1. Why do different people have different notions of development?

Which of the following

explanations are more important and why?

(a) Because people are different.

(b) Because the life situations of people are different.

2. Do the following two statements mean the same? Justify your answer.

(a) People have different developmental goals.

(b) People have conflicting developmental goals

3. Development of a country can generally be determined by

(a) its per capita income

(b) its average literacy level

(c) health status of its people

(d) all the above

4. Countries with per capita income of US$ 12,056 per annum and above in 2017 are
called rich countries, and those with a per capita income of US$ 955 or less are called
low-income countries. State if it is

(a)True

(b)False

5. Give some examples where factors other than income are important aspects of our
lives

6. What can be some of the developmental goals for your village, town or locality?

7. Give three examples where an average is used for comparing situations.

8. Why do you think average income is an important criterion for development? Explain.
9. Besides the size of per capita income, what other property of income is important in
comparing two or more societies?

10. Suppose records show that the average income in a country has been increasing
over a period of time. From this, can we conclude that all sections of the economy have
become better? Illustrate your answer with an example.

11. From the text, find out the per capita income level of low-income countries as per
World Development Reports.

12. Write a paragraph on your notion of what should India do or achieve to become a
developed country.

13. Define the Public Distribution System.

14. What are the examples where the collective provision of goods and services is
cheaper than individual provision?

15. Does the availability of good health and educational facilities depend only on the
amount of money spent by the government on these facilities? What other factors could
be relevant?

16. In Tamil Nadu, 90% of the people living in rural areas use a ration shop, whereas in
West Bengal, only 35% of rural people do so. Where would people be better off and why?

17. Is crude oil essential for the development process in a country? Discuss.

18. Explain the Human Development Report.

19. What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries?
What are the limitations of this criterion, if any?

20. In what respects is the criterion used by the UNDP for measuring development
different from the one used by the World Bank?

21. Why do we use averages? Are there any limitations to their use? Illustrate with your
own examples related to development.
22. Kerala, with lower per capita income, has a better human development ranking than
Haryana. Hence, per capita income is not a useful criterion at all and should not be used
to compare states. Do you agree? Discuss.

23. Find out the present sources of energy that are used by the people in India. What
could be the other possibilities fifty years from now?

24. “The Earth has enough resources to meet the needs of all but not enough to satisfy
the greed of even one person”. How is this statement relevant to the discussion of
development? Discuss

25. Explain the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries.

26. Describe any three possible development goals of landless rural labourers.

27. Mention any one limitation of per capita income as an indicator of development.

28. “Though the level of income is important, it is an inadequate measure of the level of
development.” Justify the statement.

29.What is under employment? Explain with an example.

30. Give one difference between organised and unorganised sectors.

31. How many days of guaranteed employment are provided under National
Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005?

32. What was the status of the tertiary sector in production and employment
during the year 2010-11?

33. Mention the three ways in which GDP can be measured.

34. Distinguish between the public sector and private sector.

35.’Make a project file on consumer awareness’.

 B.S.M. senior Secondary School
Class-10th
Subject-Social Science
Holiday Homework
•Make a Project on any of the topic given below:
Social issue
Or
Consumer awareness
Or
Sustainable development
Follow the given instructions while making the project :
1.Hand made cover must be used
2. To make project more presentable use newspaper cuttings , Some reports Wherever
required etc.

This Project is required for final Practical and marks for this would be added in final Exam.
•Do the given work in separate Notebook :
Very Short Answer questions
1.What do you understand by ‘absolutist’?
2. State any one feature of a nation state.
3.What political and constitutional changes did take place in the wake of French revolution
in 1789?state any one change.
4. At which place was Frankfurt parliament convened?
5.What is ideology?
6. What happened on 10th April 1919 in Amritsar?
7. State one of oppressive feature of Rowlatt act.
8. What was boycott?
9. What was forced recruitment?
10. With which idea as the modern nationalism in Europe is associated?
11. When was the states reorganisation commission was implemented?
12. Name the local body which elect gram Panchayat.
13. State one special problem in Brussels.
14. The community government in Belgium is a good example of which form of power sharing?
15. What was the basis of caste system in India?
16. What is the average child sex ratio as per 2011 census?
17. What is defection?
18. What does BSP stand for?
19. What is transparency in a democracy?
20. What is the condition of people in Bangladesh?

Short answer type questions:

8. Why did the non cooperation movement institutions gradually slow down?
9. After arriving in India which Satyagraha movements for organised successfully by Mahatma Gandhi?
10. Discuss the importance of Lahore congress session of 1929.
11. Explain the condition of Italy before unification.
12. Name any two subjects that are included in concurrent list.
how are the laws made on the subjects? Explain.
13. Differentiate between gram sabha and gram Panchayat.
14. Explain the major steps taken towards decentralization for making the third tear of government more powerful.
15. Why is there overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world?
16. Why do we prefer democracy? Mention prudential reason.
17. Describe the importance of regional parties in strengthening democracy.

Long Answer type questions .

1.Describe the various stages of German unification.
2. Describe any three economic hardships faced by Europe in 1830.
3. Highlight the reasons for the growth of nationalist tensions in Balkan region before the first world war.
4. Simon commission was created with slogan ‘go back Simon’ at arrival in India .
Support this reaction of Indians with arguments.
5. How did non cooperation movements spread to countryside and drew into its fold the struggles of peasants and tribal
community? Elaborate
6. ‘The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the nation of Swaraj .’support
the statement with arguments.

16. When did Sri Lanka become independent? How did the Sinhala community seek to secure dominance over
Government and why ?What were its effects?
17. Explain with example the accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony.
18. How has the idea of Power sharing emerge? explain different forms that have common arrangements of power
sharing.
19. Examine in what makes India a federal country.
20. How are legislative powers divided between union and State governments in India?
21. ‘All the states in Indian union do not have identical powers.’ Explain
22. ‘Women still leg much behind men in India despite some improvement since independence.’ analyse the statement
23. Discuss various forms of caste in politics.
24. Mention any three forms in which communalism is expressed in politics. Describe the solution provided by
constitution framers of India to meet this challenge.
25. Describe in brief the recent efforts that have been made in India to reform political parties and its leaders.
26. Describe demerits of by party system.
27. Describe the role of political parties in a democratic state.
28. ‘Democracy is based on Idea of deliberation and negotiation’. Examine the statement.
29. Describe the importance of democratic government as an accountable and legitimate government.
30. ‘Democracy is accountable and responsive to the needs and expectation of citizens’. Evaluate.
GEOGRAPHY: Class :- 10th
CHAPTER: 1- RESOURCES AND DEVELOPMENT
I. Answer the following questions:
1. What is a Resource?
2. What is Sustainable Development?
3. Classification of resources:
• On the basis of origin
• On the basis of exhaustibility
• On the basis of ownership
• On the basis of status of development
4) Write about the first Earth summit.
5). Write about Agenda-21.
6) Expand UNCED.
7) What are the three steps involved in resource planning in India?
8) Define the following:
1. Bangar
2. Khaddar
3. Bhabar
4. Terai
9 ) On an outline physical map of India mark and label:
MAJOR SOIL TYPES ( Textbook page no: 9 )

CHAPTER : 2 FOREST AND WILDLIFE RESOURCES

1) Conservation of forest and wildlife in India.

2) Types of forests:-

3) State two reasons of deforestation during colonial period.

4) When was Project Tiger launched?

5) Which state has the largest area under permanent forests?

6) Explain the causes for environmental destruction.

CHAPTER 3 :- Water Resource

1) Why water is a renewable resource?

2) Which river is called as 'river of sorrow'?

3) Which are direct source of freshwater?

4) What is rainwater harvesting?

5) Explain main disadvantages of the multi- purpose projects.

6) Water scarcity in most cases is caused by over - exploitation, excessive use and unequal access to
water among different social groups. " Explain the meaning of statement with the help of examples.

CHAPTER :- 4 AGRICULTURE

1) Which is the most likely reason why the Government of India introduced a comprehensive land
development program in the 1980s and 1990s ?

2) Which of the following might not help in modernising agriculture?

3) What is a rabi crop?

4) Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large
area?

(a) Shifting cultivation (b) Plantation agriculture

(c) Horticulture (d) Sericulture

5) What is leguminous crop?

6) What is the main characteristic of commercial farming?

7) What is a plantation crop?

8) Give a brief description of the maize crop in India.

9) What are the uses of Sugarcane? Name sugarcane producing states in India.

10) Difference between subsistence farming and commercial farming.

11. MAP WORK :-

•Major soil types

• Major rivers in India

• Major dams of India

• Rice growing areas, wheat growing areas, Maize producing states.

12 . Project work :- Write project on Sustainable Development.

 Class 10th biology
Q. 1 . Why acquired traits are not inherited?
Q. 2 What is gene? Where are genes located?

Q. 3 Assertion (A): The genetic complement of an organism is called

genotype.
Reason (R): Genotype is the type of hereditary properties of an organism.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

Q. 4 Assertion (A): The sex of a child is determined by the mother.

Reason (R): Humans have two types of sex chromosomes: XX and XY.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true

Q. 5 Assertion (A): CFCs deplete the ozone layer.

Reason (R): CFCs are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

Q.6 One day Mohan found his neighbours burning plastic wastes in an open
space near to his house. He explained three methods to save the environment
from plastic wastes to them. Imagine yourself in methods that Mohan might
have told to his neighbours. What value was exhibited by Mohan in this
situation?

Q. 7 Explain why a food chain consists of few steps only? Write a food
chain having five steps?

Q. 8 What is the significance of food chains?

 B S M SR. SEC. SCHOOL, BAHADURGARH
Class : 10th Session : 2024-25 Subject : Science

1. Which of the following reaction can also be termed a thermal decomposition reaction?
(a) Combination reaction (b) Decomposition reaction
(c) Displacement reaction (d) Double displacement reaction.

2. A non-metal used to preserve food material is:

(a) Carbon (b) Phosphorus (c) Sulphur (d) Nitrogen

3. pH value less than 7 indicates that the solution is –

(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Neutral (d) No effect

4. Which of the following are present in a dilute Aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?
(a) H3O+, Cl– (b) H3O+ , OH– (c) Cl– , OH– (d) H2O2

5. When hydrochloric acid is added to barium hydroxide, a white-coloured compound is formed.

Which of the following option gives the complete chemical reaction?
(a) HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH (b) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH
(c) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaH2 + 2HCl + O2 (d) HCl + 2Ba(OH) → 2BaCl2 + 2HOH + O

6. A student wrote a chemical equation of the reaction between carbon monoxide and hydrogen
as, CO2 + 2H2 → CH3OH How can the reaction be classified?
(a) The reaction is an example of a combination reaction as a compound separates into two
compounds.
(b) The reaction is an example of a decomposition reaction as a compound dissociates into two
compounds.
(c) The reaction is an example of a combination reaction as two compounds react to form a single
compound.
(d) The reaction is an example of a decomposition reaction as two compounds react to form a single
compound.
7. Which of the following can undergo a chemical reaction?
(a) MgSO4 + Fe (b) ZnSO4 + Fe (c) MgSO4 + Pb (d) CuSO4 + Fe

8. The image shows the pH values of four solutions on a pH scale. Which solutions are alkaline in
nature?
(a) A and B (b) B and C (c) C and D (d) A and D

9. When calcium oxide is added to water, it completely dissolves in water without forming
bubbles. What products are formed in this reaction?
(a) Ca and H2 (b) Ca and H2O2 (c) Ca(OH)2 (d) CaH2

10. Which salt is acidic in nature?

(a) NH4Cl (b) CH3COONH4 (c) NaCl (d)Na2CO3

11. What are the products obtained by aerobic respiration in plants?

(a) Lactic acid + energy (b) Carbon dioxide + water + energy
(c) Ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy (d) Pyruvate

12. Digestion of food starts from which organ of the human digestive system?
(a) Mouth due to the presence of saliva
(b) Oesophagus that moves the food in the gut
(c) Pancreas that releases juices for fat breakdown
(d) Stomach that helps in mixing food with digestive juice

13. Which of the following is the correct sequence of body parts in the human alimentary canal?
(a) Mouth → stomach → small intestine → large intestine → oesophagus
(b) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine
(c) Mouth → stomach → oesophagus → small intestine → large intestine
(d) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → large intestine → small intestine

14. The diagram below shows three substances X, Y and Z diffusing into or out of a blood capillary,
and into or out of respiring body cells. Which of the following correctly identifies ‘Y’?
(a) Oxygen (b) Glucose (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Any of these

15. Which of the following option shows the transport of oxygen to the cell correctly?
(a) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells
(b) Lungs →pulmonary vein →right atrium →right ventricle → aorta → body cells
(c) Lungs →pulmonary artery →left atrium → left ventricle → vena cava → body cells
(d) Lungs →pulmonary artery →right atrium → right ventricle→ vena cava → body cells

16. The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depend upon:
(a) Oxygen (b) Temperature (c) Water in the guard cells (d) Concentration of CO2

17. The contraction and expansion movement of the walls of the food pipe is called:
(a) Translocation (b) Transpiration (c) Peristaltic movement (d) Digestion

18. The diagram shows the human gut. Which numbered structures secrete digestive enzymes?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 5, and 6 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 6 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

19. Which blood vessels have high blood pressure and what they have to withstand this high
pressure?
(a) Both arteries and veins have same pressure of blood and they are thick walled vessels.
(b) Arteries have high blood pressure and they have elastic and thick walls to withstand this high
pressure.
(c) Veins have high blood pressure and they have to valves to withstand this high pressure.
(d) None of the above.

20. Rear view mirrors often have the statement "Objects in the mirror are closer than they
appear". This is because _______________________.
(a) the mirror forms images larger than the object's size
(b) the mirror forms images smaller than the object's size
(c)only objects close to the mirror can be viewed clearly
(d) the object's distance from the mirror is equal to the image's distance

21. An object is placed at a distance of 40cm in front of a concave mirror of a focal length of 20 cm.
The image produced is:
(a) virtual and inverted
(b) real and erect
(c) real, inverted and of the opposite size as that of the object
(d) real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object

22. The focal length of a plane mirror is

(a) 0 (b) infinite (c) 25 cm (d) -25 cm

23. Magnification produced by a rearview mirror fitted in vehicles:

(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one, depending upon the position of the object in front of it

24. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the size of the
object?
(a) At the principal focus of the lens
(b) At twice the focal length
(c) At infinity
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus.

25. An object is placed 60 cm in front of a concave mirror. The real image formed by the mirror is
located 30 cm in front of the mirror. What is the object’s magnification?
(a) +2 (b) -2 (c) +0 5 (d) -0 5

26. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm in front of a plane mirror, then the distance of image
from mirror will be
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 0

27. The radius of curvature of concave mirror is 12 cm. Then, the focal length will be
(a) 12 cm (b) 6 cm (c) -24 cm (d) -6 cm

28. Velocity of light in air is 3×108 m/s. While its velocity in a medium is 1.5×108 m/s. Then,
refractive index of this medium is
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 0.5 (d) 2

Question No. 29 to 33 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is True but R is False.
D. A is False but R is True.
29. Assertion (A): Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is an example of exothermic
reactions.
Reason (R): Exothermic reaction are those reactions in which heat is evolved.

Answer_____________

30. Assertion (A): In a reaction of copper with oxygen, copper serves as a reducing agent.
Reason (R): The substance which gains oxygen in a chemical reaction acts as a reducing agent.

Answer_____________
31. Assertion (A): Resins and gums are stored in old xylem tissue in plants.
Reason (R): Resins and gums facilitate transport of water molecules.

Answer_____________

32. Assertion (A) : Concave mirrors are used as make-up mirrors.

Reason (R): When the face is held within the focus of a concave mirror, then a diminished image of
the face is seen in the concave mirror.

Answer_____________

33. Assertion (A): The shorter the focal length of a convex lens, the higher is its power.
Reason (R): A convex lens of longer focal length causes a greater degree of convergence of light rays.

Answer_____________

CASE STUDY
A. Heterotrophic nutrition is a mode of nutrition in which organisms obtain readymade organic food
from outside sources. The organisms that depend upon outside sources for obtaining organic nutrients
are called heterotrophs. Heterotrophic nutrition is of three types: saprophytic, parasitic and holozoic
nutrition.

34. In which of the following groups of organisms food material is broken outside the body and
absorbed?
(a) Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba (b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(c) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta (d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm

35. Which of the following is a parasite?

(a) Yeast (b) Taenia (c) Amoeba (d) Earthworm

36. Which of the following is an example of saprotroph?

(a) Grass (b) Mushroom (c) Amoeba (d) Paramecium

37. Heterotrophic nutrition involves

(a) production of simple sugar from inorganic compounds
(b) utilisation of chemical energy to prepare food
(c) utilisation of energy obtained by plants
(d) all of these.

B. The spherical mirror forms different types of images when the object is placed at different locations.
When the image is formed on screen, the image is real and when the image does not form on screen,
the image is virtual. When the two reflected rays meet actually, the image is real and when they
appear to meet, the image is virtual. A concave mirror always forms a real and inverted image for
different positions of the object. But if the object is placed between the focus and pole. the image
formed is virtual and erect. A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image. A
concave mirror is used as doctor’s head mirror to focus light on body parts like eyes, ears, nose etc.,
to be examined because it can form erect and magnified image of the object. The convex mirror is
used as a rear view mirrors in automobiles because it can form an small and erect image of an object.

38. When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed is
(a) larger than the object (b) smaller than the object
(c) same size as that of the object (d) highly enlarged.

39. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
(a) plane (b) concave (c) convex (d) either plane or convex.

40. A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the
middle portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. The following is the order
of combinations for the magic mirror from the top.
(a) Plane, convex and concave (b) Convex, concave and plane
(c) Concave, plane and convex (d) Convex, plane and concave
41. To get an image larger than the object, one can use
(a) convex mirror but not a concave mirror (b) a concave mirror but not a convex mirror
(c) either a convex mirror or a concave mirror (d) a plane mirror.

C. Frothing in Yamuna
The primary reason behind the formation of the toxic foam is high phosphate content in the
wastewater because of detergents used in dyeing industries, dhobi ghats and households. Yamuna's
pollution level is so bad that parts of it have been labelled 'dead' as there is no oxygen in it for aquatic
life to survive.
42. Predict the pH value of the water of river Yamuna if the reason for froth is high content of
detergents dissolved in it.
(a) 10-11 (b) 5-7 (c) 2-5 (d) 7

43. Which of the following statements is correct for the water with detergents dissolved in it?
(a) low concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-)and high concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+).
(b) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-)and low concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+).
(c) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH- ) as well as hydronium ion (H3O+).
(d) equal concentration of both hydroxide ion (OH-) and hydronium ion (H3O+).

44. If a sample of water containing detergents is provided to you, which of the following methods
will you adopt to neutralize it?
(a) Treating the water with baking soda (b) Treating the water with vinegar
(c) Treating the water with caustic soda (d) Treating the water with washing soda

45. The table provides the pH value of four solutions P, Q, R and S.

Solution pH Value
P 2
Q 9
R 5
S 11

Which of the following correctly represents the solutions in increasing order of their hydronium
ion concentration?
a) P>Q>R>S b) P>S>Q>R c) S<Q<R<P d) S<P<Q<R

46. Lime or choona (which is used with betel leaf when making pan) turns turmeric red. When
turmeric is added to soap it turns red. When a substance X was added to turmeric, there was no
colour change. What can you conclude from this?
(a) X is an acid (b) X is a salt (c) X is not a base (d) X is a neutral substance

47. A point object emits rays in all directions. Consider one ray that the object emits which is
parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror.
(a) A (b)B (c) D (d) P

48. The diagram below shows that the path of the ray of light in another medium R, after passing
through medium Q, is parallel to the path of the ray in medium P.

Which of the following is true about the refractive index of medium R as compared to that of
medium P?
(a)It is lower.
(b)It is higher.
(c)It is the same.
(d) (Cannot say as the light ray is not passing directly from medium P to R.

49. Study the diagram of the nephron that is given below and answer the question that follows.
Which of the four options given below gives the correct estimate of the components found in the
body fluids found in the regions marked X, Y and Z in the diagram?

Options Component X-Blood Y-Glomerular Z-Urine

filtrate
P Glucose 0.1% 0.1% 0.0%
Urea 0.03% 0.03% 2.0%
Q Glucose 0.1% 0.0% 0.0%
Urea 0.3% 2.0% 2.0%
R Glucose 0.1% 0.0% 0.0%
Urea 0.3% 0.03% 0.3%
S Glucose 0.1% 0.0% 0.1%
Urea 0.3% 2.0% 2.0%

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

50. The sting of an ant contains formic acid. The effect of the sting can be reduced by applying
sodium bicarbonate. This is because sodium bicarbonate is a/an ________.
(a) basic substance (b) acidic substance
(c)neutral substance (d) (any of the above)
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