17-11-2024

1803CMD303031240010 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) A block has dimensions 1 cm, 2 cm, 3 cm. Ratio of the maximum resistance to minimum resistance
between any point of opposite faces of this block is :-

(1) 9 : 1
(2) 1 : 9
(3) 18 : 1
(4) 1 : 6

2) If a copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, then the percentage change in resistance is
approximately :

(1) 0.1%
(2) 0.2%
(3) 0.4%
(4) 0.8%

3) The specific resistance of the matrial of a wire is ρ and its volume is 3m3 and its resistance is 3Ω.
The length of the wire will be -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two resistance R1 and R2 are made of different materials. The temperature coefficient of the
material of R1 is α and of the material of R2 is –β. The resistance of the series combination of R1 and
R2 will not change with temperature, if R1/R2 equals :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) The equivalent resistance between points A and B is:

(1) 32.5 Ω
(2) 22.5 Ω
(3) 2.5 Ω
(4) 42.5 Ω

6) In the circuit shown here, what is the value of the unknown resistor R so that the total resistance
of the circuit between points P and Q is also equal to R :-

(1) 3 ohm
(2) ohm
(3) ohm
(4) 10 ohm

7) Find net resistance of following circuit at t = 0 and at t = ∞:-

(1)
3R, R

(2)
R, R

(3)
R, 3R

(4)
R, R

8) In the circuit shown in figure reading of voltmeter is V1 when only S1 is closed, reading of
voltmeter is V2 when only S2 is closed. The reading of voltmeter is V3 when both S1 and S2 are closed

then :-

(1) V2 > V1 > V3

(2) V3 > V2 > V1
(3) V3 > V1 > V2
(4) V1 > V2 > V3

9) In the above diagram find above value of VA–VB

(1) 6.67 V
(2) 3.33 V
(3) 1.50 V
(4) 2.15 V

10)
Find value of I.

(1) 0 A
(2) 0.5 A
(3) – 4 A
(4) – 0.5A

11) A 5 V battery of internal resistance 2 Ω and a 2 V battery of internal resistance 1 Ω are

connected to a 10 Ω resistor as shown figure. The current in the 10 Ω resistor is :-
(1) 0.27 A from P2 to P1
(2) 0.03 A from P1 to P2
(3) 0.03 A from P2 to P1
(4) 0.27 A from P1 to P2

12) In the circuit shown, the value of I in ampere is :

(1) 1
(2) 0.69
(3) 0.4
(4) 1.5

13) Find out the value of current through 2Ω resistance for the given circuit :-

(1) 5 A
(2) 2 A
(3) Zero
(4) 4 A

14) In the given circuit diagram the current through the battery and the charge on the capacitor

respectively in steady state are :

(1) 11 A and 3μC

(2) 17A and 0μC
(3)
A and μC
(4) 6A and 0μC

15) An electric bulb of rating 500 W, 100 V is used in a circuit having a 200 V supply. The resistance
R that must be used with the bulb, so that the bulb uses 500 W is :-

(1) 10Ω, is series

(2) 10 Ω, in parallel
(3) 20 Ω, is series
(4) 20 Ω, in parallel

16) Shown in the figure adjacent is meter bridge set up with null deflection in the galvanometer. The

value of the unknown resistor R is

(1) 13.75Ω
(2) 220 Ω
(3) 110 Ω
(4) 55 Ω

17) The resistance of a moving coil galvanometer is 20Ω. It requires 0.01A current for full scale
deflection. Calculate the value of resistance required to convert it into a voltmeter of range 20 volt :-

(1) 1980 Ω
(2) 2000 Ω
(3) 1880 Ω
(4) 1500 Ω

18) Two resistance R1 and R2 are connected in series with a battery and an ammeter of negligible
resistance. If a low resistance voltmeter is connected across R1, then ammeter reading :-

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains unaltered
(4) goes to zero

19) In the given network the equivalent resistance between A and B is:-
(1) R
(2) 3R
(3) R/3
(4) 2R/3

20) In the circuit shown the readings of ammeter and voltmeter are 4A and 20 V respectively. The
meters are non ideal, then R is :-

(1) Equal to 5Ω
(2) Less than 5Ω
(3) Greater than 5Ω
(4) Between 4Ω and 5Ω

21) The resistance of a wire of uniform diameter d and length L is R. The resistance of another wire
of the same material but diameter 2d and length 4L will be :-

(1) 2R
(2) R
(3) R/2
(4) R/4

22) The radius of earth is about 6400 km and that of mars is about 3200 km. The mass of the earth is
about 10 times of the mars. The object weighs 200 N on earth surface, then its weight on the surface
of mars will be :

(1) 40 N
(2) 80 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 8 N

23) Two bodies having same mass m each are placed at a distance r. Gravitation force between them
is F. If 25 % mass of a body is transfer to the second body and separation becomes half, then
gravitational force between them becomes :-

(1)

(2) F
(3)

(4)
F

24) A geostationary satellite isorbiting the earth at a height of 5R above the surface of the earth, R
being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from the
surface of the earth is :

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3)
(4)

25) The dependence of acceleration due to gravity g on the distancer r from the centre of the earth,
assumed to be a sphere of radius R and of uniform density is as shown in figures.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
The correct figure is :

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

26) With what velocity should a particle be projected so that its height becomes equal to radius of
earth ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
27) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: A pendulum clock when taken to Mount Everest becomes fast.
Reason R: The value of g (acceleration due to gravity) is less at Mount Everest than its value on the
surface of earth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct

28) If ve is escape velocity and v0 is orbital velocity of a satellite for orbit close to the earth's surface.
Then these are related by

(1)
(2) v0 = ve
(3)

(4)

29) The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass vessel is 153 × 10–6/°C and in a steel
vessel is 144 × 10–6/°C. If α for steel is 12 × 10–6/°C, then that of glass is :-

(1) 9 × 10–6/°C
(2) 6 × 10–6/°C
(3) 36 × 10–6/°C
(4) 27 × 10–6/°C

30) The temperature of ice is – 10°C (specific heat = 0.5 kcal/kg-°C) and that of water 60°C. They
are mixed in equal amounts. What part of the ice will be melted ?

(1)

(2)

(3) Whole of ice will be melted

(4)

31) The accompanying graph (fig.) shows the variation of temperature (T) of one kilogram material
with heat (Q) supplied to it. At O, the substance is in solid state. Which of the following
interpretations from the graph is correct ?
(1) T2 is the melting point of solid
(2) BC represent the change of state from solid to liquid
(3) (Q1 – Q2) represents the latent heat of fusion of the substance
(4) (Q3 – Q1) represents the latent heat of vaporisation of the substance

32)

Ice point and steam point of a thermometer are 20° and 80° respectively. What will be the
temperature in °C when this thermometer reads 32° ?

(1) 32°C
(2) 20°C
(3) 40°C
(4) 24°C

33) When the temperature of a rod increases from t to (t + Δt), its moment of inertia increases from I

to (I + ΔI). If α be the coefficient of linear expansion of the rod, then the value of is:

(1) 2α Δt
(2) α Δt

(3)

(4)

34) The graph AB shown in figure is a plot of temperature of a body in degree Celsius and degree

Fahrenheit. Then

(1) slope of line AB is 9/5

(2) slope of line AB is 5/9
(3) slope of line AB is 1/9
(4) slope of line AB is 3/9

35) If a thermometer reads freezing point of water as 20°C and boiling point as 150°C, how much
thermometer read when the actual temperature is 60°C

(1) 98°C
(2) 110°C
(3) 40°C
(4) 60°C

SECTION-II

1) Two conductors have same resistance at 0°C but their temperature coefficients of resistance are
α1 and α2. The equivalent temperature coefficients of their series and parallel combinations are
nearly:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A cell of emf E having an internal resistance r is connected to an external resistance R. The

potential difference V across the resistance R varies with R as shown in Fig. by the curve :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

3) The V-i graph for a conductor at temperature T1 and T2 are as shown in the figure. (T2 – T1) is
proportional to
(1) cos 2θ
(2) sinθ
(3) cot 2θ
(4) tan θ

4)
What will be net resistance between A and B :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3Ω

5) Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The current i3 is equal to

(1) 5 amp
(2) 3 amp
(3) – 3 amp
(4) – 5/6 amp

6) Find potential at point C and D :-

(1) VC = 6V ; VD = 9V
(2) VC = 9V ; VD = 6V
(3) VC = –9V ; VD = –6V
(4) VC = –6V ; VD = –9V

7) In the circuit shown below, the cell has an e.m.f. of 10 V and internal resistance of 1 ohm. The
other resistances are shown in the figure. The potential difference VA – VB is :-
(1) 6V
(2) 4V
(3) 2V
(4) –2V

8) Water boils in an electric kettle in 15 minutes after switching on. If the length of the heating wire
is decreased to 2/3 of its initial value, then the same amount of water will boil with the same supply
voltage in

(1) 15 minutes
(2) 12 minutes
(3) 10 minutes
(4) 8 minutes

9) A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 50 Ω and gives full scale deflection for 10 mA.
How could it be converted into an ammeter with a full scale deflection for 1A:-

(1) 50/99Ω in series

(2) 50/99Ω in parallel
(3) 0.01Ω in series
(4) 0.01Ω in parallel

10)

The angular speed of rotation of earth for which weightlessness is made at pole, is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

11) The value of 'g' at a particular point on the surface of earth is 9.8 m/s2. Suppose the earth
suddenly shrinks uniformly to half its present size without losing any mass. The value of 'g' at the
same point (assuming that the distance of the point from the centre of earth does not shrink) will
now be :-

(1) 4.9 m/sec2

(2) 39.2 m/sec2
(3) 9.8 m/sec2
(4) 19.6 m/sec2

12) Two identical spheres of radius R made of the same material are kept at a distance d apart. Then
the gravitational attraction between them is proportional to :

(1) d–2
(2) d2
(3) d4
(4) d–4

13) When 300 J of heat is added to 25 gm of sample of a material its temperature rises from 25°C to
45°C. The thermal capacity of the sample and specific heat of the the material are respectively given
by :

(1) 15 J/°C, 600 J/kg – °C

(2) 600 J/°C, 15 J/°C – kg
(3) 150 J/°C, 600 J/kg – °C
(4) none of these

14) 100 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 100 g of water at 80ºC. The final temperature of the mixture is
(Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/g and specific heat capacity of water = 1 cal/g°C)

(1) 0°C
(2) 40°C
(3) 80°C
(4) 20°C

15) A piece of ice (at 0°C) of initial mass 50 kg starts slipping on a horizontal surface with a initial
speed of 5.38 m/s and stops after travelling distance 28.3m. The mass of ice melted due to friction
between ice and surface is:

(1) 1.1 gm
(2) 2.2 gm
(3) 4.4 gm
(4) 22 gm

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) Oxidation potential of Mg and Al are +2.37 and +1.66 volts respectively. Magnesium in a
chemical reaction :-

(1) Will be replaced by Al

(2) Will replace Al
(3) Will not replace Al
(4) Will do nothing as given above

2) Which of the following is anodic reaction ?

(1)
SO42– + H2O → H2SO4 + O2 + 2e–

(2)
H+ + e– → H2
(3) Ag+ + e– → Ag
(4) None of these

3) The number of faradays required to reduce 5 gram equivalent of Ni2+ to Ni metal will be :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0.5
(4) 5

4) Standard reduction potentials for the following reactions are :-

Fe3+ + 3e —→ Fe ; – 0.036 V
Fe2+ + 2e —→ Fe ; – 0.44 V
What will be SEP for
Fe3+ + e —→ Fe2+ ?

(1) 0.772 V
(2) – 0.404 V
(3) – 0.772 V
(4) 0.077 V

5) Two electrolytic cells, one containing acidified ferrous chloride and another acidified ferric
chloride are connected in series. The ratio of iron deposited at cathodes in the two cells when same
electricity is passed through the cells will be :

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 3 : 2

6) Which of the following solution can be safely stored in copper vessel :-

(1) ZnSO4
(2) AgNO3
(3) AuCl
(4) All
7) Zn|Zn2+ (C1)||Zn2+ (C2)|Zn. for this cell ΔG is negative if :-

(1) C1 = C2
(2) C1 > C2
(3) C2 > C1
(4) None
0 0
8) Given that E (Zn2+ | Zn) = –0.763 V and E (Cd2+ | Cd) = –0.403 V. The EMF of the following cell :-
Zn|Zn2+ (a = 0.004) || (a = 0.2) Cd2+ | Cd

(1) E = –0.36 + [0.059 /2] [log 0.004/0.2)]

(2) E = +0.36 – [0.059 /2] [log 0.004/0.2)]
(3) E = –0.36 + [0.059 /2] [log 0.2/0.004)]
(4) E = +0.36 – [0.059 /2] [log 0.2/0.004)]

9) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding to galvanic cell :-

(1) A reaction is spontaneous from left to right if Ecell > 0

(2) A reaction occurs from right to left if Ecell < 0
(3) If the system is at equilibrium no net reaction occurs
(4) Ecell is temperature-independent

10) The standard e.m.f of a cell involving one electron change is found to be 0.591 V at 25°C. The
equilibrium constant of the reaction is :-

(1) 1030
(2) 105
(3) 1010
(4) 10–10

11) Which is the correct representation for Nernst equation ?

(1)
ERP = E°RP +

(2)

(3)
EOP = E°OP +
(4) All of these

12) Which concentrations can be calculated if the mole fraction and density of an aqueous solution of
HCl are known?

1. Molality 2. Molarity 3. Percentage by mass

(1) 1 only
(2) 3 only
(3) 1 and 2 only
(4) 1, 2 and 3

13) In what volume of 0.08 M solution, 10.0 millimoles of solute is present :-

(1) 62.5 ml
(2) 500 ml
(3) 125 ml
(4) 1 litre

14) The molality of a 15% (w/V) solution of H2SO4 of density 1.1 gm/cm3 is :-

(1) 1.2
(2) 1.4
(3) 1.8
(4) 1.6

15) Rectified spirit contains 95% ethanol by weight. The mole fraction of ethanol be :-

(1) 0.881
(2) 0.99
(3) 0.118
(4) 0.81

16) What is the molarity of 0.4 N Na2CO3 solution:-

(1) 0.2 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.8 M
(4) 0.6 M

17) 450 mg of glucose is dissolved in 100g of solvent. What is the molality of solution ?

(1) 0.0025m
(2) 0.025m
(3) 0.25m
(4) 2.5m

18) Ethanol reacts with H2SO4 at 140°C to form -

(1) Ethene
(2) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
(3) Ethoxy ethane
(4) None
19) A C2H5OH B, A and B respectively are :-

(1) Alkene, alkanal

(2) Alkyne, alkanal
(3) Alkanal, Alkene
(4) Alkene, alkyne

20) In following reaction product is

product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The mechanism of this reaction is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) Find out the product 'C' is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

23) A B C, C is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) What is the major product of the following reaction ?

Product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)
The major product will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Products x moles of HI is consumed

Products y moles of HI is consumed

sum of (x+y) ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

27)
Product (A) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

28)
x is :-

(1) CH3–COOH
(2) CH3–CH2–OH
(3) CH3–CHO
(4) CH3–CH2–CHO

29)
Find product 'C' is

(1) CH

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) In which reaction 2° Alcohol is obtained :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) What will be the order of reactivity of the following carbonyl compounds with nucleophile?

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)
(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) III > II > I > IV

32) Product is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Which is most reactive for nucleophilic addition reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34)

C6H5CHO

The product would be

(1) a meso compound
(2) d
(3) ℓ
(4) Racemic mixture

35) The correct order of reactivity of PhMgBr with

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I
(4) I > III > II

SECTION-II

1) In the reaction

.........
Which of the following compounds will be formed ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Arrange the following in order of their reactivity when reacting with HCl/ZnCl2:-
(1) IV > I > II > III
(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) III > II > I > IV

3) When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces :-

(1) allyl iodide

(2) propene
(3) glycerol triiodide
(4) 2-iodopropane

4) The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence :-

are :-

(1) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, CH3CHBr2

(2) C2H5Br, CH≡CH, CH2=CHBr

(3)
C2H5Br, CH2=CH2,
(4) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, Br–CH2–CH2–Br

5) Which of the following will give white crystalline product with NaHSO3 :-

(1) Acetophenone
(2) Benzophenone
(3) Acetone
(4) Pentan-3-one

6) Which reagent is best reagent for following conversion :-

(1) Zn–Hg + HCl

(2)
(3) LiAlH4
(4) All
7) X ; X is - (D – 2 – Butanol)

(1) S – 2 – Chlorobutane
(2) R – 2 – Chlorobutane
(3) Mixture of R and S, 2 – Chlorobutane
(4) 1 – Chorobutane

8) The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X,Y,Z are 0.52, –3.03 and –1.18
V respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is :-

(1) Y > Z > X

(2) X > Y > Z
(3) Z > Y > X
(4) Z > X > Y

9) How many coulombs of electricity are required for the reduction of 1 mole of MnO4– to Mn2+ ?

(1) 96500 C
(2) 9.65 × 106 C
(3) 4.83 × 105 C
(4) 1.93 × 105 C

10) If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ion discharged at
cathode is :-

(1) H+
(2) Na+
(3) OH-
(4) Cl-

11) Which of the following reaction represents the cell Cu|Cu+2 || Ag+|Ag ?

(1) Cu + Ag+ Cu+2 + Ag

(2) Cu2+ + 2Ag+ Cu + 2Ag
(3) Cu + 2Ag Cu2+ + 2Ag+
(4) Cu + 2Ag+ Cu2+ + 2Ag

12) The hydrogen elecrtrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 3 at 25°C. The reduction potential of the
cell would be :-

(1) 0.177 V
(2) – 0.177 V
(3) 0.087 V
(4) 0.059 V

13)

The cell reaction for the given cell is spontaneous if :

(1) P1 > P2
(2) P1 < P2
(3) P1 = P2
(4) P2 = 1 atm

14) The amount of acetic acid present in 500 mL of 0.2 M solution is :-

(1) 0.60 g
(2) 6 g
(3) 60 g
(4) 3 g

15) If 25g of solute is present in 50g of solution. Then calculate % w/w. (Mass %)

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) None

BOTANY

SECTION-I

1) In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector refers to :-

(1) The enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments

(2) The sticky end of a DNA fragment
(3) A plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell
(4) A DNA probe used to identify a particular gene

2) Genes for which of the following can serve as selectable marker ?

(1) β-Galactosidase
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Ampicillin
(4) All of the above

3) Which of the following is considered as key tools of recombinant DNA technology ?

A. Restriction enzymes
B. Polymerase enzymes
C. Vectors
D. Competent host organism

(1) A only
(2) A and B only
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B, C and D

4) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer made first recombinant DNA by linking an antibiotic resistance
gene with-

(1) Plasmid of E. coli

(2) Plasmid of Agrobacterium
(3) Plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium
(4) λ phage virus

5) Choose correct option -

(1) Bacteriophage → Gene transfer in plants

(2) Retrovirus → Gene transfer in bacteria
(3) pBR322 → Gene transfer in bacteria
(4) Plasmid → Gene transfer in animals

6) Which of the following statement is correct with respect to restriction endonuclease?

(1) ECoRI produce blunt end

(2) Restrction endonucleases are never synthesized in prokaryotes
(3) Restriction endonuclease cut the DNA at palindromic sequence
(4) In the naming of restriction endonuclease roman number indicate the order of discovery

7) The figure given below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR322. Which
one of the given options correctly identifies its certain components ?
(1) Hind III, EcoRI - Antibiotic Resistance gene
(2) AmpR ; tetR - selectable markers
(3) Ori - Original restriction enzyme
(4) Rop - Reduced osmotic pressure

8) The branch of science which deals with techniques of using live organisms to produce products
and processes useful to
humans.

(1) Biochemistry
(2) Biotechnology
(3) Bioinformatics
(4) Biochemical engineering

9) Consider the following statements :-

(A) Presence of more than one recognition sites of a restriction endonuclease within the vector will
complicate the gene cloning.
(B) ori site of vector is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are true

(2) (A) is true but (B) is false
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false
(4) (A) is false but (B) is true

10) Statement-I : In vitro fertilisation leading to a test tube baby is a part of biotechnology.
Statement-II : Developing a DNA vaccine is a part of biotechnology.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

11) Statement-I : In ECORI the letter R is derived from the name of species.
Statement-II : The convention for naming these enzyme is the first letter of the name comes from
Strain and Genus.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

12) Assertion : Selectable marker helps in identifying transformation in Z-gene.

Reason : Selectable marker differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of
production of colour in presence of chromogenic substance.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13)

Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I :- Restriction endonucleases do not cut the DNA of own cell in Prokaryotes.
Statement-II :- Prokaryotic DNA does not have sites of restriction endonuclease.
Choose the correct answer from the options give.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Only statement I is correct.
(3) Only statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

14) Which statement is true for Taq-polymerase enzyme ?

(1) It is a type of RNA polymerase which is isolated from a bacteria

(2) It is a DNA polymerase, which remain active during the high temperature
(3) DNA polymerase, which is used in DNA finger printing
(4) DNA polymerase which is used in gel electrophoresis

15) In gel electrophoresis :-

(1) DNA fragments are arranged according to length on gel by applying electric field
(2) DNA fragments are arranged according to charge
(3) DNA fragments are treated by alcoholic solution
(4) DNA fragments are destroyed

16) During isolation of DNA, addition of which of the following causes precipitation of purified DNA?

(1) Chilled ethanol

(2) Ribonuclease enzyme
(3) DNA polymerase
(4) Proteases
17) In rDNA technology or genetic engineering elution means :-

(1) Remove the DNA from centrifuge tube after centrifugation

(2) Separation of the recombinant protein from recombinant cell.
(3) Insertion of recombinant DNA into host cell.
(4) The separated band of DNA are cut out from the gel and extracted from the gel piece.

18) During the isolation of DNA from a bacterial cell, which of the following enzyme is not used ?

(1) Ribonuclease
(2) Deoxyribonuclease
(3) Protease
(4) Lysozyme

19) The DNA fragments separated can be visualised only after staining DNA with compound _____
followed by exposure to _____ radiations.

(1) Methylene blue, visible

(2) Ethidium bromide, UV
(3) Giemsa, visible
(4) Quinacrine, IR

20) After 4 PCR cycles how many DNA molecules are formed ?

(1) 4
(2) 32
(3) 16
(4) 80

21) Arrange the following steps of PCR in correct sequence.

A = Denaturation
B = Extension
C = Annealing

(1) A → B → C
(2) C → B → A
(3) A → C → B
(4) B → A → C

22) When a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, b-galactosidase:-

I. This result into inactivation of the gene

II. This is called insertional inactivation
III. In the presence of insertion, the colonies do not produce any colour

(1) I only
(2) I and II
(3) I and III
(4) I, II and III

23) When foreign DNA in inserted into any vector, it results in inactivation of any marker gene. This
is used for selection of ............ :-

(1) Non-Transformant cells

(2) Transformant cells
(3) Recombinant cells
(4) (1) & (2) both

24) The procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium is called ?

(1) Translation
(2) Transcription
(3) Transformation
(4) Translocation

25) Which of the following statement is correct about Recombinant protein formation ?

(1) If any protein encoding gene expressed in homologous host

(2) If any protein encoding gene expressed in heterologous host
(3) Protein formed by crossing over
(4) Two different protein encoding gene is expressed in Bacteria only

26)

Bioreactors are useful in :-

(1) Separation and purification of a product

(2) Microinjection
(3) Processing of large volume of culture
(4) Isolation of genetic material

27) DNA is a ....1....molecule having ....2....charge :-

(1) 1-hydrophobic, 2-negative

(2) 1-hydrophilic, 2-positive
(3) 1-hydrophilic, 2-negative
(4) 1-hydrophobic, 2-positive

28) The diagram below refers to recombinant DNA technology. Identify A to D:

 A B C D
(1) EcoRI Hind II DNA ligase Transformation
(2) EcoRI EcoRI DNA ligase Transformation
(3) Hind II EcoRI DNA ligase Transformation
(4) EcoRI EcoRI Transformation DNA ligas
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E.coli were isolated.
One was methylase and other was restriction endonuclease. What is the significance of methylase ?

Protection of host DNA from the action of restriction endonuclease by adding methyl group to
(1)
one or two bases usually with in the sequence recognised by restriction enzyme
(2) Able to ligate the two cohesive ends of DNA molecule
Able to remove the methyl group and hence, prevent the action of restriction endonuclease on
(3)
host DNA
(4) Able to cut the DNA of bacteriophage at specific sites

30) Statement-I : Stirred Tank Reactor are generally Cylindrical.

Statement-II : The stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

31) Spooling is :-

(1) Amplification of DNA

(2) Cutting of separated DNA bands from the agarose gel
(3) Transfer of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes
(4) Collection of isolated DNA

32) Which of the following statement is true regarding recombinant DNA technology?

In PCR, the multiple copies of gene of interest are synthesised invitro using one set of primers
(1)
and DNA polymerase enzyme.
If any protein encoding gene is expressed in homologous host, it is called a recombinant
(2)
protein.
(3) Taq polymerase is obtained from a thermophilic cyanobacterium.
(4) Progression of restriction enzyme digestion can be checked by gel electrophoresis.

33) Downstream processing include :

(1) Separation
(2) Purification
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Only quality control

34) Direct gene transfer method in plant cell is -

(1) Electroporation
(2) Disarmed retrovirus
(3) Biolistic Method
(4) Microinjection

35) Match the following and choose the correct option-

Column I Column II
Restriction
(a) (i) Agarose
endonuclease
(b) Plasmid (ii) T-DNA
Agrobacterium
(c) (iii) pBR322
tumefaciens
(d) Gel electrophoresis (iv) EcoRI
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

SECTION-II

1) Which of the following features are required into a vector ?

(1) Origin of replication

(2) Selectable marker gene
(3) Cloning sites
(4) All
2) Which of the following is the basic step in genetically modifying an organism ?

(1) Identification of DNA with desirable genes.

(2) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host.
(3) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
(4) All of the above

3)

Plasmids are vectors for gene cloning because they

(1) Self replicate in bacterial cells

(2) Replicate freely outside bacterial cells
(3) Can be multiplied in culture
(4) Can be multiplied in laboratories using enzymes

4) The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of a process .

Select the options giving correct identification :-

(1) (C) Joining of vector DNA and foreign DNA with the help of DNA ligase
(2) (A) Cutting of DNA with the help of Hind II
(3) (B) Joining of two vector DNA with the help of endonuclease
(4) (A) Separation of DNA by southern blotting

5) In order to insert alien DNA at the site of tetracycline resistance gene in pBR322 the restriction
endonuclease used can be

(1) Pvu I
(2) Cla I
(3) Sal I
(4) Pst I

6) EFB stands for-

(1) European Foundation of Biotechnology

(2) European Federation of Biotechnology
(3) European Foundation of Botany
(4) None of these

7) Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organisms and its cell wall degrading
enzymes?

(1) Plant cells – Cellulase

(2) Algae – Methylase
(3) Fungi – Chitinase
(4) Bacteria – Lysozyme

8) Study the given figure carefully and select the correct statements regarding this:-

I. It represents typical agarose gel electrophoresis which showing

differential migration of DNA fragments.
II. Lane 1 contains undigested DNA fragments.
III. Lanes 2 to 4 contains digested DNA fragment.
lV. Smallest DNA bands are present at (A) position and largest DNA bands are present at (B)
position.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

9) Which of the following method can be termed as vector less approach to introduce foreign DNA
into host cells :-
(A) Micro injection
(B) Biolistics (C) Bacterial Artificial chromosome

(1) A Only
(2) A & C both
(3) C Only
(4) A & B both

10) In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of _______ metal
are used.

(1) Zinc
(2) Tungsten or gold
(3) Silver
(4) Copper

11) If we ligate a foreign DNA at the Bam HI site in pBR322, then the recombinant plasmid will :

(1) Show tetracycline resistance only

(2) Show ampicillin resistance only
(3) Will grow well on tetracycline containing medium
(4) Will not grow on ampicillin containing medium

12) Statement I :- The normal E.coli cells do not carry resistance against ampicillin,
chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin etc.
Statement II :- The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured colonies if the plasmid
in the bacteria does not have an insert.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

13) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled us
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In rDNA technology non recombinants transformed bacteria grow on the medium
containing ampicillin as well as medium containing tetracycline.
Reason (R) : Recombinant plasmids contain the foreign DNA or gene of interest.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

14) Which of the following statement is not true regarding downstream processing?

(1) Downstream processing starts after the completion of biosynthetic phase.

(2) The product has to be formulated with suitable preservatives.
(3) Clinical trials has to be done as in case of drugs.
(4) Downstream processing and quality control testing are same for all types of product

15) Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in specific sequence. What is the correct
sequence for r-DNA technology ?
a → Down stream processing.
b → Cutting of DNA at specific location.
c → Obtaining the foreign gene product.
d → Isolation of the genetic material.
e → Insertion of r-DNA into the host cell.

(1) b → d → e → a → c
(2) d → b → e → c → a
(3) d → e → d → a → c
(4) e → d → a → c → b

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-I

1) Cardiac muscles are :

(1) Striated and involuntary

(2) Striated and voluntary
(3) Smooth and involuntary
(4) Smooth and voluntary

2) Stoppage of heart beat is called as :-

(1) Heart attack

(2) Cardiac arrest
(3) Heart block
(4) Heart failure

3)

An artery is a vessel that carries blood :

(1) deoxygenated without any exception

(2) away from the heart
(3) towards the heart
(4) none of the above

4)

The difference of blood pressure between systolic and diastolic phase is :

(1) 10 mm Hg
(2) 40 mm Hg
(3) 120 mm Hg
(4) 180 mm Hg

5) Person having 'B' blood group have antibody :-

(1) Anti A
(2) Anti B
(3) Both
(4) None

6) Blood bank of body is :-

(1) Liver
(2) Spleen
(3) Heart
(4) Bone marrow

7) Globulin is :-

(1) Plasma protein

(2) Antigen
(3) Serum
(4) Found in lymphatic tissue.

8) Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has :

(1) Both A and B antigens on RBC, but no anti A and anti B antibodies in plasma
(2) Both anit A and anti B antibodies in the plasma
(3) No antigen on RBC and no antibodies in the plasma
(4) Both A and B antigens in the plasma, but no antibodies on RBCs

9) Blood clotting involves the conversion of

(1) prothrombin to thromboplastin

(2) thromboplastin to prothrombin
(3) fibrinogen to fibrin
(4) fibrin to fibrinogen

10) Closed circulatory system is present in :-

(1) Annelids
(2) Arthropods
(3) Mollusca
(4) Annelids and arthropods

11) In birds and mammals oxygenated and deoxygeneted blood received firstly by which chamber of
heart respectively :-

(1) Left and right atria

(2) Left and right ventricle
(3) Right and left atria
(4) Right and left ventricle

12) Blood vessels carrying blood from lungs to heart :-

(1) Pulmonary vein
(2) Pulmonary artery
(3) Renal vein
(4) Hepatic portal vein

13) Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when a factor from mother passes into the foetus through the
placenta it is :-

(1) Rh antigen
(2) Rh antibodies
(3) Agglutinins
(4) ABO antibodies

14) Histamine and serotonin are secreted by :-

(1) Eosinophils
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Basophils
(4) Monocytes

15) The wall of glomerular capillaries are composed of

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Squamous epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Stratified epithelium

16) Assertion (A):- Persons with AB blood group are universal recipients. Reason (R):- Persons
with AB blood group have no antibodies for A and B antigens in their blood plasma.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) Assertion (A) :- The serum of human blood will not coagulates.
Reason (R) :- Clotting factors are absents in serum.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A) .

18) Assertion : Plasma is a straw colored, viscous fluid.

Reason : Plasma contains water and proteins.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and R is the correct explanation of Assertion.

19) Identify A to F in given diagram :-

Choose the correct option.

(1) A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary vein, D-Pulmonary artery, E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
(2) A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein, E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
(3) A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein, E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta
(4) A-Body parts, B-Lungs, C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein, E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta

20) AV valves open during-

(1) Atrial systole

(2) Ventricular systole
(3) Ventricular diastole
(4) Atrial diastole

21) The peritubular capillaries of the nephron arise from the :-

(1) Afferent arterioles

(2) Renal artery
(3) Efferent arterioles
(4) Vasa Recta

22) Which substances are reabsorbed in collecting duct?

(1) Glucose, Water

(2) Water, Urea
(3) H+, K+ ions
(4) Water and NaCl

23) In interstitial fluid of kidney an increasing osmolarity from cortex to the inner medulla. This
gradient is mainly caused by :-
(1) Na+, K
(2) NaCl, H2O, HCO3
(3) NaCl and Urea
(4) Urea, HCO3

24) Shape of Henle's loop and vasa recta are:-

(1) 'C' shaped and 'U' shaped respectively

(2) U shaped and 'C' shaped respectively
(3) Hair pin shaped and U shaped respectively
(4) 'C' Shaped and hairpin shaped respectively

25) Filtration of the blood takes place at :-

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Collecting duct
(4) Malpighian body

26) Which of the following Statement is/are true about Atrial Natriuretic factor (ANF)?
(A)An increase in blood volume and B.P. stimulates atria to release ANF.
(B) ANF promotes vasoconstriction and thereby decreases B.P.
(C) ANF acts as a check on RAAS.
(D) It work with renin.

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A & D
(4) A & C

27)

Which of the following excreted in mammals in the form of nitrogen

(1) Ammonium ion

(2) Ammonia
(3) Uric acid
(4) Urea

28) Assertion :- Human kidneys can produce urine nearly four times concentrated than the initial
filtrate formed.
Reason :- Counter current mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient in the medullary
interstitium.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

29) Glucose is taken back from glomerular filtrate through

(1) Diffusion
(2) Osmosis
(3) Active transport
(4) Passive transport

30) If Henle's loop were removed from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be
expected?

(1) The urine will be more dilute

(2) There will be no urine formation
(3) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(4) The urine will be more concentrated

31) The glomerular filtrate i.e., the liquid collected in the cavity of Bowman's capsule is

(1) Blood minus proteins

(2) Blood minus proteins and corpuscles
(3) Water
(4) Urine

32) The condition of accumulation of urea in the blood is termed as

(1) Renal calculi

(2) Glomerulonephritis
(3) Uremia
(4) Ketonuria

33) Match the following.

Column-I Column-II

A PCT i Selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions

70-80 percent of electrolytes and

B DCT ii
water reabsorbed

C Descending limb iii Allow passage of small amount of urea

D Ascending limb iv Permeable to water

E Collecting duct v Permeable to salts

(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv E-v
(2) A-i B-iii C-iv D-ii E-v
(3) A-ii B-i C-iv D-v E-iii
(4) A-ii B-i C-v D-iv E-iii

34) Find out the correct match from following table.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Nephridia Earthworm Urea

Malpighian
ii Amphioxus Ammonia
tubules

Gill Cartilagenous
iii Ammonia
surface Fishes
(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) only
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) and (ii)

35) Match the abnormal conditions given in Column I with their explanations given in Column II and
choose the correct option :-

Column I Column II

(A) Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints

(B) Renal calculi (ii) Inflammation in Glomerulus

Mass of crystallised salts within the

(C) Glomerular nephritis (iii)
kidney

(D) Gout (iv) Presence of glucose in urine

(1) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv
(2) A–iii, B–ii, C–iv, D–i
(3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(4) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i

SECTION-II

1) Assertion :- Patient with renal failure suffers from severe uremia.

Reason :- Kidneys are the main excretory organs in human for excretion of urea.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Assertion :- Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed from afferent arteriole.

Reason :- Afferent arteriole is a fine branch of renal artery.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Assertion: Tubular secretion helps in the maintenance of ionic and acid base balance of the body.
Reason: During urine formation the tubular cells of nephron secrete substances like H+, K+ and NH3
into the filtrate.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) Tricupsid valve is found in between

(1) Sinus venosus and right auricle

(2) Right auricle and right ventricle
(3) Left ventircle and left auricle
(4) Ventricle and aorta

5)

On an average, ____________ amount of urea is excreted out per day.

(1) 40-50 gm
(2) 10-15 gm
(3) 25-30 gm
(4) 5-7 gm

6) Figure shows human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly
identifies them and gives their characteristics and/or functions.

(1) D-Cortex - outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons
 A-Adrenal gland - located at the anterior part of kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which
(2)
stimulate glycogen breakdown
(3) B-Pelvis - broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle
(4) C-Medulla-inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons

7) Uricotelism is found in

(1) Frog and toads

(2) Mammals and birds
(3) Birds, reptiles and insects
(4) Fishes and fresh water protozoans

8) Consider the following statements

A. Flame cells are excretory structures in flatworms
B. Green glands are excretory organs in annelids
C. Columns of Bertini are the conical projections of renal pelvis into renal medulla between the renal
pyramids

(1) A and B correct

(2) B and C incorrect
(3) A and C correct
(4) A, B and C correct

9) Components of filtration membrane are :

(1) Epithelium of Bowman's capsule

(2) Endothelium of glomerular blood vessels
(3) Epithelium of Bowman's capsule and endothelium of glomerular blood vessels
Epithelium of Bowman's capsule and endothelium of glomerular blood vessels and basement
(4)
membrane between these two layers

10)

Deficiency of ADH causes :-

(1) Diabetes insipidus

(2) Diabetes mellitus
(3) Parkinson disease
(4) Jaundice

11) Glycosuria is the condition, where a man :-

(1) eats more sugar

(2) sugar is excreted in faeces
(3) has low sugar level in blood
(4) excretes sugar in urine
12) Angiotensinogen is converted to angiotensin by :-

(1) ADH
(2) Renin
(3) ANF
(4) Aldosterone

13) Vasodilation is function of :-

(1) ADH
(2) ANF
(3) Renin
(4) Angiotensin

14)

Functional & structural unit of kidney is -

(1) Nephron
(2) Seminiferous tubule
(3) Acini
(4) None

15) Which statement is not correct about glomerular filtration ?

(1) On an average 1100–1200 ml of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute

(2) Glomerular filtrate is blood plasma except protein
(3) GFR in a healthy individual is approx 125 ml/min.
(4) Complete blood plasma is filtered in ultrafiltration
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 1 1 3 3 3 3 1 3 2 1 1 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 2 1 3 2 1 3 3 1 2 3 2 1 2 1

SECTION-II

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 2 3 1 4 2 4 3 2 4 3 1 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 4 1 4 1 3 2 4 3 4 4 3 4 1 1 2 3 3 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 2 3 4 3

SECTION-II

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 1 4 3 3 4 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 1

BOTANY

SECTION-I

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 4 4 1 2 2 1 1 4 2 2 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 4 3 3 2 3 3 2 1 4 4 4 3 3 2

SECTION-II

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 1 1 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 4 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-I

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 3 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 2 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 1 2 3 3 1 3

SECTION-II

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 4 1 4 2 2 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

When wire is stretched then

R α l2 ⇒

= 2 (0.1%)

16)

17) V = i (R + S)
20 = (0.01) (20 + S)
S = 1980 Ω

19) All the resistance are in parallel. Therefore,

20)

Measured value of R = = 5Ω
But current in R will actually be less than I, so R should be greater than 5Ω.

22) We know that g =

Value of g for Mass =

[Radius of mass is 1/2 that of earth]

= × =

So, g' =

If mg = 200 N, mg' = = 80 N

24) According to Kepler's thrid law T ∝ r3/2

∴ = = =
Since T1 = 24 hours, So,

= or T2 = hours

25) The acceleration due to gravity at a depth d below surface of earth is

g' = =
g' = 0 at d = R
i.e. acceleration due to gravity is zero at the centre of earth.
Thus, the variation in value g with r is
For, r > R,

⇒
Here, R + h = r

For r < R, =

Here, R – d = r ⇒ g' ∝ r
Therefore, the variation of g with distance from centre of the earth will be as shown in the
figure

26) Use given h = R

∴ =

27)

29) γreal = γapp + γvessel

So, (γapp + γvessel)glass = (γapp + γvessel)steel
or 153 × 10–6 + (γvessel)glass = 144 × 10–6 + (γvessel)steel
Further, (γvessel)steel = 3α = 3 × (12 × 10–6)
= 36 × 10–6/°C
∴ 153 × 10–6 + (γvessel)glass = 144 × 10–6 + 36 × 10–6
∴ (γvessel)glass = 27 × 10–6/°C

or

32)

37)

current I = ...... (1)

Now potential difference across R is V
∴ V = IR

= =

V=

Now if R = 0, V = 0

Now if R is incresing then is decresing

hence so V is increasing
hence option-3 will done

40) Suppose current through different paths of the circuit is as follows. After applying KVL for
loop (1) and loop (2)
We get ⇒

and ⇒

Hence

43)

By using where

t∝l
Which gives

45) On poles gett = g

so there is no effect of angular speed's change.

46) , Here M is mass of earth and r is distance of the given point from centre of earth.
M and r both remain same so g remains same, 9.8 m/s2.

47) According to Newton's law of gravitation

F∝ or F ∝ d–2

48)

(i) Thermal capacity

= mc = = = 15 J/°C
(II) Specific heat is nothing but thermal capacity per unit mass

C= = = 600 J/kg.–°C
 50)

× 50 × 5.38 × 5.38 = m × 80 × 4.2

m = 2.2 g

CHEMISTRY

55)

V.F = 2 FeCl2 → (Fe)1

1 Eq⇒ mole
V.F = 3 FeCl3 →(Fe)2

1Eq ⇒ mole
n(fe)1 : (Fe)2

:
3:2

68)

71) Reaction follow SN1 mechanism.

72) NCERT Pg - 334, 335

75)

Reimer Tiemann reaction

76)
 1 + 2 = 3 mole

79)

86) Dissociation of ether by acid (HI) is favoured by SN2 mechanism

—→

89)

94)

Number of moles × V.F. =

V.F. = Change in O.N. of Mn

1×5=
Q = 482500 C
= 4.83 × 105 C

98)

Ecell =
when P1 < P2 then Ecell = +ve
and ΔG = –ve (spontaneous)

BOTANY

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169

102) NCERT Page # 199

103) NCERT Page # 195

104) NCERT Pg # 194

105) NCERT, Pg. # 169

106)

NCERT Page # 165-167

107)

NCERT XII Pg # 169, Fig 9.4

108) NCERT-XII, Page # 195 (11.2)

109)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169

110) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 213

111) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 195

112)

NCERT, Pg.# 199

113)

NCERT Pg.# 165, 166

114)

NCERT XII Pg # 173

115) NCERT XII Pg. # 168

116)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171

117)

NCERT XII Pg # 168

118)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171

119) NCERT Page # 201

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 202

121) NCERT Pg # 202

122)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 170

123) NCERT Pg. # 199-200

124) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 199 (Para 11.2.2)

125) NCERT XII Page No. 203

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 204, Para-1

127)

NCERT XII Pg # 170

128) NCERT Pg. # 197

129) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 165

130) NCERT-XII Pg. # 222

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 201

132) NCERT Pg. # 202, 203

133)

NCERT, Pg. # 174

134) NCERT, Pg. # 171

135) NCERT Pg # 195,198,199

136) NCERT Pg. # 169

137) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 195 (Para 11.1)

138)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 194

139)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 166, Fig.9.1

140) NCERT Page-199

141) NCERT, Pg.#199

142) NCERT-XII Pg. # 201

143)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 168

144) NCERT XII Pg. # 201, िहदी Pg. # 220

145) NCERT XII Pg # 201

146)
 XII NCERT Page No. 199

147) NCERT XII, Pg. # 199, 200 (E)

148)

NCERT Pg.# 169

149) NCERT Pg. # 204, 205

150)

NCERT XII Pg # 171

ZOOLOGY

159)

NCERT Pg # 281

161) NCERT Pg. # 282,18.3

164)

NCERT, Pg. # 279

166) NCERT XI, Pg. # 239 (E), 270-271 (H)

167) NCERT XI Pg. # 194

Serum does not clot because it does not contain clotting factors.

168)

NCERT Pg. # 193, 194

170) NCERT Pg. # 199

171)

NCERT Pg. No. 208

175)
NCERT - Pg. # 293

185)

NCERT–XI, Pg. # 299

186) NCERT XI Pg # 298, 299

187) NCERT Pg. # 294

188) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 294

190)

NCERT XI Page # 213

194) NCERT XI Pg.# 293 Para-5