
1 Paragraph 2
2 Paragraph 3
3 Paragraph 4
4 Paragraph 5
5 Paragraph 6
6 Paragraph 7
7 Paragraph 8
8 Paragraph 9
9 Paragraph 10
Questions 10–14
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 10-14 on your answer sheet.
Although she had a hard upbringing she got support from her mother and 10………………..
She won a 11……………… at a young age to train and study which helped her develop as an athlete.
Her first international success was in 1990 at the 12……………….. as part of the Australian sprint team.
At her second Olympics in 1996 she won a silver medal for coming second in the 13…………………….
• In 2000, she finally won a 14………………….. at the Sydney Olympics making here one of the most loved sports star in Australia.
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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-26 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
Questions 15-20
Do the following statements agree with claims of the writer?
In boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
FALSE if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
15 Experts say that plastic waste is worse than global warming.
16 Most bottles manufactured for drinking are made from plastic that can be easily recycled.
17 In Britain, only 20% of plastic bottles are recycled and the rest is reused or thrown out.
18 By 2020, China’s use of plastic bottles will be greater than the rest of the world.
19 Major drink companies only use a small percentage of recycled plastic in their bottles.
20 A leading environmental organisation says that the oceans will be filled with plastic if big business doesn’t act.
Questions 21–26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter (A-D) in boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet.
21 Every second, approximately how many plastic bottles are purchased on the planet?
A twelve thousand
B twenty thousand
C fifteen million
D thirty-eight million
22 Most plastic bottles that aren’t recycled are…
A set fire to
B put into boats at sea
C put into garbage tips
D sent to companies
23 The majority of plastic bottles are used for…
A storage
B drinking water
C recycling
D Coca Cola
24 What is the percentage of drinks companies who have no plans to use more recyclable plastic in their products?
A 6.6%
B 30%
C 33%
D 100%
25 According to the article, RPet is
A a major drinks company
B an expert in plastic bottle production
C bottles made out of highly recyclable material
D bottles made out of 100% recycled plastic
26 Greenpeace thinks one way to reduce plastic waste is to…
A tax plastic manufactures
B clean the oceans
C stop drinking bottled water
D use more recycled material
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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
Questions 27-32
Do the following statements agree with claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
27 The African wild dog has other names associated with it, often being referred to as the ‘hunting wolf’.
28 There are more African wild dogs in Sub-Saharan African than in South Africa.
29 Scientists are trying to save the African wild dog by putting them in new national parks in South Africa.
30 African wild dogs roam large areas and often travel extreme distances
31 Introducing African wild dogs into new areas is quite easy and there has been a lot of research related to this field.
32 Radio transmitters help scientist track the movements of hyenas and lions.
Questions 33-35
Choose THREE letters A-G
Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 33-35 on your answer sheet.
Which THREE of the following are given as reasons for African wild dogs currently being endangered?
A Doing scientific tests on the wild dogs.
B The loss of habitat for the dogs.
C The building of fences to capture them.
D Hyenas and lions competing with them.
E Transporting the dogs to other areas.
F Not having enough food to eat.
G Humans killing wild dogs.
Questions 36-40
Look at the statements (Questions 36-40) and the list of scientists and researches below.
Match each statement with the correct person, A-C.
Write the correct letter, A-C, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use some letters more than once.
This scientist or researcher…
36 is monitoring the African wild dogs’ movement and behaviour.
37 has found that African wild dogs are a family orientated species.
38 does not think current systems of tracking African wild dogs is sufficient.
39 believes repopulating areas with African wild dogs is currently the best solution for their survival.
40 thinks that local attitude towards African wild dogs is changing in a positive way.
List of People
A Micaela Szykman
B Steven Monfort
C Scott Creel
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-12 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Questions 1-4
Read the text and choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter on your answer sheet for questions 1-4.
1 The height of most city buildings are now measured to be at a general level of
A 25-storeys
B 2-storeys
C 8-storeys
D 40-storeys
2 The estimated spare land available that is considered to be good for agricultural use, such as the growing of vegetables is
A 51.7m sq miles
B 1.7m sq miles
C 10,000 sq miles
D 18,900 sq miles
3 The current population figure produced by the United Nations for our planet is an estimated
A 11.2 billion
B 11 billion
C 7.6 billion
D 9.8 billion
4 The percentage figure for the food we humans grow on Earth that is discarded as waste is approximately
A 75%
B 3%
C 52%
D 40%
Questions 5-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage on the previous page?
In boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
5 From 2006 onwards, the rate of city dwellers in the Maldivian capital has grown at just under 50%.
6 Walking single file is common on the pavement due to the crowding.
7 Water shortages are an almost every day occurrence in the city mentioned.
8 Large portions of the land on Earth are completely unsuited for human occupation.
Questions 9-12
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE OR TWO WORDS ONLY to complete the sentences.
Write your answers in boxes 9-12 on your answer sheet.
Almost 52 million sq km of land is available to handle the more than 11 billion projected populations as it is classified as being 9…………………
Whereas cities account for less than 5% of land usage, just over a third of the land available on Earth is used for 10………………….
The loss of vast expanses of healthy forests that act naturally to absorb 11………………….
A brand new piece of man-made land has been formed besides the current city, jumping out from the sea itself, made solely by using unwanted 12…………………
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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 13-27 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
Questions 13-18
Label as true, false, or not given (T / F / NG)
Do the following statements agree with the information given in passage 2?
Write your answers in the boxes for questions 13-18 as:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
13 The competition between modern day airline manufacturers is very much like the early days of ship construction.
14 Inman was fearful of using the latest available materials alongside progressive construction methods to cut crossing times.
15 Following the invention of the radio, second class guests could reserve rooms to stay in the cities they were heading to from the ship they were on.
16 By borrowing a substantial amount of money, a leading British company built a couple of huge identical ships with the very first steam engine propulsion.
17 Crossing the Atlantic is done by the one remaining cruise ship these days on a scheduled timetable.
18 A German company introduced fixed and tightly controlled set-seating meal times on their newest ships.
Questions 19–23
Match letters A-C, to the statements numbered below 19-23
Which company does each of the following statements refer to?
19 Being acquired by a high-powered financier meant that the proud thoughts of a nation were at stake.
20 Claiming air travel was a short-term temporary fashionable form of travel not to be overly worried about.
21 Using alternate newer technologies rendered older wind powered systems obsolete giving them the modern-day look.
22 Patiently waiting for their rivals to prove that new technologies and systems worked before implementing them themselves.
23 Producing massive ocean going vessels that gained them the nickname ‘hotels that float’.
A Cunard
B Inman
C White Star
Questions 24–27
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO TO THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
It was a couple of times in the early 1900s that the newest ship of the day broke the 24……………………
As European firms excelled, it forced the U.K.-based companies to improve their ships and in particular to 25……………………
Due to a terrible disaster, new rules were put in place after that we can see today are 26…………………….
It was often whole families in the early part of the 20th Century, moving from Europe to America that was known to the industry as their 27…………………….
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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
A
When you get tired of typical sight-seeing, when you have had enough of monuments, statues, and cathedrals, then think outside the box. Read the four paragraphs
below about the innovative types of tourism emerging around the globe and discover ways to spice up your itinerary.
B
One could eat your way through your travels if one wished. A comparatively new kind of tourism is gaining popularity across the world. In this, food and beverages are
the main factors that motivate a person to travel to a particular destination. Combining food, drink and culture, this type of travel provides for an authentic experience,
the food and restaurants reflecting the local and unique flavors of a particular region or country. Studies conducted into this travel phenomenon have shown that food
plays, consciously or unconsciously, an important part in the vacations of a good number of travelers. Those trying this are looking for a more participatory style of
holiday experience. Analysts have noticed a shift from ‘passive observation’ to ‘interaction and involvement’ in tourists, whereby the visitor comes into close contact
with locals and their way of life rather than remaining a mere spectator.
C
This is a novel approach to tourism in which visitors do not visit the ordinary tourist attractions in traditional fashion. Rather, they let their whims be their guides!
Destinations are chosen not on their standard touristic merit but on the basis of an idea or concept often involving elements of humor, serendipity, and chance. One
example is known as Monopoly-travel. Participants armed with the local version of a Monopoly game board explore a city at the whim of a dice roll, shuttling between
elegant shopping areas and the local water plant – with the occasional visit to jail.
Another example is Counter-travel, which requires you to take snapshots with your back turned to landmarks like the Eiffel Tower or Big Ben. Joël Henry, the French
founder of Latourex, has developed dozens of ideas since coming up with the concept in 1990. The traveler must increase his or her receptiveness, in this way, no trip is
ever planned or predictable. Henry’s most unusual invention is known as “Erotravel”, where a couple heads to the same town but travels there separately. The challenge
is to find one another abroad. He and his wife have engaged in the pursuit in five cities and have managed to meet up every time.
D
This involves any crop-based or animal based operation or activity that brings visitors to a farm or ranch. It has recently become widespread in America, and
participants can choose from a wide range of activities that include picking fruits and vegetables, riding horses, tasting honey, learning about wine and cheese making,
or shopping in farm gift shops for local and regional products or handicrafts. For rural economies struggling to stay afloat in this age of industrial farming, it has
become an important and marketable opportunity for improving the incomes and potential economic viability of small farms and rural communities. In western North
Carolina, the organization ‘HandMade in America’ is using this method to develop their local economy and craft trades, and to educate visitors about farming practices.
On their website, it is described as a niche market. As people are becoming more interested in the ecological importance of local food production, related projects
reinforce the need to support local growers and allow visitors to experience the relationship between food and our natural environment.
E
This is the trend of traveling to destinations that are first seen in movies, for instance, touring London in a high-speed boat like James Bond or visiting the stately homes
that are seen in Jane Austin films. The term was first coined in the US press in the New York Post by journalist Gretchen Kelly, who wrote a 2007 article entitled “The
sexiest film locations from 2007 to visit now.”
Currently, summer blockbuster movies are being used as themed marketing tools by companies like Expedia and Fandango, who are promoting trips to where the
Steven Spielberg film, Indiana Jones and the Kingdom of the Crystal Skull was made. Corporations as well as convention and tourism boards are exploiting the trend,
creating their own location based travel maps, like the Elizabeth: The Golden Age movie map published by VisitBritain, Britain’s official travel and tourism guide.
Other travel itineraries have been created by tourism boards for movies including The Da Vinci Code (France), In Bruges (Belgium), and P.S. I Love You (Ireland).
Although a new concept, it’s fast becoming a major factor in the choices travelers make in an increasingly tight economic climate. If a traveler has seen a site in a major
motion picture, its media exposure makes it a compelling choice for a family vacation or honeymoon.
Questions 28-31
Reading Passage 3 has five sections, A–E.
Choose the correct heading for sections B–E from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–viii, in boxes 28–31 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Experimental Tourism
ii Cuisine Tourism
iii Adventure Tourism
iv Fashion Tourism
v Photographic Travels
vi Set-jetting.
vii Agritourism.
viii Introduction
ix Capital Cities
Example:
Section A viii
28 Section B
29 Section C
30 Section D
31 Section E
Questions 32–35
Look at the following statements (Questions 32–35).
Read passage 3 and complete the sentences using one word only from the text.
Write the answers for questions 32-35 on your answer sheet.
Putting together and enjoying culinary delights ensures the trip is more 32……..……………
Moving quickly between more mundane public service facilities and malls that are more 33…………………….
Film sets for hugely popular blockbuster movies are attracting couples to go there for their 34…………………….
In the USA, visiting a strawberry picking field or listening to lectures on producing good wine is becoming increasingly 35…………………….
Questions 36-39
Label as true, false or not given (T / F / NG)
Do the following statements agree with the information given in passage 2?
Write your answers in the boxes for questions 36-39 as:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
36 Enjoying good foods is the most critical part of any good holiday for the majority of travellers.
37 Taking photos facing directly opposite from and facing away from a popular tourist site is a need for Counter-travel.
38 People are gaining appreciation for the need to back those producing local grown vegetables and other crops.
39 The term for promoting travel related to the film industry was first used in the British media.
Question 40
Read the text and choose the best match for the underlined phrase in the text, from the three options, A-C.
For people who are bored of doing the usual activities such as looking at the common tourist attractions, they need to reconsider things from a different perspective.
This means to think is a way that is ………………….
A unique.
B new.
C creative.
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Questions 1-6
The text has seven paragraphs labelled A–G.
Reading passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct headings for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i-viii, in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Continued breakthroughs in research
ii Competing claims of originality
iii The early years of Sir Isaac Newton
iv The legacy of an exceptional mind
v Routine life at a 17th century university
vi Heated academic disputes
vii A new venture
viii His crowning achievement
ix A controversial theory about planets
Answer Example
iii Paragraph A
1 Paragraph B
2 Paragraph C
3 Paragraph D
4 Paragraph E
5 Paragraph F
6 Paragraph G
Questions 7-8
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer
Write your answers in boxes 7-8 on your answer sheet.
7 With which scientific organization was Newton associated for much of his career?
8 With whom did Newton live as he got older?
Questions 9-13
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.
Created first reflecting 9………………….., subsequently made a professor at Cambridge at the age of 25.
Helped develop the scientific method with his experiments in 10……………………, the study of light; showed that it is 11………………….., not waves,
Worked out the laws of the movement of bodies in space (planets etc.), published Principia Mathematica with laws of gravity and 12……………………..
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.
Questions 14-17
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.
Antarctica’s location far from other continents means that it is very 14……………………….
Antarctica is alone among the continents in having no 15………………………
The Antarctic ice sheet holds the record as the largest 16……………………. ice sheet on Earth.
17……………………… are blocks of ice connected to the Antarctic ice sheet.
Questions 18-21
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage on the previous page?
In boxes 18–21 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
18 Some of Antarctica’s mountains are popular with climbers.
19 The temperature in Antarctica never rises above 0°C.
20 Antarctica constitutes around one-fifth of the southern half of the world.
21 Rain in Antarctica is rare but falls occasionally.
Questions 22-26
Complete the summary using the list of words, A-G, below.
Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet.
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
Questions 27-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.
27 The dual process model of the brain is
A The common practice of thinking about two things at the same time.
B The conflicting impulses pushing the brain to make both more and less effort,
C The feeling of liking and not liking something simultaneously.
D The natural tendency to make sense of the world in two different ways.
28 System 2 takes charge of decision-making when
A When the brain needs a rest.
B When more mental effort is required.
C When a person feels excessively confident.
D When a dangerous situation is developing.
29 ‘Confirmation bias’ is an example of
A System 1 rushing to judgment.
B System 1 making a careful judgment.
C System 1 making a brave judgment
D System 1 judging a situation based on facts.
30 The main conclusion of the phone booth experiment was that
A People are more likely to help someone that they are attracted to.
B People are more responsive to their environment than they realize.
C People are more likely to be helpful if they think they will be rewarded.
D People are generally selfish and will always do what is best for themselves.
31 The ‘anchoring effect’ is the process by which
A Decisions are made using a numerical system.
B A subconscious factor may strongly influence our decision-making
C Decisions about prison sentences are made by rolling a dice.
D We may emphasize certain factor too much in our decision-making.
Questions 32-36
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
32 In general, humans have become less rational over the last 100 years.
33 Most people lack a clear sense of their own personal identity.
34 A person can train themselves to use System 2 most of the time.
35 People who make important decisions should be made aware of the dual-process model.
36 In most everyday situations, people are capable of making calm and rational decisions.
Questions 37-39
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-E, below.
Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 37-39 on your answer sheet.
37 In the course of evolutionary history System 1 has served humans well because
38 Low blood sugar or tiredness may be factors in decision making because
39 The ‘peak-end rule’ shows us that
A feeling a certain way at the conclusion of an experience decides how we remember it.
B decision-making and judgments are made too quickly.
C having less energy means we are more likely to succumb to an irrational bias.
D being sensitive to ones’ surroundings is a useful survival skill.
E wanting more food or drink may distract us from the decision we are making.
Question 40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in box 40 on your answer sheet.
What is the writer’s primary purpose in writing this article?
A to introduce their own research to the general reader
B to summarize and review a recently published book
C to argue against a commonly-held theory
D to encourage readers to question their own decision-making processes.