STD.

9 ICSE
PHYSICS
CONTENTS
Page

1 Measurements and Experimentation............................................................................ 1-18

2 Motion in One Dimension..................................................................................19-40

3 Laws of Motion.........................................................................................41-56

4 Pressure in Fluids and Atmospheric Pressure.....................................57-75

5 Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes' Principle & Floatation......... 76-93

6 Heat & Energy................................................................................. 94-112

7 Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors..........................112-141

8 Propagation of Sound Waves.......................................142-152

9 Current Electricity.............................................................153-163

10 Magnetism ......................................................................................................... 164-174

Name : ________________________________________________________________________
(Surname) (Name)

Batch : ____________________________ Roll No._____________________________

School :
 Measurements and
1 Experimentation

Syllabus
(I) International system of units (the required S.I. units with correct symbols are
given at the end of this syllabus). Other commonly used system of units- FPS
and CGS.
(ii) Measurements using common instruments, Vernier callipers and micrometer screw
guage. Decreasing least count leads to an increase in accuracy; least count (L.C.)
of Verniercallipers and screw gauge, zero error (basic idea) (no numerical
problems on callipers and screw gauge). Simple pendulum; time period, frequency,
graph of length l vs. T² only; slope of the graph. Formula T=2√//g
(No derivation). Only simple numerical problems.

Important Definitions & Points to Remember

1. Least count is the smallest measurement that any instrument can measure accurately.
2. Least count of metre scale (used to measure length) is 1 mm = 0.1cm.

3. The least count of a Vernier Calliper

Value of the sinanest division of MS

= 0.01 cm
Total number of divisionson VS

4. Pitch of a Screw Gauge

Distance moved by thimble on MS

= 0.001 cm
Number of revolutions of thimble
5. Least count of a Screw Gauge

Pitch of screw

Total number of divisions on a circular head

6. Corrected reading of Vernier Callipers = Observed reading 1 Correction

7. When zero error is negative, correction = (VSD x LC)
(VSD = Vernier Scale Division, LC = Least Count)
8. When zero error is positive, correction = - (VSD x LC)
Observed diameter by screw gauge = MSD x Pitch + LC x CSD
reading on main scale LC x CSD
9. (CSD = Circular Scale Division, MSD = Main Scale Division)
2 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

10. Corrected diameter by screw gauge - Observed diameter + Correction

11. When zero error is negative, the correction is = + (circular scale division (CSD) x LC).
(LC Least Count).
12. When zero error is positive, the correction = (CSD) x LC)
1
13. One second = 86400 Part of a mean solar day.

14. Mean Solar Day: The average time taken by earth to revolve once about it's own axis
is mean solar day (MSD). Each MSD is divided into 24 parts. Each part is known as
an hour, which is further divided into minutes and seconds.

1 MSD = 24 x 60 x 60 = 86400 sec.

1 hr = 60 min = 3600 sec.
1 min 60 sec.

15. Decade: Period of 10 years.

16. Century Period of 100 years.
17. Time period of a simple pendulum: Time taken to complete one oscillation. It is
given by

T = 2л l
g

Where l = effective length

g = acceleration due to gravity

18. Time period of a pendulum changes with effective length and acceleration due to
gravity, i.e., it varies with place and with length of the string used.
19. Pendulum used in a clock is compound pendulum. 20. If there are two pendulums
with L & L respective lengths and T , & T₂ respective
time periods then

T L
=
T L

21. If the time period of a simple pendulum is T , & T₂ respectively and acceleration due
to gravity are g₁ & g₂ respectively then

T g
=
T g

22. Second's pendulum : A pendulum whose period of oscillation is 2 seconds is known as

second's pendulum.
Measurements and Experimentation 3

23. If a graph is plotted for time period and effective length then it is a straight line.

T or T

l l

24. Significant figures: They are the number of digits used to express a physical
quantity.
25. Percentage error or relative error: It is the ratio of the least count of the
instrument to the measured value. It can be expressed as :

Least Count of the instrument x 100%

Percentage error or relative error = measured value

26. Presentation of data in tabular from.

There are two types of tabular form

(i) Headed columns and numbered rows.
(ii) Headed rows and numbered column.

Theory Questions & Answers

Type 1 : Need of units for measurements
Q.1 Explain the necessity for measurement of physical quantities.
Ans. We can study the physical quantities only qualitatively by our senses. For example:
by eyes, we can see the colour of the things and can hear by ear. Further, by seeing
two rods, we can only assess which one of them is big. If the rods are of nearly
the same length, then it is very difficult to tell which one is bigger, without
measuring them. Thus, it is very essential to have the quantitative knowledge of
a physical quantity which can be gained only by its measurement.

Q. 2 What is a measure?
Ans. Measure is a reference standard for comparing physical quantities.

Q. 3 What is measurement?
Ans. Measurement is the process of comparison of the given physical quantity with the
known standard quantity of the same nature.

Q. 4 Define unit.
Ans. Unit is the quantity of a constant magnitude which is used to measure the
magnitudes of other quantities of the same nature.
4 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 5 What are the two parameters in which the result of a physical quantity is expressed?
The result of measurement of a physical quantity is expressed in terms of the
following two parameters:
Ans.

(i) The unit in which the quantity is being measured, and

(ii) The numerical value which expresses, how many times the above selected unit
is contained in the given quantity. Thus the magnitude of a physical quantity
is expressed as (numerical value)x (unit)

Type 2: Systems of Unit

Q. 6 State the type of units. The two types of units are:

Ans.
(i) Fundamental unit: It is independent of any other unit i.e. it can neither be changed nor
be related to any other fundamental unit.
(ii) Derived Unit: It is dependent on the fundamental unit, i.e., it can be expressed in terms
of fundamental units.
Q.7 What are systems of units which have been used for measurement of length,
mass and time?
Following systems have been used :
Ans.
(i) C.G.S. system (or French system) : in this system, the unit of length is
centimetre (cm), of mass is gram (g) and of time is second (s).
(ii) F.P.S system (or British system) : In this system, the unit of length is foot (ft), of mass
is pound (lb) and of time is second (s).
(iii)M.K.S. system (or metric system): In this system, the unit of length is metre (m), of
mass is kilogram (kg) and of time is second (s).

Q.8 Which is the most common international system used to measure units?
Ans. The S. I. system (Systeme Internationale d' Units) is the most common international
system used to measure units.

Q.9 What are the names of fundamental quantities? Give their units and symbols.
Ans. Fundamental quantities, units and symbols in S.I. system

Quantity Unit Symbol

Length metre m
Mass kilogram kg
Time second s
Temperature kelvin K
Luminous intensity candela cd
Electric current ampere A
Amount of substance mole mol
Angle radian rd
Solid angle steradian st-rd
Measurements and Experimentation 5

Q. 10 Fill in the blanks :

(i) 1 light year = ......... m (ii) 1 metre = ........A
(iii) 1 metre = ...micron(u) (iv) 1 micron = ..........A
(v) 1 litre = ..... cm3 (vi) 1 m3 =...........ml
(vii) 1 gm = .... kg (viii) 1 mg = ........ kg
(ix) 1 quintal = .... kg (x) 1 amu = ......... kg
(xi) 1 nanosecond = ..... sec (xii) l u sec = ....... sec
(xiii) 1 mean solar day = ..... sec (xiv) 1 year = ....... sec

0
Ans. (i) 9.46 x 10
15
(ii) 1010 A
0
6
(iii) 10 μ (iv) 104 A
6
(v) 103 cm³ (vi) 10 ml
-6
(vii) 10-3 kg (viii) 10 kg
-27
(ix) 102 kg (x) 1.66 x 10 kg
-9
(xi) 10 sec (xii) 10-6 sec
(xiii) 86400 sec (xiv) 3.1536 x 10 7 sec

Q. 11 Express the day in terms of minute and second.

Ans. 1 day = 24 hrs
1 day = 24 x 60 min. = 1440 min
( 1 Hr = 60 min.. and 1 min. = 60 sec)
1 day = 1440 x 60sec. = 86400 sec

Q. 12 Define the following terms:

(i) Ampere (ii) Candela (iii) Mole (iv) Kelvin
Ans. (i) Ampere (A) : One ampere is defined as the current which when flowing through
two parallel and straight wires placed in vacuum at a distance of 1 meter apart,
-7
produces a force of 2 x 10 newton per meter length between the wires.
th
(ii) Candela (Cd): It is the unit of luminous intensity. It is defined as 1/60 of
the luminous intensity per square centimetre of the standard light source, when
light source is at the temperature of melting point of platinum

(iii) Mole (Mole) : It is the amount of the substance of a system which contains as
many elementary entities as the number of atoms in 0.012 kilograms of C-12
atom.
(iv) Kelvin (K) : It is the unit of temperature. 1 Kelvin is defined as the 1/100th
part of the difference in temperature of the melting point of ice and the boiling
point of water at normal atmospheric pressure.
.
Q. 13 Name the two parts of measurement and state the significance of each.
Ans. A measurement consists of two parts:
(1) The unit in which the quantity is to be measured.
(ii) The numerical value which expresses how many times the above selected unit.
is contained in the given quantity
6 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.14 Why is a standard unit of measurement necessary?

Ans. A standard unit of measurement is necessary so that it does not vary from person to
person and is understood by everyone.
Q.15 State the unit you would select to measure:
(i) distance between two cities.
(ii) distance between the two ends of a pencil.
(iii)the volume of milk contained in a jug.
(iv) the volume of petrol filled in the tank of a car.
(v) the weight of a gold ring.
(vi) the weight of lorry.
Ans. (I) Kilometre (km)
(ii) Centimetre (cm)
(iii) Cubic metre (m³)
(iv) Litre (l)
(v) Milligram (mg)
(vi) Ton
Q.16 What physical quantity does each of the following units measure?
(I) gram (ii) metre (iii) centimetre
(iv) kilogram (v) second.
Ans. (i) Mass (ii) Length (iii) Length (iv) Mass (v) Time.

Q.17 State or define the following terms:

(i) Solar day (ii) Mean solar day (iii) Year (iv) Leap year.
Ans. (i) Solar day The time taken by the earth to complete one rotation about its. own axis
is called solar day.It has been found that the distance of the earth from the sun changes,
as it revolves around sun. This in turn, changes the length of solar day slightly.
(ii) Mean solar day: The average of varying solar days, when the earth completes one
revolution around the sun is called mean solar day.
(iii) Year The time in which the earth completes one complete revolution around sun
is called a year.

One year is equal to 365 1 days.

4

(iv) Leap Year: A leap year is the year in which the month of February is of 29 days.
... 1 leap year = 366 days.
Q18 Define time..
Ans. The interval between two events is called time.
 7
Measurements and Experimentation

Q.19 What is the difference between "Mean Solar Day" and "Day"? '
Ans. Day' is the time duration which the earth takes in completing one rotation on its
axis while "Mean solar day" is the average time of revolution taken to complete
one round about its own axis.

Q.20 State four characteristics of a standard unit

.Ans. (i) The value of unit should not change with space and time.
(ii) It should be of a convenient size.
(iii) It should be possible to define, without any doubt or ambiguity.
(iv) It should be easily reproducible.

Q.21 Define the following term:

(i) Astronomical unit (A.U)
(ii) Light year (ly)
(iii) Parsec

Ans. (I) Astronomical unit (A.U) : One astronomical unit is equal to the mean distance
11
between the Earth and the Sun. 1 A.U. = 1.496 x 10 metre.
(ii) Light year (1): A light year is the distance travelled by light in vacuum in
one year. 1 light year = 9.46x10'5m.
(iii) Parsec: One parsec is the distance from where the semi-major axis of orbit
of earth subtends an angle of 1" at the centre of Sun. One parsec is 3.26 times
the light year.

Type 3 : Measurements Using Common Instruments.

Q.22 Explain the meaning of the term least count of an instrument by taking a
suitable example?
Ans. The least count of an instrument is the smallest measurement that can be taken
accurately with it.
e.g. The least count of a stop watch is 0.5 second if there are 10 divisions between.
0 and 5s.

Q.23 What do you understand by the least count of the Vernier Calliper?
Ans. The least count or the vernier constant of the instrument is the difference in the
value of one main scale division and the value of one vernier scale division. This
is the least distance which is measured accurately with the help of a vernier. This
is called the least count of the Vernier.
8 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.24 Draw a neat diagram of Vernier Callipers and name the main parts.
Ans. The main parts of the Vernier Callipers are:
INSIDE JAWS

(I) Main scale SCREW

S MAIN SCALE

(ii) Vernier scale T

FIXED JAW
3 4 10 cm
0 2
(iii) External Jaws (J, and J₂)
VERNIER SCALE
-OBJECT
(iv) Internal jaws MOVABLE JAW
J J
(v) Tail. OUTSIDE JAWS-

Q:25 Describe in steps, how would you use a vernier calliper to measure the length of a
small rod?
Ans. To measure the length of an object with the help of a vernier calliper following
procedure is adopted.

(i) Find the least count and zero error of the vernier.
(ii) Fix the object to be measured between the jaws J, and J.
(iii) Note the main scale reading.
(iv) Note the vernier division which coincides with any divisions of the main scale.
Multiply this number of vernier division with the least count. This is the vernier
scale reading.
(v) Add the main scale and vernier scale readings. From this addition, subtract
the zero error with its proper sign to obtain the correct measurement of the
given object.
(vi) Mathematically observed reading = M.S.R+ V.S.R + Zero Error.

Q.26 State the formula for calculating observed length in the following cases:
(i) Number of vernier scale divisions coinciding with main scale and the number of
divisions of main scale on the left hand side of zero of vernier are known.
(ii) The reading of main scale and the number of vernier scale divisions conciding
with main scale are known.

Ans. (i) Observed length = Pitch x Main scale divisions

+ Least count x Vernier scale reading.

(ii) Observed length = Main scale reading + Least count x Vernier scale reading.

Q.27 Draw a neat diagram of Screw guage and name its different parts.
Ans. The various parts of a screw gauge are: MAIN SCALE -CIRCULAR SCALE
SCREW
STUD NUT SLEEVE

(I) Circular scale (ii) Main scale N

0 5
15
10
5
0
A B
(iii) Stud (iv) Screw SPINDLE BASE HOLLOW RATCHET
LINE CYLINDER
(v) U frame (vi) Ratchet (Thimble)
SCREW

(vii) Hollow cylinder (viii) Lock Nut

U-FRAME
PITCH
 9
Measurements and Experimentation

Q.28 Describe the procedure to measure the diameter of a wire with the help of
a screw gauge.
Ans. Measurement of diameter of wire by screw gauge.
(I) Calculate the least count of screw gauge.
(ii) Calculate the zero error, if any.
(iii) Place the given wire, in between stud A and movable screw B and turn the
ratchet in clockwise direction, till the ratchet becomes free.
(iv) Note the main scale reading from the left of the zero of circular scale.
(v) Note the circular scale reading, by finding the number of divisions on circular
scale, which coincide with base line.
(vi) Multiply the circular scale reading with least count.
(vii) Add circular scale reading to the main scale reading, so as to obtain observed
reading.
(viii)To the observed reading add or subtract zero error, so as to correct the
measurement of diameter.
(ix) Mathematically corrected diameter M.S.R+ C.S.R+ Zero Error.

Q.29 What is the function of "ratchet" in screw gauge?

Ans. To avoid excessive tightening or loosening of experimental body between stud and
screw, ratchet is used.
When the experimental body is nearly held between screw and stud the ratchet is
used for further tightening and when the stage of exact touching comes then the
ratchet produces sound and moves on it's own place
Q.30 What is backlash error in screw gauge?
Ans. This error occurs due to wear and tear of screw. It is seen, that on reversing the
direction of rotation of the thimble, the tip of the screw does not start moving in
the opposite direction immediately but remains stationary for, a part of rotation.
This is called backlash error.
Q.31 What do you understand by the following terms as applied to micrometre
. screw gauge?
(i) Sleeve cylinder (ii) Sleeve scale (iii) Thimble
(iv) Thimble scale (v) Base line.
Ans. (I) Sleeve cylinder: The hollow cylinder attached to nat is called sleeve cylinder.
The spindle of the screw passes through this cylinder.
(ii) Sleeve scale: The main scale (marked in mm) on the sleeve cylinder is called
Sleeve scale.
(iii) Thimble The hollow cylinder connected to screw which revolves along with
the screw is called thimble.
(iv) Thimble scale: The circular scale marked on the thimble is called thimble
scale.
(v) Base line: A straight line drawn parallel to the axis of sleeve cylinder and
graduated in mm is called base line.
10 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.32 For what range of measurement, micrometre screw gauge is used?

-
Ans. It can measure upto one micron, i.e., 10 m.
Q.33 Name the instrument which can accurately measure the following:
(I) Diameter of a pin
(ii) Diameter of pencil
(iii) Internal diameter of the neck of the bottle
(iv) Thickness of a blade.
Ans. (I) Screw gauge
(ii) Screw gauge
(iii) Vernier Calliper
(iv) Screw gauge

Q.34 What are the precautions that must be taken while measuring the length with
a metre scale?

Ans. While measuring the length of an object with a metre scale, the following three
precautions should be observed:
(i) Generally, the end of the metre scale marked '0' is damaged due to wear and
tear. In such a case, one should therefore measure the length from the
graduation other than '0'. The correct length is then obtained by subtracting
the marking observed at one end from that observed at the other end.
(ii) The eye must be kept vertically above the end of the object and the corresponding
graduation in the line of sight should be read. This avoids the parallax error arising
due to the thickness of scale.
(iii) In case, the end of the object lies between the two small divisions of the scale,
the correct length is reported by noting the marking nearer to the end of object.

Q.35 How is correct reading obtained from observed reading?

Ans. To obtain correct reading, observations are taken and zero error is calculated. This
error with proper sign is subtracted from observed reading. The result thus obtained is
the correct reading.
Correct reading = Observed reading - Zero error with appropriate sign

Q.36 What is a micrometre?

Ans. Micrometre is an instrument which is used when measurement to high degree of
accuracy is required. It works on the principle of screw. It's least count is 0.001
mm i.e., it can measure correctly upto 10-6 m. It consists of a main scale and a
circular scale.
 11
Measurements and Experimentation

Q.37 Calculate the least count of micrometre.

Ans. Least count of micrometre,
Pitch of the micrometre
L.C. = Total number of divisions on its circular scale
A micrometre is designed to have 20 divisions in 1 cm on main scale and 500
divisions on its circular scale. Thus the value of one division on main scale is 1/20
cm = 0.05 cm or 0.5 mm. The micrometre moves 1 division along the main scale in
one complete rotation of circular scale so its pitch is 0.5 mm and the least count

0.5m m
is 500 = 0.001 mm or 10-6 m.

Q.38 Name the device used to measure short intervals.

Ans. To measure short time intervals of the order of few seconds we use stop watch
and stop clock.

Q.39 Which part amongst external jaws, internal jaws and tail is used to measure:
(i) internal length of hollow cylinder?
(ii) internal diameter of hollow cylinder?
(iii) diameter of solid sphere?
Ans. (i) Tail is used for measuring internal length of hollow cylinder.
(ii) Internal jaws are used for measuring internal diameter of hollow cylinder.
(i) External jaws are used for measuring the diameter of sphere.

Type 4 Simple Pendulum

Q.40 Define simple pendulum.

Ans. Simple pendulum is a heavy point mass, suspended from a rigid support by massless
and inextensible string. This is an ideal pendulum.
S
SUPPORT

NG
TRI
BOB S

A B
O
12 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.41 What kind of pendulum is used in a clock? Define it.

Ans. In a clock, the pendulum used is a compound pendulum. It can be defined as a
body which can oscillate about a horizontal axis passing through it.

Q.42 Define the terms: Oscillation, Time period, Frequency of oscillation,

Amplitude, Effective length.
Ans. Oscillation: One complete to and fro motion of the pendulum is called an oscillation.
Time period: This is the time taken to complete one oscillation. calculated by dividing
1
total time taken by total number of oscillations. It can be Frequency of oscillation: It
T
is the number of oscillations made in one second. Its unit is hertz (Hz) or per second.
The time period and frequency are inversely proportional to each other. F =

Amplitude: The maximum displacement of the pendulum from its mean position on
either side is called the amplitude of oscillation.
Effective length: This is the distance between the centre of gravity of bob and the
point of suspension.

Q.43 What is the mean or equilibrium position?

Ans. The vertical position of the pendulum in which amplitude of oscillation is zero, is
known as equilibrium position.

Q.44 State scientific reason :

(i) Pendulum clock runs faster in winter and runs slower in summer.
(ii) Pendulum clock runs slow when taken either to a mountain or to a mine.

Ans. (I) Pendulum clock runs faster in winter because in winter length of pendulum is
shortened and so time period is decreased i.e. it moves faster. But in summer,
length increases, hence time period decreases and thus pendulum runs slower.
(ii) When we go on the top of a mountain or in a mine there is a decrease in the value
of 'g' hence the period of oscillation increases and so the pendulum
clock runs slow.

Q.45 Which of the following do not affect time period of a pendulum?

(i) Mass of the bob
(ii) Size of the bob
(iii) Effective length of pendulum
(iv) Amplitude
(v) Acceleration due to gravity.

Ans. Mass of the bob, size of the bob and amplitude do not affect the time period of simple
pendulum.
 13
Measurements and Experimentation

Q.46 How the time period of a pendulum is affected in the following cases? If
time period is not affected, write "no change".
(i) Mass of the bob is doubled
(ii) Amplitude of swing is doubled.
(iii) Acceleration due to gravity increases
(iv) The length of pendulum is halved
(v) Pendulum is set up deep in a mine.
(vi) Pendulum is set up at a height 10 km above the sea level.
(i) No change
(ii) No change
(iii) The time period decreases with the increase in acceleration due to gravity.
(iv) The time period decreases with the decrease in length.
(vi) The time period increases, because deep inside the mine acceleration due to
gravity decreases.
(vi) The time period increases, because 10 km up the acceleration due to gravity
decreases.

Q.47 A person standing on an oscillating swing, sits down. How does the time
period of a swing get affected? What happens to its frequency of
oscillation?
Ans The time period increases. It is because the centre of gravity is lowered in sitting
position. This in turn increases effective length and hence the time period. The
1
frequency of oscillation decreases because T f
ȣ

Q.48 A simple pendulum has a hollow bob, such that its time period is T. How
the time period of pendulum is affected, if:
(i) 1/4 of the bob is filled with mercury?
(ii) 3/4 of the bob is filled with mercury?
(iii) The bob is completely filled with mercury?
Ans (I) The time period increases because the 1/4 filling mercury lowers centre of
gravity. This in turn increases effective length and hence time period.
(ii) The time period will be more than what it was initially, because when bob is
3/4 filled with mercury, the C.G. will be lower than its initial value and hence
the effective length is more.
(iii) The time period will not change, because C.G. and hence effective length does
not change.
14 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.49 Mention the factors which influence the period of oscillation.

Ans. The factors which effect time period of a pendulum are as follows:
(i) The period of oscillation is directly proportional to the square root of its effective
length.

T α l i.e., with the decrease of effective length, time period also decreases
and vice versa.
1
(ii) T α g i.e., with the decrease in the value of g, T increases and vice versa.
(iii) Time period is independent of the mass and material of the bob.
(iv) Time period does not depend on the amplitude of oscillation, but the effective
length shouldn't be very large.

Q.50 Two simple pendulums A and B have length 1.0 m and 2.0 m respectively at a certain
place. Which pendulum will make more oscillations in 1 minute?
Explain your answer.

Ans. Τ α l
time period of B is more (twice) than that of A. Hence A will make more
oscillations (twice) in a given time than B.
Q.51 (i) How does the time period (T) of a simple pendulum depends on its length ( l )?
(ii) Draw a graph showing the variation of T with l.
(iii) How will you use this graph to determine the value of acceleration due to gravity?

Ans. (I) T is directly proportional to l.

P
a

T
b R
Q

X
d c
l

PR
Slope = = ab
QR cd

Slope = constant at a given place = 4π

g
where g is acceleration due to gravity at that place.
4π
g = slope of T versus l graph g
 15
Measurements and Experimentation

Q.52 Draw a graph of T against √ for a simple pendulum to show the

dependence of its time period T on its length 1.

Ans.

l
Q.53 Define second's pendulum.
Ans. Second's Pendulum: A pendulum which has a period of oscillation of two seconds
is known as second's pendulum.
It's length is 1 m if acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/sec²

Q.54 State the numerical value of frequency of oscillation of second's pendulum.

Does it depend upon amplitude of oscillation?
Ans. Numerical value of frequency of oscillation 1 s-1 = 0.5 s¹
2
It does not depend upon amplitude.

Formulae
1
1 Time =
frequency

l
2. Time period for simple pendulum (T) = 2
g
where l = length of pendulum
g = acceleration due to gravity.

Solved Numericals
Type 1:Units-basics and use
1. The size of a particle is 6.4 μ. Express it in metre.

Solution :
Given : size of particle = 6.4 μ
1μ = 10m
... -6
size of particle = 6.4 x 10 m
16 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

2. The wavelength of light of a particular colour is 6500 A°. Express it in nanometres

and metres.
Solution :
(I) The wavelength of light in nanometres = 650 nm.
(ii) The wavelength of light in metres = 6.5 x 10-

Type 2 International System of Units

3. Name the physical quantities which are measured in the following units.
(i) 1 year = (ii) ns =
(iii) nm = (iv) a.m.u. =

Solution :

(i) 1 year distance

(ii) ns = time
(iii) nm = distance
(iv) a.m.u. mass

4. Complete the following:

(i) 1g = (ii) 1 mg =
(iii) 1 quintal= (iv) 1 a.m.u. =

Solution:
(i) 1g = 10- kg
-6
(ii) 1 mg = 10 kg
(iii) 1 quintal = 100 kg
-27
(iv) 1 a.m.u. = 1.655 x 10 kg

Type 3: Simple Pendulum

5. Compare the time periods of a simple pendulum at places where g = 9.8 ms-²
-2
and 4.36 ms respectively.
.
Solution :

Since
T oc 1 ... T = g
g T g
Given : g₁ = 9.8 ms-2, g = 4.36 ms -
.
... T = . 1
= 1.5 i.e. T : T = 1 : 1.5 = 2 : 3
T
 17
Measurements and Experimentation

6. Calculate the length of a seconds pendulum at a place where g = 9.8 ms-

2.

Solution ;
For second's pendulum T = 2.0 s

... l = gT
2
l
From the relation Т = 2л g 2
4л
.. l = 9.8×(2.0)2
4x (3.14) = 0.994 m
2

Numericals

Type 1 : International System of Units

1. Complete the following:

7 8
(I) 1 light year = m
(ii) 1 m = A°
0 Vemier Scale
(iii) 1m = μ (micron)
(iv) 1 micron = A°
(v) 1 Fermi = m

Type 2: Simple Pendulum

2. Calculate the length of second's pendulum on the surface of moon, when acceleration
due to gravity on moon is 1.63 ms 2.
3. The time periods of two pendulums is 1.44 s and 0.36 s respectively. Calculate the
ratio of their lengths.
4. How much time does the bob of a second's pendulum take to move from one extreme
to the other extreme of its oscillation?
5. A pendulum completes 2 oscillations in 5s.

(a) What is its time period?

-2
(b) If g = 9.8 ms , find its length.

ANSWERS (NUMERICALS)

1. (i) 9.46 x 1015 (ii) 1010 (iii) 106 (iv) 104 (v) 10-15
2. 0.165 m 3. 16 : 1
4. 1 s 5. (i) 2.5 s (ii) 1.55 m
18 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 What is meant by measurement?
Q.2 What are the three requirements for selecting a unit of a physical quantity.
Q.3 State three uses of a vernier callipers.
Q.4 What is backlash error? Why is it caused? How is it avoided?
Q.5 Draw a neat labelled diagram of a screw gauge.
Q.6 Draw a neat diagram of a simple pendulum. Show on it the effecitve length of the
pendulum and its one oscillation.
Q.7 How does the time period (T) of a simple pendulum depends on its length (l)?
Draw a graph showing the variation of T with l. How will you use this graph to
determine the value of g (acceleration due to gravity)?
Q.8 Calculate the time period of a simple pendulum of length 1.44 m, on the surface
of moon. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon is of the 1
-2
acceleration due to gravity on earth. [g = 9.8 ms ]. 6
Q.9 Length of a second's pendulum is 100 cm. Find the length of another pendulum
whose time period is 2.4 s.
Q.10 The length of two pendulums is 110 cm and 27.5 cm. Calculate the ratio of their
time periods.
.
 2 Motion in One Dimension

Syllabus
Scalar and vector quantities.
Distance, Speed, Velocity, Acceleration.
Graphs of distance time and speed - time
Equations of uniformly accelerated motion with derivations.
Examples of Scalar and vector quantities only, rest and motion in one dimension;
distance and displacement; speed and velocity; acceleration and retardation;
distance-time and velocity-time graphs; meaning of slope of the graphs; [Non-
uniform acceleration excluded].
Equations to be derived: v = u + at;
S = ut + 1 fate, ; S = 1 (u+v)t; v2 u² + 2aS
[Equation for Sth is not included]

Theory Questions & Answers

Type 1 Scalar and Vector quantities.

Q. 1 What are physical quantities?

Ans. The quantities which we can measure are called the physical quantities.
Q. 2 What are scalar quantities? Give examples.
Ans. Scalar quantities or scalars are the physical quantities which are expressed only by
their magnitude. Examples: Mass, length, time, distance, density, volume, speed,
temperature, potential (gravitational, megnetic and electric), work, energy, power,
pressure, quantity of heat, specific heat, charge, electric power, resistance.
Q. 3 What are vector quantities? Give examples.
Ans Vector quantities or vectors are physical quantities that require the magnitude as
we as the direction to express them, then only their meaning is complete.
Examples Displacement, velocity, acceleation, momentum, force, moment of a force
(or torque), impulse, weight, temperature gradient, electric field, magnetic field,
dipole moment, etc..
Q. 4 What two parameters are needed to express a scalar quantity?
Ans. We need the following two parameters to express a scalar quantity completely :
(i) Unit in which the quantity is being measured, and
(ii) The numerical value of the qauntity.
20 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 5 What three parameters are required to express a vector quantity?

Ans. The following three parameters are required to express a vector quantity completely:
(i) Unit,
(ii) Numerical value of the quantity and
(iii) Direction.

Q. 6 What does negative sign of a vector imply?

Ans. The negative sign with a vector quantity implies the reverse or opposite direction.

Q. 7 How is a vector quantity represented?

Ans. A vector quantity is generally written by its English letter bearing an arrow on it or
by the bold English letter. For example, velocity is written as v or v, acceleration by à
or a, force by For F. Obviously the forces F and -F are in opposite directions.

Q. 8 What is a point particle?

Ans. For a moving body, if the distance travelled in a certain time interval is much large as
compared to the size of the body, the body can be assumed to be a point particle.

Q. 9 What is one dimensional motion or rectilinear motion?

Ans. When a body moves along a straight line path, its motion is said to be one dimensional
motion. It is also called motion in a straight line or rectilinear motion. For example,
the motion of a train on a straight track, a stone falling down vertically, a car moving
on a long and straight road etc., are one dimensional or rectilinear motions.

Q.10 Distinguish between scalars & vectors.

Ans.
Scalars Vectors

(I) Scalars have only magnitude Vectors have magnitude as well as

direction.

(ii) Scalar quantities can be added, Vector quantities can be added or

subtracted, multiplied and divided subtracted by vector addition
by the simple arithemetic methods. methods

Type 2: Distance, Speed and Acceleration

Q.11 When is a body said to be at rest?

Ans. A body is said to be at rest if it does not change its position with respect to its
immediate surroundings.
Eg. A chair lying in a room is in the state of rest, because it does not change its
position with respect to the surroundings of the room.

Q.12 When is a body said to be in motion?

Ans. A body is said to be in motion if it changes its position with respect to its immediate
surroundings.
Eg. A car changing its position with respect to trees, houses etc, is in the of motion.state
 21
Measurements and Experimentation

Q. 13 Define distance. State its unit.

Ans. The length of the path travelled by a body.in certain interval of time is called the
distance travelled by the body.
It is a scalar quantity.
Unit The S.I. unit of distance is metre (m) and C.G.S. unit is cm.
Q. 14 Define displacement. State its unit.
Ans. The shortest distance between the initial and the final position of a body is called
the displacement.
It is a vector quantity. It is represented by the symbol S.

Unit The S. I. unit of displacement is metre (m) and C.G.S. unit is cm.
Q. 15 When is the magnitude of displacement equal to the distance?
Ans. The magnitude of displacement is equal to the distance when the motion is in one
direction along the same straight line.
Q. 16 Define speed. State its units. Define the different types of speed.
Ans. The speed of a body is the rate of distance travelled with time.
The S.I. unit of speed is ms¹, the C.G.S. unit is cms¹.
There are four types of speed:
(i) Uniform speed: If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time
then it is said to be moving with uniform speed.
Eg. A rotating Pan, a rocket moving in space etc have uniform speeds.
(ii) Variable speed: If a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time
then it is said to attain non-uniform speed or variable speed.
Eg. A train starting from a station, a dog chasing a cat etc.
(iii) Instantaneous speed: If a body is moving with continuous changes in speed,
then its speed at any instant is known as instantaneous speed.
Eg. Speedometer of a moving automobile measures instantaneous speed.
(iv) Average speed: The ratio of total distance travelled by the body to the total
time taken is called the average speed.
Total distance travelled
Average speed =
Total time taken
.
Q. 17 Define Velocity. State its unit.
Ans. The velocity of a body is the distance travelled by the body in a specified direction
in a unit time interval.
It is a vector quantity. It is represented by the symbol u or v.
Unit The S. I. unit is m/s and the C.G.S. unit is cm/s.
22 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.18 Define the different types of velocity.

Ans. The different types of velocity are:
(i) Uniform Velocity: If a body travels equal distances in equal intervals of time
along a particular direction, the body is said to be moving with a uniform velocity.
(ii) Non-uniform or variable velocity: If a body moves unequal distances in a
particular direction in equal intervals of time or it moves equal distances in equal
intervals of time, but its direction of motion changes then the velocity of the body
is said to be variable or non-uniform.
(iii) Instantaneous velocity: For a body moving with variable velocity, the velocity of
the body at any instant is called the instantaneous velocity.
(iv) Average velocity : If the velocity of a body moving in a particular direction
changes with time, the ratio of displacement to the time taken in entire
journey is called its average velocity. Thus,
Displacement
Average velocity = Total time taken

Q.19 Give an example of motion in which average speed is not zero, but the average
velocity is zero.
Ans. If Virat starts from his home goes to school and back home after a certain time,
then the displacement is zero, the average velocity is zero, but the total distance
travelled is not zero and therefore, the average speed is not zero.

Q.20 What do you understand by acceleration and retardation ?

Ans. The rate of change of velocity with time is known as acceleration. While negative rate
of change of velocity with time is called negative acceleration or retardation.Generally
while moving, bodies change their velocity either in magnitude or in direction or in
both. If this variable velocity increases with time then it is acceleration and if it
decreases then it is retardation.In other words "negative acceleration is called
retardation".
SI unit of acceleration - m/s²
C.G.S. unit of acceleration - cm/s

Q.21 Define :
(I) Uniform acceleration.
(ii) Variable acceleration.
(iii) Acceleration due to gravity.

Ans. (i) Uniform acceleration: The acceleration is said to be uniform when equal changes
in velocity takes place in equal intervals of time. The motion of a body under
gravity, E.g. free fall of a body is an example of uniformly accelerated motion.
(ii) Variable acceleration: If changes in velocity are not same in same intervals of time,
the acceleration is said to be variable. The motion of a vehicle on a crowded
(or hilly) road is with variable acceleration.
 23
Measurements and Experimentation
(iii) Acceleration due to gravity: The acceleration of a freely falling body, under
the action of gravity is called acceleration due to gravity.

Its value changes from place to place and is constant at a given place. The
average value of 'g' is 9.8 msec2 or 980 cmsec² in S.I. and C.G.S. system
respectively.
Q. 22 If a stone and a pen are dropped simultaneously from the terrace of a
building, which of the two will reach the ground first?
Ans. As acceleration due to gravity acting on both are same, both will reach the ground
simultaneously.
Q. 23 Distinguish between distance and displacement.
Ans.
Distance Displacement

(I) It is the length of path traversed by It is the distance travelled by the object in a specified
direction in a certain time (i.e., it is the distance between
e object in a certain time. the final and intial positions).
(ii) It is a scalar quantity It is a vector quantity
Ans.
(iii) It depends on the path followed It does not depend on the path followed by the
by the object object.
(iv) It is always positive It can be positive, negative or zero

It can be more than or equal to Its magnitude can be less than or equal
(v)
Its magnitude of displacement. to the distance.
Q. 24 Distinguish between Speed and Velocity.

Speed Velocity
(I) The distance travelled by a moving The distance travelled by a moving object
object in one second is called its in one second in a particular direction
speed. is called its velocity.
(ii) It is a scalar quantity. It is a vector quantity.
(iii) Speed is always positive. Velocity can be positive, negative or zero.

Type 3 Graphical Representation of Linear Motion

Q.25 Draw the Displacement Time graphs for the following cases :
-
(i) When a body is stationary.
(ii) When a body is moving with uniform velocity.
(iii)When a body is moving with variable velocity.
(iv) When a body moves with constant acceleration or a freely falling body.
24 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Ans. Y Y B

S S
(I) B (ii)
A

X X
0 0

Y B Y B

S S
(iii) (iv)

X
X 0 t
0 t

Q.26 Draw the velocity-time graph for the following cases :

(i) If the body is in motion with uniform velocity.
(ii) If the body is in motion and acceleration is zero.
(iii) Moving body has uniform acceleration.
(iv) If initially the body is moving with some uniform velocity and then it accelerates.
(v) Initially the body is moving with some velocity and then attains uniform
retardation.

Ans. Y Y

v v
(I) A B (ii) A B

X X
0 t 0 t

Y Y B

v
(iii) A (iv) v
A

X X
0 t 0 t
Y

A
(iv) v

X
0 t
Motion in One Dimension 25
Q. 27 Show how the velocity time graph can be used to find:
(i) the acceleration of a body
(ii) the distance travelled by the body in a given time and
(iii)the displacement of the body in a given time.

Ans. (I) Acceleration = Slope of v-t graphv

Retardation Slope of v-t graph

(ii) Distance travelled by the body in given time

= Area of triangle formed by straight line of v-t graph and time axis.
(iii) Displacement of the body in the given time
= the area enclosed between inthe v-t graph and time axis.

Q. 28 The figure given below shows the velocity time graph for two objects A and
B moving in same direction. Which object has the greater acceleration ?
Give reason to your answer.
Y
B

Velocity

X
Time
Ans. Object B has greater acceleration than A. This is because slope of line B is more
than that of line A. S

Q. 29 For a freely falling body, draw

(i) Acceleration time graph
(ii) Velocity time graph and
(iii) Displacement time graph.

Ans. (I)
acceleration (m/s)²

time
26 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(ii)
Velocity (ms )
-1

time

(iii)
Velocity (ms )
-1

time
Q.30 A body falls freely from a certain height. Show graphically the relation
between the distance travelled and square of time. How will you determine
g from this graph ?
Ans. For a freely falling body, the displacement is directly proportional to the square of
time (S α t²)

t²

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = Twice the value of slope of above graph

Q.31 Explain, why velocity-time graph can never be a straight line parallel to velocity axis ?
Ans. This is not possible because it would mean that velocity is increasing without increase
in time i.e., acceleration is infinite and infinite acceleration is practically impossible.
Motion in One Dimension 27

Q.32 Give an example of a body which covers a certain distance but its
displacement is zero.
Ans. When a body moves along a circular path, such that it reaches the starting point
after a certain interval of time, it covers a distance equal to the circumference of
circular path, but its displacement is zero, because the distance between initial and
final position of body is zero.

Q.33 Give an example of an accelerated body, moving with uniform speed. Explain
your answer.
Ans. A dust particle which lies on the circumference of a revolving rim of a bicycle has
a uniform speed. However, as the direction of motion of particle continuously
changes, it has a variable velocity and hence has an acceleration.

Type 4: Equations of Motion

Q. 34 Derive the following equations for a uniformly accelerated motion.
1
(I) v = u + at (ii) S = ut + 2 at² (iii) v² = u² + 2as

Ans. (i) Acceleration (a) = Slope of the line AB

EB AC OC - OA v-u
a = AE = OD = OD = t ; at = v - u

v = u + at
(ii) The distance S travelled in time t = area of trapezium OABD

1 1
S = (OA+DB) x OD; S = (u + v) x t
2 2
Y
But from equation, v = u + at
VELOCITY (ms-1)

C B
v
1 1
S = (u+u+at) x t = (2u+at) x t
2 2
u E
1 2 A
S = ut + at D X
2 0 t
TIME (s)-

(iii) The distance S covered in time t, from equation, S = 1 (u + v)t

2

From equation, t = v- u
a

...S = 12 (u+v)[ v-au [ = 12[ V -a u [

2 2

2aS = v² - u²
... v² = u² + 2aS
28 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.35 Does the value of acceleration due to gravity remains the same at all places of earth?
Explain your answer.
Ans. No, value of acceleration due to gravity changes from place to place. It is maximum
at poles and decreases, if the body is moved towards equator.

Q.36 What is the relation between distance and time, when :

(i) body is moving with uniform velocity?
(ii) body is moving with variable velocity ?

Ans. (i) The distance covered by a body is directly proportional to time.

(ii) The distance covered by a body is not directly proportional to time.

Formulae
Displacement
1. Average velocity =
Total time taken
5
2.(i) 1 km/hr = 18 m/s
18
(ii) 1 m/s = 5 km/hr
Change in velocity
3.Acceleration =
Time taken
4. V = u+ at

5. S = ut + 1 at²
2
6. v = u² + 2as
1
7. S= (u+v)t
2

Solved Numericals

Type 1 Distance, Speed and Acceleration

1. Find the distance covered by a train in 22 minutes if it travels with uniform speed of
72 km/hr.
Solution : Given: u 72 km/hr = 72 x 5 = 20 m/s.
18
5
t = 2½ min = × 60 = 150 s
2
Distance = Speed x time = 20 ms-¹ x 150 s = 3000 m. = 3 km.
Motion in One Dimension 29

2. Express 15 ms¹ in kmh¹.

Solution :
-¹ 1000 -1
15 ms = x x kmh
3600
3600
... x= 15 x 1000 = 15 ms = 54 kmh
-¹ -¹

3. A car starting from rest acquires a velocity 180 ms in 0.05 h. Find the acceleration.

Solution
0.05 h = 0.05 x 60 x 60 sec. = 180 sec.

v 180 -2
Acceleration t = 180 = 1ms

4. An athlete runs around a circular path of circumference 360 m in 1 minute

and reaches the starting point. Calculate :
(i) distance covered by the athlete
(ii) displacement
(iii) average speed
(iv) average velocity.
:
Solution
(I) Distance covered = Length of path travelled along circumference
= 360 m

(ii) Displacement = zero

It is because the athelete reaches back at the initial point.

s 360m
(iii) Average speed = t = = 6 ms-¹
60s

(iv) Average velocity = Displacement = 0 = zero

Time 60 s

5. A train takes 80 minutes to travel from station P to Q and 40 minutes to

return from Q to P. If the distance between P to Q is 60 km, calculate:
(i) average speed
(ii) average velocity of train
Solution :
Total distance between P and Q on both ways journey
= 2 x 60 = 120 km.
Total time for journey = (40+ 80): = 120 min = 2 hr.
30 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(I) Average speed = Total Distance 120

= = 60 km / hr
Total Time 2

(ii) Average velocity = Displacement 0 = zero

=
Time 2 hr

6. The Shatabadi Express covers a distance of 450 km in 5 hours between Amritsar and
Delhi. What is average speed of train in :
-¹ -¹
(i) kmhr (ii) ms ?

Solution :
Distance between Amritsar and Delhi (s) = 450 km.
Time for journey (t) = 5 hr
s 450 km -¹
(I) ... Speed of train =
t = 5 hr = 90 km hr

. -¹ 5 -¹
(ii) .. Speed of train in ms = 90 x 18 ms = 25 ms
-1

Type 2: Graphical Representation of Linear Motion

7. The displacement of car with time is given. Draw dispalcement time sketch & find
average velocity of car. Find it's displacements at 1.5 sec & 3.5 sec.

Time (s) 0 1 2 3 4
Displacement (m) 0 5 10 15 20

Solution: s(m)
30
Average velocity = 20 m = 5 ms-¹ 25
4s
20
17.5
Displacement at 1½ sec. = 7.5 m 15
at 3½ sec. = 17.5 m 10
7.5
5
(s)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
1½ 3½
Motion in One Dimension 31

8. Diagram alongside shows a velocity-time graph of two cars A and B, which

start from the same place and move along a straight road in the same
direction. 80 80
Calculate : rA
70 Ca
(i) Acceleration of car A.
60
(ii) What is the acceleration of car B

Velocity in m/s
Car B
between 2s to 4s ? 50
40
(iii) At what time intervals both cars have 30
same velocity ? 20
(iv) Which of the two cars is ahead after 8
10
seconds and by how much?

Solution : 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Time in seconds
-1
(i) Acceleration of car A = 80 ms = 10ms
-2

8s

(60-20)ms -1 = 13.33ms-2
(ii) Acceleration of car B =
3s
(iii) After 2 seconds and 6 seconds.

1 -1
(iv) Distance travelled by car A = 2 x 80ms x 8s = 320 m

9. In the figure given below, the displacement of a body is shown at different

times.
(i) Calculate the velocity of the body as it moves for:
(a) 0 to 5s (b) 5s to 7s (c) 7s to 9s.
Y
7
6
DISPLACEMENT(m)

5
4
3
2
1
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
X
TIME (s)

(ii) Calculate the average velocity during the time interval 5 s to 9 s.

Solution:
Displacement
(i) (a) Velocity =
Time

V₁ = 3-0 = 0.6 m/s

5-0
32 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(b) V₂ = 0 =0
7-5
0 4
© V3 = 7-5 = 2 = 2 m/s.
Total time taken
(ii) Average velocity =
Total distance covered
7-3 4
= = = 1 m/s.
9-5 4

10. From the displacement-time graph of a cyclist, given below in figure find:

(i) the average velocity in the first 4s

(ii) the displacement from the initial position at the end of 10s

(iii) the time after which he reaches the starting point.

C D
10
B
5
DISPLACEMENT (m)

TIME (s)
A E
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
-5

-10
F G

Solution :
(i) Average velocity in the first 4s
Total displacement 10
= = = 2.5 m/s²
Total time 4

(ii) Displacement from the initial position at the end of 10s is - 10m.
(iii) Cyclist reaches starting point at end of 7s and 14s respectively.

11. The adjoining figure, shows the velocity-time graph of a particle moving in
a straight line.
2
VELOCITY (m s-¹)

(i) Is the motion uniform ? 1

(ii) Is the motion uniformly accelerated?

(iii) Does the particle change its direction of motion ? 0
1 2 3 4 5 6
TIME (s)
Motion in One Dimension 33
(iv) Is the distance travelled by the particle from 0 to 4s same as from 4s to 6s?
If no, compare them.
(v) Find the acceleration from 0 to 4 s and retardation from 4s to 6s.

Solution:
(I) Particle accelerates from 0 to 4s and retards from 4s to 6s.
...
Motion is not uniform.
(ii) No. same reason as in (I).
(iii) There is no graph below the time axis.
... No displacement in the negative direction and hence no change in direction.
of motion.
(iv) Distance travelled from 0 to 4s Area of A.

1 x 4 x 2 = 4m.
= 2
Distance travelled from 4s to 6s Area of A

= 1 x 2 x 2 = 2m
2

4
Ratio = =2:1
2

2
(v) Acceleration from 0 to 4s = slope =
4 = 0.5 m/s²

-2
Retardation fropm 4s to 6s = = -1 m/s²
2

Type 3 Equations of Motion

12. A ball is initially moving with a velocity 0.5 ms. Its velocity decreases at
a rate of 0.05 ms 2.
(i) How much time will it take to stop?
(ii) How much distance will the ball travel before it stops?

Solution :
Given, initial velocity u = 0.5 ms, final velocity v = 0, acceleration a = -0.05 ms 2
(Here negative sign in used since velocity decreases with time).
(I) From equation of motion v = u + at
0 = 0.5 - 0.05 x t
or 0.05t = 0.5

or t = 0.5 = 10 s
0.05
34 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(ii) From equation of motion v = u² + 2aS

0 = (0.5)² - 2 x 0.05 x S
0.25
or 0.1 S = 0.25 or S = = 2.5 m
0.1

13. A body initially at rest travels a distance 100 m in 5 s with a constant acceleration.
Calculate :
(i) the acceleration, and
(ii) the final velocity at the end of 5 s.

Solution:
Given, initial velocity u = 0, distance S = 100 m, time taken t = 5 s
1
(i) From equation of motion S = ut + 2 at

100= 0 x 5+ 1 x a x (5)
2
or 100 = 1 x 25a
2
100×2 -2
or Acceleration a = 25 = 8 ms

(ii) From equation of motion v = u + at

-1
Final velocity v = 0 + 8 x 5 = 40 ms .
14. A body moving with uniform acceleration travels 84 m in the first 6 s and
180 m in the next 5 s. Find :

(i) the initial velocity, and

(ii) the acceleration of the body.

Solution :
Let u be the initial velocity and a be the acceleration of the body.
Given, S = 84 m, t₁ = 6 s,
S = 84+ 180 264 m and t₂ = 6 + 5 = 11 s

From relation S = ut + 1 at
2
Distance travelled in 6s,

84 = u x 6 + 1 a x (6)²
2
or 6u+ 18a = 84 or u+ 3a = 14. ... (i)
Motion in One Dimension 35
Distance travelled in it’s

1
264 = u x 11 + a x (11)2
2

or 11u + 121 a = 264 or u + 11 a = 24 ..........( ii )

2 2
On solving eqns. (I) and (ii),
-1 -2
Initial velocity of body u = 2 ms and acceleration a = 4ms
15. A particle initially at rest, moves with an accler ation 5 ms-2 for 5 s. Find
th
the distance travelled in (I), 4s (ii) 5s and (iii) 5 second.
Solution,
Given inital velocity u = 0, acceleration a = 5 ms-2
(I) Distance travelled in t = 4s

S1 = ut + 1 at2 = 0 x 4 + 1 x 5 x (4)2
2 2
= 40 m

(ii) Distance travelled in t = 5s

1 1
2 2
S1 = ut + 2 at = 0 x 5 + 2 x 5 x (5)

= 62.5 m
(iii)Distance travelled in 5th sexcond
= Distance travelled in 5s - Distance travelled in 4s
= S2 , S1 = ( 62.5 - 40 ) m = 22.5m
16. A particle starts to move in a straight line from a point with velocity
-1 -2
10 ms and acceleration -2.0 ms . Find the position and velocity of the
particle at (I) t = 5s, (ii) t = 10s.
Solution,
Given , u = 10 ms -1, a = -2.0 ms-2

(I) Displacement at t = 5 s is

S1 = ut + 1
2
at
2
1 2
= 10 x 5 + 2 x (-2.0) x (5)
= 50 - 25 = 25 m

i.e. after 5 s, the particle will be at distance 25 m from the starting point.
Velocity at t = 5s is
v = u + at
36 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

or v = 10+ (-2.0) x 5 = 0
i.e., the particle is momentarily at rest at t = 5 s.

(ii) Displacement at t' = 10 s is

S' = ut' + 1 at'

2
1
= 10 x 10 + x (-2.0) x (10)²
2
= 100 - 100 = 0 (zero)

i.e. after 10 s, the particle has come back to the starting point.

Velocity at t' = 10 s is

V = u + at'

or v = 10+ (-2.0) x 10
= -10 ms - -¹
i.e. velocity is 10 ms towards the starting point (i.e., opposite to the
initial direction of motion).
17. -¹
A car at rest starts & achieves a velocity of 25 ms in 10 s. Then brakes
are applied & car is brought to rest in 5 sec. Find:

(i) acceleration of car

(ii) retardation of car.

Solution :
Given:
(i) u = 0, v = 25 ms-¹, t = 10 s

... a = v - u = 25-0 = 2.5 ms -2

t 10
... acceleration of the car is 2.5 ms-2

-
(ii) u = 25 ms , v = 0, t = 5 s.

r = v-u = 0-25 = -5 m/s²

t 5
... retardation of the car is 5 m/s²
Motion in One Dimension 37

Numericals
Type 1: Distance, Speed & Acceleration
:
1. Express each of the following in ms-¹
(i) 1 kmh-¹ (ii) 18 kmmin¹
2. A car travels first 30 km with a uniform speed of 60 kmh and then next 30 km
with with a uniform speed of 40 kmh. Calculate :

(i) the total time of journey.

(ii) the average speed of the car.

3. A body starts from rest and acquires a velocity 10 ms in 2s. Find the acceleration.
4. A toy car initially moving with a uniform velocity of 18 kmh comes to a stop in
2s. Find the retardation of the car in S.I. units.

5. A car is moving in a straight line with speed 18 kmh. It is stopped in 5s by

applying the brakes. Find:
(i) the speed of car in ms¹

(ii) the retardation.

(iii) the speed of car after 2s of applying the brakes.

Type 2: Graphical Representation of Linear Motion

6. A body is moving in a straight line and its displacement at various instants of time
is given in the following table :
Time (s) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Displacement (m) 2 6 12 12 12 18 22 24

Plot displacement-time graph and calculate :

(i) total distance travelled in interval 1s to 5s.
(ii) average velocity in time interval 1s to 5s.

7. From the displacement-time graph of a cyclist, given in figure, find:

(i) the average velocity in the first 4s.

(ii) the displacement from the initial position at the end of 10s.
(iii) the time after which he reaches the starting point.

C D
10

B
5
DISPLACEMENT(m)

TIME (s)
A H
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 131 4

-5

-10
F G
38 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

8. Figure given below shows a velocity-time graph for a car starting from rest.
The graph has three parts AB, BC and CD.
Y B C
v

VELOCITY (m s¹)
D
0 X
A 21 2.51
TIME

(i) State how is the distance travelled in any part determined from this graph.
(ii) Compare the distance travelled in part BC with the distance travelled in part AB.
(iii) Which part of graph shows motion with uniform :
(a) velocity ?
(b) acceleration ?
(c) retardation ?
(iv) (a) Is the magnitude of acceleration higher or lower retardation?
Give a reason.
(b) Compare the magnitude of acceleration and retardation.

9. The velocity-time graph of a moving body is given below in figure.

40
B C
30
VELOCITY (m s-¹ )

20

10

0 D
A 2 4 6 8 10
TIME (S)

Find:
(i) the acceleration in parts AB, BC and CD.
(ii) displacement in each part AB, BC and CD.
(iii) total displacement.

Type 3: Equations of Motion

-1 -
10. A body starts with an initial velocity of 10 ms and acceleration 5 ms . Find the
distance covered by it in 5s.
-
11 A body, initially at rest, starts moving with a constant acceleration 2 ms .
Calculate:

(i) the velocity acquired

(ii) the distance travelled in 5s.
-
12. A train moving with a velocity of 20 ms is brought to rest by applying brakes in
5s . Calculate the retardation.
Motion in One Dimension 39
13. A car travels a distance 100 m with a constant acceleration and average velocity of
20 ms. The final velocity acquired by the car in 25 ms. Find:
(i) the initial velocity.
(ii) acceleration of car.

14. A car travels with a uniform velocity of 25 ms for 5s. The brakes are then applied
and the car is uniformly retarded and comes to rest in further 10s. Find:

(i) the distance which the car travels before the brakes are applied.
(ii) the retardation.
(iii) the distance travelled by the car after applying the brakes.

15. A space craft flying in a straight course with a velocity of 75 kms fires its rocket
motors for 6.0 s. At the end of this time, its speed is 120 kms in the same direction.
Find:

(i) the space craft's average acceleration while the motors were firing.
(ii) the distance travelled by the space craft in the first 10s after the rocket motors
were started, the motors having been in action for only 6.0s.

ANSWERS (NUMERICALS)

1. (i) 0.278 ms -1 (ii) 300 ms¹ 2. (i) 75 min, (ii) 48 km h-¹

-2 -2
3. 5 ms 4. 2.5 ms
-2 -¹
5. (i) 5 ms', (ii) 1 ms , (iii) 3 ms 6. (i) 12 m (ii) 3 ms¹
7. (I) 2.5 ms, (ii) -10 m, (iii) 7s and 13s

8. (i) By finding the area enclosed by the graph in that part with the time axis
(ii) 2 1 (iii) (a) BC (b) AB (c) CD (iv) (a) lower, as slope of line AB is less
than that of the line CD, (b) 1 : 2.
9. (i) AB 7.5 ms, BC 0 ms-2, CD: -15 ms-²,
(ii) AB 60 m, BC: 120 m, CD: 30 m, (iii) '210 m

10. 112.5 m 11. (1) 10 ms-¹, (ii) 25 m

-2 -1 -2
12. 4 ms 13. (i) 15 ms , (ii) 2 ms
-2
14. (i) 125m, (ii) 2.5 ms2, (iii) 125 m 15. (i) 7.5 km s , (ii) 1065 km
40 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 Distinguish between acceleration and retardation.

Q.2 Distinguish between uniform acceleration and variable acceleration.
Q.3 Distinguish between the average speed and the average velocity.
Q.4 Define acceleration due to gravity.
80
Q.5 Diagram above shows a velocity-time graph 70 R-
A

of two cars A and B, which start from the same CA

60 CAR-B
place and move along a straight road in the 50

Velocity in m/s
same direction.
40

30

20
Calculate : A
(i) Acceleration of car A. 10
B Time in seconds
(ii) What is the acceleration of car B 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
between 2s to 4s ?
(iii) At what time intervals both cars have same velocity?
(iv) Which of the two cars is ahead after 8 seconds and by how much?
Y

15
Q.6 From the diagram given. Calculate :
Velocity in m/s

(I) acceleration
(ii) retardation 10
(iii) distance covered by body.
5
X
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
Time in (Sec)

Q.7 A body moving with uniform acceleration travels 84 m in 6s and 264 m in 11s.
Find:
(i) the initial velocity and
(ii) the acceleration of the body.

Q.8 A force acts for 10 sec. on a stationary body of mass 100 kg after which the
force ceases to act. The body moves through a distance of 100 m in the next 5 sec.
Calculate :
(i) The velocity acquired by the body
(ii) acceleration produced by the force
-
Q.9 An aeroplane lands at 216 kmhr ¹ and stops after covering a runway of 2 km.
Calculate :
(i) acceleration
(ii) time in which it comes to rest.

Q.10 A racing car, initially at rest, picks up a velocity of 180 km hr-¹ in 4.5 s.
Calculate :
(i)acceleration (ii) distance covered by car.
 3 Laws of Motion

Syllabus

Contact and non-contact forces; CGS and S.I units

Newton's First Law of Motion (qualitative discussion) to introduce the idea of inertia,
mass and force.
Newton's Second Law of Motion (including F = ma); weight and mass.
Newton's Third Law of Motion (qualitative discussion only); Simple examples.
Gravitation

Theory Questions & Answers

Type 1 Contact and Non-Contact Forces and S.I Units
Q. 1 Define force.
Ans. A force is that physical cause which changes (or tends to change) either the size or
the shape or the state of rest or of motion of the body.

Q. 2 What are contact forces? Give examples.

Ans. Contact Forces:
The forces which are applied on bodies by making a physical contact,
are called the contact forces. These forces are produced and experienced when a body
comes in contact with another body.
Examples: (1) The force of friction (frictional force), (2) normal reaction force,
(3) Force of tension exerted by a string, (4) Force exerted by a spring,
(5) Force exerted on two bodies during collision, etc.

Q. 3 Define frictional force.

Ans. When a body slides (or rolls) over a rough surface, a force starts acting on the body
in a direction opposite to the motion of the body, along the surface in contact. This
is called the frictional force or the force of friction.

Q. 4 What is normal reaction force ?

Ans. When a body is placed on a surface, the body exerts a force downwards, equal to
its weight, on the surface, but the body does not move (or fall) because the surface
exerts an equal and opposite force on the body normal to the surface which is
called thenormal reaction force.
42 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 5 What is tension force?

RIGID
Ans. SUPPORT

T TENSION T (=W)
DEVELOPED
IN THE STRING

WEIGHT W OF BODY
W PULLING THE STRING

When a body is suspended by a string attached to a rigid support, the body, due to its
weight W, pulls the string vertically downwards and the string in its stretched
condition pulls the body upwards by a force which balances the weight of the body.
This force developed in the string is called tension (or the force of tension) T.

Q. 6 What are non-contact forces?

Ans. The forces experienced by bodies even without being physically touched, are called
the non-contact forces or the forces at a distance.
Examples : (1) Gravitational force, (2) Electrostatic force and (3) Magnetic force.

Q. 7 What is gravitational force?

Ans. In universe, each particle attracts the other particle due to its mass. This force of
attraction between them is called the gravitational force.

Q. 8 What is weight of a body?

Ans. The force on a body due to earth's attraction is called the force of gravity or the weight
of the body.

Q.9 Explain
(a) Electrostatic force.
(b) Magnetic force
Ans.
(a) Two like charges repel, while two unlike charges attract each other. The force
between the charges is called the electrostatic force.
(b) Two like magnetic poles repel, while two unlike magnetic poles attract each other.
The force between the magnetic poles is called the magnetic force. This force acts
even when the magnetic poles are at a separation.

Q.10 Two bodies A and B of same mass are moving with velocities v and 2v respectively.
Compare their (i) inertia, (ii) momentum.
Ans. (I) Ratio of inertia = Ratio of masses
=1:1
mxv
(ii) Ratio of momentum =
m x 2v = 1:2
Laws of Motion 43
11 Two balls A and B of masses m and 2m are in motion with velocities 2y and
Ans. v respectively. Compare: (i) their inertia, (ii) their momentum, and (iii) the
force needed to stop them in the same time.

Ans. (i) Ratio of masses = Ratio of inertia

= m : 2m 1:2
(ii) Ratio of momentum = mx2v -= 1:1
2m x v
(iii) Ratio of force required = 1:1

Type 2: Newton's First Law of Motion

Q. 12 State Newton's First Law of Motion.

Ans. According to Newton's First Law of Motion if a body is in a state of rest, it will
remain in the state of rest and if it is in the state of motion, it will remain moving
in the same direction with the same velocity unless an external force is applied on it.

Q. 13 Define force and classify force.

Ans. The external cause that tends to change the state of rest or the state of motion of
an object is called the force.

Force

Contact forces Non - Contact forces

The forces which are applied on bodies The forces experienced by bodies even
by making a physical contact are called without being physically involved are
the contact forces. called non-contact forces or the forces
at a distance

Examples: Examples:
1. Frictional force 1. Gravitational force

2. Normal reaction force. 2. Magnetic force

3. Electrostatic force.
3. Force of tension exerted by a string.
4. Force exerted by a spring.
5. Force exerted by two bodies
during collision etc.
Q. 14 Give general characters of non-contact forces.
Ans. General characters of non-contact forces are:

(i) The gravitational force is always of attractive nature, while the electrostatic force
and the magnetic force can be either attractive or repulsive.
44 Std. 9 ICSE Physics
(ii) The magnitude of non-contact forces on the two bodies depends on the distance
of separation between them. It decreases with the increase in separation and
increases as the separation decreases. It varies inversely as the square of distance
of separation i.e., on doubling the separation, the force becomes one-fourth.

15 Define inertia with an example and explain its different types

Ans. The property of an object by virtue of which it neither changes its present state nor it
tends to change the present state, is called the inertia. Normally, it is the inherent
property of any object. Example: An object lying on a table will remain placed at its
place unless it is displaced.

(i) If a body is at rest, it will continue to remain at rest unless an external force em is
applied to change its state of rest. This property of body is called the inertia
of rest.
(ii) A body in a state of motion, possesses inertia of motion and it continues to be in
the state of motion with the same speed in the same direction in a straight line
unless an external force is applied on it to change its state. This property of body
is called the inertia of motion.

Q.16 Name the factor on which inertia of a body depends and state how does it depend on
the factor stated above?
Ans. Inertia of a body depends on its mass. More is the mass of a body, more is the inertia.

Q.17 Give one example to show that greater the mass, greater is the inertia of the body.
Ans. If a cricket ball and a tennis ball are both moving with the same velocity then it is
difficult to stop the cricket ball ( more mass, more inertia) in comparison to the tennis
ball (less mass, less inertia)

Q.18 Two equal and opposite forces, act on a moving object How is its motion affected?
Ans. Net force acting on the moving object is zero. The body will continue to be in the
same state due to inertia of motion.

Q.19 Why do we jerk wet clothes before spreading them on line?

Ans. Initially, the water and clothes are in the state of rest. When the clothes are suddenly
jerked, the water in them, on account of inertia of rest, tends to continue in its state of
rest. Thus, the droplets of water are left behind and fall off the clothes. Removal of
water from clothes helps them to dry quickly.

Q. 20 Why does dust fly off when carpet is hit with a stick? Ans. Initially, the loose dust
particles and carpet are in the state of rest. When the carpet is hit with a stick, it is
suddenly set into motion, but not the dust particles, on account of inertia of rest. As
dust particles are left behind the carpet, therefore they fly off.

Q. 21 Why do the fruits fall off the branches of a tree in strong wind ?

Ans. Initially, the fruit and branches are in the state of rest. When strong wind sets the
branches in motion, the fruits on account of inertia of rest, tend to continue in their
state of rest. Thus, a lot of strain builds up at the junction of fruit and branch and hence
the fruits drop down.
.
Laws of Motion 45
Q. 22 Why does a pillion rider falls forward, when the driver of a two seater
vehicle suddenly applies brakes ?
Ans. Initially, the driver and the pillion rider are in the state of motion. When the driver
applies brakes and brings machine to halt, the body of pillion rider continues
moving forward on account of inertia of motion. Thus, the pillion rider falls in the
forwarddirection.

Q. 23 Why do the doors of a corridor train open or shut, when the train starts or
stops ?
Ans. When the train starts suddenly, the sliding doors tend to continue in their state of
rest, on account of inertia of rest. Thus, in way doors move backward with respect
to the motion of train and hence close.

When the train stops suddenly, the doors continue moving forward on account of
inertia of motion. Thus, as the doors move in the direction of train, they open.

Q. 24 Why is it necessary to run along with moving bus and in the same direction of
bus, while alighting from it?
Ans. A person in a moving bus possesses inertia of motion. Thus, if he simply jumps
out, his feet suddenly come to rest, but his body continues moving in the direction
of the bus. Thus, he can fall headlong and seriously injure himself. However, if the
person starts running in the direction of the bus, his body will not come to rest.
Thus, hewill not fall in the forward direction.

Q. 25 Why does a player run for some distance, before taking a long jump ?
Ans. In running some distance, the player picks up inertia of motion. Thus, during
jumping this inertia of motion carries him forward over a longer distance.

Q.26 Why does a person fall off the back of a stationary horse, if the horse darts off
suddenly ?
Ans. Initially, the person and the horse are in the state of rest. When the horse darts off
suddenly, the person on account of inertia of rest, tends to continue in its state of
rest. Thus, the person is left behind relative to horse and hence falls in the backward
direction.

Q. 27 Why a neat hole is formed in the glass pane, if a bullet is fired on it from a
close range?
Ans. When bullet strikes the glass pane, it suddenly sets only that part into motion.
However, rest of the glass pane on account of inertia of rest tends to continue in
its state of rest. Thus, a neat hole is made in the glass pane as the rest of the pane
does not get disturbed.

Type 3: Newton's Second Law of Motion

Q. 28 What do you understand by the term momentum ?

Ans. The force possessed by a moving body at some particular instant during its course
of motion is called momentum.
Q. 29 What is linear momentum ?
Ans. Linear momentum of a body is defined as the product of its mass and velocity.
46 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 30 State Newton's Second Law of Motion.

Ans. The rate of change of momentum is directly propotional to the applied force and takes
the direction in which the force is applied.
Mathematically, F = m x a.

Q. 31 Show that rate of change of momentum is the product of mass and acceleration.
Ans. Consider a body of mass 'm' initially moving with a velcity 'u'. Let the body be acted
upon by a force 'F' for time t' (in seconds), such that its final velocity is 'v'.
Initial momentum of body = mu.
Final momentum of body = mv.
Change in momentum = mv - mu

... Rate of change of momentum = m(vt - u)

But a = v- u , where a is acceleration
t
... Rate of change of momentum = ma
According to Newton's Second Law of Motion,

... Rate of change of momentum ac force (F)

... F α ma
or F= Kma, [where K is constant of proportionality]

If there be a body of unit mass, having a unit acceleration, such that force possessed
by the body is also unit, then :

1=Kx1x1 ... K = 1.
... F= ma
Q. 32 Why does a wine glass break when it falls on a hard floor, but it does not break when
it falls on sand?
Ans. When a wine glass falls from a height on a hard floor; it comes to rest almost
instantaneously i.e. in a very short time, a large force is exerted on it and it breaks.
But if it falls on sand the time duration in which the vessel comes to rest, becomes
more. As a result less force is exerted on the vessel and it does not break.

Q.33 Using Newton's second law of motion, explain why will you pull your hands back
while catching a fast moving cricket ball.
Ans. If your do not pull your hands back and catch a ball, then you will get little time t,
to stop the ball. Force exerted by the ball on your hand is
-mu
F₁ = Change in momentum = 0-mu =
time t1 t1
If you pull your hands back, then you will get larger time to to stop the ball. The force
exerted by the ball on your hand is
Laws of Motion 47

mu
F₂ = - t2
Since t2 > t1,, therefore F₂ < F1 .
Force exerted on your hand is less when you pull your hands back. Thus chances of
your palm getting injured is avoided while catching a ball.

Q. 34 Using Newton's second law of motion, explain why you prefer to land on sand
instead of hard floor while taking a high jump?
Ans. When you land from a height on a hard floor, your feet comes to rest almost
instantaneously and you may get hurt. This is because in a very short time interval a
very large force is exerted on your feet by the floor. On the other hand when you land
on sand, feet is pushed for some distance into the sand. The time duration in which
your feet comes to rest is increased. As a result, the force exerted on the feet decreases
and you are saved from getting hurt.

Type 4: Newton's Third Law of Motion

Q. 35 State Newton's Third Law of Motion.

Ans. For a system of two bodies into consideration, to every action there is an equal and
opposite reaction.

Q. 36 Why does a boatman push the bank of a river backward with a long bamboo pole,
on launching his boat in water?
Ans. When the boatman pushes the bank of the river with a pole in the backward direction,
the bank reacts back according to Newton's Third Law of Motion and pushes the pole
in the opposite direction. As the pole is in the hands of the boatman, who is standing
in the boat, the whole system moves in the opposite direction i.e. in the forward
direction.

Q. 37 Why does a boat tend to leave the shore, when passengers are alighting from it ?
How does the boatman overcome the above difficulty ?
Ans. When the passengers are alighting from boat, they push the boat in the backward
direction while walking on it. As the boat is in water, therefore, it has a tendency to
slip back in water.

The boatman overcomes this difficulty by tying the boat to some solid support on the
bank so that it does not slip back.

Q. 38 Why are wet surfaces more slippery ?

Ans. When one walks over wet surface by pushing it backward with feet, the surface does
not react back with the same force, owing to the presence of water. Thus, as there is.
not sufficient reaction one tends to slip backward.

Q. 39 Why does a gun recoil back, when fired?

Ans. When the gun powder within the cartridge explodes, it pushes the bullet in the forward
direction. However, at the same time it reacts back on the gun, which in turn recoils
back according to Newton's Third Law of Motion.
48 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 40 How do the rockets operate in space?

Ans. When the fuel burns in the ignition chamber of a rocket, the hot gases pass out from
its exhaust with a certain momentum in backward direction. Thus, in order to conserve
momentum the rocket moves with the same momentum in forward direction.

Q. 41 Why does a swimmer push water backward with his hands, in order to swim
in forward direction?
Ans. When the swimmer pushes the water backward, then according to Newton's Third
Law of Motion the water reacts back and pushes the swimmer in forward direction.

Q. 42 When two spring balances jointed at their free ends, are pulled apart, both show the
same reading. Explain.

Ans. Suppose the two balances are A and B respectively. The balance A pulls the balance
B due to which we get some reading in the balance B. The same reading is shown
by balance A because the balance B also pulls the balance A by the same force.

Type 5: Universal Law of Gravitation

Q. 43 State Universal Law of Gravitation.

Ans. Universal law of gravitation states that the force of attraction acting between two
particles is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Q. 44 Write an expression for the gravitational force of attraction between two bodies
of masses m, and m, separated by a distance r.

F = Gm m
R
where, F - Gravitational force

G Gravitational constant.

Q. 45 Write the numerical value of gravitational constant G with its S. I. unit

Ans. G = 6.7 x 10-11 Nm kg-2

Q. 46 What is meant by acceleration due to gravity?

Ans. The rate at which the velocity of a freely falling body increases is called acceleration
due to gravity.
g = GM
R
Laws of Motion 49
Q. 47 How is the gravitational force between two masses affected if the separation
between them is doubled ?
1
Ans. F C 2
r
... Force reduces to one fourth.
͝
Q.48 Comparison of mass and weight.
Mass Weight
Ans.
(I) It is a measure of the quantity of It is the force with which the earth attracts
matter contained in the body, at the body.
rest.
(ii) It is a scalar quantity. It is a vector quantity.
(iii) Its S.I. unit is kg. Its S.I. unit is newton (N).
It is measured by a physical or It is measured by a spring balance which is
(iv)
beam balance. calibrated to read in newton. A physical
balance measures the weight in kgf.

(v) It is constant for a body and does It is not constant for a body, but varies
not change by changing the place of from place to place on the earth's surface
the body. and also with altitude and depth from the
earth's surface.

Q. 49 What is the importance of law of gravitation?

Ans. Newton explained the motion of planets around the sun, the motion around the earth
and the motion of a freely falling body by this law.

Q. 50 What is the relationship between g and G?

Ans. F = GMm = mg
r2

g = GM
R2
Where g = acceleration due to gravity at a place
G = universal gravitational constant
M = Mass of the planet
R = Radius of the planet

Q. 51 What do you understand by the term force due to gravity?

Ans. The weight of a body is also said to be force of gravity on the body.

Q. 52 The value of 'g' at the centre of earth is zero. What will be the weight of a body
of mass 10 kg at the centre of the earth?
Ans. Weight = mg.

g= 0 at centre of earth.
Weight = 10 x 0 = 0.
50 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 53 Explain the meaning of the statement 1 kgf = 9.8 N ?

Ans. 1 kgf = 9.8 N.
We mean that we have to exert a force of 9.8 N to hold a mass of 1 kg on our palm.

Formulae

1. F = ma

2. Weight = mg

3. Momentum = mass x velocity

4. Rate of change of momentum = Final momentum - Initial momentum

Time interva
5. F = Gm m
r
6. v = u + gt
1
7. h = ut + gt
2
8.v² = u² + 2gh

Solved Numericals

Type 1: Newton's Second Law of Motion

1. Find the force required to produce an acceleration of 5 m/s² in a mass of 2 kg.

Solution :
Given: m = 2 kg, a = 5 m/s²
F = m. a ... F = 2 x 5 = 10 N.
... Force required is 10 N.

2. A car of mass 500 kg was moving with a speed of 72 km/hr. A force is applied & car
is brought to rest in 10 sec. Calculate the force applied.
Solution :
m = 500 kg, u = 72 x 5 = 20 m/s., v = 0 m/s., t = 10 sec.
18
... a = v-u = 0-20 =2m/s² (-ve as retardation)
t 10
... F = m x a = 500 x 2 = 1000 N.
Laws of Motion 51

3. A force acts for 0.2 sec on a mass of 200 g. initally at rest. Then force is
withdrawn & mass moves with velocity of 2 m/s. Find:
(i) initial momentum
(ii) final momentum
(iii) Rate of change
(iv) acceleration of mass
(v) amount of force applied.
Solution :

Given m = 200g = 0.2 kg, u - 0 m/s, v = 2 m/s, t = 0.2 sec.

-
(I) Initial momentum = m x u = 0.2 x 0 = 0 kg ms ¹
-
(ii) Final momentum = 0.2 x 2 = 0.4 kg ms ¹

(iii) Rate of change = 0.4 - 0 = 0.4 = 2 kg ms (or 2N)

-2

0.2 0.2
v-u 2- 0 = 20 = 10 m / s
2
(iv) Acceleration = =
t 0.2 2
(v) f = m x a = 0.2 x 10 = 2 N.

4. Masses in ratio 4: 5 are moving with velocities in ratio 3 : 2. Compare

their : (i) inertia (ii) momentum.

Solution :

m1 m₂ = 4 : 5, V₁ : V₂ = 3:2
(I) Ratio of inertia = ratio of masses
= 4:5

(ii)
m₁v1 m₁
Ratio of momentum = m2v2 = m2 [ [[ [ v1
, v2

4 3 12 6
= X = = = 6:5
5 2 10 5

Type 2: Newton's Third Law of Motion

5. A boy pushes a wall with a force 16N towards east. What force is exerted
by the wall on the body.

Solution :

16N towards west.

52 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

6. A block of 28N is hanging from a rigid support by a string.

Find:
(i) The force exerted by block on the string.
(ii) The force exerted by string on the block.

Solution :
(i) 28N downwards.
(ii) 28N upwards.
Type 3: Universal Law of Gravitation W = 28N

7. Calculate the gravitational force of attraction between two bodies of masses 20 kg and
-11 2 -2
30 kg separated by a distance of 10 m. Take G = 6.67 x 10 Nm kg .
Solution :
Given: m = 20 kg, m₂ = 30 kg
-11 -2
G = 6.67 x 10 Nm²kg , r = 10 m
Gm m 6.67 x 10- x 20 x 30
F= r = (10)
.
.. F = 4.02 x 10-10 N

8. The weight of the body is 3.0 N. What is the mass of body?

-¹
(g = 10 ms )

Solution :
-¹
Given: Weight = 3N; g = 10 ms

W = mg, ... m = W = 3
g 10
... m 0.3 kg.

9. A man weighs 600 N on the earth. What would be his approximate weight on the
moon? What is the reason for your answer?

Solution :
Given: We= 600N
To find : Wm = ?

The value of g on the moon = 1 th the value of g on the earth.

6
g mg e
... gm = c => mgm =
6 6
we
=> Wm = = 600 = 100 N
6 6
Laws of Motion 53
10. A stone is dropped freely in a river from a bridge. It takes 5s to touch the
water surface in the river. Calculate :
(I) the height of the bridge from the water level.
(ii) the distance covered by the stone in 2s ( g = 9.8 ms-2 ).
Solution :

Given, u = 0, a = g = 9.8 ms-0, t = 5s

1
(I) From equation of motion h = ut + 2 = gt2

h=0x5+ 1 x 9.8 x (5)2

2

= 9.8 x 25 = 122.5 m

...
2
Height of the bridge = 122.5 m

(ii) Distance covered by the stone in t = 2s

2
S = ut + 1 gt 1 = 0 + 1 x 9.8 x (2)² = 19.6 m
2 2
11. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. It goes to a height 19.6 m and then
comes back to the ground. Find :
(i) the initial velocity of the ball.
(ii) the total time of journey, and
(iii) the final velocity of the ball when it strikes the ground. Take
-2
g = 9.8 ms
Solution :
Given, h = 19.6 m, a = -g = -9.8 ms², v = 0
(i) From equation of motion v2 = u² + 2gh
2
0 =u x 9.8 x 19.6
or u2 = 19.6 x 19.6
... Initial velocity u = 19.6 ms¹.
(ii) Let t s be the time taken by the ball to reach the highest point.
From equation of motion v = u + gt

0 = 19.6 9.8 t or 9.8t =19.6

t= 19.6= 2s
9.8
It will take the same time t = 2s to come back from the highest point to the

...
ground.
Total time of journey t = 2t = 2 x 2 = 4s.
54 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(iii) The final velocity of ball when it strikes the ground will be same as the initial
velocity with which it was thrown upwards.
-¹
... Final velocity on reaching the ground = 19.6 ms .

Numericals
Type 1 Newton's Second Law of Motion
-¹
1. The linear momentum of a ball of mass 50 g is 0.5 kg ms . Find its velocity.

2. A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 5 kg. Find the acceleration produced.

3. A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 2 kg for 3s, initially at rest. Calculate :

(i) the velocity acquired by the body.
(ii) change in momentum of the body.

4. A force acts for 0.1 s on a body of mass 2.0 kg initially at rest. The force is then
-¹
withdrawn and the body moves with a velocity of 2 ms . Find the magnitude of force.
-¹
5. A car of mass 480 kg moving at a speed of 54 km h , is stopped by applying brakes
in 10 s. Calculate the force applied by the brakes.
-¹
6. A car is moving with a uniform velocity 30 ms . It is stopped in 2 s by applying a
force of 1500 N through its brakes. Calculate :
(a) the change in momentum of car.
(b) the retardation produced in car.
(c) the mass of car.
Type 3: Newton's Third Law of Motion
7. Calcualte the weight of a body of mass 10kg in:
(i) kgf and (ii) Newton [Take g = 9.8 m/s²]
Type 4: Universal Law of Gravitation
8. A ball is released from a height and it reaches the ground in 3 sec.
-2
If g = 9.8 ms , find:
(i) The height from which the ball was released.
(ii) The velocity with which the ball will strike the ground.
-2
9. The weight of a body on earth is 98 N where acceleration due to gravity is 9.8ms .
What will be:
(i) its mass
-2
(ii) weight on the moon where acceleration due to gravity is 1.6 ms .
10. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a building of height 24.5 m with
2
an initial velocity 19.6 ms. Taking g = 9.8 ms , calculate:
(i) the height to which it will rise before returning to the ground.
(ii) the velocity with which it will strike the ground.
(iii) the total time of journey.
Laws of Motion 55
11. A pebble is dropped freely in a well from its top. It takes 20s for the pebble to reach
-2 -1
the water surface in the well. Taking g = 10 ms and speed of sound = 330 ms , find:

(i) the depth of water surface

(ii) the time when echo is heard after the pebble is dropped.
12. A force acts for 10s on a stationary body of mass 100 kg after which the force ceases
to act. The body moves through a distance of 100 m in the next 5s. Calculate :

(I) the velocity acquired by the body.

(ii) the acceleration produced by the force.
(iii) the magnitude of the force.

13. A bullet of mass 50 g moving with an initial velocity 100 ms, strikes a wooden block
and comes to rest after penetrating a distance 2 cm in it. Calculate :

(i) initial momentum of the bullet.

(ii) final momentum of the bullet.

(iii) retardation caused by the wooden block.

(iv) resistive force exerted by the wooden block.

14. A ball is released from a height and it reaches the ground in 3 s. If

g = 9.8 ms-2, find:
(a) the height from15. which
(i) 24.5the
m ball
(ii) 29.4 ms
was released.
(b) the velocity with which the ball will strike the ground.

15. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower with an initial velcoity of
19.6 ms. The ball reaches the ground after 5s. Calculate :
(i) the height of the tower.
-2
(ii) the velocity of ball on reaching the ground. (Take g = 9.8 ms )

ANSWERS (NUMERICALS)

1. 10 ms-1 2. 2 ms-1
3. (i) 15 ms-1 (ii) 30 kg ms¹ 4.40 N
5. 720 N
-2
6. (a) 3000 kg ms (b) 15 ms (c) 100 kg
7. (i) 10 kgf, (ii) 9.8 N 8. (i) 44.1 m (ii) 29.4 ms-¹

9. (i) 10 kg (ii) 16 N
10. (i) 19.6 m, (ii) 29.4 ms, (iii) 5s 11. (i) 2000 m (ii) 26.1s
-1 -2
12. (i) 20 ms , (ii) 2 ms (iii) 200 N
13. (i) 5 kg ms, (ii) zero, (iii) 2.5 x 105 ms2, (iv) 12500 N
14. (i) 44.1 m (ii) 29.4 ms-¹ 15. (i) 24.5 m (ii) 29.4 ms
56 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 When a train suddenly moves forward the passenger standing in the compartment
tends to fall backwards. Explain.
Q.2 A ball thrown vertically upwards in the moving train come back to the thrower's
hand. Explain.
Q.3 A car of mass 960 kg moving at a speed of 60 km/hr is stopped in 12s. Calculate
the force applied by the brakes.
Q.4 Two bodies A and B, of equal masses are in motion with velocities v and 3v
respectively. Compare their momentum, their inertia, the force required to stop them
in same time.
Q.5 Two bodies P and Q, of masses 2 m and 4 m are in motion with velocitites 4v
and 2v respectively. Compare:
(i) their momentum.
(ii) their inertia.
(iii) the force required to stop them in same time.
Q.6 A body of mass 200 g is moving with a speed of 60 m/s is brought to rest by a man
in 0.02s. Find:
(i) The change in momentum of the body.
(ii) The average force applied by the man.
Q.7 A person pushing a wall hard is liable to fall back. Give reason.
Q.8 Explain motion of a rocket with the help of Newton's third law of motion.
Q.9 What is the importance of law of gravitation?
Q.10 Define the terms: (i) mass (ii) weight.
Also state its S.I. unit.
 Pressure in Fluids and
4 Atmospheric Pressure
Syllabus
Change of pressure with depth (including the formula p pressure in liquids,
atmospheric pressure. = hpg); transmission of

Thrust and pressure and their units; pressure exerted by a liquid column P=hpg;
simple daily life examples: (i) broadness of the base of a dam, (ii) Diver's suit etc.,
some consquences of P=hpg; transmission of pressure in liquids; Pascal's law;
examples; Atomspheric pressure; common manifestation and consequences.
Variation of pressure with altitude, (qualitative only); applications such as weather
forecasting and altimeter. (Simple numerical peroblems)

. Theory Questions & Answers

Type 1 : Pressure in Liquids

Q. 1 Define the term thrust, state its S. I. unit.

Ans. When the force is applied on a surface in a direction normal (or perpendicular) to the
surface, the force applied is called thrust.

S.I. unit is newton (N).

Note : Thrust exerted by a body on surface = weight of the body = mg

Q. 2 Define pressure.
Ans. Pressure is the thrust per unit area of surface.

... Pressure = Thrust (F)

area (A)
S.I. unit - Nm-2 C.G.S. unit - dyne cm-2
-2
1 Pascal (or 1 Pa) = 1 Nm
Q. 3 Define one pascal.
Ans. 1 pascal (or 1 Pa) = 1 Newton
1 metre²

1 Pa = 1 Nm-2

One pascal is the pressure exerted on a surface of area 1 m2 by a force of 1 N acting

normally on it.
Note: Other units of pressure:
-2
(i) 1 bar = 105 Nm
(ii) 1 millibar = 10 bar = 102 Nm-2
-3
58 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 4 How is atmospheric pressure expressed?

Ans. Atmospheric pressure is expressed in a unit atmosphere (symbol atm) where
1 atmosphere (atm) = 0.76 m of Hg = 1.013×10 Pa
Q. 5 State factors affecting the pressure on a surface?
Ans. The pressure exerted on a surface depends on two factors:
(i) the area on which the thrust is applied, and
(ii) the thrust.
Q. 6 State one way of increasing pressure?
Give one example.
Ans. For the given thrust, the pressure on a surface is increased by reducing the area of
surface. E.g. The ends of nails or pins are made pointed so that large pressure is
exerted at the pointed ends and they can be driven into, with a less effort.
Q.7 State one way of decreasing pressure? Give one example.
Ans. For the given thrust, the presure on a surface is reduced by increasing the area of
surface. Example: Wide wooden sleepers are placed below the railway tracks so that
the pressure exerted by the iron rails on the ground becomes less.
Q. 8 State three factors on which pressure at a given point in fluid depends.
Ans. Pressure at given point in fluid
α depth
α density of fluid
α acceleration due to gravity.

Q. 9 Pressure in case of solids is inversely proportional to area of cross section.

Does this statement hold true for fluids? Justify your answer.
Ans. No, the statement does not hold true for pressure in fluids. Pressure. in fluids is given
by the expression 'hdg' and hence independent of the area of cross section.
Q. 10 Pressure of water on the first floor is always less than pressure of water at ground
floor. Why?
Ans. The pressure of fluid is given by the expression ‘P = hdg’. As vertical height of water
column on first floor is less than ground floor hence pressure of water on first floor is
less than ground floor.
Q. 11 Water tank in a locality is always at higher altitude than buildings in a locality. Explain.
Ans. Water or any other liquid seeks its own level. Thus when water tank is situated at the
highest point, the water from it will rise up to the tallest building without the aid
of any external force.
Q. 12 Why is the tip of a nail or a pin made pointed ?
Ans. Tip of a nail or a pin is made pointed so that large pressure is exerted at the tip and it
can be driven into with a less effort.
 Pressure in Fluids & Atmospheric Pressure 59

Q. 13 Why are wide wooden sleepers placed below the railway tracks?
Ans. Wide wooden sleepers are placed below the railway tracks so that the pressure exerted
by the rails on the ground becomes less.

Q. 14 Deduce an expression for the pressure at a depth inside a liquid.

S R
X Y
LIQUID
h

(I) Consider a vessel containing a stationary liquid of density p.

(ii) Consider a horizontal circular surface PQ of area A at a depth h below the free
surface XY of liquid.
(iii) Assume a cylinder PQRS of height h with PQ at its base and top face RS lying
on the free surface XY of the liquid.
Thrust exerted on the surface PQ Weight of the liquid column PQRS
= volume of liquid column PQRS x density × g

= (Area of base PQ x height) x density x g = (A x h) x p x g = Ahpg

... P = hpg
Pressure = Thrust
Ahpg
Ahpg
A =
Q. 15 How does the pressure at a certain depth in sea water differ from that at the
same depth in river water? Explain.
Ans. (a) Pressure is directly proportional to density of the liquid.

(b) The density of sea water is more than the density of river water, so pressure at
a certain depth in sea water is more than that at the same depth in river water.

Q. 16 How does fluid pressure on balloon change when :

(I) balloon rises from height of 200 m to height of 500 m
(ii) balloon moves horizontallly at height of 200 m
(iii) balloon is brought down on the surface of earth?

Ans. (i) The fluid pressure decreases as the vertical height of air column as measured from
above decreases.
(ii) The fluid pressure remains the same as vertical height does not change.
(iii) The fluid pressure increases as vertical height of air as measured from above
increases.

Type 2: Atmospheric Pressure

Q. 17 Define atmospheric pressure.

Ans. The thrust exerted per unit area on the earth surface due to column of air, is
called the atmospheric pressure on the surface of earth.
60 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.18 State if:

(i) Thrust at a point in a liquid is a vector or scalar quantity.
(ii) Pressure at a point in a liquid is a vector or scalar quantity,

Ans. (i) Thrust at a point in a liquid is a vector quantity.

(ii) Pressure at a point in a liquid is a scalar quantity.

Q. 19 How does motion of an arrow get affected by a pointed tip?

Ans. Fluid resistance offered by air is directly proportional to area of cross section of the
body. The arrow with pointed tip would experience smaller resistance and hence move
faster.
Q. 20 State two uses of boiling liquids under reduced pressure.
Ans. (i) Boiling used liquids concentre under reduced pressure are volatile acids such as
HCI and HNO, which otherwise decompose when boiled at normal pressure.
(ii) It is used for making fruit concentrates, as at low temperatures flavour is
preserved.
Q. 21 What is the effect of pressure on boiling point of a liquid?
Ans. Effect of pressure on boiling point of a liquid:
(i) Boiling point of a liquid increases with increase in pressure.
(ii) Boiling point of a liquid decreases with decrease in pressure.

Q. 22 (i) What do you understand by the term atmospheric pressure ?

(ii) What is the cause of atmospheric pressure ?
(iii) State the numerical value of atmospheric pressure at sea level in
(i) cm of mercury (ii) pascals (iii) bars.
Ans. (i) The thrust per unit area exerted by air on the surface of earth is called atmospheric
pressure.
(ii) It is the weight of air (thrust), which is responsible for the atmospheric pressure.
(iii) (a) The atmospheric pressure at sea level is 76 cm of mercury.
(b) The atmospheric pressure at sea level is 101300 pascals.
(c) The atmospheric pressure at sea level is 1.013 bar.

Q. 23 Explain why a gas bubble released at the bottom of a lake grows in size as it rises to
the surface of the lake.
Ans. When the bubble is at the bottom of the lake, the pressure exerted on it is equal to the
sum of atmospheric pressure and the pressure due to water column.
As the gas bubble rises, the pressure exerted on it decreases. By Boyle's law
PV = constant, so the volume of bubble increases. i.e. bubble grows in size.
Pressure in Fluids & Atmospheric Pressure 61
Q. 24 Why do sea divers need special protective suit?
Ans. Pressure in a fluid is directly proportional to depth. The sea divers need special
protective suit to wear because in deep sea, the total pressure exerted on the diver's
body becomes much more than his blood pressure. In order to withstand it, he needs
to wear a special protective suit.

Q. 25 A dam has broader walls at the bottom than at the top, explain.
Ans.

Width of wall increasing

WATER WALL OF DAM

downwards
LAND
downwards
increasing
Pressure

Wall of a dam with its thickness increasing

towards the bottom

The reason is that the pressure exerted by a liquid increases with its depth. Thus more
and more pressure is exerted by water on the wall of the dam as depth increases. A
thicker wall is required, to withstand a greater pressure. Therefore, the thickness of
the wall of the dam is increased towards the bottom.

Q. 26 How does the liquid pressure on a diver change if:

(i) the diver moves to the greater depth and

(ii) the diver moves horizontally?

Ans. (i) As pressure increases with depth, pressure on diver increases when he moves to
the greater depth.
(ii) As pressure is the same at all points on a horizontal plane, the pressure does
not change when the diver moves horizontally.

Q. 27 State Pascal's law of transmission of pressure.

Ans. Pascal's law states that the pressure exerted anywhere in a confined liquid is
transmitted equally and undiminished in all directions throghout the liquid.

Q. 28 Name three applications of Pascal's law.

Ans. Hydraulic press, Hydraulic lift, Hydraulic brakes.

Q. 29 Draw a simple diagram of (1) hydraulic jack (2) hydraulic press.

Ans. HANDLE H
CAR LEVER
(1)
FULCRUM F
PLATFORM EFFORT

PISTON B PISTON A
Q P
LIQUID
VALVE V

TUBE R
62 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(2) Fixed Pivot (Fulcrum) Lever

Bale of Cotton
н

-Piston A (Pump Plunger)

Piston B Cylinder P
(Pressure Plunger
or RAM) -Cylinder Q
Release Valve-
Valve V
Valve Connecting Pipe R
V Atmospheric Pressure

Water
Hydraulic Press Supply
Tank
(Reservoir)

Q. 30 State the laws of liquid pressure.

Ans. Laws of liquid pressure :
(i) Pressure in fluids at a point is directly proportional to depth (h) of the point from
free fluid surface.
(ii) Pressure in fluids at a point is directly proportional to density (ρ) of the fluid.
(iii) Pressure in fluids at a point is directly proportional to acceleration due to gravity
(g).
(iv) Pressure in fluids at a point is independent of the area of cross-section.
(v) Pressure in fluids at a point is same in all directions.
Mathematically P = hρg.

Q. 31 Sense of hearing is affected while rapidly gaining or losing height. Why?

Ans. When a person rapidly gains or loses height, the air pressure outside the ear drum
changes with respect to air pressure on the other side of ear drum in eustachian tube.
Thus the ear drum either bulges in or out and hence does not vibrate properly. It is on
account of this reason that hearing is affected.
Q. 32 Nose of some people starts bleeding when aeroplane climbs up rapidly. Why?
Ans. When one suddenly gains height the atmospheric pressure suddenly drops. Thus
pressure of dissolved air in blood becomes too large as compared to air outside. This
difference in atmospheric pressure sometimes bursts the fine capillaries in the nose
and hence it starts bleeding.

Q. 33 A soda straw does not draw liquid, if there is a tiny hole near the upper end.Why?
Ans. If there is a hole near the upper end of soda straw, the atmospheric pressure does not
fall due to suction. As atmospheric pressure within the straw does not fall, hence air
pressure will not force the liquid up in the straw.
Pressure in Fluids & Atmospheric Pressure 63
Q. 34 Why do ink pen start leaking at higher altitudes ?
Ans. When atmospheric pressure on higher atitudes decreases the air present within tube
of ink pen at higher pressure forces the ink out. Thus ink pen starts leaking.

Q. 35 Why are two holes made in oil tin to remove oil from it?
Ans. If a single hole is made the oil will not flow out because it will be supported by
atmospheric pressure. Thus in order to force out the oil, two holes are made so that
air enters from one hole, exerts pressure on oil and forces it out from the other hole.

Q. 36 Why does the liquid not run out of a dropper unless rubber bulb is pressed?
Ans. It is because the liquid is supported by atmospheric pressure. However when we press
the rubber bulb the pressure of air within the dropper becomes more than atmospheric
pressure hence it forces the liquid out.

Q. 37 Why does food cook faster in a pressure cooker?

Ans. It is because the pressure inside the pressure cooker is 2 atmosphere which raises the
temperature of water to 120°C. As this temperature is much higher than cooking
temperature of most of food materials, food cooks faster.

Q. 38 Why does the liquid rise in a syringe when its piston is pulled up?
Ans. When the syringe is kept with its opening just inside the liquid and the plunger is
pulled up in the barrel, the pressure inside the barrel below the plunger becomes much
less than the atmospheric pressure acting on the liquid. As a result, the atmospheric
pressure forces the liquid to rise up in the syringe.

Q. 39 A glass container contains a liquid of density 'p', when the height of liquid
is 'h' and acceleration due to gravity is 'g. If PA is the atmospheric pressure,
calculate :

(i) The pressure on the free surface of the liquid.

(ii) The total pressure at the base of container.
(iii) What is the magnitude of lateral pressure at the base of liquid, on the
inner side of container?

Ans. (I) Pressure on the free surface of the liquid is PA.

(ii) The total pressure at the base of liquid is PA + hpg
(iii) The magnitude of lateral pressure is PA + hpg.

Q. 40 Fill in the blanks with appropriate words or phrases.

(I) The pressure of sea water for same depth than the river
is water. (less, more)

(ii) The pressure of air as we move upward. (increases, decreases)

(iii) The fluids exert pressure in all directions at a given point.
(different, same)
(iv) The fluid pressure of liquid increases with increase in (depth,
area of cross-section)
64 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Ans. (i) The pressure of sea water for same depth is more than the river water.
(ii) The pressure of air decreases as we move upward.
(iii) The fluids exert same pressure in all directions at a given point.
(iv) The fluid pressure of a liquid increases with increase in depth.
Type 3 Applications and Measuring Instrument
Q. 41 Name the instrument used for measuring the atmospheric pressure.
Ans. Barometer.
Q. 42 Explain why water is not a suitable barometric liquid.
Ans. Water barometer will support 10.34 m of water column at sea level. It is impractical to
have such a long tube. Also water vaporises under vacuum conditions and hence water
barometer will never show true atmospheric pressure.
Q. 43 Why is mercury used as barometric liquid ?
Ans. The vapour pressure of mercury is almost negligible under vacuum conditions.
Thus mercury barometer shows true atmospheric pressure. Also mercury is the densest
-³
liquid (13.6 gcm ) at room temperature. Thus a short column of mercury can exert as
much pressure as atmosphere. Mercury also does not wet the sides of glass and can be
obtained in pure state.
Q. 44 What are disadvantages of using water as barometric liquid?
Ans. Disadvatages of using water as a barometeric liquid If water is used in a barometer, it
has the following disadvantages :
-³
(1) The density of water is now (= 10 kg m ), so nearly 10.4 m height of water
column is needed to balance the normal atmospheric pressure. But it is higly
inconvenient to take a tube of height 10.4 m for a barometer.
(2) The vapour pressure of water is high, so its vapours in the vacuum space will
make the reading inaccurate.
(3) Water sticks with the glass tube and wets it, so the reading becomes inaccurate.
(4) Water is transparent, so its surface is not easily seen while taking theobservation.

Q. 45 State 2 factors which do not affect barometric height at

Ans. Barometric height is independent of: given place.
(i) area of cross-section of barometric tube.
(ii) angle of inclination of barometric tube.
Q. 46 Name 4 factors which affect barometric height at a given place.
Ans. Barometric height changes with:
(i) change in temperature
(ii) change in humidity of air
(iii) Mercury is impure
(iv) tube is not dry.
Pressure in Fluids & Atmospheric Pressure 65
Q. 47 Why is the barometric pressure of a place expressed in centimetres of
mercury rather than in Pascals?
Ans. The barometeric pressure of a place depends on the length of mercury.
... 1 atm. pressure = 76 cm of mercury pressure.

Q. 48 State the forecast in the following situations :

(i) Air is hot and dry and atmospheric pressure falls suddenly.
(ii) Air is humid and barometric pressure falls suddenly.
(iii) Barometric pressure rises steeply.
(iv) Barometric pressure does not change.
(v) Barometric pressure falls gradually over number of days.

Ans(i) The forecast is dust storm.

(ii) The forecast is rain storm.
(iii) The forecast is dry weather with strong anticyclonic winds.
(iv) The forecast is fair weather.
(v)The forecast is that weather gradually changes from fair to windy over number days.

Q. 49 State two major defects of a simple barometer.

Ans. Impurities may fall in and get mixed with the mercury as the trough is open.
No protection for glass tube and barometer is non portable. As the level of mercury
keeps on changing inside the tube and in trough, zero reference mark keeps changing.
Therefore no scale can be marked on tube.

Q. 50How is the barometric height of a simple barometer affected if:

(i) its tube is pushed down into the trough of mercury,
(ii) its tube is slightly tilted from the vertical,.
(iii) a drop of liquid is inserted inside the tube?

Ans(i) Remains unaffected as atmospheric pressure at a place is constant.

(ii) Remains unaffected as atmospheric pressure at a place is constant.
(iii) If a drop of liquid gets into the tube, it will immediately change into the vapours
in the vacuum space and the vapours of the liquid will exert pressure on the
mercury column due to which the barometric height will decrease.

Q.51 State two advantages of an aneroid barometer.

Advantages of aneroid barometer are:
Ans.(i) They are light and portable.
(ii) The zero of the scale need not be repeatedly adjusted.
66 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q32 Explain how aneroid barometer is used for

(i) Forecasting weather (ii) As an altimeter
Ans. (I) If the barometric height on a particular day is less than normal height, it shows
fall in pressure. If fall in pressure is steep it could mean dust storm or rain.
However, if there is gradual drop in pressure, it means that weather will change
from normal to windy. If there is no change in height, it is fair weather. If there is
a rise in barometric height it means dry or anticyclonic weather.
(ii) Altimeter: An altimeter is an aneroid barometer, but it is used in aircraft to meas
ure its altitude. Since atmospheric pressure_decreases with the incerase in height
above the sea level, therefore a barometer which measures the atmospheric
pressure, can be used to determine the altitude of a place above the sea leavel.
Q. 53 How will you set up such an instrument in a laboratory?
Ans. Take a tube 1 m long, closed at one end. Fill it completely with mercury. By placing
thumb on the open end of tube, invert the tube in the bowl of mercury and then remove
the thumb. It is seen that fairly large length of mercury is supported in the tube.
On measuring, the length of mercury from its level in tube to the level of mercury in the
bowl, it is found to be 76 cm at sea level. This length is equivalent to atmospheric
pressure.
Q. 54 State the precautions for the using simple barometer. Precautions:
Ans. (i) The barometer tube should be perfectly clean and dry.
(ii) The mercury should be pure and dry.
(iii) No air bubbles should be left inside the tube filled with mercury.
(iv) Record the vertical height of mercury column in the tube, by holding the tube in
an upright position.
Q. 55 Draw a neat diagram of aneroid barometer.
Ans.
Circular Scale
76 77
78
75
P
Pointer

Wheel
S D
Rod L

Box B
(b)
(a)
Aneroid barometer
Pressure in Fluids & Atmospheric Pressure 67
Q. 56 Describe an experiment to demonstrate that air exerts pressure?,
Ans. (i) Initially the shape of the thin tin container is
maintained as the pressure inside the can is the
same as the air pressure outside.
1
(ii) Water is filled in the can and boiled. This drives
out much of the air. The pressure of the steam
still equals that of the air outside.

(iii) Replacing the cap prevents entry of air. As the

steam cools and condenses to water, a partial
vacuum is created. 2

(iv) Outside pressure is now greater than the inside

pressure and the can is crushed. Above experiment
demonstrates how the atmosphere exerts pressure
inwards at any surface.
3
Q. 57 State any two uses of hydraulic press.

Ans. (i) It is used for compressing straw and cotton bales.

(ii) It is used for punching holes in metal sheets.

Q. 58 The diagram alongside is a simplified version of

hydraulic press. Answer the following questions?
(I) What is the pressure exerted on the piston P ?

(ii) What isthe pressure throughout E L

the fluid ?

P Q
(iii) What is the pressure exerted by the
fluid on piston Q?
Area = a Area = A

(iv) What is the thrust on the piston Q?

(v) Calculate the mechanical advantage

of pressure from the above data.

Ans. Pressure on piston P = Force = E

Area A
68 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(ii) Pressure exerted by fluid = E [As pressure is transmitted equally in all

directions] a
E
(iii) Pressure exerted on piston Q = Pressure in fluid = a

(iv) Thrust (force) acting on piston Q in upward direction

E
Force x area = a x A.

(v) Force (thrust) acting on piston in downward direction = L

... L= E x A.
a
Q. 59 (i) What does Fig. I tell about pressure in liquids?
(ii) What does Fig. II tell about pressure
in liquids ?
Water Water
Ans. (i) It shows that fluid pressure is directly H
proportional to depth.
(ii) It shows that fluid pressure at a given depth is H
same in all direction.
Fig - 1 X Fig - 11 X

Formulae
1. P = hdg
F₁ F
2. A₁ = A where F , F are thrust acting on cross-sectional Areas
A , A respectively.

Solved Numericals

Type 1: To Calculate Pressure

1. Calculate the pressure exerted by 0.8 m vertical length of alcohol of density

0.8 gcm-³ in Pascals.

Solution :

height = 0.8 m,
density = 0.8 gcm- = 800 kgm -
g = 10 ms-
P = hdg
= (0.8 x 800 x 10)
= 6400 Pascal.
Pressure in Fluids & Atmospheric Pressure 69

2. Normal pressure of air is 76 cm of Mercury. Calculate pressure in S.I. units.

[dHg = 13600 kgm³, g = 10 ms ²]
Solution :
-3 -2
h = 76 cm = 0.76 m, d = 13600 kgm , g = 10 ms
P = hdg
= (0.76 x 13600 × 10)
= 103,360 Pa.

3. The pressure of water on ground floor is 1,60,000 Pa. Calculate pressure on

5th floor at a height of 15 m. Solution :

Solution :
Pressure of water on ground floor = 1,60,000 Pa
Height of fifth floor = 15 m .
Pressure due to 15 m of water h. d. g
= (15 x 1000 × 10)
= 150,000 Pa.
Pressure on fifth floor = (1,60,000 1,50,000)
= = 10,000 Pa.

4. The atmospheric pressure at a place is 650 mm of mercury. Express the

pressure in (i) pascals (ii) millibars.
[Take dig 13,600 kg m³; g = 9.8 ms²]

Solution :
h = 650 mm = 0.65 m; p = 13,600 kg m-³; g = 9.8 ms-2
-3 -2
P = hdg = 0.65 m x 13,600 kg m x 9.8 ms = 86632 Pa.

Pressure in millibars = 86632

.. 10 = 866.32 mb

5. A vessel of base area 100 cm x 60 cm and height 200 cm is completely filled

with a liquid of density 1.1 x 103 kg m³.
(a) Ignoring the atmospheric pressure, find:
(i) the thrust at the bottom of the vessel
(ii) the pressure at the bottom of the vessel
(iii) the pressure at a depth of 5 cm from the free surface
(iv) the net force experienced by a metal foil of area 10 cm³ placed at a
depth of 5 cm from the free surface
(b) The thrust at the bottom of the vessel if the atmospheric pressure
equal to 1 x 10 Nm- is taken into account. Take g = 9.8 ms- .
Solution:

(a) Given, area of base of vessel = 100 cm x 60 cm

= 100 x 100 m = 0.6 m²
100 100
70 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

height = 200 cm, p = 1.1 x 10 kg m - , g = 9.8 ms-

Volume of the vessel = 100 cm x 60 cm x 200 cm
100 m x 60 m x 200 m
=
100 100 100

= 1.2 m²

(I) Thrust at the bottom of the vessel = Weight of liquid in the vessel
= Volume x density p x g
= 1.2 x (1.1 x 10 ) x 9.8
= 1.294 x 10 N

Thrust
(ii) Pressure at the bottom of the veseel =
Area

= 1.294×10 N
0.6m

= 2.16 x 10 Nm-

(iii) Pressure at a depth of 5 cm (= 0.05 m) from the free surface

= hpg = 0.05 x (1.1 x 10 ) x 9.8 = 539 Nm-²

(iv) Net force on the metal foil will be zero because the force exerted by the liquid
on each of the two faces (upper and lower) of foil, will be equal and opposite.
(b) Total pressure at the bottom of vessel = Atmospheric pressure + pressure at the
bottom due to liquid column
= (1.0 × 10 ) + (2.16 × 10 )
= (1.0 x 10 ) + (0.216 × 10 )
= 1.216 x 10 Nm-

... Total thrust at the bottom = Pressure x Area

= (1.216 x 10 ) x 0.6 = 7.296 x 10 N.

6. In figure, a tube of length 200 cm filled with a liquid of density 0.9 x 103 kg m
is placed inclined with the vertical such that the level A of liquid in the tube is at
a vertical height 100 cm from its lowest point C. There is a point B in the tube
below the point A at a vertical depth 60 cm.
(a) Calculate the pressure at points
(i) A, (ii) B and (iii) C
Pressure in Fluids & Atmospheric Pressure 71

(b) What will be pressure at point C when the tube is made vertical ?
Take atmospheric pressure = 1.013 x 10 Nm- .
A

60 cm

20
B

0c
m
40 cm

Solution :
Given, p = 0.9 x 10 kg m- , Po = 1.013 x 10 Nm-², g = 9.8 ms
(a) (i) At the point A,
Pressure = Atmospheric pressure (P )
= 1.013 × 10 Nm-
(ii) At the point B,

Pressure = Atmospheric pressure + pressure due to liquid column of vertical

height 60 cm (h = 0.6 m)
=Po+hpg

= (1.013 × 10 ) + [0.6 x (0.9 x 10 ) x 9.8]

= (1.013 × 10 ) + (0.053 × 10 )
= 1.066 x 10 Nm-

(iii) At the point C,

Pressure = Atmospheric pressure + pressure due to liquid column of vertical
height 100 cm (h 1m) (1.013 x 10 ) + [1 x (0.9 x 10³) x 9.8]
= (1.013 × 10 ) + (0.0882 x 10 )
= 1.101 x 10 Nm-

(b) On making the tube vertical, at the point C.

Pressure = Atmospheric pressure + pressure due to liquid column of height
200 cm (h = 2 m)
= (1.013 × 10 ) + [2 x (0.9 x 10³) x 9.8]
= (1.013 × 10 ) + (0.0882 x 10 )
= 1.189 x 10 Nm- .
72 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Type 2: To Calculate Thrust

7. A cube of each side 5 cm is placed inside a liquid. The pressure at the centre of one
face of cube is 10 Pa. Calculate the thrust exerted by the liquid on this face.

Solution :
Given, pressure P = 10 Pa,
5 5
Area of face A = 5 cm x 5 cm = m x m
100 100
= 25 x 10- m

The thrust exerted by the liquid on the face

F = P x A = 10 Pa x (25 x 10- ) m² = 2.5 x 10- N

Type 3 To Calculate Depth

8. Pressure at the bottom of sea is 8,968,960 Pa. If density of sea water is 1040 kg m³,
calculate depth of sea.

Solution

P = 8,968,960 Pa., d = 1040 kgm-³, g = 10 ms-

P = hdg
P
... h = d.g = 8,968, 960
1040 x 10
... h = 862.40 m.

9. ...
The atmospheric pressure is 10 Nm- and density of water is 10 kgm-³. Calculate the
.
..
depth of water at which pressure is double the atmospheric pressure.
Solution:
Let atmospheric pressure = P
... 2P = P + [hн 0 . dн 0 . g] ... P = hн o . dн 0. g
... 10 = hн 0 x 1000 × 10
... hн o = 10 m

Type 4: To Calculate Height

10. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is 76 cm of Hg. Calculate vertical height of air
column exerting above pressure. Assume density of air 1.29 kgm-³, and that of
Hg= 13600 kgm-³. Why is the height calculated by you far less than actual height of
atmosphere ?

Solution :
hHg= 0.76 m, hAir = ?
-
dHg = 13,600 kgm-³, dAir = 1.29 kgm
hHg x dHg = hAir x dAir
Pressure in Fluids & Atmospheric Pressure 73
hHg X dHg
... h ir = 0.76 X 13600
dAir 1.29
= 8012.40 m
Here it is assumed that density of air is constant. However in actual practise density
of air decreases rapidly with gain in height. Thus actual height of atmosphere is greater
than calculated height.
11. The pressure of water on ground floor in a water pipe is 1,50,000 Pa. whereas
pressure on fourth floor is 30,000 Pa. Calculate the height on fourth floor.
Ans. Pressure of water on ground floor = 1,50,000 Pa.
Pressure of water on fourth floor = 30,000 Pa.

... Difference of pressure = 1,20,000 Pa = hwater X dwater x g

1,20,000 hwater x 1000 x 10
h = 12 m .
... Height of 4th floor = 12 m

12. What vertical height of water will exert a pressure of 3,33,200 Pa? Density
- -
of water is 1000 kgm and g = 9.8 ms .

Solution :
h = ?; P = 333200 Pa; d = 1000 kg m- ; g = 9.8 ms-

P 333200
h = dg =1000 × 9.8

= 34 m.

Type 5: To Calculate Force

13. A metal plate of length 1.5 m and width 0.2 m is placed 40 cm below alcohol
of density 800 kgm. If the atmospheric pressure is 80 cm of Hg. Calculate
force experienced by the plate.
Solution:
Surface area of plate = 1.5 x 0.2 = 0.3 m²
Pressure due to air alone = hHg x dHg x g
= 0.8 x 13600 × 10
= 108,800 Pa.

Pressure due to Alcohol only = hAlc. x dAlc. x g

= 0.4 x 800 x 10
= 3200 Pa.
... Total pressure = PAir + PAlc.

... Total pressure = (108,800+ 3200)

= 1,12,000 Pa.

... Force acting on plate = P x Area

= (1,12,000 x 0.3)
= 33600 N.
74 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Numericals
Type 1: To Calculate Pressure

1. Figure shows a cube of each side 15 cm immersed in a tub containing water of

density 10 kg m such that its top surface is 20 cm below the free surface of water.

Calculate:
(I) the pressure at the top of the cube. 20cm
(ii) the pressure at the bottom of the cube. 15cm
(iii) the resultant pressure on the cube. CUBE
(iv) the resultant thrust on the cube.

Take atmospheric pressure = 10 Pa and g = 9.8 N kg- .

An air bubble rises from the bottom of a lake of depth 10.34 m to its surface.
Compare the pressure on bubble at the bottom to that on surface. (Atmospheric
pressure = 0.76 m of Hg, density of Hg= 13.6 x 10 kg m- and density of water =
10 kg m- )

Type 2: To Calculate Thrust

3. A square plate of side 10 m is placed horizontally Im below the surface of water.

The atmospheric pressure is 1.013 x 10 Nm- . Calculate the total thrust on the plate.
(Density of water p = 10 kg m-³, g = 9.8 m s-²) =
-³
4. The area of base of a cylindrical vessel is 300 cm². Water (density = 1000 kg m ) is
poured into it up to a depth of 6 cm. Calculate:
(i) the pressure
(ii) the thrust of water on the base. (g = 10 ms-²).

Type 3: To Calculate Depth

5. At what depth below the surface of water will pressure be equal to twice the
atmospheric pressure? The atmospheric pressure is 10 N cm- , density of water = 10³
kg m- g= 9.8 ms- .

Type 4: To Calculate Height

6. At sea level, the atmospheric pressure is 1.0 x 10 Pa. Assuming g = 10 ms- and
density of air to be uniform and equal to 1.3 kg m- , find the height of the
atmosphere.

7. At a given place, a mercury barometer records a pressure of 0.70 m of Hg. What

would be the height of water column if mercury in barometer is replaced by water?
Take density of mercury to be 13.6 × 10 kg m-

Type 5: To Calculate Area

8. A mercury barometer reads 75 cm. Now 3 cm³ of atmospheric air is introduced into
the tube. The mercury falls to a height of 65 cm and the length of air column above
the mercury is found to be 15 cm. Calculate the cross sectional area of the barometer
tube.
Pressure in Fluids & Atmospheric Pressure 75

ANSWERS (CLASSWORK NUMERICALS)

1. (I) 1.0196 x 10 Pa (ii) 1.0343 x 10 Pa (iii) 1.47 x 10 Pa (iv) 33.074 N

(upwards)
2. 2:1 3. 1.111 x 10 N
4. (i) 600 Pa, (ii) 18 N 5. h = 10.2 m
6. 8000 m 7. 9.52 m
8. 1.5 cm

SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 (i) Why do pulses and meat not cook well on hills?
(ii) How does boiling point of a liquid change with increase in pressure?
Q.2 (i) Why are weather observation balloons filled partially with helium gas at
ground level?
(ii) Why are special suits worn by astronauts while floating in space?
Q.3 (i) Why are passenger cabins in an aeroplane pressurised?
(ii) Explain how aneroid barometer is used as an Altimeter.
Q.4 Why are the walls of a river dam built broader at the base and narrow at the top?
Q.5 Explain principle of transmission of pressure in fluids.
Q.6 What is altimeter ? State its principle. How is its scale calibrated.
Q.7 State two advantages of an aneroid barometer over a simple barometer.
Q.8 State two uses of barometer.
Q.9 Convert 13 mm of Hg into Pascal. Take density of
Hg = 13.6 x 10 kgm and g = 9.8 ms-
Q.10 State two major defects of a simple barometer.
Q.11 Calculate the equivalent height of mercury, which will exert as much pressure as
960 m of sea water of density 1040 kg- ..
.[Density of mercury is 13,600 kg m-3]
Q.12 Calculate the depth of salt water lake, if the pressure at its base is 16 times the
atmospheric pressure. The density of salt water is 1050 kgm- and acceleration due
to gravity is 10 ms- . The atmospheric pressure is 10 Nem- .
Q.13 The surface area of the upper surface of a submarine is 200 m². If the submarine
is 70 m below the sea water, calculate the total force acting on its upper surface.
[Density of sea water = 1040 kg m , density of mercury = 13,600 kgm³,
atmospheric pressure = 75 cm of mercury and g = 10 ms ]
Q.14 The radii of press plunger and pump plunger are in the ratio of 50: 4. If an effort
of 40 kg facts on pump plunger, calculate the maximum resistance the press
plunger can overcome.
Q.15 The normal pressure of air is 76 cm of mercury. Calculate the pressure in S.I.units.
[Density of mercury is 13,600 kgm and g = 10 ms- ].
 Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes'
5 Principle and Floatation

Syllabus
Buoyancy, Archimedes' principle, floatation, relationship with density; relative density,
determination of relative density of a solid.
Scope: Buoyancy, upthrust (FR); definition; different cases, FB> or < weight W of the
body immersed; characteristic properties of upthrust; Archimedes' principle; explanation
of cases where bodies with density p>=or< the density p' of the fluid in which it is
immersed. R.D. and Archimedes' principle. Experimental determinations of R.D. of a
solid and liquid denser than water. Floatation; principle of floatation; relation between
the density of a floating body, density of the liquid in which it is floating and the fraction
of volume of the body immersed; (p/p₂ = V₂/V); apparent weight of floating object;
application to ship, submarine, iceberg, balloons, etc. Simple numerical problems
involving Archimedes' principle and floatation.

Theory Questions & Answers

Type 1: Upthrust in fluids and Archimede's Principle and floatation

Q. 1 Define Upthrust. State its S. I. unit.

Ans. The upward force experienced by a body, when partly or wholly immersed in a fluid
is called upthrust or buoyant force.
S. I. unit is N or kgf
Q. 2 Define Buoyancy?
Ans. The property of liquid to exert an upward force on a body immersed in it, is called
buoyancy.
Q. 3 State the factors on which Upthrust depends.
Ans. The magnitude of upthrust on a body due to a liquid (or fluid) depends on the
following two factors: (i) Volume of the body submerged in liquid (or fluid), and
(ii) density of the liquid (or fluid) in which the body is submerged.
Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes' Principle and Floatation 77
Q.4 State whether upthrust will increase or decrease if :
(i) volume of solid increases
(ii) density of liquid in which solid is immersed decreases.

Ans. (i) Upthrust = Vdg

... Upthrust will increase with increase in volume of solid.
(ii) Upthrust will decrease with decrease in density of liquid.

Q.5 State Archimede's principle.

Ans. Archimede's principle states that when a body is immersed partially or completely in
a liquid, it experiences an upthrust, which is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
by it.
Note: Archimedes principle applies not only to liquids but also to gases.

Q.6 Show that upthrust = weight of displaced liquid. Upthrust FB = vpg.

Ans. A solid when immersed in a liquid, displaces liquid equal to the volume of its
submerged part, therefore
Vpg = Volume of solid immersed density of liquidx acceleration due to gravity.
or Vpg = Volume of liquid displaced x density of liquidx acceleration due to gravity.
= mass of liquid displacedx acceleration due to gravity
=Weight of the liquid displaced by the submerged part of the body.
Hence, Upthrust = Weight of the liquid displaced by the submerged part of the body.

Q. 7 A body held completely immersed inside a liquid experiences two forces:

F₁ the force due to gravity and F₂ the buoyant force. Draw a diagram showing the
direction of these forces acting on the body and state the condition
when the body will float or sink.
Ans. F

If F₂ > F₁ or F2 = F₁, the body will float and if F > F₁, the body will sink.

Q. 8 What do you understand by centre of buoyancy?

Ans. Centre of buoyancy is the imaginary point, where the total upthrust, due to fluid
displaced by the immersed part of body is supposed to act.
(i) When the weight of body is more than the upthrust, it sinks.
(ii) When the weight of body is equal to upthrust, it just floats.
(iii) When the weight of body is less than upthrust, it floats.
78 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 9 A body dipped into liquid experiences an upthrust. State the factors on which
upthrust on the body depends. While floating is the weight of the body greater than,
equal to or less than the upthrust.

Ans. Upthrust experienced by a body depends on :

(i) density of the floating body (hence volume).
(ii) density of the fluid in which body is floating.
(iii) volume of the body immersed in the fluid.
(iv) acceleration due to gravity at that place where the body is floating.
While the body floats, weight of the body is equal to the upthrust.

Q. 10 Will the pressure exerted by water on a diver at a certain depth in the sea, be the
same, more, or less than the pressure exerted on him in a river at the same depth?
Justify your answer.

Ans. Density of sea water is more than density of river water.Pressure depends on density,
hence pressure due to sea water is more than river water
for the given depth.

Q. 11 Will the weight of iron sinker plus cork combination in water be more or less than
that of iron sinker alone in water explain briefly.

Ans. Weight of sinker alone in water will be more than iron sinker plus cork combined in
water. In second case increase of weight due to that of cork in water is less than
decrease of weight due to water displaced by cork.

Q. 12 Will a body weigh more in air or in vacuum when weighed with a spring
balance ? Give reason for your answer.

Ans. A body will weigh more in vacuum than in air because when the body is weighed in
vacuum the only force acting on it is the force of gravity hence its weight is 'mg' but
when the same body is weighed in air it experiences another force, vertically in the
upward direction due to upthrust of air displaced by it. This upward force makes the
weight of the body slightly less than its real weight in vacuum.

Q. 13 A bunch of feathers and a stone of the same mass fall at different rates in air. Which
falls faster and why? How will your observation change if they are allowed to fall
together in vacuum?

Ans. Stone falls faster than the bunch of feathers. As volume of stone is less than that of
the bunch of feathers of same mass, upthrust due to air on stone will be less than that
on the bunch of feathers. In vacuum, there will be no upthrust so both the bunch of
feathers and stone will fall together.

Q. 14 A person cannot sit easily on the floor of a water tank filled with water.
Why?
Ans. The density of human body is slightly more than water. Thus under the surface of
water, the person apparently becomes weightless on account of upthrust. It is
because of this large upthrust he cannot sit easily on floor of tank.
Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes' Principle and Floatation 79
Q.15 Big boulders are carried by fast moving rivers over hundreds of kilometres.
Explain.
Ans. The apparent weight of big boulders is far less than their real weight, because of the
upthrust due to water. It is on account of this low apparent weight that they are
carried for hundreds of kilometres by strong water currents.

Q. 16 A swimmer can easily carry a drowning man to shore. Explain.

Ans. It is because the apparent weight of the drowning man is less as compared to the
true weight on account of large upthrust. Thus a swimmer can easily carry the person.

Q. 17 Which of the two will weigh more in air:

(i) one kg of cotton
(ii) one kg of iron.

Explain on the basis of upthrust.

Ans. One kg of iron will weigh more than one kg of cotton. The volume of iron is very
small as compared to cotton. Thus upthrust experienced by iron is far less as compared
to that by cotton. Thus iron weighs more than cotton.

Q.18 It is easier to lift a heavy stone under water than in air. Explain.
Ans. Upthrust acts on a heavy stone under water so that stone appears lighter than
its real water.

Q.19 A combination of wood and iron just floats in water at room temperature.
What will you observe when the water is heated?
Ans. The combination would sink. It is because initially the weight, hence the density of
combination equals that of water. However on heating the density of water decreases
rapidly as compared to density of combination. Thus upthrust becomes less than
weight of combination and hence it sinks.

Q.20 A body of weight W experiences an upthrust R in water. What will be the

apparent weight of the body and apparent density of body when :

(i) W > R (ii) W = R (iii) W< R ?

Ans. (i) apparent weight = (W-R) apparent density = (d-1) gem-

(ii) apparent weight = zero apparent density = zero.
(iii) apparent weight = zero apparent density = zero.

Q.21 A body of density p is immersed in a liquid of density PL- State the condition
when the body will (i) float (ii) sink, in liquid.
Ans. (i) If p =PL or p < PL- body floats in liquid

(ii) If p > PL - body sinks in liquid.

Type 2: Law of Floatation

Q.22 State the law of floatation.

Ans. It states "The weight of a floating body is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
by the immersed portion of the body".
OR
80 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Law of floatation states: When a solid is floating in a fluid, then the weight of the
whole body acting vertically downwards through centre of gravity is equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the immersed part of the body acting vertically
upwards through centre of buoyancy.
In a floating condition, a body is weightless. Its apparent weight and apparent density
is zero.

Q. 23 What do you understand by the terms:

centre of buoyancy
Ans. Centre of buoyancy is a point, where the upward force (buoyant force due to the
weight of liquid displaced) acts on a floating body.

Q. 24 When a piece of wood is suspended from the hook of a spring balance, it reads 70 gf.
The wood is now lowered into water. What reading do you expect on the scale of the
spring balance?
Ans. The piece of wood will float on water and while floating, apparent weight = 0
Q. 25 Fig. shows the same block of wood floating in three different liquids A, B and C of
densities r , r , and r , respectively? Which of the liquid has the highest density? Give
reason for your answer.

Ans.

A B C
The upthrust acting on body is same by each liquid in A, B, C respectively.
Upthrust = weight of liquid = volume submerged x ρL x g. The volume of the body
submerged is least in liquid C. Density P , must be maximum.

Q. 26 A man first swims in sea water and then in river water.

(i) Compare the weight of sea water and river water displaced by him.
(ii) Where does he find it easier to swim and why?

Ans. When a person first swims in sea water and then in river water :
(i) The weight of sea water displaced is equal to the weight of river water displaced
by him.
(ii) He will find it easier to swim in sea water than in river water. In sea water he
will experience more upward thrust because sea water is denser than river water.

Q. 27 A block of wood is so weighed that it just floats in water in a jar at room

temperature.
(i) If water is heated what change will occur in state of floatation of the
block?
(ii) If water in the jar is cooled to 4°C what change will be observed in the state of
floatation ?
(I) When water is heated, it expands hence the volume increases, as a result
density reduces. Hence block of wood will sink deeper in hot water.
(ii) When water is cooled, it contracts hence the volume decreases, as a result
density increases. Hence block of wood will float at a higher level than normal
room temperature condition.
Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes' Principle and Floatation 81
Q.28 A fresh egg sinks in pure water, but floats in saline water. Explain.
Ans. The density of saline water is more than fresh water further more the density of saline
water is more than egg. Thus it experiences more upthrust in saline water than its own
weight and hence floats. However it experiences less upthrust than its own weight
in fresh water and hence sinks.

Q.29 A rotten egg floats in fresh water. Explain

Ans. The density of rotten egg is less than density of fresh water. Thus it experiences more
upthrust than its own weight and hence floats.

Q.30 A dead body floats with its head immersed in water.

Ans. Volume of the dead body slightly increases due to decay of tissues. However the
volume of head which consists of solid bone does not increase. Thus the body
displaces more weight of water than its own weight and hence floats up. However
the head displaces less weight of water than its own weight and hence remains
under water.

Q. 31 A glass filled with water upto the brim contains some amount of ice. When
the ice melts water does not overflow. Explain.
Ans. When ice is floating in a glass of water already filled to brim it has already displaced
water equal to its own weight. Thus when ice melts no extra weight of water is
displaced and hence water does not over flow.

Q. 32 Explain briefly why a balloon filled with helium gas rises in air. Why does the
balloon rise to a particular height above the ground and does not rise further?
Ans. The balloon filled with helium rises in air because density of helium is less than
density of air. The upthrust is more than the weight of the balloon. The density of
air goes on decreasing as we go higher and higher above the surface of earth. A stage
reaches when the upwards thrust due to air is equal to the weight of helium balloon.
At this height the balloon will be in equilibrium and does not rise further.

Q.33. Why does a ship made of iron not sink in water while an iron nail sinks in it ?
Ans. As the volume of iron nail is small, it does not displace sufficient water to balance.
Therefore it sinks. In case of a ship the construction is such that it can displace much
more water than its own weight with the entire permissible cargo inside. It therefore
keeps afloat. For safety reasons a ship is loaded only to such an extent that it does not
sink below the plimsoll line marked on its hull.

Q. 34 Icebergs floating in sea are dangerous for ships. Explain.

Ans. (i) Icebergs are lighter than water,
(ii) Depending upon the density of water, major part of icebergs are inside the water
and only a small part is outside the water,
(iii) For driver of ship it becomes difficult to estimate the size of icebergs.
Thus, they are very dangerous for ships and they may collide with them
.
Type 3 Density and Relative Density

Q.35 What is density ?

Ans. The density of a substance is its mass per unit volume.
82 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 36 State the (I) C.G.S. and (ii) S.I. units of density.

Ans. (i) C.G.S. g cm-³
-³
(ii) S.I. - kgm

Q. 37 What is understood by the term 'Relative density' of a substance?

Ans. Relative density of a substance is defined as the ratio of density of a substance to
density of water at 4°C.
Mathematically,
Density of substance
Relative density = Density of water at 4°C

Also defined as Ratio of mass of substance to the mass of same volume of water at
4°C.
Mathematically,
Mass of a given substance
Relative density = Mass of same volume of water at 4° C

R.D. does not have units.

Q. 38 What is the unit of Relative Density ?

Ans. Relative Density has no unit.

Q. 39 Distinguish between Density & Relative Density?

Ans.
Density Relative density
Density of a substance is the mass Relative density of a substance is
1. per unit volume of that substance. the ratio of density of that substance
to the density of water at 4°C
It has no unit.
2. It is expressed in g cm³ or kg m-3

Q. 40 How does the density of water change with temperature ?

Ans. On heating from 0°C, the density of water increases upto 4°C and then decrease
beyond 4°C.

Q. 41 How are the (i) mass (ii) volume (iii) density of a metallic piece affected, if at all,
Ans. with increase in temperature ?
(I) Mass remain unchanged.
(ii) Volume increases.
(iii) Density decreases.
Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes' Principle and Floatation 83

Important Formulae
1. Upthrust = V.d.g.
where,
'V' is volume of fluid displaced,
'd' is the density of liquid and
'g' is the acceleration due to gravity.

wt. of solid in air

2. (a) R. D. of solid =
wt. of solid in air - wt. of solid in water
Wair
=
Wair - Wwater

W
(b) For a solid soluble in water, R.D = W - W X R.D of liquid.

Loss of wt. of solid in liquid Wair - Wliquid

3. R.D. of liquid = Loss of wt. of solid in water = W - W

dsolid Vimmersed part

4. For a floating solid, = V
dliquid total solid

5. Volume of immersed part of body = Density of body

Total volume of body Density of liquid

Solved Numericals
Type 1: To find Tension / Lifting Power

1. A metal cube of edge 5 cm and relative density 9 is suspended by a thread so as to

be completely immersed in a liquid of relative density 1.2. Find the tension in the
thread.

Solution :
In CGS system, density = Relative density
density of cube = 9 gm/cm³
density of liquid = 1.2 gm/cm³
Volume of cube = (5) = 125 cm³

... Weight of cube = Volume x density x g = (125 x 9) 1125 gf.

Now Upthrust = Wt. of liquid displaced
= volume of liquid x density of liquid x g
= (125 x 1.2) = 150 gf.
... Tension in the string = Net downward force
= weight - Upthrust
= (1125 - 150) = 975 gf.
... Tension in the string = 975 gf.
84 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

2. A balloon of volume 800 cm³ is filled with hydrogen gas of density 0.09 gm/ lit. If
empty balloon weighs 0.3 g and density of air is 1.3 g/lit. Find the lifting power of
the balloon.

Solution:
Lifting power of ballon = Net upward thrust.
... Upthrust = Wt. of displaced air

[ [
= Volume x density × g = 800 x 1.3 × g = 1.04 gf.
1000
Down thrust = (wt. of enclosed hydrogen) + (wt. of empty balloon)

= [ 1000 [
800 x 0.09 g + 0.3g = 0.372 gf.

Lifting power = (1.04 0.372)

= 0.668 gf.

Type 2: To find Volume

3. A block of mass 7 kg and volume 0.07 m³ floats in a liquid of density 140 kg/m³.
Calculate :
(i) Density of block.
(ii) Volume of block above surface of liquid

Solution :
(I) Weight of block = 7 kgf
Mass of block = 7 kg
Volume of block = 0.07 m³
Density of block = mass/volume
= (7/0.07) 100 kg/m³
(ii) Weight Upthrust

7 kgf = Volume of liquid displaced x density of liquid x g

... 7 kg: = Volume x 140.
Volume of liquid displaced = 0.05 m³
Volume of liquid displaced = Volume of solid immersed = 0.05 m
... Volume of solid
above surface of liquid = (0.07 0.05) = 0.02 m³.
... Volume exposed above liquid = 0.02 m³

4. A solid weighs 200 gf in air and 160 gf in water. Calculate its density. What is the
volume of the solid ?

Solution :
Density = 200 200 = 5 g/cm³
=
160 - 20 40

Volume of solid = app. loss of wt. in water

= 200 160 = 40 cm³.
Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes' Principle and Floatation 85
5. A solid of weight 400 gf and R.D. = 0.5 floats in a liquid of R.D. = 1.5.
Calculate the volume of the solid out of liquid.

Solution :
W = 400 gf, Vs = 4000 = 800 cm
5
Vs X D s = V L X D L

... 800 x 0.5 = V₁ X 1.5. ... VL = 800 × 5 = 3

15
[
800
[ cm³
800 2400 - 800
volume outside = 800 - 3 =
3
1600
= = 533.33 cm³
3
6. A bottle can hold 100 g of water at 4° C. Calculate the mass of sea water it can hold.
-3
[Density of sea water = 1.03 gcm ]

Solution:
... Let the volume of the bottle be 'V' ml. .

Volume of sea water = Volume of water at 4° C.

... = mass of sea water = mass of water
density of sea water density of water

... = mass of sea water = 100

1030 1000
... = Mass of sea water = 103 g
Type 3: To find Apparent Weight

7. A solid body weighs 2.10 N in air. Its density is 8.4. How much will the
body weigh if placed :

(i) in water?
(ii) in a liquid of relative density 1.2 ?
Solution :
Weight of solid = 2.10 N
Mass of solid = 0.21 kg = 210 g
M 210
V= = = 25 cm³
D 8.4

(i) Upthrust in water = Vs. dl = 25 x 1

=25 gf = 0.25 N

Apparent weight in water = 2.1 0.25 = 1.85 N

86 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(ii) Upthrust in liquid V.dl = 25 x 1.2 = 30 gf = 0.30 N

Apparent weight in liquid = 2.1 0.30 = 1.80 N
A solid of density 5000 kg/m³ weighs 0.5 kg in air. It is completely immersed in
a liquid of density 800 kg/m³. Calculate the apparent weight of solid in the
liquid.

Solution:
Density of solid = 5000 kg/m³
Mass of solid = 0.5 kg.

... Volume of solid = Mass = 0.5 = 10- m³

Density 5000
...
Upthrust = V x dL x g = 10- x 800 × g = 0.08 kgf .

... Loss of weight = upthrust = 0.08 kgf

... Apparent weight of solid in the liquid = 0.5 kgf - 0.08 kgf
= 0.42 kg.

9. A solid weighs 150 gf in air and 120 gf, when completely immersed in water.
Calculate the volume of the solid and hence density of the solid. Also calculate the
apparent weight of the solid when half immersed in a liquid of R.D.= 1.2

Solution :
(i) U₁ = WT - apparent weight

... U₁ = 150 - 120 = 30 gf.

Also U₁ = V x DL x g => 30 gf = Vs x 1 x g
30 = Vs x 1
... Vs = 30 cm³

... ds = M = 150 = 5 g/cm³

Vs 30
(ii) U₂ = 30 x 1.2 x g = 18 gf.
2
... Apparent weight = 150 - 18 = 132 gf

10. A solid of weight 200 gf when half immersed in a liquid of R.D. = 2 weighs 160 gf.
Determine the volume of solid. Hence calculate its weight when completely
immersed in water.

Solution :
U = WT - WA = Vsolid x Dliquid

200-160 = 1 x Vsolid x 2 x g→ 40 gf = V x g
2
... V 40 cm³
solid
Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes' Principle and Floatation 87
Uwater = Vsolid X Dliquid X g = 40 x 1 x g
= 40 x 1 = 40 gf.
Apparent weight in water = 200 - 40
= 160 gf

Type 4: To find Force

11. A block of wood is floating in water. The portion of the block inside water
measures 50 cm x 50 cm x 50 cm. What is the magnitude of buoyancy force acting
on the block?
Solution:
Volume of block immersed in water = (50 x 50 x 50)
= 125 x 103 cm
According to law of floatation, force of buoyancy is the weight of water displaced by
the immersed portion of the body and is given by,

F= V x dx g
= (125 x 10 ) x (1) x (980)
= 1225 Newton..

... The buoyancy force acting on the block = 1225 N

Type 5 Relative Density

12. A solid of relative density 5.5 is found to weigh 70 gf in a liquid of relative

density 0.7. Find its weight in air and apparent weight in water.
Solution :
wt. of solid in air
Relative density of solid = loss of wt of solid in water

Loss of weight of solid in liquid

Relative density of liquid = Loss of weight of solid in water

Let weight of solid in air = x gf.

and weight of solid in water = y gf.
Loss of weight in water = (xy) gf)

x
... 5.5 =
(x-y)
5.5x - 5.5y = x
... 4.5 x = 5.5y
... y = 0.82 x

Loss of wt. of solid in liquid = (x - 70) gf.

... 0.7 = (x-70)

(x-y)
88 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

... 0.7 x - 0.7y = (x -70) ... 0.7 x - 0.7 (0.82 x) = x 70 ... 0.874 x 70.
... x = 80.1 gf and y = 65.67 gf.

... Weight of solid in air = 80.1 gf and

Weight of solid in water = 65.7 gf

13.A solid weighs 75 gf in air, 56.7 gf in water and 59.2 gf in liquid. If the solid is tied to a
cork of 4 gf, the combination weighs 40.5 gf in water. Find relative density of:
(i) solid (ii) liquid (iii) cork.
Solution :
wt of solid in air
(I) Relative density of solid =
Apparent loss of weight in H2O

75
= =4.09
(75-56.7)
Apparent loss of wt in liquid
(ii) Relative density of liquid =
Apparent loss of wt in water

= (75-59.2) = 0.86
(75-56.7)

(iii) Now weight of cork in water (56.7 40.5) = 16.2 gf.

Weight of cork in air = 4 gf.
Loss of weight in water = (4 - [-16.2]) = 20.2 gf
4
... Relative density of cork = = 0.198
20.2

14. A solid weighs 400 gf in air, 360 gf in water and 340 gf in a liquid.
Determine:
(i) Volume of solid.
(ii) Density of solid.
(iii) Density of liquid.
(iv) Weight when immersed in liquid of R.D. = 0.5.

Solution :
(I) V X 1 x g = Apparent loss of weight
V x 1 x g = 400 - 360
V = 40 cm³

(ii) Density of solid = 400 = 400 = 10 g/cm³

400-360 40
Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes' Principle and Floatation 89

400-340 60
(iii) Density of liquid = = = 1.5 g/cm³
400-360 40
(iv) U = 40 x 0.5 × g = 20 gf

Weight in liquid = WU - U = 400 - 20 = 380 gf

15. A body of R.D. = 0.7 floats in a liquid half immersed. Calculate the R.D. of the
liquid.
Solution :

W=U
... V, x D, x g = V X D X g
L

Vsx 0.7 = VS 2 × DL

... 1.4Vs = DL.

R.D. of the liquid = 1.4

16. The mass of a density bottle is 20 g when empty, 40 g when filled with water
and 35 g when filled with another liquid. Calculate the relative density of the
liquid.

Solution :
Mass of empty density bottle = 20 g

Mass of bottle with water = 40 g

... Mass of water = (40 - 20) = 20 g
... Mass of liquid = (35 - 20) = 15 g.
Mass of certain volume of liquid
... Relative density =
Mass of same volume of water

15
= = 0.75
20
... Relative density of liquid = 0.75

17. The following observations were taken while determining Relative density of
a liquid:
Weight of solid in air = 0.100 kgf.
Weight of solid in liquid = 0.080 kgf.
Weight of solid in water = 0.075 kgf.
Calculate :
(i) Apparent loss of weight of solid in liquid.
(ii) Apparent loss of weight of solid in water.
(iii) Relative density of liquid.
90 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Solution :
(I) Apparent loss of wt. of solid in liquid
= (0.100 - 0.080) = 0.02 kgf
(ii) Apparent loss of wt. of solid in water
= (0.100 - 0.075) = 0.025 kgf

(iii) Relative density of liquid = Loss of wt. in liquid

Loss of wt. in water
= 0.02 0.025 = 0.8
... Relative density of liquid = 0.8

18. A cube of ice whose side is 4 cm is allowed to melt. The volume of water so formed
is found to be 58.24 cm³. Find density of ice.
Solution :
Volume of ice = (4 x 4 x 4) = 64 cm³
Volume of water = 58.24 cm³
Density of water = 1 gcm-³.
Using the relation,
[Vdg]ice = [Vdg]H,0
58.24
... 64 x dice × g = 58.24 x 1 x g. ... dice = = 0.9 gcm [
... -³ 64
Density of ice = 0.9 gem .

19. A jeweller claims that he makes ornaments of pure gold that has relative density
19.3. He sells a bangle weighing 25.5 g to a person. The clever customer weighs the
bangle when immersed in water and finds that it weighs 23.075 g in water. With the
help of suitable calculations find out whether the ornament is made of pure gold or
not.

Solution :

Relative density of pure gold = 19.3

Weight in Air = 25.5 g;
Weight in Water = 23.075 g
If gold is pure
Weight in Air
R.D. = Weight in Air - Weight in H₂O
25.5 25.5
R.D. = 25.5-23.075 = 2.425 =10.51

Since the relative density value differs from calculated value the customer
concludes that gold is not pure.
Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes' Principle and Floatation 91
20. Relative density of silver is 10.8 What is the density of silver in S.I. units ?
Solution :

Since relative density = Density of substance

density of water 4°C

Density of silver = R.D. x density of water at 4° C

= (10.8 x 1000) = 10,800 kg/m³

Density of silver in S.I. units = 10,800 kg/m³

Numericals

Type 1 To find Tension / Lifting Power

1. A metal cube of side 5 cm and density 9.0 g cm³ is suspended by a thread and is
immersed completely in a liquid of density 1.2 g cm³. Find the tension in the thread.

Type 2: To find Volume

2. A piece of brass weighs 175 gf in air and 150 gf when fully submerged in water.
The density of water is 1.0 g cm- .

(I) What is the volume of the brass piece ?

(ii) Why does the brass piece weigh less in water?

Type 3: To find Apparent Weight

3. A piece of iron of density 7.8 x 10 kg m- and volume 100 cm³ is totally immersed
-³
in water (p 1000 kg m ). Calculate :
(i) the weight of the iron piece in air.
(ii) the upthrust.
-²
(iii) its apparent weight in water. (g = 10 m s ).

4. A body of mass 3.5 kg dispalces 1000 cm³ of water when fully immersed inside it.

Calculate :
(i) the volume of body.
(ii) the upthrust on body
(iii) the apparent weight of body in water.

Type 4: To find Force

5. A block of wood is floating on water with its dimensions 50 cm x 50 cm x 50 cm

inside water. Calculate the buoyant force acting on the block. (Take g = 9.8 N kg-¹)

Type 5: Relative Density

6. A solid weighs 120 gf in air and 105 gf when it is completely immersed in water.
Calculate the relative density of solid.
92 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

7. A solid weighs 50 gf in air and 44 gf when completely immersed in water. Calculate :

(I) the upthrust

(ii) the volume of the solid
(iii) the relative density of the solid.

8. A piece of stone of mass 15.1 g is first immersed in a liquid and it weighs 10.9 gf.
Then on immersing the piece of stone in water, it weighs 9.7 gf. Calculate :

(I) the weight of the piece of stone in air

(ii) the volume of the piece of stone
(iii) the relative density of stone
(iv) the relative density of the liquid
th
9. A block of wood floats in water with 2 of its volume above the surface. Calculate
the density of wood. 5

10. A piece of wood of volume 200 cm³ and density 0.84 g cm- floats in a liquid of
density 1.05 g cm- .

(I) What volume of wood will remain above the surface of liquid?
(ii) What force must be exerted on the wood to keep it totally submerged?

ANSWERS (NUMERICALS)
1. 9.75 N 2. (i) 25 cm³, (ii) due to upthrust
3. (I) 7.8 N, (ii) 1 N, (iii) 6.8 N 4. (i) 1000 cm³, (ii) 1 kgf, (iii) 2.5 kgf
5. 1225 N 6. 8
7. (i) 6 gf, (ii) 6 cm³, (iii) 8.33
8. (i) 15.1 gf, (ii) 5.4 cm³, (iii) 2.8, (iv) 0.78
9. 0.6 g cm- 10. (i) 40 cm³, (ii) 42 gf

SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q. 1 State Archimede's principle.

Q. 2 What do you understand by the term centre of buoyancy?

Q. 3 Explain why stones, sand etc. called ballast are placed in the ship.

Q. 4. A wooden cylinder of length 40.0 cm and area of cross section 5.0 cm², floats in
a liquid of density 0.72 gem such that 4.0 cm of the cylinder is
abovewater.Calculate:
(I) the density of the wood; (ii) the mass of the wood.

Q. 5 Define Buoyancy.
Upthrust in Fluids, Archimedes' Principle and Floatation 93

Q.6 A wooden block floats in water with two thirds of its volume submerged. Calculate
density of wood. When the same block is placed in oil three quarter of its volume
is immersed in oil. Calculate density of oil.

Q.7 State two factors on which upthrust on the body depends.

Q.8 Describe an experiment to verify the Archimede's principle.

Q.9 State the factors on which buoyancy depends.

Q.10 A body of density 800 kg/m³ has 80 % of its volume submerged in a liquid. Find
the density of the liquid. What will be density of the liquid in which it is completely
immersed ?
Q.11 A glass marble of mass (m) = 20 g is held under water in a tall jar at point B. The
forces acting on the marble are shown in the diagram. F₁ = mg F = mg
(i) What do F, and F₂ represent ?
(ii) Calculate the net force acting on the marble and state its
direction. Water
(iii) Calculate the acceleration with which the marble falls through B Glass
water. Assume there is no force of friction between the marble. Maeble
and water. [Take volume of marble 8 cm³, density of water
1 gcm- and acceleration due to gravity 10 ms- [.

F = mg
Q.12 A solid of density 5000 kg m- weighs 0.5 kgf in air. It icompletely immersed
in water of density 1000 kg m- . Calculate the apparent weight of the solid in water.

Q.13 How is the weight of water displaced by a floating body related to the weight of
the body itself?
Q.14 Differentiate between density and relative density.
Q. 15 Fishes can float in water. Give reason.

Q.16 A wooden block floats in water with two thirds of its volume submerged.
Calculate density of wood. When the same block is placed in oil three quarter of
its volume is immersed in oil. Calculate density of oil.
Q.17 A piece of wood 15 cm long sinks 10 cm in water and 12 cm in spirit. Find relative
density of wood and spirit.

Q.18 A test tube loaded with lead shots, weighs 150 gf and floats up to mark X in
water. The test tube is made to the float in alcohol. It is found that 27 gf of lead
shots have to be removed, so as to let it float to level X. Find R.D. of alcohol.
Q.19 Explain, a ship begins to submerge more as it sails from sea water to river water.

Q.20 A metal cube of 5 cm edge and relative density 9 is suspended by a thread so as

to be completely immersed in a liquid of R.D. = 1.2. Find the tension in the thread.
 6 Heat and Energy

Syllabus
(A) Concepts of heat and temperature.
Scope - Heat as energy. SI unit joule, 1 cal = 4.186 J exactly.
Anomalous expansion of water.
Scope - Anomalous expansion of water, graphs showing variation of volume and
density of water with temperature in the 0 to 10°C range. Hope's experiment and
consequences of anomalous expansion.

(B) Energy flow and its importance.

Scope Understanding the flow of energy as linear and linking it with the laws of
thermodynamics - 'energy is neither created nor destroyed' and 'no energy transfer is
100% efficient'.
(C) Energy sources. Renewable versus non-renewable sources (elementary ideas with
example), energy degradation.
Scope Solar, wind, water and nuclear energy (only qualitative discussion of steps -
to produce electricity).
Renewable energy Bio gas, solar energy, wind energy, energy from falling of water,
run-of-the river schemes, energy from waste, tidal energy, etc. Issues of economic
viability and ability to meet demands.
Non-renewable energy Coal, oil, natural gas, inequitable use of energy in urban
and rural areas, use of hydroelectrical power for light and tube-wells.
(D) Green house effect and global warming
Scope Meaning and impact on the life on earth. Projections for the future; what 1
needs to be done.
Energy degradation Meaning and examples.

(A) Heat and Temperature, Anomalous Expansion

Theory Questions & Answers

Type 1: Concepts of Heat & Temperature

Q. 1 What is heat? State its S. I. & C.G.S. unit.
Ans. Heat is the sum total of potential and kinetic energies of all molecules of the matter
which causes in us the sensation of warmth. The S.I. unit of heat is joule (J) and
C.G.S. unit is erg. Other units of heat are calorie (cal) and kilocalorie (Kcal)
Heat and Energy 95
Q. 2 How is the S.I. unit of heat related to the unit calorie ?
Ans. 1 cal = 4.186 J

... IJ = 4.186
1
= 0.24 cal
Q.3 (i)Define temperature (ii) State its S.I. unit

Ans. (I) Temperature is a quantity which determines the direction of flow of heat on keeping
the two bodies at different temperatures in contact. OR
The degree of hotness or coldness of a body is termed as temperature.
(ii) S. I. unit of temperature is Kelvin (K).

Q.4 Two bodies at different temperature are placed in contact. State the direction
in which heat will flow.
Ans. Heat will flow from body at a higher temperature to a body at lower temperature.

Q.5 State points of differences between heat and temperature.

Ans. Heat .
Temperature

(I) Heat is a form of energy obtained due Temperature is a quantity which

to random motion of molecules a determines the direction of flow of heat on
substance keeping the two bodies at different
temperatures in contact.
(ii) The S.I. unit of heat is joule (J) The S. I. unit of temperature is kelvin (K).
(iii) The amount of heat contained in a The temperature of a body depends on the
body depends on mass, temperature average kinetic energy of its molecules due
and material of body. to their random motion.
(iv) Heat is measured by the principle of Temperature is measured by a .
calorimetry. thermometer.
(v) Two bodies having same quantity of Two bodies at same temperature may
heat may differ in their temperature. differ in the quantities of heat contained
in them
(vi) When two bodies are placed in When two bodies at different temperatures
contact, the total amount of heat is are placed in contact, the resultant
equal to the sum of heat of the temperature is a temperature in between
individual bodies. the two temperatures.
Q. 6 State four effects which heat energy can bring about.
Ans. Heat energy can bring about :
(i) change in temperature (ii) change in dimensions of a body.
(iii) change in state of a body. (iv) chemical reaction in a body.

Type 2: Expansion of Solids

Q.7 Explain thermal expansion on the basis of kinetic theory.
Ans. According to kinetic theory when a substance is heated, average kinetic energy
of the molecules increases and they start vibrating more rapidly. As a result of this
the mean distance between the molecules increases. Thus there is an increase
length, area in and volume of the substance.
96 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 8 (i) Name two substances which expand on heating.

Ans. Aluminium, Brass.
(ii) Name two substances which contract on heating. Ans. Water from 0°C to 4°C
Silver iodide from 80°C to 141°C.

Q. 9 Name one substance which has negligible expansion on heating. Ans. Invar has
negligible expansion on heating. It has a negligibly small coefficient of linear
expansion.

Q.10 Define: (i) Thermal expansion (ii) Linear expansion

(iii) Superficial expansion (iv) Cubical expansion

Ans. (I) Thermal expansion: The expansion of a substance on heating is called the
thermal expansion of substance.
(ii) Linear expansion: If the surface area of a material is too small such that it can be
neglected then increase in length of the substance on heating is called linear
expansion.
(iii) Superficial expansion: If the solid is in the form of a plate such that its thickness
is too small as compared to surface area and hence can be neglected then increase in
surface area on heating is called superficial expansion.
(iv) Cubical expansion : Increase in volume of a substance on heating is called
cubical expansion.
Type 3: Anamalous Expansion of Water

Q.11 What do you mean by anomalous expansion of water ?

Ans. The expansion of water when it is cooled from 4°C to 0°C, is known as anomalous
expansion of water.

Q.12 Why does a glass bottle filled completely with water and tightly corked, break
in a freezer chamber of fridge?

Ans. When the temperature of water within the glass bottle falls below 4°C, it starts
expanding due to anomalous expansion. Since, there is no space for expansion, it
exerts tremendous pressure and bursts open the bottle.

Q.13 Why are exposed water pipes lagged with straw in hilly regions during
winter ?

Ans. When the pipes are lagged, the temperature of water within the pipes does not fall
below 4° C. Thus, due to anomalous water will not exert force on pipes and hence,
escape bursting.

Q.14 Why are the taps left dripping in sub-zero temperatures during winter ?
Ans. The dripping taps will always create some space for expansion. Thus, when water in
the pipes freeze in sub-zero temperatures, due to its anomalous expansion, it expands.
This expanding water always finds space for expanison as tap is dripping. Thus,
water pipes do not burst.
Heat and Energy 97
Q.15 Fishes survive in ponds even when the atmospheric temperature is well below
0°C. Explain.
Ans. The temperature of water in contact with ice is at 0°C, while temperature of water
below the ice remains at 4°C. As a result, fish and other aquatic creatures remain
alive in the water of the pond, though water of the surface has frozen into ice.

Q.16 Why do vegetables and fruits get damaged during severe winter?
Ans. When the water in the cell sap freezes, it expands due to anomalous expansion.
This expanding water breaks the cell walls, which in turn damages fruits.

Q.17 A partly filled balloon is placed close to an electric heater. After some time,
it is noticed that ballon gets fully inflated. Explain.
Ans. It is because, gases expand on heating. The increase in volume of gas in turn inflates
the balloon.

Q.18 Draw a graph between volume and temperature when 5 cm³ of ice at -10° C is
heated to form water at 10° C is heated to form water at 10° C.
Ans.

Ice i
5 n sol
id sta
te
4
volume in cm

Ice melts to
form water
3
Water decreases in Water increases
2 volume till 4°C in volume

-10 -8 -6 -4 -2 0 2 4 6 8 10
Temperature (°C)
Q.19. A deep pound of water has its top layer frozen during winter. What will be the
temperature of water layer :

(i) just in contact with ice?

(ii) At the bottom of pound?

Ans. (i) The temperature of water just in contact with ice is 0° C.

(ii) The temperature of water at the bottom of pound is 4° C.

Q.20 State the effect of temperature on density of a substance.

Ans. Density of a substance decreases with increase in temperature.

Q.22 At what temperature the density of water is maximum ? State its value.
Ans. Temperature = 4°C
Density = 1000 kgm-
98 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.22 State the volume changes that you will observe when a given mass of water is
heated from 0°C to 10°C. Sketch a temperature volume graph to show the
behaviour.

Ans. The volume of water first decreases when it is heated from 0°C to 4°C and then
increases when it is heated above 4°C to 10°C.

↑
v

1 cm

4°C

Q.23 Draw a graph to show the variation of density of water with temperature in the range
from 0°C to 10°C.
Ans.
1 g cm-
↑
density

4°C
↑

Q.24 Explain construction of Hope's apparatus with the help of a diagram.

Ans. Hope devised a simple arrangement, known as Hope's apparatus for demonstrating
the anomalous expansion of water.
THERMOMETER T

0°C
FREEZING
MIXTURE
TROUGH

THERMOMETER T₂
WATER

4°C
METALLIC
CYLINDER
Heat and Energy 99
The apparatus consists of a tall metallic cylinder provided with two side openings P
near the top and Q near the bottom, fitted with thermometers T, and T, respectively.
The central part of the cylinder is surrounded by a cylindrical trough containing a
freezing mixture of ice and salt. the cylinder is filled with pure water at room
temperature. The temperature recorded by both the thermometers is observed at a
regular interval of time.
Q.25 Draw a diagram showing the temperature of various layers of water in an ice
covered pond.
Ans ATMOSPHERE BELOW 0°C

ICE AT 0°C
0°C
WATER

4°C

(B) Energy Flow and its Importance

Theory Questions & Answers

Type 4 Energy Flow and its Importance

Q.26 What is an ecosystem?

Ans. An ecosystem is all the plants and animals that live in a particular area with the
complex relationship that exist between them and their environment.
A unit. composed of biotic and abiotic components is called an ecosystem.

Q.27 What is the source of energy for all ecosystems ?

Ans. The sun is the source of energy for all ecosystems.

Q.28 Difference between Producers and Consumers.

Ans.
Producers Consumers

Producers synthesise organic substances Consumers obtain their food from

(I) by the process of photosynthesis
producers.
(ii) They use energy for respiration process They use energy for performing
and oxidation of organic substances. metabolic process and some part of
energy is stored as food.
(iii) Energy produced is 20, 810 cal. Energy consumed from producers is
3,368 cal.
(iv) Eg. Green plants Eg. All animals.

Q.29 State the function of decomposers in an ecosystem?

Ans. The process of decomposition of dead bodies of plants and animals and converting it
into nutrient food is done by decomposers.
100 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.30 What is food chain?

Ans. "The energy flow in ecosystems is linear." Thus this chain is called food chain.

Q.31 Describe energy flow in ecosystems.

Ans.

Tertiary
Consumers

↑ Secondary
Consumers
(carnivores)
↑ Primary Consumers

↑ (herbivores)
↑

Sun Producers (Plants)

At the base of ecosystem there are producers which produce food by the process of
photosynthesis with the help of solar energy. Producers first use the energy in the
process of respiration, growth, development and important metabolic processes.
Primary consumers obtain their food from producers, they obtain a small part of
energy
from producers and rest is wasted in decay composition. Primary consumers utilise it
for respiration through which they perform metabolic processes of their body and
remaining part is stored in them as food.
A small part of energy stored as food in the primary consumers is obtained by the
secondary consumers. They again make use of a part of energy in respiration and rest
is stored as food.
By repeating the sequence, the tertiary consumers obtain energy as food from the
secondary consumers and utilise a small part of it in respiration and remaining is
wasted in decomposition.

Q.32 Show that the energy flow in ecosystem is linear.

Ans. In an ecosystem, photosynthetic plant and bacteria function as producers. The food
synthesised by producers is utilised by primary consumers.
The primary consumers are eaten by secondary consumers and in turn they are
consumed by tertiary consumers. The energy flow in ecosystem is linear i.e. it moves
in one direction. At the end, the energy reaches to the degraded (or unuseful) state. It
doesnot return to the sun. Thus the energy flow is linear.
Heat and Energy 101
Q.33 Draw a simple diagram showing a food chain.
Ans.
Sun

Producer
Primary
consumer

Krill

Secondary
Heron Consumer
Small
fish

Tertiary
Consumer

Man

Large fish

Q.34 Draw a diagram to show that the energy flow in an ecosystem is governed
by law of conservation of energy.
Ans.
6,612 cal 6 cal 14,198 cal
6 cal

Terdary consumers (carnivores)

21 cal 15
cal
46 cal
Respiration (metabollsm)

67 cal

Secondary consumers (camivores)

383 cal 316
DECAY

cal Net
1,095 cal production
1,478 cal

Primary consumers (herbivores)

9,368 cal
1,890
cal
5,465 cal
8,833 cal Gross
production

Producers (plants)
Sun 20,810 cal
11,977 cal
102 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.35 Give a diagrammatic explanation of energy flow in ecosystem in form of a

food chain.
Solar energy
Ans. Sun
Producers (plants)
Absorbed energy

Photo-
synthesis
Heat of evaporation,
conduction and Gross production
convection
20810 cal Respiration
11977 cal
Net production
8833 cal
Death Consumed
5465 cal
Primary consumers
(herbiveres)
3368 cal Respiration
Energy loss in
excretion 1890 cal
Net production
1478 cal
Death Gonsumed
1095 cal
Secondary consumers
(camivores)
Energy loss in 383 cal Respiration
excretion 316 cal
Net production
67 cal
Death Consumed
46 cal
Tertiary consumers
(carnivores)
21 cal Respiration
15 cal

Death
6 cal

Type 5: Application of Laws of Thermodynamics in Energy Flow.

Q.36 State the law which govern the energy flow in an ecosystem.

Ans. The law is stated as "Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, it can be
transformed from one form to another form".

Q.37 Explain the application of laws of Thermodynamics in energy flow.

Ans. According to the first law of thermodynamics, the energy can be transformed from
one form to the other form, but it can neither be created nor destroyed. When certain
amount of one form of energy is destroyed, then the same amount of another form of
energy is created. According to the second law of thermodynamics, when energy is
put to work a part of it is always converted in unuseful form as heat mainly, due to
friction and radiation. In all such cases the total sum of useful and unuseful energy
remains constant. The energy used in respiration and in decay (or death) appears as
unuseful heat energy because this energy does not reach to the consumer of next
stage.
Heat and Energy 103
© Energy Sources

Theory Questions & Answers

Type 6 Sources of Energy

Q.38 What are the characteristics of sources of energy?

Ans. A source of energy should be such that it can provide an adequate amount of useful
energy at a steady rate over a long period of time. It should be safe and convenient
to use, economical and easy to store and transport.

Q.39 Name the two groups in which various sources of energy are classified.
Ans. The energy sources are divided into the following two groups:
(i) renewable or non-conventional sources of energy, and
(ii) non-renewable or conventional sources of energy.

Q.40 What are the main sources of renewable energy?

Ans. The main sources of renewable energy are :
(i) Sun
(ii) Wind
(iii) Flowing water (Hydro)
(iv) Biomass and bio fuels from waste
(v) Tides
(vi) Oceans
(vii) Geothermal spots
(viii) Nuclear fuel.

Q.41 What is solar energy? How is it produced ?

Ans. The energy obtained from sun is called the solar energy. In the interior of the sun,
nuclear fusion reactions generate huge amount of energy which is radiated out
continuously in all directions in space.

Q.42 Define solar constant.

Ans. The average solar energy reaching the upper atmosphere of earth per second on an
area of 1 metre is called the solar constant and it is estimated to be nearly
1.34 kW m²².

Q.43 How is solar energy utilized by plants?

Ans. The solar energy absorbed by plants is utilized by them in preparing their food by the
process of photosynthesis.

Q.44 What is wind energy? Why do we have different wind cycles?

Ans. The kinetic energy of wind is called the wind energy. Due to :
(i) unequal heating of different areas of earth,
(ii) rotation of earth and
(iii) local convection currents, we have different wind cycles.
104 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.45 Give three uses of wind energy.

Ans. Three uses are:
(i) In removing husk from grains.
(ii) In propelling sail boats in rivers and seas.
(iii) In windmills to draw water from the ground and to grind grains.

Q.46 What is hydroenergy? Does it come indirectly from sun?

Ans. Hydro energy too comes indirectly from the sun. The solar energy is responsible for
water cycle in nature. Water in oceans, rivers, lakes, etc. absorbs solar energy and it
then evaporates to form clouds. The clouds move due to air currents and ultimately
water comes back on earth in the form of rain and snow.

Q.47 Define Biomass and Bioenergy.

Ans. The wastes and dead parts of living beings like plants, trees and animals, is called bio
mass. They contain carbon compounds.
The chemical energy stored in the bio mass is called the bio energy.

Q.48 Give examples of biomass and give their uses.

Ans. Bio mass such as wood, cattle dung, crop residues and agriculture wastes like bagasse
have been traditionally used as fuel to produce heat energy for domestic as well as
commercial purposes.

Q.49 What is the main constituent of Biogas? State its uses.

Ans. Bio mass is used to produce bio gas by its decomposition in the absence of oxygen.
The main constituent of bio gas is methane (65%) and rest is a mixture of carbon
dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide. Bio gas is used as a fuel to run engines and
for generating electricity.

Q.50 Name two types of Biogas plants in India. Why are biogas plants called gobar gas
plants ?
Ans. In India, we use two types of bio gas plants :
(I) the floating gas holder type and
(ii) the fixed dome type. They are also called Gobar gas plants because the main bio
mass used in these plants is called slurry which is the mixture of animal dung (or
gobar) in water.

Q.51 What is Tidal energy? How is it harnessed?

Ans. The energy possessed by rising and falling water in tides is known as tidal energy.
Tidal energy is harnessed for producing electricity by constructing a dam across a
narrow opening to the sea.

Q.52 Why is tidal energy not a major source of energy?

Ans. Tidal energy is not a major source of energy because of the following two reasons :
(i) The rise and fall of sea water during tides is not enough to generate electricity on a
large scale.
(ii) There are very few sites which are suitable for building the tidal dams.
Heat and Energy 105
Q.53 Name two forms of energy possessed by water in oceans.
Ans. Water in oceans possesses energy in two forms:

(i) ocean thermal energy and

(ii) oceanic (or sea) waves energy.

Q.54 Explain the terms:

(i) Oceano thermal energy
(ii) Ocean thermal energy conversion power plant.

Ans.(i) The energy available due to the difference in temperature of water at the surface
and at deeper levels of ocean is called the ocean thermal energy (OTE).
(ii) Ocean thermal energy is harnessed for producing electricity by a device called
ocean thermal energy conversion power plant (OCTEC power plant)

Q.55 What is oceanic (or sea) waves energy?

Ans. The kinetic energy possessed by fast moving oceanic (or sea) waves is called the
oceanic (or sea) waves energy. This energy also comes indirectly from the sun.

Q.56 Define the terms: (i) Hot spots (ii) Geo thermal energy.
Ans. (i) Hot spots : At some places, rocks below the surface of earth are very hot. Such
places are known as hot spots.
(ii) Geo thermal energy: The heat energy possessed by rocks inside the earth is
called the geo thermal energy.

Q.57 What is nuclear fission ?

Ans. When uranium nucleus is bombarded with a slow neutron, it splits into two nearly
equal light nuclei and a large amount of energy is released. This phenomenon is
called nuclear fission.

Q.58 What is nuclear fusion?

Ans. When two light nuclei combine to form a 'he' nucleus at a very high. temperature
(~10 K) and high pressure, a tremendous amount of energy is released. This
phenomenon is called nuclear fusion.

Q.59 What is origin of energy in nuclear fusion and nuclear fission?

Ans. In both nuclear processes the origin of energy is the loss in mass i.e., the sum of
masses of the products of reaction is less than the sum of masses of reactants and
this loss in mass is converted into energy E according to the Einstein's mass energy
equivalence relation E = mc², where c (=3 x 108 m s¹) is the speed of light and m is
the loss in mass. This energy is known as nuclear energy.

Q.60 What is principle of atom bomb ?

Ans. Controlled chain reaction.

Q.61 How is chain reaction controlled ?

Ans. The chain reaction is controlled by absorbing some neutrons with the help of
cadmium rods in a nuclear reactor.
106 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.62 What are non renewable or conventional sources of energy?

Ans. The sources of energy which have accumulated in nature over a very long period and
cannot be quickly replaced when exhausted, are called the non-renewable or
conventional sources of energy. Coal, petroleum and natural gas known as fossil fuels
are non-renewable sources.

Q.63 What is coal made up of?

Ans. Coal is a non-renewable source made up of complex compounds of carbon, hydrogen
and oxygen along with some free carbon and compounds of nitrogen and sulphur.

Q.64 What are the constituents of petroleum ?

Ans. Petroleum is a dark coloured viscous liquid also called as crude oil. It is a complex
mixture of many hydrocarbons with water, salt, earth particles and other compounds
of carbon, oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur

Q.65 What is L.P.G.? How is it stored ?

Ans. The petroleum gas liquefied under pressure is called the liquefied petroleum gas (or
LPG) which is used in domestic gas stoves as fuel for heating purposes. It is stored in
gas cylinders after mixing a strong smelling substance called ethyl mercaptan
(C₂H SH) so that the gas leakage, if any, from the cylinder can easily be detected.

Q.66 What is the main constituent of Natural gas?

Ans. The main component of natural gas is methane (upto 95%) along with small quantities
of ethane and propane. It easily burns to produce heat.

Type 7 Judicious Use of Energy

Q.67 What measures must be adopted for Judicious use of energy?

Ans. (i) The fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum, etc. should be used only for limited
purposes when no other alternative source of energy is available.
(ii) Wastage of energy should be avoided.
(iii) Cutting of trees must be banned and more and more trees should be planted.
(iv) Efforts must be made to make use of energy in community (or groups).
(v) The use of energy in urban areas is much more than in the rural areas. In rural
areas, the use of renewable sources of energy is easier than in urban areas. In rural
areas, we can use bio gas, wind energy, hydro energy for running lights and tube
wells.
(vi) Such techniques should be developed by which in near future, we may make use
of the renewable sources such as solar energy, wind energy, hydro energy, bio
energy, ocean energy, etc. as much as possible to meet our requirements.
(vii) Efforts must be made to obtain nuclear energy by the controlled nuclear fusion of
deuterium nuclei present in heavy water available in sea. This will then become an
endless source of energy.
Heat and Energy 107
Type 8: Production of Electricity from Solar Energy

Q.68 Explain the terms: (i) Solar cell (ii) Solar power plant.
Ans. (i) The device which converts solar energy directly into the electricity is called a
solar cell.
(ii) A solar heating device used to generate electricity from solar energy, is called a
solar power plant.

Q.69 What are solar cells made from? What is a solar panel ?
Ans. The solar cells are usually made from semiconductors like silicon and gallium. To
increase the efficiency, a large number of such cells are arranged over a large area so
that they could collect a large amount of solar energy to produce sufficient electricity.
Such an arrangement of solar cells is called a solar panel.

Q.70 State uses of solar cells.

Ans. The solar panels are used to supply electricity in the artificial satellites and for
running water pumps, street lighting, radio and television sets in remote, inaccessible
and isolated areas where conventional sources of energy are not available. Small
solar cells are used in watches and calculators.

Q.71 What are advantages of solar panels ?

Ans. Advantages of using solar panels :
(i) They do not require any maintenance.
(ii) They last over a long period of time.
(iii) Their running cost is almost nil.
(iv) They are most suitable for the remote, inaccessible, and isolated places where
electric power lines cannot be laid..
(v) They do not cause any pollution in the environment.

Q.72 What are disadvantages of solar panels ?

Ans. Disadvantages of using solar panels :
(i) The initial cost of a solar panel is sufficiently high.
(ii) The efficiency of conversion of solar energy to electricity is low.
(iii) A solar panel produces d.c. electricity which cannot be directly used for many
household purposes.

Q.73 What is a solar power plant? How does it work?

Ans. A solar power plant is a device in which heat energy of sun is used to generate
electricity. A solar power plant consists of a number of big concave reflectors, at the
focus of which there are black painted water pipes. The reflectors concentrate the heat
energy of sun rays on the pipes due to which water inside the pipes starts boiling and
produces steam. The steam thus produced is used to rotate a steam turbine which
drives a generator producing electricity.
108 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.74 What are advantages of solar energy?

Ans. Advantages of solar energy are:
(I) It does not cause any kind of pollution.
(ii) It is an everlasting (i.e. renewable source of energy).

Q.75 What are disadvantages of solar energy?

Ans. Disadvantages of solar energy are:
(i) The wind farms can be established only at places near the coastal areas where
wind blows around the, year steadily with a speed not less than 15 km h'.
(ii) A large area of land is needed for the establishment of a wind farm.
(iii) The establishment of a wind farm is expensive.

Type 9 Production of Electricity from Wind Energy

Q.76 Explain the working of a wind generator.

Ans. A wind generator is a device in which a small electric generator (or dynamo) is
placed at the top of a pillar. The armature of the dynamo is connected to the shaft
attached with the blades of a wind mill. When the blowing wind strikes the blades
of the wind mill (or turbine), the kinetic energy of wind changes into the rotational
kinetic energy of the blades. The rotation of blades of the turbine rotates the
armature of the dynamo in the magnetic field between the pole pieces N and S of a
strong magnet, thus an alternating e.m.f. is produced between the terminals T and
T.

Q.77 What is a wind farm ?

Ans. The electric power generated by a single wind mill generator is small. So to
generate a sufficient amount of electric power, a large number of such wind
generators are arranged over a big area called a wind farm, and then the electric
power generated by each generator is combined together for supply to the
consumers.

Type 10 Production of Electricity from Water (or Hydro) Energy

Q.78 Explain principle of hydroelectric power plant.

Ans.
Heat and Energy 109
The principle of hydroelectric power plant: The flowing water of river is collected in
a dam at high altitude. The water stored in the dam has the potential energy.
When water from dam falls on the water turbine, the potential energy of the water
stored in dam changes into its kinetic energy and this kinetic energy of water is
transferred to the blades of turbine as the rotational kinetic energy. As the turbine
rotates, it rotates the armature of the generator (or dynamo) in the magnetic field
between the pole pieces N and S of a strong magnet, due to which an alternating
e.m.f. is produced between the terminals T, and T2.
Q.79 What are advantages of using hydro energy?
Ans.
Advantages of using the hydro energy:
(i) It does not produce any environmental pollution.
(ii) It is a renewable source of energy.
(iii) The dams constructed over rivers help us in irrigation and control of floods in
rivers.

Q.80 What are limitations of Hydro energy?

Ans. Limitations of using hydro energy:
(i) The flowing water is not available everywhere.
(ii) Due to the construction of dams over the rivers, plants and animals of that place
get destroyed or killed.
(iii) The ecological balance in the downstream areas of rivers gets disturbed.

Type 11 Production of Electricity from Nuclear Energy

Q.81 What is a nuclear power plant ?
Ans. It is possible to produce electricity from the nuclear energy by the controlled chain
reaction of nuclear fission of a radioactive substance like uranium-235 (or plutonium
- 239). The set up used is called the nuclear power plant.

Q.82 Explain the construction of a nuclear reactor with the help of a diagram.
Ans. In a nuclear reactor, the chain reaction of nuclear fission of uranium-235
(or plutonium-239) is controlled by the cadmium rods. The heat energy released in
the process, is absorbed by the coolant which then passes through the coils of a heat
exchanger containing water. The water in heat exchanger gets heated and converts
into steam. The steam is used to rotate the turbine which in turn rotates the armature
of a generator in a magnetic field and thus electricity is produced.
110 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.83 What are the advantages of using nuclear energy?

Ans. Advantages of using the nuclear energy:
(i) A very small amount of nuclear fuel (such as uranium-235) can produce a
tremendous amount of energy.
(ii) Once the nuclear fuel is loaded into a nuclear power plant, it continues to release
energy over a long period.

(D) Green House Effect and Global Warmming.

Theory Questions & Answers

Type 12 Green House Effect

Q.84 What is green house effect?

Ans. It is the process of warming of planet's surface and its lower atmosphere by
absorption of infrared radiations of long wavelength emitted out from the surface of
planet.

Q.85 What are green house gases ? Give examples.

Ans. The gases which are the good absorber of long wavelength infrared radiation are
called the green house gases. They are carbon dioxide, water vapours, methane and
chlorofluorocarbons.

Q.86 Which solar radiations pass through the atmosphere of the earth?
Ans. Visible light rays and infrared radiation.

Q.87 What would be the temperature of earth in the absence of green house gases
in it?
Ans. In absence of the green house gases in atmosphere, entire heat energy radiated from
the earth's surface and objects on it, would escape out into the space and then the
average temperature on earth would be -18°C (or 0°F) instead of being 15.5°C (or
60°F).

Q.88 What human activities cause an increase of the carbon dioxide gas?
Ans. The main activities responsible for increase of the carbon dioxide gas are given
below:
(i) The burning of fuels, deforestation, transportation and industrial production
(particularly cement factories).
(ii) Increase of population (human beings emit nearly 32 giga tonnes of carbon
dioxide each year).
(iii) Imbalance of carbon dioxide cycle (the ocean does not absorb full amount of
carbon dioxide and the vegetables are not able to change all the carbon dioxide into
oxygen).

Type 13 Global Warming

Q.89 Define Global warming. What are the causes of Global warming?
Ans. The cause of global warming is the increase in concentration of green house gases
present in the atmosphere of earth due to human activities. The increase in different
green house gases is as follows:
Heat and Energy 111
(I) The concentration of carbon dioxide has increased upto 25% due to industrial
growth, combustion of fossil fuels, clearing of forests etc.
(ii) The concentration of methane has doubled due to agricultrural sources such as
rice cultivation and animal husbandry, natural gas exploration, burning of biomass,
clearing of forests and leakage in natural gas pipe lines.
(iii) The concentration of chlorofluorocarbons has increased at a rate of 5% per year.

Q.90 What are the impacts of Global warming on life on the earth?
Ans. The increase in proportion of green house gases in the atmosphere has the following
impacts on the life on earth:
(i) The variable changes in the climate in different parts of the world which has
created difficulties and forced the people and animals to migrate from one place
to the other.
(ii) The change in blooming season of different plants.
(iii) The change in regional climate which has an immediate effect on simple organisms
and plants.
(iv) The change in the world's ecology.
(v) The increase in the heat stroke deaths.

Q.91 Give two technological measures to minimise impact of Global warming?

Ans. The following are three technological measures :

(i) Use of renewable sources of energy to generate electricity in place of generating

electricity from the fossil fuels based power plants.
(ii) Change of transportation vehicles.

(iii) Use of bio-char stoves for cooking.

Q.92 Give two (i) economic measures (ii) social measures to minimise the impact
of global warming?
Ans. To minimise the impact of global warming following measures should be taken.
below:
(i) Economic measures: (a) Reforestation and sustainable use of land (b) Industries
to pay carbon tax.
(ii) Social measures: (a) Educating children to live sustainable life style,
(b) Controlling population through family planning, welfare reforms and the
empowerment of women.
Q.93 What is carbon tax? Who will pay it ?
Ans. Since industries emit carbon dioxide to a good extent, so to check them, they must be
asked to pay carbon tax. This tax can be calculated on the basis of carbon emission
from the industry, number of employee hour and turn over of the industry.
Type 14: Energy Degradation
Q.94 What is degradation of energy? Give three examples for energy degradation.
Ans. The gradual decrease of useful energy due to radiation loss, friction, etc. is called the
degradation of energy.
112 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Examples:

(I) When we light a bulb using electricity, less than 25% of the electrical energy
converts into the light energy
(ii) When we cook food over a fire, the major part of heat energy obtained from the
fuel is radiated out in the atmosphere. This radiated energy is of no use to us. It
is thus the degraded form of energy. (iii) When electrical appliances are run by
electricity, an appreciable part of electrical
energy is wasted in the form of heat energy.

SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q. 1 Explain Anamolous expansion of water on basis of kinetic theory.

Q. 2 Tanks or occean freezes from the surface and not from the botton in
winter.Explain.
Q. 3 The mercury thread rises by 16/19th parts between two standard points on
Fahrenheit scale when placed in hot milk. Calculate the temperature of milk in:
(a) Fahrenheit scale (b) Centigrade scale (c) Kelvin scale.
Q. 4 Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Q. 5 Why does a piece of ice when touched with hand appear cool? Explain.
Q. 6 Draw a simple diagram showing a food chain.
Q. 7 What is hydroenergy? Does it come indirectly from sun?
Q. 8 What is nuclear fission?
Q. 9 What is green house effect?
Q. 10 Give two : (i) economic measures (ii) social measures to minimise the impact of
global warming?
 LIGHT & MIRROR

Reflection of Light &

7 Spherical Mirrors

Syllabus
(A) Reflection of light images formed by a pair of parallel and perpendicular plane
mirrors
Scope Laws of reflection; experimental verification; characteristics of images
formed in a pair of mirrors (a) parallel and (b) perpendicular to each other; uses of
plane mirrors.
(B) Spherical mirrors - characteristics of image formed by these mirrors. (only simple
direct ray diagrams are required) Scope Brief introduction to spherical mirrors-
concave and convex mirrors, centre - and radius of curvature, pole and principal
axis, focus and focal length; location of images from ray diagram for various
positions of a small linear object on the principal axis of concave and convex
mirrors; characteristics of images, f = R/2 (without proof); sign convention and
direct numerical problems using the mirror formulae are included
(Derivation of formula not required). Uses of spherical mirrors. Scale drawing or
graphical representation of ray diagram not required.

Theory Questions & Answers

(A) Reflection of Light

Type 1: Laws of Reflection and formation of image by plane mirror

Q. 1 What do you mean by reflection of light? Ans. The return of light into the same
medium after striking a surface is called reflection of light.

Q. 2 With the help of diagrams explain the difference between regular and irregular
reflection.
Ans. Regular reflection: When a parallel beam of light falls on a plane (regular) surface or
smooth polished surface the reflected beam of light is also parallel as shown in the
figure. This type of reflection is called regular reflection.
114 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Irregular reflection: When a parallel beam of light falls on a curved (irregular)

surface or rough surface the reflected beam of light is not parallel as shown in the
figure. All the reflected rays are spread in different directions. This type of reflection
is Bacalled irregular reflection.

M'
M

Q. 3 By drawing a neat diagram explain the following terms :

(I) Mirror (ii) Normal
(iii) Ray of Light (iv) Incident Ray
(v) Reflected Ray (vi) Angle of Incidence
(vii) Point of Incidence (viii) Angle of Reflection
(ix) Plane of incidence (x) Plane of reflection
Normal

A N
C
An

n
gle

tio
Inc

on
ec
of

Ans. (i) Mirror: A highly polished or a smooth

ide

ti
refl
inc

ec
nt

refl
of
ide

surface from which most of light is her

ray

gle

of
nc

ay
An
e

le

reflected is called a mirror.

dr

ng
cte

a
ce
fle

(ii) Normal: The perpendicular drawn to the

an
Re

Gl

surface at the point of incidence is called Glance angle of

I r
the normal. incidence Reflecting surface

Mirror M
(iii) Ray of Light: The direction of path of light
emanating from a source is called a ray. Ray
is represented by a straight line. with an arrow
marked on it's head.
(iv) Reflected Ray: The ray going away from the reflecting surface after suffering
reflection is called the reflected ray. BC is reflected ray.
(v) Incident Ray: A ray of light which travels towards the mirror is called incident
ray. AB is an incident ray.
(vi) Angle of Incidence: The angle made by the reflected ray with the normal is
called angle of incidence. ABN is the angle of incidence.
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 115
(vii) Angle of Reflection: The angle made by the reflected ray with the normal is
called angle of reflection. /CBN is angle of reflection.
(viii) Point of Incidence: The point on the mirror, where an incident ray strikes is
called point of incidence. 'B' is the point of incidence.
(ix) Plane of Incidence: The plane containing the incident ray and the normal, is
called the plane of incidence.
(x) Plane of Reflection: The plane containing the reflected ray and the normal is
called the plane of reflection.
Q. 4 State two laws of reflection of light.
Ans.
The reflection at a surface obeys the following two laws :
(i) The angle of incidence '' is equal to angle of reflection 'r'. i.e. Zi = r
(ii) The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence lie in
the same plane.
N

A
B
Normal
In
cid

y
Ra
en

ted
tR

c
ay

fle I = angle of incidence
I r Re
r = angle of reflection
M M₁
o
Q. 5 Describe an experiment to verify the laws of reflection.
Ans. Experimental verification of laws of reflection: Take a drawing board. Fix a paper on
it with the help of pins. Draw a straight line MM' on the paper and place a plane
mirror along it. Fix two pins P & Q in front of the mirror. Now looking at their images
in the mirror fix two more pins R & S, so that the image of P and Q and the pins R
and S all lie in the same straight line. Now remove the mirror and join PQ & RS and
produce them to meet at 'O'. Draw normal ON at 'O'.
O

(i) Measure /PON and ZNOS. These two angles M M’

will be equal i.e., Zi = r. r I
R O
or Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection.
This verifies the first law of reflection.
S P
(ii) Incidence ray OP, normal ON and reflected

N
116 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

ray OS lie in the same plane i.e., the plane

of the paper. This verifies the second law of reflection.

Q. 6 Explain the following:

(I) Image (ii) Virtual Image (iii) Real Image.

Ans. (i)Image: When the rays of light diverging from a point, after reflection or refraction,
either actually meet at some other point, or appear to meet at some other point, then
that point is called image of object.
(ii) Virtual Image: When the rays of light, diverging from a point, after reflection,
appear to diverge from another point, then the image so formed is called virtual
image.
(iii) Real Image: When the rays of light, diverging from a point, after reflection,
actually converge at some other point then that point is real image of object.

Q. 7 Write down the three differences between a virtual and real image.
Ans.
Virtual Image Real Image
(I) It is always erect. It is always inverted.
(ii) It cannot be taken on screen. It can always be taken on screen.
The rays of light after reflection actually
(iii) The rays of light after reflection
appears to meet at some point. meet at some point.

Q. 8 Explain the formation of image of a point object by a plane mirror.

Ans. Let MM, be a plane mirror in front of which a point object O is placed. From the
object O, rays of light travel in all directions. Consider two rays from the object O
which fall on mirror MM,. Let OA and OB be two rays incident from the object O
which get reflected from the mirror MM, in directions AC and BD respectively such
that ZCAN, ZOAN, and ZDBN₂ = ZOBN₂. Here AN, and BN, are the normals at =
the points A and B.
C
N N

O D

M A B M

I
Formation of image of a point
object by a plane mirror

When seen from a position between C and D, the rays between C and D appear to
come from some point I behind the mirror. The point I is the image of the object 0. To
locate the position of I, reflected rays AC and BD are produced backwards and the
point where they meet, gives the position of image I. The image is virtual because the
reflected rays AC and BD do not actually meet at I, but to our eye they appear to
come from the point I.
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 117
Q. 9 Explain the formation of image of an extended point formed by a plane mirror.
Ans. Let MM, be a plane mirror in front of which an extended object AB is placed. From
all points of the object, light rays travel in all directions. Consider only two rays
incident on the plane mirror from the end points A and B of the object. Let AP and
AQ be the two rays incident on the mirror from the point A of the object which get
reflected from the mirror as PP and QQ respectivley. These reflected rays when
produced backwards, meet at a point A. Thus A is the virtual image of point A.
Similarly, from the point B of object, BR and BS be the two incident rays on the
mirror which are reflected as RR and SS' respectively. The reflected rays RR and SS'
meet at point B' when produced backwards. Thus, B' is the virtual image of point B.
Similarly, for all other points of the object AB, virtual images are formed between A
and B'. Thus A'B' is the virtual image of the object AB. It is erect and of size equal to
that of the object. The normal distance of each point of image behind the mirror is
same as the normal distance of the corresponding object point in front of the mirror
(i.e. BN = B'N)

Image of an extended object

formed by a plane mirror

Q.10 Prove experimentally that images are formed as far behind in a plane mirror as the
object is in front of it.
Ans. A ray OF incident normally on the mirror gets reflected by the mirror MM, along the
same path (i.e., along FO), since i = 0°, therefore r = 0°. The other incident ray OA
gets reflected along AC, such that ZOAN = ZNAC where AN is the normal drawn at
the point A on mirror MM. The reflected rays FO and AC meet a point I when they
are produced backwards. The point I is the virtual image of the point object O. To
prove that IF = OF

Formation of image of a point object due to

reflection at a plane mirror
118 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

For the incident ray OA reflected as AC,

OAN = angle of incidence i
CAN = angle of reflection r
By the law of reflection, angle of incidence angle of reflection
or OAN = CAN... (1)
But OAN = AOF (Alternate angles)
and CAN = AIF (Corresponding angles)
... AOF = AIF . . . . (2)

Now consider the triangles AOF and AIF

AOF = AIF
AFO = AFI (= 90°)
and FA is the common side.
Therefore, the triangles AOF and AIF are congruent.
Hence, OF = IF ..... (3)
Since OF is the normal drawn from the object O on the mirror, so the normal
distance of the object from the mirror is equal to the normal distance of image from
the mirror. Thus, the image is on the normal drawn from the object on the mirror and
it is as far behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.

Q.11 What is meant by lateral inversion?

Ans. The interchange of the left and right sides in the image of an object in a plane
mirror is called lateral inversion. This is illustrated in the figure.

REST TSER

Q.12 The letters on the front of an ambulance are written laterally inverted like MAMA.
Give reason.
Ans. The driver of the vehicle moving on the road ahead of the ambulance reads
these words laterally inverted as AMBULANCE in his rear view mirror and so he
gives side to let the ambulance pass first.

Q.13 Draw two sets of rays of light to show the formation of image of the letter P.

P
Ans. The diagram has been completed by taking the set of two rays starting from the top
and bottom of letter P.
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 119

Q.14 What are the characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror? How is
the position of image related to the position of the object?

Ans. Characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror :

(i) It is virtual.
(ii) It is always erect.
(iii) It is equal to the size of the object.
(iv) The image is formed as far behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.
(v) The image is laterally inverted.
(vi) Image is situated on the perpendicular drawn from the object to the mirror.
The position of the image is at the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in
front of it. If the object is shifted by a distance 'd' towards the mirror, the image will
also shift by the same distance 'd' towards the mirror, i.e., the separation between the
object and image will decrease by 2d.
Type 2 Images formed in a pair of mirrors

Q.15 Two plane mirrors are placed making an angle in between them. Write an expression
for the number n of images formed of an object placed in between the mirrors. State
whether n is odd or even.
Ans. The number of images formed depends on the angle between the two mirrors.
Following two cases are possible :

360
Case (1) If angle .0° between the mirrors is such that n= is odd,
θ⁰
(i) The number of images is n, when the object is placed asymmetrically
between the mirrors.
(ii) The number of images is n - 1, when the object is placed symmetrically
(i.e., on the bisector of the angle) between the mirrors.

Case (2) If n= 360 is even, the number of images is always n-1 for all
θ⁰
positions of object in between the mirrors.
Q.16 How many images will be formed when an object is placed between two parallel
plane mirrors with their reflecting surfaces facing each other? Why do the
more distant images appear fainter ?
Ans. An infinite number of images will be formed when an object is placed between two
parallel plane mirrors with their reflecting surfaces facing each other. However, the
more distant images appear fainter because at each reflection there is a loss of light
energy. Therefore, only a few images are actually seen.
120 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.17 Draw a diagram to show images formed in two parallel mirrors.

Ans.
A B

I I" I P I’ I
M M

Q.18 How many images are formed for a point source kept in between the two plane
mirrors M, and M, at right angles to each other? P B P
E
Show them by drawing a ray diagram. P

Ans. If two plane mirrors are kept mutually perpendicular to

A
each other then three images are formed for an object C
O
kept in between them.us is able
This is because the image formed by one mirror acts as
an object for the other mirror and thus more than one
P P
images are formed. (P ) D

Q.19 In a dark room a parallel beam of light falls on a plane mirror and another parallel
beam of light falls on a white wall. Explain why the light reflected by the mirror can
only be seen in a certain direction but the reflected light from the wall can be seen
from anywhere.

Ans. A plane mirror has a plane smooth reflecting surface, so regular reflection takes
placeand the reflected light goes in a fixed direction. Therefore, the reflected light
can be seen only in a certain direction which is the direction of the reflected light.
Whereas the wall is a rough surface, so irregular reflection takes place and light is
reflected in all the directions. Therefore, the reflected light can
be seen from anywhere.

Plane Mirror Rough Surface

(a) Irregular Reflection
(a) Regular Reflection
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 121
Q.20 What are uses of plane mirror?
Ans. Uses of plane mirrors :
(i) They are used as looking glass.
(ii) They are used to provide false dimensions in curio shops, etc.
(iii) They are used for signalling purposes.
(iv) They are used for making periscope.
(v) They are used in solar cookers.
(vi) They are used in a Kaleidoscope.
Q.21 A light ray is incident normally on a plane
mirror. Incident ray

(i) What is its angle of incidence?

(ii) What is the direction of the Reflected ray
reflected ray? Show it on diagram.
Plane
Ans. (i) Angle of incidence = 0° Mirror
(ii) Direction of reflected ray is opposite that of incident ray along the same line.

Q.22 The diagram shows the relative positions of a point object P, its image P, in a plane
mirror and the eye of the observer. P Plane Mirror
Use two rays leaving P to show how P is formed
and seen by the eye. Is the image formed real or
virtual? Explain why ?
P
Ans. The formation of the image is shown in fig.
P

I r

P
N

The image formed is virtual because the two reflected rays do not meet actually but
they meet only when they are produced backwards i.e. they appear to meet at P₁
.
Q.23 A lighted candle S stands in front of a vertical plane mirror as shown in figure
Mirror
M₁ M₂
B A S

(I) Show by means of a ray diagram, the formation of the image of the candle S as
seen by the eye kept at A.
122 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(ii) Will the image of S be visible if the eye is kept at B? Give reasons to your answer.
S' Image of candle
Ans. (I)

I
r

Candle
B A S

(ii) No because the light ray incident from S at the extreme left end M, of plane mirror,
after reflection from plane mirror remains at the right of B.

Q.24 Fig. shows an incident ray AO and the normal ON on a plane mirror. The angle of
incidence is 60°. Draw the reflected ray and then find the angle between the incident
and reflected rays. N

60
60

Ans. Angle between incident ray & reflected ray = 120°.

Q.25 What must be the minimum length of a plane mirror in which a person can see his
full length ?
Ans. A person can see his full image in a mirror, the length of which is atleast half of his
own height.

Q.26 Fig. shows the position of a football player at O and the position of observer
at I. W is a wall in between them.
(i) Using two plane mirrors complete the diagram by showing atleast one ray so that
observer at I can see the football player at O. Show the angle of
incidence and angle of reflection at each mirror.
(ii) Name the instrument based on this principle.
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 123
I
Ans.

45
45

45
45

O
W
Q.27 The diagram shows an incident ray AO and normal ON on a plane mirror.
Draw the reflected ray and find the angle between the incident and reflected rays.

60°

O
Ans. The complete diagram with reflected ray is given below:
N

A
N
60° ay
60° edR
fl ect
Re

O
Here angle of incidence = 60°

... angle of reflection = 60°

Angle between the incident and reflected rays
= AOB = AON + NOB
= 60° + 60° = 120°
124 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.28 Copy the figure 1 and 2 and complete them by drawing two ray diagrams.
Mirror
P

Object

Mirror
Q
Ans.
Object
Eye

Fig. 1

Fig. 2

Image P1

Mirror

Object Fig. 1 Mirror- Fig. 2

(B) Spherical Mirrors Eye Eye

Type 3: Spherical mirrors - Image formation and their uses,

Q.29 What is a spherical mirror? State different kinds of spherical mirrors.

Ans. Spherical mirror is a part of a hollow sphere. A A

It's one surface is polished and the other
Reflecting Silvered Surface
is silvered. Surface Silvered
Surface
There are two types of spherical mirrors:
(I) Concave Mirror Reflecting
Surface
(ii) Convex Mirror.
Convex Mirror Convex Mirror
B B
Q.30 What are concave and convex mirror?
Ans. Concave mirror: A mirror, which is polished from outer side of hollow sphere,
such that its reflecting surface is towards hollow side is called concave mirror.
Convex mirror: A mirror, which is polished from hollow side of sphere, such that the
reflecting surface is towards outside of hollow sphere is called convex mirror.

Q.31 Define the terms pole, principal axis and centre of curvature with reference to a
spherical mirror radius of curvature, aperture.
Ans. Some terms related to spherical mirrors are:
Pole: The geometric centre of the spherical surface of the mirror is called the pole of
the mirror. It is the midpoint of the aperture of the mirror and is represented by 'P'.
Principal axis: It is the straight line joining the pole of the mirror to its centre of
curvature. Line PC represents the principal axis.
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 125
Centre of Curvature: The centre of curvature of a mirror is the centre of that sphere
whose part constitutes the mirror.
It is represented by symbol 'C'. Any normal of the mirror passes through this point.
Radius of curvature: The radius of sphere of which the spherical mirror is a part,
is called the radius of curvature of the mirror.
A A
Principal Axis Principal Axis

R R
P
C C

B B
Concave Mirror Concave Mirror

Aperture The plane surface area of the mirror through which the light rays enter
and fall on the mirror is called its aperture.
Q.32 State the direction of incident ray which after reflection from the spherical
mirror retraces its path. Give reason for your answer.
Ans. The incident ray passing through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror retraces
its path after reflection from the mirror.
Reason: A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature or appearing to pass
through the centre of curvature falls normally on the mirror so that angle of incidence
is zero. According to the first law of reflection, the angle of reflection will also be zero,
which is possible only if the ray retraces its path after reflection from the mirror.

Q.33 Explain the meaning of terms Focus and Focal length with the help of suitable
diagrams, in case of (i) Concave mirror (ii) Convex mirror.
Ans. (i) Concave Mirror: The focus of a concave
mirror is a point on the principal axis, at
which the light rays incident parallel to the Principal Axis
principal axis, meet after reflection from the
mirror.

The distance of this point from the pole of

the mirror is called the focal length of
the mirror.

(ii) Convex Mirror: The focus of a convex

mirror is a point on the principal axis at
which the light rays incident parallel to the
principal axis appear to meet after Principal
reflection from the mirror. Axis

The distance of this point from the pole of

the mirror is called the focal length of
the mirror.
Q.34 What is a focal plane ?

Ans. A plane passing through the focus and normal to the principal axis of the mirror, is
called the focal plane.
126 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.35 Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of image in a concave mirror for different
positions of an object.

Ans. (i) Object at infinity: Image is at principal focus, real, inverted and extremely
diminished in size.

C F
P

Focal Plane

(ii) When the object is far distance: Consider two rays A.P and BD from the same
point of an object (e.g. a tree) incident on a concave mirror, parallel to each other as
shown in figure. The incident ray AP striking at the pole P is reflected along PA, such
that ZAPC = ZA,PC (i.e. Zi = Zr). Similarly the other ray BD is reflected along DA,
such that BDC = DA,DC (since DC is normal at the point D). The reflected rays PA,
and DA, interect at a point A, lies on the focal plane of the mirror. Similarly, the rays
from other points of the object also converges in the focal plane thus forming the
image along A,F. Hence A,F is an inverted, real and highly diminished image formed
in the focal plane of the concave mirror. Thus, when objec tis at a far distance, image
is in the focal plane of the mirror. It is (i) Real (ii) Inverted, and (iii) Highly
diminished. B
B
A
D

F
P
C
A

(iii) Object beyond the centre of curvature Image is between C and F, real,
inverted and diminished in size.
B

Aʹ P

A C F

Bʹ

M
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 127
(iv) Object at C: Image is at C, real, inverted and equal in size.

B L

A P
C A F

B M

(v) Object between F and C: Image is beyond C, real, inverted and magnified.

B L

A A P

C F

(vi) Object at F: Image is at infinity, real, inverted and highly magnified.

M

B
L

A
P
C F

(vii) Object between F and P: Image is behind the mirror, erect, virtual and magnified.
M
B

C F A P A
128 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.36 Discuss the position and nature of the image formed by a convex mirror when the
object is moved from infinity towards the pole of the mirror.

Ans. Image formed by a convex mirror:

(i) When the object is at
infinity: In this case, the rays coming
from infinity i.e., parallel to the
principal axis diverge after reflection
and appear to be originating from the
principal focus (F). Therefore, the P
F
image is formed at the principal focus
as shown in figure.

This image is virtual, erect and

diminished in size.
(ii) When the object is anywhere
between infinity and the pole of the
mirror: Suppose an object AB lies
anywhere between infinity and the
pole of the convex mirror. A ray
tarting from A and coming parallel to
the principal axis after reflection
appears to diverge from the principal
focus F. Another ray falls normally on A
the mirror and appears to be origin-
ating from the centre of curvature C. A'

Thetwo reflected rays appear to meet

at A. From A, draw AB perpendicular P F C
B B'
on the principal axis. Therefore, A'B'
is the image of the object AB as
shown in given figure.

This image is always virtual, erect and diminished in size.

Q.37 What is relation between focal length and radius of curvature?

Ans. Focal length = 1 x radius of curvature.

2
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 129
Q.38 State the sign convention for the measurement of distances for spherical mirrors.
Y
Ans.
POSITIVE
INCIDENT
LIGHT
OBJECT

NEGATIVE POSITIVE
NEGATIVE
OPPOSITE TO
THE DIRECTION
OF INCIDENT DIRECTION OF
LIGHT INCIDENT LIGHT
Y₁

(a) CONCAVE MIRROR

Y
POSITIVE

INCIDENT
LIGHT
OBJECT

NEGATIVE POSITIVE

OPPOSITE TO DIRECTION OF
THE DIRECTION INCIDENT LIGHT
OF INCIDENT
LIGHT NEGATIVE
Y₁

(b) CONVEX MIRROR

Q.39 State the formulae for spherical mirror.

Ans. The expression relating the distance of object u, distance of image v and focal length
f for a spherical mirror is called the formula for spherical mirror. It is given as
1 1 + 1
f =u v

Note:
(i) For a concave mirror, the values of u and f are always negative.
(ii) The value of v is positive for virtual image and negative for a real image.
(iii) For a conver mirror, the value of u is always -ve and the values of v and f are
always + ve.

Q.40 Give the uses of the following mirrors :

(a) Plane mirrors (b) Concave mirrors (c) Convex mirrors.

Ans. (a) Uses of plane mirrors :

(i) A plane mirror is used as a looking glass. The image is erect, virtual and of the
same size as that of the object.
(ii) Periscope: It is an optical instrument used to see objects hidden from view by an
obstacle. It is based upon principle of reflection of light from two parallel
plane mirrors.
130 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(iii) Kaleidoscope: It is a toy designed on the principle of formation of images by

inclined plane mirrors.
(b) Uses of concave mirrors :
(i) Concave mirror is used for shaving because it gives an erect and magnified
image of face when it is held near the face.
(ii) These are used in reflecting telescopes and search lights.
(iii) These are used as reflectors in head lights of automobiles.
(iv) It is used by doctors to see ear, nose and throat of a patient. (c) Uses of a
convexmirrors: These are used in automobiles to see the images of traffic coming
from behind.

Q.41 How will you distinguish between a plane mirror, a concave mirror and a
convex mirror without touching them?

Ans. Take your finger very close to each of the three mirrors turn by turn.
(i) The mirror in which the size of the image is equal to the size of your finger,
the plane mirror.
(ii) The mirror in which the image formed is magnified, is the concave mirror.
(iii) The mirror in which the image formed is diminished, is the convex mirror.

Q.42 Distinguish between a concave mirror and convex mirror.

Ans. Concave Mirror Convex Mirror

(I) It is made by silvering the outer surface of hollow It is made by silvering

sphere, so the reflection takes place from the inner the inner surface of
side of the hollow surface. hollow sphere, so the
reflection takes place
from the bulging surface.

(ii) It converges the light rays incident on it after It diverges the light rays
reflection. incident on it after
reflection.
(iii) The image formed by it is real as well as virtual.
For all positions of object at or beyond focus The image formed by it
(i.e. u > f), the image is real, while for the position is always virtual for all
of the object between focus and pole. (i.e., u< f), positions of object in
the image is virtual. front of it.

(iv) The image can be magnified, of same size or dimin- The image is always
ished depending upon the position of the object. For diminished for all
object away from centre of curvature (i.e. u > R), the positions of the object
image is diminished,for object at centre of curvature in front of it.
(i.e. u = R), front of it. the image is of same size and
for object before centre of curvature (i.e. u <R), the
image is magnified.
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 131
Type 4 Concave mirror

Q.43 (i) Parallel rays are incident

(a) On polished surface and
(b) On rough surface

In what respect do reflected rays in (a) differ from those of (b)?

(ii) Write down four charactristics of image formed in a plane mirror.
Ans. (i) (a) On polished surface, the parallel beam is reflected as parallel beam.
(b) On rough surface the reflected rays travel in various directions and not as a
parallel beam.
(ii) (a) Image is virtual (b) Image is erect (c) Image is formed as far behind the mirror
as object is in front of it. (d) Image is laterally inverted.

Q.44 (a) Write down the letters of the word 'POLEX'.as seen in a plane mirror,
held parallel to the plane of this paper. (b) Name a mirror which always produces
an erect and virtual image.
(c) Distinguish between real and virtual image.

Ans. (a) XELOP

(b) Convex mirror always produces erect and virtual image
(c) (I) Real image can be taken on screen, but virtual image cannot be taken on
screen.
(ii) Real image is always inverted, but vitual image is always erect.

Q.45 How is a spherical mirror used to converge a beam of light? Name the type
of mirror used.
Ans. A concave mirror can be used to converge a beam of light as shown in the fig.

P
C F

Q.46 State the position of object for which the image formed by a concave mirror
is of same size. Write two more characteristics of the image.
Ans. The image formed by a concave mirror is of the same size when the object lies at its
centre of curvature. Two more characteristics of this image are: (i) It is real (ii) It is
inverted.
132 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.47 (i) What is real image?

(ii) What type of mirror can be used to obtain the real image of an object?
(iii) Does the mirror named by you in (i) above give real images for all locations of
the objects?

Ans. (i) Real image: When two or more rays starting from a point after reflection actually
meet at another point, then the second point is called real image of the first point.
(ii) A concave mirror can be used to obtain the real image of an object.
(iii) No, a concave mirror does not give the real images for all locations of the object.
It gives real image only if the object lies beyond its principal focus.

Q.48 When a concave mirror is used as a shaving mirror, where is the person's face in
relation to the focus of the mirror ? State the characteristics of the image seen.

Ans. When a concave mirror is used as a shaving mirror, the person's face is in between
the focus and the pole of the mirror.
Characteristics of the image:
(i) The image is virtual.
(ii) It is erect.
(iii) It is magnified.
(iv) It is formed behind the mirror.

Q.49 What are the rules to be kept in mind while constructing an image due to a
converging or concave mirror ?

Ans. (i) Rays passing through the centre of curvature are reflected back along their own
paths.
(ii) Rays parallel to the principal axis are reflected through the principal focus.
(iii) Rays through the principal focus are reflected parallel to the principal axis.
(iv) Rays incident at the pole are reflected making the same angle with the principal
axis.

Q.50 Draw ray diagram to obtain A real and magnified image. State the kind of mirror
used in each case.

Ans. A concave mirror is used. A real and magnified image is formed beyond the centre of
curvature C.
M Object kept
between F and C
A

F C 0'
0
A real and
magnified Image

A'
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 133
R
Q.51 The adjacent diagram shows a concave mirror M
with its principal focus F. A reflected ray of light
RS is shown. By construction on the diagram, draw P S
F
the incident ray QR. Describe, in steps, the procedure
you have followed to construct the
incident ray QR.
M
R
Ans. Mark C, the centre of curvature at a distance = 2PF

Make QRC = ZCRS

where RQ meets the principal axis at Q. P
F Q C S
QR is the incident ray.

M
Q.52 In the diagram, M is a concave mirror and A is a point on the principal axis.
If an object O is kept at A, then the image is formed at A itself.
M
O

P
A

(I) Draw the image in the diagram.

(ii) Is this image real or virtual ?
(iii) Measure the distance PA and write it in the diagram.
(iv) What is the distance PA called?
(v) Mark a point B on the principal axis at which if a point source of light is
kept, the rays travel parallel to the principal axis after reflection from M.
(vi) What is the distance PB called?
(vii)What is the point B called?
M
Ans. (I)
O

P
A A B
5 cm

O’

(ii) Real, inverted and same size as the object.

(iii) PA 5 cm
(iv) PA Radius of curvature.
(v) In diagram.
(vi) PB = Focal length
(vii)B= Focus.
134 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.53 What are the rules to be kept in mind while constructing an image due to a diverging
or convex mirror?

Ans. (i) Any ray of light, travelling parallel to principal axis of convex mirror, after
reflection, appears to pass through principal focus of mirror.
(ii) Any ray of light travelling along the principal focus of convex mirror, after
reflection,
travels parallel to principal axis.
(iii) Any ray of light travelling along centre of curvature of convex mirror, after
reflection, retraces its path..

Q.54 Explain the advantages of using a convex mirror as the driver's mirror in a motor car.

Ans. A driver uses a convex mirror as a rear view mirror because it has the following
advantages:
M'
(i) The image formed by a convex mirror is always P
erect and virtual wherever the object may be situated
in front of the mirror. (This property is not possessed
by a concave mirror).
(ii) The image formed by a convex mirror is E
diminished and is always formed between the mirror
and its principal focus. Hence the images of a large
number of cars and other objects can be seen within
a small space at one glance.
(iii) The field of view of a convex mirror is large..
Hence objects situated at widely different angles M

from the car can be seen by the driver.

Q.55 A virtual and diminished image is formed. State the kind of mirror used.

Ans. A convex mirror is used. A virtual and diminished image A is formed behind the
mirror. Convex Mirror
M
A
A'
Object
C F O

Q.56 Copy the above diagram given below and complete it by drawing two rays to shows
the formation of the image of the object AB. State the size, position and nature of
image formed.
B

C F P
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 135
Ans.
B
B

C F A P A

Size Image is diminished

Positon Image is formed between P and F, behind the mirror

Nature Image is virtual and erect.
Q.57 For various position of object, give the position and characteristics formed in case of
concave mirror and convex mirror.
Ans.
Position of object Position of image Characteristics of
image
For concave mirror At principal focus. Real; diminished to
1. At inifinity. a point and inverted.

2. In between infinity and In between principal focus Real; inverted and

centre of curvature. and centre of curvature. diminished.

3. At the centre of curvature. At the centre of Real; inverted and

curvature. same size as object.

4. In between centre of curvature In between infinity and Real; inverted and

and principal focus. centre of curvature. magnified.
At the principal focus. At infinity. Real; inverted and
5.
highly magnified.
In between pole and Behind the mirror. Virtual; erect and
6.
principalfocus. enlarged.

7. For convex mirror At At principal focus Virtual; erect and

infinity. behind the mirror. diminished to a point.

8. Anywhere between pole and Between pole and Virtual; erect and
infinity. principal focus. diminished.

Q.58 Complete the following diagrams in figure by drawing the reflected ray.

C P
P F
136 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Ans.

P
C F

CONVEX MIRROR CONCAVE MIRROR

Formulae

1. Angle of incidence (i) = angle of reflection ®.

2. No. of images (n) = 360 - 1 where 0 is the angle between the mirrors.
Ɵ

3. f =1 +1 u ,where f→ focal length; u→ object distance; v→ image distance.

u v

Solved Examples

Type 1: Reflection of Light

1. A ray of light strikes a plane mirror, such that angle with the mirror is 120°. What is
the value of angle of reflection? What is the angle between incident ray and reflected
ray ?

Solution:

Angle of reflection = Angle of incidence (By the laws of reflecton)

Angle of incidence = (90 - 20)° = 70°
Angle of incidence = 70°
Angle between incident ray and reflected ray
= I+ r = 70° + 70° = 140°.

2. A ray of light AO is incident at an angle of 30° on a plane mirror and is reflected

along OB. Now the mirror is turned through 10° clockwise. How much angle the
reflected ray now makes with the :
(i) direction of incident ray, and
(ii) with the normal to the mirror in its new position ?

Solution :

When the plane mirror is turned through 10°, the reflected ray will turn through 2 x
10° i.e., 20° as shown in figure.
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 137

N N’
A

10° B’
M1 30° 30°
20°

M2
M1

M2

(I) Angle which the reflected ray makes with the incident ray in the new position of
the mirror

= B'OA = Z B'OB+ BON+ NOA

= 20° 30° + 30° = 80°

(ii) Angle which the reflected ray makes with the normal to the mirror in the new
position

= B'ON' = B'OB+ BON- NON

= 20°+ 30°- 10° = 40°
3. A boy stands 4 m from plane mirror. If the boy moves 1/2 m towards mirror,
what is the distance between the boy and his image? Give a reason for your
answer.

Solution :
Distance of object from plane mirror = Distance of image from plane mirror.
Initial distance between boy and plane mirror = 4m
Final distance between boy and his image. = 3m
1
Distance between boy and his image = 3 x 2 = 7m.
2

4. An object is placed 2 cm from a plane mirror. If the object is moved by 1 cm towards

the mirror, what will be the new distance between object and image?
Solution:

New distance of object from plane mirror = (2 - 1) cm = 1 cm

By the laws of reflection
New distance of image from plane mirror = 1 cm
Total distance between object and image = ( 1 + 1 ) cm = 2 cm.

5. An insect is sitting in front of a plane mirror at a distance 1m from it :

(i) Where is the image of the insect formed?
(ii) What is the distance between the insect and its image?
138 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Solution :
(I) Distance of the insect from the plane mirror = 1 m
(ii) Now, we know that in the case of a plane mirror, the image is formed as far
behind the mirror as the object is in front of it. Therefore, the image will be formed 1
m behind the mirror.

Type 2 Images formed in a pair of mirrors

6. Calculate the number of images formed in two plane mirrors, when they are
held at angle of (i) 72° (ii) 36°

Solution :

(I) When θ = 72°

No. of images (n)= 360° - 1 = 360° - 1 = 5 - 1 = 4.
(ii) When = 36°. θ 72°
360° 360°
No. of images (n) = -1= - 1 = 10 - 1 = 9.
θ 36°
Type 3: Spherical Mirrors

7. The focal length of a convex mirror is 10 cm. Find the radius of curvature of mirror.

Solution :

Given Focal length f = 10 cm

... Radius of curvature = R = 2 x focal length (f)
= 2 x 10 = 20 cm

8. For an object placed at a distance 20 cm from a concave mirror, the image is formed
at the same position. What is the focal length of the mirror ?

Solution :

For an object placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image is
formed at the centre of curvature itself. Thus radius of curvature R = 20 cm.
Focal length f = Radius of curvature R
2
20 cm
= = 10 cm
2
9. An object is placed at a distance of 48 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length
24 cm.
(a) Find the position of image.
(b) What will be the nature of image ?

Solution :
Given f = 24 cm (negative); u = 48 cm (negative)

(a) From relation= 1 + 1 = 1

u v f
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 139

1 1- 1 = 1 - 1
=
v f u (-24) (-48)

1 -2+1 -1
or = = or v = -48 cm
v (-24) 48

The image is at a distance 48 cm in front of mirror.

(b) The image is inverted, real and of same size as object.

10. The focal length of a convex mirror is 40 cm. A point source of light is kept at
distance 40 cm from the mirror. Find the distance of image from the mirror.
Solution:

Given: f = 40 cm (positive); u = 40 (negative)

1
From relation 1 + 1 = 1 ; +
1
=
1
u v f (-40) v 40

or 1 1
+
1
=
1
v 40 40 20
or v = v20 cm

i.e., the image is formed at distance 20 cm behind the mirror.

Numericals

Type 1: Reflection of Light

I. A man standing in front of a plane mirror finds his image at a distance 6 metre from
himself. What is the distance of man from the mirror?
2. An object is kept at 60 cm in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is now moved
25 cm away from the object, how does the image shift from its previous position?
Type 2: No. of Images

3. An object is placed (i) asymmetrically, between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle
of 50°. Find the number of images formed.
Type 3: Spherical Mirrors

4. The focal length of a convex mirror is 40 cm. A point source of light is kept at distance
of 40 cm from the mirror. Find the distance of image from the mirror.
5. When an object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror, the size of
image is one fourth that of the object.

(i) Calculate the distance of image from the mirror

(ii) What will be the focal length of the mirror ?

6. A convex mirror forms the image of an object placed at a distance 40 cm in front of

mirror at a distance of 10 cm. Find the focal length of the mirror.
7. The focal length of a convex mirror is 10 cm. Is it positive or negative as per sign
convention? What is the radius of curvature of the mirror ?
140 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

8. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of

curvature 10 cm
(i) Where will the image be formed?
(ii) What will be the nature of image, real or virtual?

9. When an object of height 1 cm is kept at a distance 4 cm from a concave mirror, its

erect image of height 1.5 cm is formed at a distance 6 cm behind the mirror. Find the
focal length of mirror.

10. A concave mirror forms a virtual image of size twice that of the object placed at a
distance 5 cm from it. Find:
(i) the focal length of the mirror.
(ii) position of image.

ANSWERS (Numericals

1. 3 m 2. 50 cm away
3. (i) 7 (ii) 6 4. 20 cm
5. (i) The image is formed at a distance of 20 cm behind the mirror
(ii)Focal length of concave mirror = 8 cm (negative)
6. f 13.33 cm.

7. Focal length is +ve. R = 20 cm

8. (I) v 3.75 cm (ii) nature: Virtual, erect

9. 12 cm

10. (i) 10 cm (ii) 10 cm behind the mirror

SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q. 1 State the laws of reflection.

Q. 2 Explain the terms: (i) Incident ray (ii) reflected ray.
Q. 3 Describe an experiment to verify laws of reflection.
Q. 4 Why are infinite images not seen when two plane mirrors are facing each other?
Q. 5 A boy stands 6 m away from plane mirror. If the boy moves 1 m towards mirror,
what is the distance between the boy and his image?
Give a reason for your answer.
Q. 6 Calculate the number of images formed in two plane mirrors when they are held
at an angle of 50°.
Q. 7 State the different kinds of spherical mirror and explain.
Q. 8 Draw a neat two ray diagram to illustrate, how a concave mirror is used as a shaving
mirror.
Q. 9 Why does a driver use a convex mirror as rear view mirror ?
Reflection of Light & Spherical Mirrors 141

Q.10 You are provided a convex mirror, a concave mirror and a plane mirror. How
will you distinguish between them, without touching or using any other apparatus?
Q.11 State the kind of mirror used
(i) by a dentist,
(ii) as a search-light reflector.
Q.12 Name the kind of the mirror used to obtain:
(i) a real and enlarged image.
(ii) a virtual and enlarged image,
(iii) a virtual and diminished image,
(iv) a real and diminished image.
Q.13 A point light source is kept in front of a convex mirror at a distance of 40 cm. The
focal length of the mirror is 40 cm. Find the position of image by drawing.
Q.14 An object 4 cm high is placed at a distance of 27 cm in front of a convex mirror of
focal length 18 cm. Find the position, nature and size of the image formed.
Q.15 An object of 5.0 cm in size is placed at a distance of 20.0 cm from a concave
mirror of focal length 15.0 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen
be placed to get the sharp image. Also calculate the size of the image.
 SOUND

8 Propagation of Sound Waves

Syllabus
Nature of Sound waves. Requirement of a medium for sound waves to travel;
propagation and speed in different media; comparison with speed of light.
Sound propagation, terms - frequency f, wavelength (2), velocity (V), relation
V= nλ (simple numerical problems); effect of different factors on the speed of
sound, comparison of speed of sound with speed of light; consequences of the large
difference in these speeds in air; thunder and lightning.
Infrasonic, sonic, ultrasonic frequencies and their applications.
Elementary ideas and simple applications only. Difference between ultrasonic
and supersonic.

Theory Questions & Answers

Type 1 Properties and Types of Wave

Q.1 What is sound?
Ans. Sound is a form of energy that produces the sensation of hearing in our ears.
Q.2 What causes sound?
Ans. Sound is produced due to vibrations of a body.
Q. 3 Give some examples when sound is produced.
Ans. (i) A vibrating string produces sound.
(ii) A vibrating wire produces sound.
(iii) A vibrating tuning fork produces sound.
Q. 4 Explain sound is a form of energy.
Ans. Mechanical energy is required to start vibrations in a body producing sound.
The vibrations of body are transmitted in medium in form of waves from that point to
the next and so on. These waves on reaching our ears, produce vibrations in the ear
drum which are perceived as sound by us. Thus, sound is a form of energy.
Propagation of Sound Waves 143
Q.5 Describe in brief, with the aid of a sketch diagram, an experiment to demonstrate that
a material medium is necessary for propagation of sound.
Ans.
BATTERY KEY

BELL JAR
ELECTRIC BELL

TO VACUUM PUMP

Procedure:
(i) An electric bell is connected to a dry battery, rests on a sponge rubber pad in
a bell-jar as shown in the figure.
(ii) Switch on the pump. The pump sucks air out of the glass jar. Note your
observations.
(iii) Switch off the pump and let air into the jar slowly.
Observation:
(i) The intensity of sound goes on decreasing but the hammer is seen to be still
moving, indicating that the bell is ringing. No sound is heard when there is a
vacuum.
(ii) The intensity of sound goes on increasing as air is let into the jar.

Conclusion:
(i) Sound cannot travel through a vacuum.
(ii) Sound can travel through air.

Q. 6 State three characteristics of the medium required for the propagation of sound.
Ans. Characteristics of the medium required for the propagation of sound.
(i) The medium must be elastic so that the medium particles have the tendency to
come back to their initial position after the displacement.
(ii) The medium must have inertia so that its particles have the capacity to store energy.
(iii) The medium should be frictionless so that there is no loss of energy in
propagation of sound through it.
Q. 7 Why sound does not travel in vacuum?
Ans. A sound wave requires material particles to pass from one point to another but
in vacuum there is no material medium.Therefore, sound cannot travel in vacuum.
144 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 8 Give some examples for propagation of sound in a medium.

Ans. (i) Propagation of disturbance in air.

(ii) Propagation of disturbance on the surface of water.

Q. 9 What are the conditions necessary for hearing sound?

Ans. Following conditions must be fulfilled for hearing a sound :

(i) There must be a vibrating body, capable of transferring its energy to its
surroundings.
(ii) There must be a material medium to pick up energy and then propagate it in
forward direction.
(iii) There must be a receiver, so as to receive the sound vibration and then transmit it
to brain for final interpretation, such as human ear.

Q.10 What are mechanical waves? State its kinds.

Ans. Mechanical waves: The wave produced when a large number of particles of the
medium execute vibrations simultaneously are called mechanical waves. These
waves propagate through a medium by the mechanical vibrations of the medium
particles.
Mechanical waves are of two kinds : (i) Transverse waves (ii) Longitudinal waves.

Q.11 Distinguish between longitudinal and transverse waves. Give two examples of each.
Ans.
Longitudinal waves Transverse waves

(I) The particles of medium vibrate to The particles of the medium vibrate up
and fro about their mean positions and down about their mean positions at
along the direction of wave motion. right angles to the direction of the wave
motion.

(ii) The wave travels in the form of The wave travels in the form of crests
compressions and rarefactions. and troughs.

One compression and one One crest and one trough constitute
(iii) rarefaction constitute a wave length. wave length.

(iv) It is possible in all media. It is possible only in an elastic medium.

(v) Longitudinal waves cannot be Transverse waves can be polarised.

polarised.

Type 2: Wave Motion

Q.12 What is wave motion ?
Ans. Wave motion may be defined as a form of disturbance which travels through a
material medium due to the repeated periodic motion of the particles of the medium
about their mean positions. The disturbance being handed over from one particle to
the next.
Propagation of Sound Waves 145
Q.13 What are the characteristics of wave motion ?
Ans. Characteristics of Wave Motion :
(i) Wave motion is only a disturbance which is produced in the medium by the
repeated periodic motion of the particles of the medium.
(ii) The particles of the medium through which the wave propagates suppers no
permanent displacement. These particles simply vibrate about their mean positions.
It is only the disturbance which travels forward. The medium itself does not move
as a whole along with the wave motion. In other words, wave does not involve the
transfer of matter.
(iii) The movement of each particle begins a little later than that of its predecessor.
(iv) The velocity of propagation of a wave is different from the velocity of particle
vibration.
In a homogeneous medium, wave velocity is constant but particle velocity keeps
changing.
(v) In wave motion, there is a progressive transmission of energy and momentum.
Energy is carried along with the wave in its direction of propagation.
(vi) Wave motion is possible only in that medium which possesses the properties of
elasticity and inertia.

Q.14 Define the term:

(I) Amplitude (ii) Time period (iii) Frequency
(iv) Wavelength (v) Wave velocity.

Ans. (i) Amplitude: The maximum displacement on one side of the mean position of a
particle of medium, is called the amplitude of wave. It is denoted by the letter a.
Its S.I. unit is metre (m).
(ii) Time Period: The time taken by "a" particle of medium to complete its one
vibration is called the time period of wave. It is denoted by the letter "T".
Its S.I. unit is second (s).
(iii) Frequency: The number of vibrations made by a particle of the medium in one
second is called the frequency of the wave. It is denoted by the letter "n", "f" or
"y" (neu). Its S.I. unit is second or hertz (Hz).
(iv) Wave length: The distance travelled by the wave in one time period of
vibration of a particle of medium, is called the wavelength. It is denoted by
the letter λ (lambda). Its S.I. unit is metre (m).
(v) Wave Velocity: The distance travelled by a wave in one second is called its wave
velocity. It is denoted by the letter V. Its S.I. unit is metre per second
-¹
(ms ).

Q.15 At any instant a compression is formed at a point, after how much time :
(i) a rarefaction,
(ii) a compression will be formed at the same point?

Ans. (i) T/2 (ii) T.

where T is the time period of vibration of the body producing the wave.
146 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.16 Illustrate the displacement time graph of a wave.

Ans. T

Displacement
a
a Time t →→

Q.17 Illustrate the displacement distance graph of a wave.

Ans. λ
Displacement

a Distance x →

λ
Q.18 How are the wave velocity V, frequency v, and wavelength of a wave related?
Derive the relationship.

Ans. Let V= Velocity of a wave

T = Time period
v = frequency
λ = wavelength
By definition of wavelength,
Wavelength λ = Distance travelled by the wave in one time period T.
= Wave velocity x Time period
λ = VT
1 ... ... V = vλ
But T = λ = V x1
v v
Wave velocity = Frequency x Wavelength.

Type 3 Speed of Sound & Speed of Light

Q.19 The speed of sound is more in hydrogen than in oxygen. Is this statement
true? Give the reason of your answer.
Ans. Yes, the speed of sound is more in hydrogen than in oxygen. The reason is that,
the speed of sound is inversely proportional to the square root of density i.e.,
1
v α √density and the density of hydrogen is less than that of oxygen, therefore the
speed of sound is more in hydrogen than in oxygen.

Q.20 State and explain influence of various factors on the speed of sound in air.
Ans. Various factors that effect the speed of sound in air are:
(i) Effect of Density: The speed of sound is inversely proportional to the square root
of the density of the medium.
να 1
√d
where V = speed of sound, d = density of medium.
Propagation of Sound Waves 147
(ii) Effect of Temperature: The speed of sound increases with the increase in
temperature of the gas. The speed of sound is directly proportional to the square
root of temperature of the medium.
Va √T where T = absolute temperature.
(iii) Effect of Humidity: The speed of sound increases with the increase in humidity.
Hence, sound travels faster in moist air than in dry air.
(iv) Effect of direction of Wind: The speed of sound changes according to the
direction of wind.

If the wind is blowing in the direction of propagation of sound waves, the speed
of sound increases. While if it is blowing in opposite direction, the speed will
decrease.

Q.21 How does the speed of sound in air vary with the temperature?
Ans. The speed of sound increases by 0.61 ms for each 1°C rise in temperature.

Q.22 In which medium the speed of sound is more, humid air or dry air?
Give a reason to your answer.
Ans. Humid air. This is because density of air decreases in the presence of moisture.
Q.23 Arrange the speed of sound in gases Vg, solids Vs, and liquids Vl, in an
descending order.
Ans. Vs, > V₁ > Vg

Q.24 State the factors that donot affect the speed of sound in a gas.
Ans(i) Effect of pressure: The speed of sound in a gas is independent of pressure.
(ii) Effect of amplitude of wave: The speed of sound doesnot depend on the amplitude
of a sound wave.
(iii) Effect of wavelength (or frequency) of a wave: The speed of sound doesnot depend
on the wavelength (or frequency) of sound wave..

Q.25 State the speed of light and the speed of sound in air?
Ans. Speed of light = 3 x 10 ms- .
-
Speed of sound = 330 ms .

Q.26 Give the comparison of speed of sound with speed of light.

Ans.(i) The light waves can travel in vacuum, but the sound waves can not travel in
vacuum.
(ii) The speed of light waves is 3 x 108 ms in air which is about a million times
greater than the speed of sound waves in air (i.e. 330 ms- at 0° C).
(iii) The speed of light waves decreases in an optically desner medium (speed of light
in water is 2.25 x 10 ms- , is glass is 2 x 10 ms- ),while the speed of sound waves
is more in solids, less in liquids and still less in gases (speed of sound in steel is
nearly 5100 ms- , in water is nearly 1450 ms- and in air is nearly 330 ms- ).
(iv) The light waves are transverse electromagnetic waves while the sound waves in air
are the longitudinal mechanical waves.
148 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.27 Flash of lightning reaches earlier than the sound of thunder. Explain.

Ans. Flash of lightning reaches earlier than the sound of thunder because the velocity of
light (3 x 10 ms- ) is much larger than the velocity of sound in air (330 ms- ).

Q.28 How do bats avoid obstacles in their way when in flight?

Ans. Bats emit sound of a very wide range of frequencies upto about 80,000 Hz and use.
the reflection of this high frequency sound to detect the presence of obstacles and to
locate prey. They use this method since they are almost blind to light.

Q.29 Do you think that the sound of an explosion of bomb and the sound of the
humming of bees travel with the same speed?
Ans. Yes, all types of sound whether loud or soft, music or noise travel with the same
speed through a given medium. The velocity of sound does not depend upon its
loudness, pitch or quality.

Q.30 Explain: Sound can be carried for long distances by speaking tubes.
Ans. Sound can be carried for long distances by speaking tubes due to the multiple
reflection of sound suffered from the sides of the tube.

Q.31 Explain: It is not possible to talk through the open space on the surface of moon.
Ans. It is not possible to talk through the open space on the surface of moon because there
is no atmosphere on the moon and the sound can not travel through vacuum.

Q.32 Can transverse waves travel in gases ?

No, transverse waves can not travel in gases.

Q.33 Can longitudinal waves travel in solid, liquid and in gas?

Ans. Yes, longitudinal waves can travel in solid, liquid as well as gas.

Type 2 Infrasonic, Sonic & Ultrasonic Frequencies

Q.34 What do you understand by audible range of frequency ?

Ans. Audible range of frequency means the frequency of sound wave which one can
perceive in ear. It differs from person to person on account of their age. The audible
range for human ears is 20 Hz to 20 kHz.

Q.35 Human ears are most sensitive to which range of frequency?

Ans. Human ears are most sensitive to range of 2000 Hz to 3000 Hz.

Q.36 Name the waves of frequency greater than 20,000 cycles per sec.
Ans. Waves of frequency greater than 20,000 cycles per second are called ultrasonic
waves.
Q.37 State the speed of ultrasonic waves in air.
Ans. The speed of ultrasonic waves in air at room temperature is about 350 m/s.

Q.38 What do you mean by ultrasound?

Ans. The sound of frequency above 20,000 Hz is called ultrasound and can travel freely.
in solids and liquids. While in gases the intensity falls.
Propagation of Sound Waves 149
Q.39 State two properties of ultrasound.
Ans. Ultrasound has all properties similar to that of ordinary sound, but because of high
frequencies, ultrasound has the following two additional properties which the audible
sound does not posses.

(i) The energy carried by ultrasound is very high.

(ii) The ultrasound can travel along a well defined straight path. It does not bend
apprecibly at the edges of an obstacle because of its small wavelength (i.e., it has
high directivity)

Q.40 Give some uses of ultrasonic waves.

Ans.(i) Bats avoid obstacles in their path by producing
(ii) Ultrasound is used for drilling holes or making cuts of desired shape in materials
like glass.
(iii) For cleaning the minute objects such as the parts of watches and electronic
components, ultrasound is used.
(iv) For detection of defects in metals, ultrasound is used. Ultrasound will pass through
the object if there is no defect (such as crack or cavity), in the object. But if there is
some defect, a part of ultrasound will get reflected back.
(v) Ultrasound is used to image human organs.
(vi) Ultrasound is used in surgery to remove cataract and in kidneys to break the
small stones into fine grain.
(vii) In SONAR (Sonographic Navigation And Ranging) to detect and find the distance
of objects under water, ultrasound is used.

Q.42 What is the range of sonic sound, infrasonic sound, ultra sound?
Ans. Sonic sound: 20 Hz to 20 kHz
Infrasonic sound : less than 20 Hz
Ultrasound : greater than 20 kHz

Q.43 What is the difference between ultrasonic and supersonic?

Ans. The word ultrasonic is used for ultrasound (i.e. sound of frequency above 20 kHz),
while supersonic is used for object which travels with a speed greater than the speed
of sound in air (i.e. 330 ms- )
e.g. concord jet planes.

Q.44 Explain the term 'Ultrasonograph'.

Ans. For imaging the human organs, ultrasound is widely used. ULtrasonography is used
to obtain the images of patient's organs (such as liver, gall bladder, uterus etc.).
It helps to detect stones, tumors etc. in them.

Q.45 What is echo cardiography?

Ans. Echo cardiography is used to obtain the image of the heart.
150 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Formulae
Velocity = Distance (d)
Time (t)
i.e. V = D
= T
Velocity frequency x wavelength

i.e. V = fλ

Solved Numericals

1. The smoke from the gun barrel is seen two seconds before the explosion is heard. If
the speed of sound in air is 340 ms, calculate the distance of the observer from the
gun.

Solution :

The light has much larger speed as compared to sound.

Speed of light = 3 x 10 ms -
Speed of sound = 340 ms-¹
Therefore, we can assume that the light takes negligible time and the sound takes 2
second to reach the observer.
... Speed = distance travelled
time taken
... Distance = Speed x time = 340 x 2 = 680 m.

2. The speed of sound at 0° C is 320 ms-¹. Calculate the speed of sound at 34° C.

Solution :

As we know for 1° C rise in temperature, increase in speed

= 0.6 ms-¹.
... for 34° C rise in temperature, increase in speed
= 0.6 x 34 = 20.4 m/s.
... Speed of sound at 34° C (320+ 20.4) = 340.4 ms-¹

3. The speed of sound at 15° C is 329 ms-¹. Calculate the temperature when speed is
315 ms-¹.

Solution :

Initial temperature = 15° C

Decrease in speed of sound = (329 - 315) = 14 ms-¹
... For 0.6 ms decrease in speed of sound, fall in temperature =1° C.
... For 14 ms decrease in speed of sound, fall in temperature
= 14 = 23.3° C. ... Final temperature (15 - 23.3)° C = - 8.3° C
0.6
Propagation of Sound Waves 151
4. The interval between a lightening flash and the first sound of thunder was found to be
5 s. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s, find the distance of the flash from the
observer.
Solution :
Here : time, t = 5s, Speed of sound in air, v = 330 ms-
Let distance of flash from the observer = d

Now, v = d
t
... d = v X t = 330 x 5 m = 1650 m
5. A bat can hear sound at frequencies upto 120 kHz. Determine the wavelength of sound
in air at this frequency. Take the speed of sound in air to be 344 ms- .

Solution :

Given, n = 180 kHz= 180 x 10 Hz, V = 344 ms- .

From relation V = nλ,

-
Wavelength λ = V = 344 = 1.911 x 10 m
n 180 x 10

= 1.91 X 10- m
-
6. Ocean waves of time period 20 s have wave velocity 15 ms . Find :
(i) the wavelength of these wave,
(ii) the horizontal distance between a wave crest and its adjoining wave trough.

Solution :
-1
Given, T = 20 s, V = 15 ms
(i) From relation V = λ , Wavelength of wave λ = V x T
T
or λ = 15 x 20 = 300 m

(ii)The distance between a wave crest and its adjoining wave trough

= λ = 1 x 300m = 150 m
2 2
152 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Numericals
1.The separation between two consecutive crests in a transverse wave is 100 m. If
wave velocity is 20 ms- , find the frequency of wave.

2. An observer A fires a gun and another observer B at a distance 1650 m away from A
hears its sound. If the speed of sound is 330 ms- , find the time when B will hear the
sound after firing by A.

3. A boy fires a gun and another boy at a distance hears the sound of fire 2.5 s after
seeing the flash. If speed of sound in air is 340 ms- , find distance between the boys.

4. How long will sound take to travel in (i) an iron rail and (ii) air, both 3.3 km in
length? Take speed of sound in air to be 330 ms- and in iron to be 5280 ms-¹.

5. Assuming the speed of sound in air equal to 340 ms- and in water equal to
1360 ms- ,find the time taken to travel a distance 1700 m by sound in (i) air and (ii)
water.
ANSWERS (Numericals)
1. 0.2 Hz 2. 5 s
3. 850 m 4. (a) 0.625 s, (b) 10 s
5. (i) 5s (ii) 1.2 s

SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q. 1 Distinguish between longitudinal waves and transverse waves.

Q. 2 State three characteristics of the medium required for the propagation of sound.
Q. 3 Name the two kinds of waves in form of which sound travels in a medium.
Q. 4 How are the wave velocity V, frequency n and wavelength of a wave related?
Derive the relationship.
Q. 5 The speed of sound in air at 0°C is approximately :
(a) 330 ms-¹ (b) 5100 ms
(c) 3 x 10 ms- (d) 3 x 10 ms-
Q. 6 Describe a simple experiment which demonstrates that the sound produced by a
tuning fork is due to vibrations of its prongs.
Q. 7 Describe an experiment to show that in wave motion,the energy is transfered, but
the particles of medium do not move. ms- .
Q. 8 A longitudinal wave travels at a speed of 0.3 ms- and the frequency of wave is
20 Hz. Find the separation between the two consecutive compressions.
Q. 9 A source of sound has wavelength 3 cm and speed of sound wave is 339 m/s. Find
the frequency of sound wave. Is it audible.
Q. 10 The frequency of simple pendulum is 0.5 Hz. Find its time period.
 9 Current Electricity
Syllabus
(A) Simple electric circuit using an electric cell and a bulb to introduce the idea of current
(including its relationship to charge); potential difference; insulators and conductors;
closed and open circuits; direction of current (electron flow and conventional).
Current Electricity: brief introduction of sources of direct current - cells, accumulators
(construction, working and equations excluded); Electric current as the rate of flow of
electric charge (direction of current - conventional and electronic), symbols used in
circuit diagrams. Detection of current by Galvanometer or ammeter (functioning of
the meters not to be introduced). Idea of electric circuit by using cell, key, resistance
wire/resistance box/rheostat, qualitatively; elementary idea about work done in
transferring charge through a conductor wire; potential difference V = W/q; resistance
R from Ohm's law V/I = R; insulators and conductors. (No derivation of formula)
simple numerical problems.
(B) Efficient use of energy.
Social initiatives improving efficiency of existing technologies and introducing new
eco-friendly technologies, creating awareness and building trends of sensitive use of
resources and products e.g. reduced use of electricity.

Theory Questions & Answers

(A) Electric Current

Q. 1 What are cells?

Ans. The cells are the source of direct current. They provide direct current (abbreviated
as d.c) to the bulb. In a cell, chemical energy changes into the electrical energy when
it sends current in a circuit. A cell basically consists of two conducting rods, called the
electrodes, at some separation placed immersed in a solution (or jelly), called the
electrolyte, kept in a vessel.

Q. 2 What is direct current ?

Ans. Direct current (d.c) is a current of constant magnitude flowing in one direction.

Q. 3 Name kinds of cells.

Ans. (i) Primary cell: A primary cell is a device which converts chemical energy into
electrical energy but such a cell can not be recharged i.e. the chemical reaction taking
place in this type of cell is irreversible. e.g. Simple voltaic cell, leclanche cell & dry
cell.
(ii) Secondary cell: The cells which can be recharged after use are called secondary
cells. For example lead accumulator is a secondary cell.
154 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q. 4 Give symbolic representation of :

(I) Source of current (ii) Different keys (open and closed)
(iii) Rheostat (iv) Ammeter
(v) Voltmeter (iv) Ammeter

Ans. (I) + - + -
͠
(a) (b) ( C )
CELL BATTERY A.C.SOURCE

Symbolic representation of source of current

(ii) When key is open
K K K
( )
(a) (b) (c)
PLUG KEY SWITCH TAPPING KEY

When key is closed

K K K
( )
(a) (b) (c)
PLUG KEY SWITCH TAPPING KEY
Symbolic representation of different keys

JOCKEY C JOCKEY
A B B A B A BC
(iii)
Rh Rh
(a) (b)
BLA FIXED RESISTANCE VARIABLE RESISTANCE

Symbolic representation of a rheostat

(iv)
A
+ -

Symbolic representation of an ammeter

(v) V
+ -

Symbolic representation of a voltmeter

Q. 5 What do you understand by the term current ? quantity. Is it a scalar or vector

Ans. The current is the amount of charge flowing in one second across the cross-section of
a conductor, the cross-section being normal to the direction of flow of current. Rate
of flow of charge in an electrical circuit is called electric current.
Charge (Q)
Current (1) = Time (t) = Current is a scalar quantity.
Current Electricity 155
Q.6 State and define the unit of electric current.
Ans. The unit of electric current is ampere (A). One ampere is equivalent to a charge of
one coulomb which flows through a conductor in one second.

1 coulomb -
1 ampere = Note : 1mA = 10 A
1 second
1μ A = 10-6 A

Q. 7 How much is the charge on an electron ?

-19
Ans. The charge on one electron is equal to 1.5 x 10 C.

Q. 8 n-electron flow through a cross-section of a conductor in time t. If charge

on an electron is e, write an expression for the current in the conductor.
Ans. Expression for current in the conductor is I = ne
t

Q.9 If a current I flows through a conductor for time t, then write an expression for the
total charge passed.
Ans. Expression for total charge passed is Q = I.t.

Q.10 What is a conductor? Give some examples.

Ans. The substances which have a very large number of free electrons, which can be made
to drift on the application of electric potential are called conductors. In brief,
conductors conducts electricity easily.
Example: All metals; graphite; acid solutions in water; alkali solutions in water
and metallic salt solutions in water are good conductors.

Q.11 What are insulators or bad conductors? Give some examples.

Ans. The substances which do not have very large number of free electrons, which can be
made to drift on the application of electric potential, are called insulators or bad
conductors. In brief, insulators does not conducts electricity or they does not provide
an easy path to electricity.
Example: All gases are bad conductors. Most of the organic compounds, such as
alcohol, ether, benzene, chloroform, sugar, starch, fur etc. are bad conductors, Glass,
mica, asbestos are worst conductors..

Q.12 What do you understand by the terms open circuit and closed circuit in electricity?
Ans. When no current is drawn from a cell, the cell is said to be in open circuit while when
the current is drawn from a cell, the cell is said to be closed circuit.

(B): Electric Potential and Resistance.

Q.13 What do you understand by the term electric cell ?

Ans. A cell is a device which is used to supply and maintain a constant potential difference
between any two points.

Q.14 Define electric potential.

Ans. Amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to a given point
in the vicinity of an electric field is called electric potential.
156 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

It is the electrical condition of the conductor which determines the direction of flow
of charge when the two conductors are either kept in contact or they are connected
together by a metallic wire.

Q.15 State the unit of potential. It is a scalar or vector quantity?

Ans. Unit of potential is joule/coulomb or volt.

... 1 ampere = 1 coulomb

1 second

Potential = Work done (W) ... 1 volt = 1 joule

Charge (Q) 1 coulomb
It is a scalar quantity.
Q.16 What do you understand by the term quantity of charge?
Ans. The number of charges (electrons) which drift from higher to lower potential is called
quantity of charge.

Q.17 Define potential difference. State its SI unit.

Ans. The amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another
point in an electric field is called potential difference. Unit of potential difference is
volt.

Q.18 When is potential difference said to be 1 volt?

Ans. The potential difference between two points is said to be 1 volt of the work done
in moving 1 coulomb of charge from one point to the other is 1 joule.

Q.19 Two conductors A and B are joined by a copper wire. State the direction of
flow of electrons in each of the following:
(i) If A is positively charged and B is uncharged.
(ii) If A is negatively charged and B is uncharged.
(iii) If A is positively charged and B is negatively charged.
Ans. (I) B to A
(ii) A to B
(iii) B to A.

Q.20 What is an equipotential surface ? notend

Ans. A surface having the same potential at each point, is called an equipotential surface.

Q.21 What is electrical resistance?

Ans. The obstruction offered in the flow of current by the wire is called its electrical
resistance. Its unit is ohm (Ω).

Q.22 State the factors on which the resistance of a wire depends.

Ans. The factors on which the resistance of a wire depends are as follows:
(i) Material of the wire: Good conductors offer less resistance
(ii) Length of the wire: A longer wire offers more resistance.
(iii) Area of cross-section of the wire: Thicker wire offers less resistance.
(iv) Temperature of the wire: Higher the temperature, more is the resistance.
Current Electricity 157
Q.23 How is the resistance of a wire affected if its :
(i) length is doubled.
(ii) radius is doubled?

Ans. (I) R l. ... As length is doubled, resistance is also doubled.

(ii) 1 1 As r is doubled, R becomes 1 th.

R
A r 4

Q.24 Name the instrument used to control current in an electric circuit.

Ans. Rheostat.
Q.25 State the unit of resistance and define it.
Ans. Unit of resistance is ohm. It is denoted by omega ( ).6t

I volt = 1V
1ohm = l ampere or 1
1A

The resistance of a conductor is said to be 1 ohm if a current of 1 ampere flows

through it when the potential difference across its end is 1 volt.

Q.26 Define conductance.

Ans. The reciprocal of resistance is called conductance. It's unit is ohm¹ or mho or 1
siemen (s).

Q.27 Define E.M.F. of a cell.

Ans. When the cell is in open circuit, the potential difference between the terminals of a
cell is called as its electromotive force (e.m.f).

Q.28 Name the factors on which E.M.F of a cell depends upon.

Ans. E.M.F of a cell depends on :
(i) the material of electrodes.
(ii) the electrolyte used in the cell.

Q.29 How is the direction of flow of current determined by the potential difference?
Ans. The direction of conventional current is taken from a point at higher potential to a
point at lower potential.

Q.30 Define terminal voltage of a cell.

Ans. When cell is in close circuit, the potential difference between the electrodes of the
cell is called the terminal voltage. It is to be noted that terminal voltage is always less
than the e.m.f. of a cell by the amount of energy spent in the flow of unit positive
charge through the electrolyte.

Q.31 What is internal resistance of cell?

Ans. The resistance offered by the electrolyte of a cell in the flow of electrons through it,
is called the internal resistance of a cell.
158 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.32 Name the factors on which the internal resistance of a cell depends.
Ans. The internal resistance of a cell depends on the following factors:
(i) the surface area of the electrodes.
(ii) the distance between the electrodes.
(iii) the temperature and concentration of the electrolyte.

Q.33 What is electric cell?

Ans. It is a device which is used to supply and maintain a constant potential difference
between any two points.

Q.34 What transformation of energy takes place when current is drawn from the cell ?
Ans. Chemical energy changes to electrical energy.

Q.35 Name the constituents of a cell.

Ans. Two electrodes and an electrolyte in a vessel.

Q.36 What is a primary cell? Give examples.

Ans. Primary cell A primary cell is a device which converts chemical energy into
electrical energy but such a cell can not be recharged i.e. the chemical reaction
taking place in this type of cell is irreversible. e.g. Simple voltaic cell, leclanche cell
& dry cell.

Q.37 What is a secondary cell? Name one such cell and give its use in daily life.
Ans. Secondary cell: The cells which can be recharged after use are called secondary
cells. For example lead accumulator is a secondary cell.
Use in daily life: Lead accumulators are commonly used in laboratories, in motor
cars, in aeroplanes and in train lightings.
Current Electricity 159
Q.38 State points of differences between primary cell and secondary cell.

Ans. Primary cell Secondary cell

1. Chemical reaction is 1. Chemical reaction is reversible.
irreversible.

2. Chemical energy is converted 2. Electrical energy converts into energy

into electrical energy when when current is passed in it (i.e., during
current is drawn from it charging), while chemical energy converts
into electrical energy when current is
drawn from it (i.e., during discharging).

3. It can not be recharged. 3. It can be recharged.

4. Its internal resistance is high. 4. Its internal resistance is low.

It is capable of giving weak It can provide low as well as
5. current only. 5. high current.

6. It is light and cheap. 6. It is heavy and costly.

Examples: Simple voltaic cell, Examples: Lead (or acid)
Leclanche cell, Daniel cell, accumulator, Ni-Fe (or alkali)
dry cell. accumulator, Li-H battery

Q.39 State the advantages of a dry cell over a wet leclanche cell.
Ans. The advantages of a dry cell over wet leclanche cell is that a dry cell is cheap and
portable.

Q.40 State the two main defects of a simple voltaic cell.

Ans. A simple voltaic cell has the following two main defects :
(i) Local action (ii) Polarization.

Q.41 Name one d.c. source and one a.c. source.

Ans. d.c. sorce: cell; a.c. source: mains.
Q.42 Explain "The electric cell can be treated merely as a source of electrons".

Ans. We know that when two conductors having different concentrations of electron (
i.e. charged to different potentials) are joined by a metallic wire, the electrons flow
from a conductor having higher concentration of electrons. i.e. (at a lower potential)
to the conductor having lower concentration of electrons. (i.e. at a higher potential).
This movement of electrons constitute a flow of current from conductor at a higher
potential to the conductor at a lower potential (i.e. in the direction opposite to the
direction of flow of electrons). The flow of electrons stops when two conductors have
equal concentration of electrons. Thus, to get a continuous flow of electrons (or current),
a constant difference in concentration of electrons (i.e. a constant potential difference)
must be maintained between the two conductors.
Now, an electric cell is a device in which a constant difference in concentration of
electrons (i.e. a constant potential difference) is maintained between the two conductors
by a chemical reaction. Thus, a cell behaves on a source of electrons.
160 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.43 Explain the importance of a good cell.

Ans. (I) A good cell must have high and steady e.m.f.
(ii) Its internal resistance should be low.
(iii) The depolarisations action should be quick (i.e., the depolariser used in the cell
should be such that it converts hydrogen into water as quickly as it is formed).
(iv) It should provide a constant current for a long period.
(v) It should be cheap and portable.
(vi) There should be no chemical reaction while the cell is not in use.

(B) Efficient use of energy

Q.44 What do you understand by efficient use of energy?

Ans. The meaning of the efficient use of energy is to reduce the cost and amount of energy
to be used to provide us the various products and services. This results in reduction
of
(i) the cost of energy and (ii) the emission of green house gases.

Q.45 Give some examples for efficient use of energy.

Ans. Examples for efficient use of energy:
(I) the use of the fluoroscent lights or natural skylight instead of the traditional
incandescent light bulbs, reduces the amount of energy required to attain the same
level of illumination.
(ii) The use of compact fluoroscent lights (CFL) saves 67% energy and they may
last 6 to 10 times longer than the incandescent lights.
(iii) The use of LED (light emitting diode) bulbs for lighting reduces the
consumption of energy drastically. It is also helpful in reducing the global warming
and the harmful effect of mercury used in the fluoroscent light.
(iv) The modern energy efficient appliances such as refrigerators, freezers, ovens,
stoves, dishwashers, dryers, etc. make use of significantly less energy than the
older appliances.
(v) A building's location and its surroundings play a key role in regulating its
temperature and illumination. Proper placement of the windows and skylights and
the use of architectural features that reflect light into the building can reduce the
need of the artificial lighting.
(vi) The use of advanced boilers and furnaces in industry can save sufficient amount
of energy in attaining the high temperature by burning less fuel. Use of such
technologies is more efficient and less polluting.
(vii) The fuel efficiency in the vehicles can be increased by reducing the weight of
the vehicle, using the advanced tyres and the computer controlled engines.

Q.46 Give three social initiatives for sensitive use of energy.

Ans. (i) Public awareness can be improved through mass-media and children's
participation in compaigns and eco-club activities.
(ii) Community involvement will surely be effective in reducing the misuse of
electricity.
(iii) The non-government organisations (NGO's) can be used to create social
awareness of the sensitive use of the resources.
Current Electricity 161

Solved Numericals
Type 1 Electric Current

1. A conductor carries a current of 0.4 A. Find the amount of charge that will pass through
the cross-section of the conductor in 40 s. How many electrons will flow in this time
-9
interval if charge on one electron is 1.6 x 10 C ?
Solution :

Given : I = 0.4 A, t = 40 s
Charge (Q) = Current x time Q = I x t = 0.4 x 40 = 16 C.
16
Now, Q = ne n = Q = -19 = 10 electrons
e 1.6 × 10

2. A charge of 400 C flows through a conductor for 13 min. and 20 sec. Find the
magnitude of current flowing through conductor.
Solution :

Charge (Q) = 400 C, Time (t) = 13 min + 20 s = 800 sec.

Current (I) = Q = 400C = 0.5 ampere

t 800s

3. A dry cell can supply a charge of 300 C. If the current drawn from the cell is 60 μA,
find the time in which the cell completely discharges.
Solution :

Charge (Q) = 300 C

-
Current (I) = 60 μA = 60 × 10 A

... Time (t) = Q =

I
300
-
60 x 10
= 5 x 10 second

4. A charge of 25 mA flows for 2 hour through an electric circuit. Calculate the number
of electrons which drift in the circuit. [Charge on one electron
-19
1.6 x 10 C].

Solution:
Let number of electrons = n
-19
Charge on the electron = 1.6 x 10 C
Current in circuit (I) = 25 mA = 0.025 A
Time (t) = 2 hour = 7200 sec.

I=
ne -
t
n = I x t = 0.025 x 7200
- = 112.5 x 10 electrons
e 1.6 x 10-19
162 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Type 2 Electric potential & resistance

5. A charge of 2 coulomb is moved into an electric field from infinity, when work done
at point A is 12 Joule and point B is 16 Joule. Calculate the potential difference
between points A and B.

Solution : W 12
Potential at point A (V₁) = Q = 2 = 6 V
W
Potential at point B (V2)= = 16 = 8 V
Q 2
Potential difference between points A and B= (V₂ - V₁)
= (8-6 ) = 2 volt

6. What amount of work is needed in moving 4C charge through a P.D. of 10 V?

Solution:
Given; q = 4c V = 10V

... Work needed = qV = 4 x 10 = 40 J

Numericals

Type 1 Electric Current

1.A conductor carries a current of 0.2 A.
(i) Find the amount of charge that will pass through the cross section of conductor
in 30 s.
(ii) How many electrons will flow in this time interval if charge on one electron is
1.6 x 10- C?

2. When starter motor of a car is switched on for 0.8s, a charge 24 C passes through
the coil of the motor. Calculate the current in the coil. Type 2: Electric Potential &
Resistance

3. In transferring 1.5 C charge through a wire, 9 J of work is needed. Find the potential
difference across the wire.

4. A cell is connected to a bulb which develops a potential difference of 12 volt across

it. The current in circuit is measured to be 2 ampere. Find the resistance offered
by the filament of bulb to the flow of current.

5. A cell of potential differ ence 12 V is connected to a bulb. The resistance of filament

of bulb when it glows, is 24 Ω. Find the current drawn from the cell.

ANSWERS (Numericals)

1. (i) 6 C (ii) 3.75 x 10 2. 30 A

3. 6 V 4. 6 ohm 5. 0.5 A
Current Electricity 163

SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q. 1 Distinguish between a closed circuit and an open circuit.

Q. 2 What are conductors and insulators of electricity? Give two examples of each.
Q. 3 Give the difference between EMF and terminal voltage.
Q. 4 State the factors on which resistance of a cell depends.
Q. 5 State the factors an which resistance of a cell depends.
Q. 6 Complete the circuit given in figure by inserting between the terminals A and C,
an ammeter. In the diagram mark the polarity at the terminals of ammeter and
indicate clearly the direction of flow of current in the circuit, when the circuit is
complete. Name and state the purpose of Rh in the circuit.

Rh
CELL
_
+

KEY

A C

Q.7 A charge of 300 C flows through a conductor for 2 minutes. Find the current.
Q. 8 12.50 × 10 electrons flow through a conductor for 0.1s. Find the magnitude of
current.
Q.9 A bulb draws current 1.5 A at 6.0 V. Find the resistance of filament of bulb while
glowing.
Q.10How can energy be used efficiently in our daily life?
 10 Magnetism
Syllabus
(A) Induced magnetism; Magnetic field of earth; neutral points in magnetic fields
Magnetism induced by bar magnets on magnetic materials; induction precedes
attraction; lines of magnetic field and their properties; evidences of existence of
earth's magnetic field, magnetic compass. Uniform magnetic field earth and non-
uniform field of a bar magnet placed along magnetic north-south; neutral point;
properties of magnetic field lines.
(B) Electromagnet and its uses.

(A) Induced Magnetism and Neutral Points

Theory Questions & Answers

Type 1: Properties of bar magnet and induced magnetism

Q. 1 What are (i) natural magnets (ii) artificial magnets ?

Ans. (i) Natural Magnets: Pieces of magnetite (Fe O ) or lodestone occuring naturally
are called natural magnets.
(ii) Artificial Magnets: A piece of iron or steel to which attractive or directive
properties are imparted are called artificial magnets.
Q. 2 Why are artificial magnets preferred over natural magnets? Ans. Artificial magnets are
preferred over natural magnets because :
(i) They are stronger
(ii) Their magnetic strength can be increased
(iii) They can be made in any shape or size.

Q. 3 What is a geometric pole and magnetic pole?

Ans. Geometric pole: Geometric end of the bar magnet is called geometric pole. Magnetic
pole: The point situated near the end of the magnet in its interior where most of the
magnetic power is concentrated is called the magnetic pole.

Q. 4 Define the following:

(i) Magnetic axis
(ii) Length of magnet.

Ans. (i) Magnetic axis: An imaginary line passing through magnetic north and south pole
of a bar magnet is called a magnetic axis.
(ii) Length of magnet: The distance from centre of magnet to its one magnetic pole is
called length of magnet.
Magnetism 165
Q. 5 Define the following:
(i) Temporary magnet
(ii) Permanent magnet
(iii) Electromagnet.

Ans. (i) Temporary magnet: A substance which behaves like a magnet only in the presence
of inducing magnet is called a temporary magnet. e.g. Iron.

(ii) Permanent magnet: A substance which behaves like a magnet only when inducing
magnet is removed is called a permanent magnet. e.g. Steel.

(iii) Electromagnet: A piece of soft iron which behaves like a magnet when placed
in closed coil carrying current is called electromagnet.
Q.6 What is induced magnetism?
Ans. The temporary magnetism acquired by a magnetic material when it is kept near
(or in contact with) a magnet, is called induced magnetism.

Q.7 Define magnetic induction.

Ans. The phenomena due to which a piece of steel or iron behaves like a magnet when
placed in a strong magnetic field is called magnetic induction.

Q.8 Give four methods of demagnetisation.

Ans. A magnet can be demagnetised:
(i) by placing it in a copper coil carrying alternating current.
(ii) by rough handling or hammering.
(iii) by strong heating.
(iv) by induction with similar magnet.

Q.9 "Induction precedes attraction". Explain the statement.

Ans. When a piece of iron is brought near one end of a magnet the nearer end of the piece
acquires the opposite polarity. Since unlike poles attract each other, therefore the iron
piece is attracted towards the end of the magnet. Thus the piece of iron first becomes
a magnet and then it is attracted. In other words, induction precedes attraction.

Q.10 Iron becomes magnetised when placed in a coil carrying direct current.
Ans. The coil carrying current (direct) has a magnetic field acting parallel to the axis of the
coil. When a piece of iron is placed within the coil the closed magnetic molecular
chains within it break and realign themselves along direction of magnetic field of the
coil. Thus the iron gets magnetised.

Q.11 There are two knitting needles, one of them is magnetised. How will you find out
which one is magnetised if no other magnet is available ?

Ans. Suspend each of the knitting needle freely by a fine silk thread. Notice the directions
in which needles are pointing. Disturb the needles a number of times and in each case
register the direction in which they are set. The needle which sets itself in one
particular direction is magnetised.

Q.12 Describe experimentally that magnetism is a property of molecules of a magnet.

Ans. Experiment No. 1: Rub a bar magnet over a steel bar along its length several times.
Test each end of steel bar with a fully suspended magnetic needle. It is noticed that
one end of the steel bar develops a north polarity whereas other end develops south.
166 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

It is clear that bar magnet simply realigned the molecules of steel which were already
magnets in straight line chains such that north and south pole appear at its ends.
Experiment No. 2: Hammer the above magnetised bar magnet of steel repeatedlyfor
few minutes. Test its each end with freely suspended magnetic needle. It is noticed
that both the ends of steel bar attract any of the poles of magnetic needle.
Q.13 Describe how will you determine the position of magnetic pole of a bar
magnet.
Ans. Place a sheet of white paper on a drawing board
and over it place a magnetic compass. Turn the
B
drawing board till it is in magnetic meridian, place Bar magnet A
a bar magnet along the length of the paper.
Bar magnet Near its north pole at point P place the
magnetic Magnetic compass. Mark the direction of Magnetic
Magnetic south pole A B
north pole and south pole of magnetic needle by meridian
points A and B. meridianMagnetic south pole
Repeat the experiment at point Q and mark points
C and D. Join BA and DC and produce them backwards to intersect. The point of
intersection is the north pole of the magnet.

Q.14 Since every iron atom is a tiny magnet why are not all iron bar magnets.
Ans. Molecular magnets are arranged in closed chains of various shapes. Thus the
molecular magnets mutually cancel the effect of each other and hence the iron bar
remains unmagnetized.

Q.15 If a magnet is carefully broken into two pieces along the vertical and horizontal axis
compare the strength of each piece with the original magnet?
Ans. The magnetic strength of each piece will be halved in both the cases as the molecular
magnets have been halved.

Q.16 State properties of a bar magnet.

Ans. General properties of a bar magnet are:
(i) It attracts small pieces of iron or steel towards it.
(ii) When suspended freely it always points towards the north- south direction.
(iii) Like poles of bar magnet repel each other.
(iv) Unlike poles of bar magnet attract each other.
(v) A magnet when rubbed over steel magnetizes it.
(vi) When a magnet is broken, every piece is a complete magnet.

Type 2 Lines of Magnetic field, Magnetic field of Earth & Neutral point

Q.17 Define magnetic field.

Ans. The space around a magnet in which the needle of a compass rests in a direction other
than the geographic north-south direction, is called magnetic field of the magnet.

Q.18 Define magnetic field lines.

Ans. Magnetic field line is a continuous curve in a magnetic field such that tangent at
any point of it gives the direction of the magnetic field at that point.
Magnetism 167
Q.19 State properties of magnetic field lines.
Ans. Properties of magnetic field lines
The magnetic field lines have following properties :

(I) They are closed and continuous curves.

(ii) Outside the magnet, they are directed from the north pole towards the south pole of
the magnet.

(iii)The tangent at any point on a field line gives the direction of magnetic field at that
point.

(iv)They never intersect one another. If two field lines intersect, there would be two
directions of the magnetic field at that point which is not possible.

(v) They are crowded near the poles of the magnet where the magnetic field is strong and
are far separated near the middle of the magnet and far from the magnet, where the
magnetic field is weak.
(vi)Parallel and equi-distant field lines represent a uniform magnetic field. The earth's
magnetic field in a limited space is uniform.
(vii) They behave like the stretched elastic rubber strings.

Q.20 State two evidences to show the existence of earth's magnetic field.
Ans. The existence of earth's magnetic field is based on the following facts :

(i) A freely suspended magnetic needle always rests in geographic north-south direction.

(ii) An iron rod buried inside the earth along north-south direction becomes a magnet.

(iii) Neutral points are obtained on plotting the field lines of a magnet where the net
magnetic field in zero.
(iv)A magnetic needle rests with its geometric axis making different angles with
horizontal when suspended at different places on the earth.
Q.21 Show by diagram three usual shapes of the artificial magnets.

N S

S N S
Ans. N

N S
(a) BAR MAGNET

(b) HORSE SHOE MAGNET © MAGNETIC NEEDLE

N S

Q.22 How will you test whether a given rod is made of iron or copper?
Ans. Iron rod gets magnetized when placed near a bar magnet by magnetic induction while
copper rod does not get magnetized.
168 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.23 Why do the lines of magnetic force never cross each other?
Ans. Magnetic line of force is the path along which a free north pole will point if free to
do. If two magnetic lines of forces intersect then it means that at the point of
intersection free north pole will point in two different directions at the same time. As
this is impossible hence lines of force do not intersect.

Q.24 Why do the lines not pass through the neutral point?
Ans. At the neutral point two opposing magnetic fields have equal intensity i.e. space in
hence the lines do not pass through the neutral point between the two opposing
fields will not have any magnetic lines of force.

Q.25 Draw diagrams showing arrangements of line of force for:

(i) Single magnet
(ii) two magnets in line with unlike poles facing each other.
(iii) two magnets in line with like poles facing each other.

Ans.

(a) Magnetic field lines due (b) Magnetic field lines due to
to a bar magnet a horse shoe magnot to

(c) Magnetic field lines due (d) Magnetic field lines due to
to two unike poles facing two like poles facing
each other each other

Non-uniform magnetic field lines

Q.26 Figure shows the magnetic field lines in a magnetic field. A, B and C are
three points in this field :
(i) At what point is the magnetic field maximum?
(ii) At what point is the magnetic field minimum? Give reason for your
answer.
Ans.
Magnetism 169
(I) At point C, magnetic field is maximum since the magnetic lines are close to
each other at C.
(ii) At point B, magnetic field is minimum since the magnetic lines are well separated
from each other at B.
Q.27 Explain the mechanism by which unmagnetised iron nails get attracted to a magnet
when brought near it.

Ans. When an unmagnetised iron nail is brought closer to a magnet magnetic induction
takes place and the iron nail also acquires induced magnetism with the opposite pole
induced at the end closer to the magnet. Hence due to attraction between the opposite
poles, the iron nail gets attracted by the magnet.

Q.28 What conclusion is drawn regarding the magnetic field at a point if a compass needle
at neutral point rests in any direction?
Ans. Magnetic field at neutral point is zero. The earth's magnetic field at that point is
neutralized by the magnetic field of some other magnetized material.

Q.29 Fill in the blanks with appropriate words :

(I) If the field lines in a magnetic field are parallel and equidistant, the magnetic field is
(uniform, non-uniform)
(ii) At a neutral point, the resultant magnetic field is (zero, infinite)

(iii)The magnetism is minimum in a bar magnet. (at the end, at the middle)

Ans. (i) If the field lines in a magnetic field are parallel and equidistant, the magnetic
field is uniform.
(ii) At a neutral point, the resultant magnetic field is zero.
(iii) The magnetism is minimum at the middle in a bar magnet.

Q.30 What is neutral point?

Ans. Neutral points are the points where the magnetic field of magnet is equal in magnitude
to the earth's horizontal magnetic field, but it is in opposite direction. Thus the resultant
(or net) magnetic field at the neutral points is zero..

Q.31 State the positions of Neutral points when the magnet is placed with its
axis in the magnetic meridian and with its north pole.
(i) pointing towards the geographic north.
(ii) pointing towards the geographic south.
Ans. (i) in east-west direction. (ii) in north-south direction.

Q.32 A horse shoe magnet has two iron needles attached at its ends. Show on a diagram the
positions occupied by the needles and name the phenomenon which comes into play.
Ans. Figure shows the iron needles attached at the ends of a horse shoe
magnet. The lower ends of both the needles get attracted towards
each other, since they have opposite polarities. The upper ends
touching the poles of the magnet, have polarities opposite to that
N S
of the magnet. This phenomenon is called magnetic induction. S N

N S
170 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

(B) Electromagnet and its uses

Type 3 Electromagnets

Q.33 What is magnetic effect of electric current?

Ans. When an electric current is passed through a conductor, a magnetic field is produced
around the conductor. This effect is called magnetic effect of electric current.

Q.34 What is an electromagnet ?

Ans. An electromagnet is a temporary strong magnet made from a piece of soft iron when
current flows in the coil wound around it. It is an artificial magnet.

Q.35 Name two types of electromagnets.

Ans. The following two shapes of electromagnet are in use :
(i) I-shape (or bar) magnet, and
(ii) U-shape (or horse-shoe) magnet.

Q.36 Explain construction and working of a I-shaped (or bar) electromagnet.

Ans.
P Q

SOFT
Rh IRON
A BAR

B K

I-shaped Electromagnet

Construction: To construct an I-shaped electromagnet, a thin insulated copper wire

chris wound in form of a solenoid around a straight soft iron bar PQ. The ends of the
wire are connected to a battery B through an ammeter A, a rheostat Rh and a key K
as shown above.
Working When current is passed through the winding of solenoid by closing the key
K, the end P of the bar becomes the south pole (S) since current at this face is
clockwise, while the end Q at which the current is anticlockwise, becomes the north
pole (N). Thus the bar becomes a magnet. The bar shows the magnetic properties
only when an electric current flows through the solenoid and it loses the magnetic
properties as soon as the current is switched off (since soft iron has a low
retentivity), thus it is a temporary magnet. Such arrangement is commonly used in a
relay.
Magnetism 171
Q.37 Explain construction and working of U-shaped (or horse shoe) electromagnet.
Ans.
SOFT IRON CORE

P O

S N

A AMMETER
RHEOSTAT
BATTERY

KEY

Horse-shoe Electromagnet

Construction: To construct a horse-shoe electromagnet, a thin insulated copper

wire is spirally wound on the arms of a U-shaped soft iron core, such that the
winding on the two arms as seen from the ends, is in opposite sense. Winding on the
arm P starts from the front and it is in the clockwise direction (when viewed from
the bottom). On reaching the upper end of the arm P, winding starts from the back at
the top of the arm Q and it is in anticlockwise direction. The ends of the wire are
connected to a battery through an ammeter, rheostat and a key.

Working: When current is passed through the winding by closing the key, the end
of the arm P becomes the south pole S (current at this face is clockwise) and the end
of the arm Q becomes the north pole N (current at this face is anti-clockwise).
Thus we get a very strong magnetic fied in the gap between the two poles. The
magnetic field in the gap vanishes as soon as the current in the circuit is switched
off. Thus it is a temporary magnet. Such magnets are used in d.c. motor, a.c.
generator, etc.
Q.38 What are the ways of increasing the magnetic field of an electromagnet ?
Ans. The magnetic field of an electromagnet (I or U-shaped) can be increased by the
following two ways:
(i) by increasing the number of turns of winding in the solenoid, and
(ii) by increasing the current through the solenoid.

Q.39 What is a permanent magnet ?

Ans. A permanent magnet is a natural occuring magnet.

Q.40 How is a permanent made using electricity ?

Ans. A strong permanent magnet is made like an electromagnet using steel instead of soft
iron. A coil of insulated copper wire is wound around the steel piece and then
current is passed in the coil. Once magnetised, it does ot lose its magnetism easily
(since steel has more retentivity than soft iron) so it becomes a permanent magnet.
The permanent magnets are used in electric meters (e.g. galvanometer, ammeter,
voltmeter) and in magnetic compass.
172 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.41 Distinguish between an Electromagnet and a Permanent magnet.

Ans. Electromagnet Permanent magnet

(I) It is made of soft iron. It is made of steel.

(ii) It produces the magnetic field so It produces a permanent magnetic field.
long as current flows in its coil. i.e. it
produces the temporary magnetic field.

(iii) The magnetic field strength can be The magnetic field strength cannot be
changed. changed.

(iv) The magnetic field of an electrom- The magnetic field of a permanent

agnet can be very strong. magnet is not so strong.

(v) The polarity of an electromagnet The polarity of a permanent magnet

can be reversed. can not be reversed.

(vi) It can easily be demagnetised by It can not be easily demagnetised.

switching off the current.

Q.42 What are advantages of an electromagnet over a permanent magnet ?

Ans. An electromagnet has the following advantages over a permanent magnet:

(i) An electromagnet can produce a strong magnetic field.
(ii) The strength of the magnetic field of an electromagnet can easily by changing the
current (or the number of turns) in its solenoid.be changed
(iii) The polarity of the electromagnet can be reversed by reversing the direction of
current in its solenoid.

Q.43 What are the uses of electromagnets?

Ans. Electromagnets are mainly used for the following purposes :
and transporting heavy iron scrap, girders, plates, etc. particularly
(i) For lifting when it is not convenient to take the help of human labour.
(ii) For loading the furnaces with iron.
(iii) For separating the iron pieces from debris and ores, where iron exists as
impurities (e.g., for separating iron from the crushed copper ore in copper
mines).
(iv) For removing pieces of iron from wounds.
(v) In scientific research, to study the magnetic properties of a substance in a
magnetic field.
(vi) In several electrical devices such as electric bell, telegraph, electric tram, electric
motor relay, microphone, loud speaker, etc.
Magnetism 173
Q.44 Explain the construction of an electric bell with the help of neat diagram.

Ans. GONG
HAMMER

ATTRACTION
ADJUSTING
SCREW
ELECTROMAGNET
ARMATURE
METALLIC
STRIP

BATTERY SWITCH

The main parts of the bell are:

(i) a horse-shoe electromagnet M, having a soft iron core,
(ii) a soft iron armature A,
(iii) a hammer H,
(iv) a gong G,
(v) a metallic spring strip SS,
(vi) an adjusting screw S',
(vii) a switch (or bell-push) K, and
(viii) a battery.

Construction: The armature A is fixed to the spring strip SS. The hammer H is attached
at the upper end of the armature A. When the switch K is not pressed, the strip SS
makes contact with the adjusting screw S' and there is a gap between the armature A
and the poles of the electromagnet.The coil CC is wound on the two arms of the
electromagnet in the opposite direction as shown above. One end of the coil is
connected to the terminal T, through the strip SS and the screw S', while the other end
is connected to the terminal T2. A battery is provided in series with the switch K across
the terminals T, and T2 Working When the electric circuit is closed by pressing the
switch K, the current flows through the coil CC and the core of the electromagnet gets
magnetised and therefore it attracts the armature A as shown above. Due to movement
of the armature A, the hammer H strikes the gong G and the bell rings. At the moment,
when the armature A, due to magnetic attraction, moves towards the electromagnet,
the connection between the strip SS and the screw S' breaks due to which the flow of
current in the coil stops. Consequently, the electromagnet loses magnetism. (i.e., it
gets demagnetised) and the armature A flies back to its original position due to the
spring effect of the strip SS. Now the armature A gain touches the screw S', resulting
in the flow of current in the coil. The electromagnet regains its magnetism and the
armature A is again attracted, so the hammer H again strikes the goung G. This process
continues.This process of make and break of the circuit goes on and the hammer strikes
the gong repeatedly so the bell rings as long as the switch K is kept pressed.
174 Std. 9 ICSE Physics

Q.45 In an electric bell, if an a.c. source is used instead of d.c. source what will be the
effect?

Ans. If an a.c. source is used in place of battery, the core of electromagnet will get
magnetised, but the polarity at its ends will change. Since attraction of armature does
not depend on the polarity of electromagnet, so the bell will still ring on pressing the
switch K.

SELF PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q. 1 Explain why two steel pins do not hang vertically from the lower end of the bar
magnet.
Q. 2 Discuss the various properties of a bar magnet.
Q. 3 A freely suspended bar magnet always points north south direction why?
Q. 4 The north pointing end of a compass needle which has come to rest is attracted
towards a piece of soft iron placed a little distance away from it.
Q. 5 How will you determine the polarity of a given bar of iron which is magnetized
by electrical method?
Q. 6 What do you mean by self demagnetization of a magnet? How is it minimised by
the use of magnetic keepers ?
Q. 7 How can we increase the strength of an electromagnet made up by a soft iron
core?
Q. 8 What do you understand by the term magnetic lines of force? State four properties
of the same.
Q. 9 Explain why iron filings which are sprinkled on a sheet of cardboard over a bar
magnet take up definite positions when cardboard is slightly tapped.
Q. 10 Define neutral point.