FROM RegisteredNurseRN.

com

1. True or False: Tuberculosis is a contagious bacterial infection caused by

mycobacterium tuberculosis and it only affects the lungs.
ANSWER: FALSE
● Tuberculosis is a contagious bacterial infection caused by mycobacterium
tuberculosis that affects the lungs AND other systems of the body like the joints,
kidneys, brain, spine, liver etc.

2. A 55-year old male patient is admitted with an active tuberculosis infection. The nurse
will place the patient in ___________________ precautions and will always wear
_____________________ when providing patient care?

A. droplet, respirator
B. airborne, respirator
C. contact and airborne, surgical mask
D. droplet, surgical mask
● A patient with ACTIVE TB is contagious. The bacterium, mycobacterium
tuberculosis which causes TB, is so small that it can stay suspended in the air for
hours to days. Therefore, the nurse will place the patient in AIRBORNE
precautions. In addition, a special mask must be worn called a respirator (as
referred to as an N95 mask…..a surgical mask does NOT work with this
condition).

3. Which statement is correct regarding mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A. This bacterium is an anaerobic type of bacteria.
B. It is an alkali bacterium that stains bright red during an acid-fast smear
test.
C. It is known as being an aerobic type of bacteria.
D. It’s an acid-fact bacterium that stains bright green during an acid-fast
smear test.
● Mycobacterium tuberculosis is AEROBIC (it thrives in conditions that are high in
oxygen), and it is an ACID-FAST bacterium, which means when it is stained
during an acid-fast smear it will turn BRIGHT RED.

4. Your patient with a diagnosis of latent tuberculosis infection needs a bronchoscopy.

During transport to endoscopy, the patient will need to wear?
A. N95 mask
B. Surgical mask
C. No special PPE is needed
D. Face mask with shield
● Patients with a latent tuberculosis infection are NOT contagious. Therefore, no
special PPE is needed for the patient during transport. HOWEVER, if the patient
had ACTIVE tuberculosis they would need to wear a surgical mask during
transport.

5. You are assessing your newly admitted patients who are all presenting with atypical
signs and symptoms of a possible lung infection. The physician suspects tuberculosis.
So, therefore, the patients are being monitored and tested for the disease. Select all the
risk factors below that increases a patient’s risk for developing tuberculosis:
A. Diabetes
B. Liver failure
C. Long-term care resident
D. Inmate
E. IV drug user
F. HIV
G. U.S. resident
● Remember from our lecture we discussed the risk factors for developing TB and
to remember them I said remember the mnemonic “TB Risk”. It stands for tight
living quarters (LTC resident, prison, homeless shelter etc.), below or at the
poverty line (homeless), refugee (especially in high risk countries), immune
 system issue such as HIV, substance abusers (IV drugs or alcohol), Kids less
than the age of 5….all these are risk factors.

6. Your patient is diagnosed with a latent tuberculosis infection. Select all the correct
statements that reflect this condition:
A. “The patient will not need treatment unless it progresses to an active
tuberculosis infection.”
B. “The patient is not contagious and will have no signs and
symptoms.”
C. “The patient will have a positive tuberculin skin test or IGRA test.
D. “The patient will have an abnormal chest x-ray.”
E. “The patient’s sputum will test positive for mycobacterium tuberculosis.”
● The patient WILL need medical treatment to prevent this case of LBTI from
developing into an active TB infection later on. The patient will NOT have an
abnormal chest x-ray or a positive sputum test. This is only in active TB.

7. A 52-year old female patient is receiving medical treatment for a possible tuberculosis
infection. The patient is a U.S. resident but grew-up in a foreign country. She reports
that as a child she received the BCG vaccine (bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine). Which
physician’s order below would require the nurse to ask the doctor for an order
clarification?
A. PPD (Mantoux test)
B. Chest X-ray
C. QuantiFERON-TB Gold (QFT)
D. Sputum culture
● Patients who have received the BCG vaccine will have a false positive on a PPD
(Mantoux test), which is the tuberculin skin test. The BCG vaccine is a vaccine to
prevent TB. It is given in foreign countries to children to prevent TB. Therefore,
the person has already been exposed to the bacteria via vaccine and will have a
false positive. A QuantiFERON-TB Gold test is a better option for this patient. It is
a blood test.

8. You’re teaching a group of long-term care health givers about the signs and
symptoms of tuberculosis. What signs and symptoms will you include in your
education?
A. Cough for a minimum of 6 weeks
B. Night sweats
C. Weight gain
D. Hemoptysis
E. Chills
F. Fever
G. Chest pain
● The answers are B, D, E, F, and G. Option A is wrong because a cough should
be present for 3 weeks or more (NOT 6 weeks). Option C is wrong because the
patient will experience weight LOSS (not gain).

9. A patient has a positive PPD skin test that shows an 8 mm induration. As the nurse
you know that:
A. The patient will need to immediately be placed in droplet precautions and
started on a medication regime.
B. The patient will need a chest x-ray and sputum culture to confirm the
test results before treatment is provided.
C. The patient will need an IGRA test to help differentiate between a latent
tuberculosis infection versus an active tuberculosis infection.
D. The patient will need to repeat the skin test in 48-72 hours to confirm the
results.
● A positive PPD result does NOT necessarily mean the patient has an active
infection of TB. The patient will need a chest x-ray and sputum culture to
determine if mycobacterium tuberculosis is present and then treatment will be
based on those results. The IGRA test does NOT differentiate between LTBI or
an active TB infection. Patients are placed in airborne precautions (NOT droplet)
if they have ACTIVE TB.
10. A patient has a PPD skin test (Mantoux test). As the nurse you tell the patient to
report back to the office in _________ so the results can be interpreted?
A. 24-48 hours
B. 12-24 hours
C. 48-72 hours
D. 24-72 hours
● The patient should report back in 48-72 hours. If they fail to, the test must be
repeated.

11. A 48-year old homeless man, who is living in a local homeless shelter and is an IV
drug user, has arrived to the clinic to have his PPD skin test assessed. What is
considered a positive result?
A. 5 mm induration
B. 15 mm induration
C. 9 mm induration
D. 10 mm induration
● 15 mm induration is positive in ALL people regardless of health history or risk
factors. However, for patients who are homeless (living in homeless shelter) and
are IV drug users, a 10 mm or more is considered positive.

12. The physician orders an acid-fast bacilli sputum culture smear on a patient with
possible tuberculosis. How will you collect this?
A. Collect 2 different sputum specimens 12 hours apart
B. Collect 3 different sputum specimens (one in the morning, afternoon, and
at night)
C. Collect 3 different sputum specimens on 3 different days
D. Collect 2 different sputum specimens on 2 different days
● The answer is C. This is how an AFB sputum culture is collected.

13. A patient receiving medical treatment for an active tuberculosis infection asks when
she can starting going out in public again. You respond that she is no longer contagious
when:
A. She has 3 negative sputum cultures
B. Her signs and symptoms improve
C. She has completed the full medication regime
D. Her chest x-ray is normal
E. She has been on tuberculosis medications for about 3 weeks
● The answers are A, B, and E. These are all criteria for when a patient with active
TB can return to public life (school, work, running errands). Until then they are
still contagious and must stay home in isolation.

14. As the nurse you know that one of the reasons for an increase in multi-drug-
resistant tuberculosis is:
A. Incorrect medication ordered
B. Increase in tuberculosis cases nationwide
C. Incorrect route of drug ordered
D. Noncompliance due to duration of medication treatment needed
● The answer is D. Patients must be on medication treatment for about 6-12
months (depending on the type of TB the patient has). This leads to
noncompliant issues. DOT (directly observed therapy) is now being instituted so
compliance is increased. This is where a public health nurse or a trained DOT
worker will deliver the medication and watch the patient swallow the pill until
treatment is complete.

15. Your patient, who is receiving Pyrazinamide, report stiffness and extreme pain in the
right big toe. The site is extremely red, swollen, and warm. You notify the physician and
as the nurse you anticipated the doctor will order?
A. Calcium level
B. Vitamin B6 level
C. Uric acid level
D. Amylase level
 ● The answer is C. This medication can increase uric acid levels which can lead to
gout. The patient’s signs and symptoms are classic findings in a gout attack.

16. You note your patient’s sweat and urine is orange. You reassure the patient and
educate him that which medication below is causing this finding?
A. Ethambutol
B. Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid
D. Rifampin
The answer is D. This medication will cause body fluids to turn orange.
17. A patient with active tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol. As the nurse you make it
priority to assess the patient’s?
A. hearing
B. mental status
C. vitamin B6 level
D. vision
The answer is D. This medication can cause inflammation of the optic nerve. Therefore,
it is very important the nurse asks the patient about their vision. If the patient has
blurred vision or reports a change in colors, the MD must be notified immediately.
18. A patient taking Isoniazid (INH) should be monitored for what deficiency?
A. Vitamin C
B. Calcium
C. Vitamin B6
D. Potassium
The answer is C. This medication can lead to low Vitamin B6 levels. Most patients will
take a supplement of B6 while taking this medication.
19. A patient is taking Streptomycin. Which finding below requires the nurse to notify the
physician?
A. Patient reports a change in vision.
B. Patient reports a metallic taste in the mouth.
C. The patient has ringing in their ears.
D. The patient has a persistent dry cough.
The answer is C. This medication can be very toxic to the ears (cranial nerve 8).
Therefore, it is alarming if the patient reports ringing in their ears, which could represent
ototoxicity.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
FROM QUIZLET
1. The right forearm of a client who had a purified protein derivative (PPD) test for
tuberculosis is reddened and raised about 3mm where the test was given. This PPD
would be read as having which of the following results?
A) Indeterminate
B) Needs to be redone
C) Negative
D) Positive
● This test would be classed as negative. A 5 mm raised area would be a positive
result if a client was HIV+ or had recent close contact with someone diagnosed
with TB. Indeterminate isn't a term used to describe results of a PPD test. If the
PPD is reddened and raised 10mm or more, it's considered positive according to
the CDC.

2. A client with primary TB infection can expect to develop which of the following
conditions?
A. Active TB within 2 weeks
B. Active TB within 1 month
C. A fever that requires hospitalization
D. A positive skin test
● A primary TB infection occurs when the bacillus has successfully invaded the
entire body after entering through the lungs. At this point, the bacilli are walled off
and skin tests read positive. However, all but infants and immunosuppressed
people will remain asymptomatic. The general population has a 10% risk of
developing active TB over their lifetime, in many cases because of a break in the
 body's immune defenses. The active stage shows the classic symptoms of TB:
fever, hemoptysis, and night sweats.

3. A client was infected with TB 10 years ago but never developed the disease. He's
now being treated for cancer. The client begins to develop signs of TB. This is known as
which of the following types of infection?
A) active infection
B) primary infection
C) super infection
D) tertiary infection
● Some people carry dormant TB infections that may develop into active disease.
In addition, primary sites of infection containing TB bacilli may remain inactive for
years and then activate when the client's resistance is lowered, as when a client
is being treated for cancer. There's no such thing as tertiary infection, and
superinfection doesn't apply in this case.

4. A client has active TB. Which of the following symptoms will he exhibit?
A. Chest and lower back pain
B. Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis
C. Fever of more than 104*F and nausea
D. Headache and photophobia
● Typical signs and symptoms are chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis.
Chest pain may be present from coughing, but isn't usual. Clients with TB
typically have low-grade fevers, not higher than 102*F. Nausea, headache, and
photophobia aren't usual TB symptoms.

5. Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for TB?

A. Chest x-ray
B. Mantoux test
C. Sputum culture
D. Tuberculin test
● The sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only method of
confirming the diagnosis. Lesions in the lung may not be big enough to be seen
on x-ray. Skin tests may be falsely positive or falsely negative

6. A client with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest x-ray. For which of
the following reasons is this done?
A. To confirm the diagnosis
B. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed
C. To determine the extent of the lesions
D. To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection
● If the lesions are large enough, the chest x-ray will show their presence in the
lungs. Sputum culture confirms the diagnosis. There can be false-positive and
false-negative skin test results. A chest x-ray can't determine if this is a primary
or secondary infection.

7. A chest x-ray should a client's lungs to be clear. His Mantoux test is positive, with a
10mm if induration. His previous test was negative. These test results are possible
because:
A. He had TB in the past and no longer has it.
B. He was successfully treated for TB, but skin tests always stay positive
C. He's a "seroconverter", meaning the TB has gotten to his bloodstream
D. He's a "tuberculin converter," which means he has been infected
with TB since his last skin test

8. A client with a positive skin test for TB isn't showing signs of active disease. To help
prevent the development of active TB, the client should be treated with isoniazid, 300
mg daily, for how long?
A. 10 to 14 days
 B. 2 to 4 weeks
C. 3 to 6 months
D. 9 to 12 months
● Because of the increased incidence of resistant strains of TB, the disease must
be treated for up to 24 months in some cases, but treatment typically lasts for 9-
12 months. Isoniazid is the most common medication used for the treatment of
TB, but other antibiotics are added to the regimen to obtain the best results

9. A client with a productive cough, chills, and night sweats is suspected of having
active TB. The physician should take which of the following actions?
A. Admit him to the hospital in respiratory isolation
B. Prescribe isoniazid and tell him to go home and rest
C. Give a tuberculin test and tell him to come back in 48 hours and have it
read
D. Give a prescription for isoniazid, 300 mg daily for 2 weeks, and send him
home

● The client is showing s/s of active TB and, because of the productive cough, is
highly contagious. He should be admitted to the hospital, placed in respiratory
isolation, and three sputum cultures should be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
He would most likely be given isoniazid and two or three other antitubercular
antibiotics until the diagnosis is confirmed, then isolation and treatment would
continue if the cultures were positive for TB. After 7 to 10 days, three more
consecutive sputum cultures will be obtained. If they're negative, he would be
considered non-contagious and may be sent home, although he'll continue to
take the antitubercular drugs for 9 to 12 months.

10. A client is diagnosed with active TB and started on triple antibiotic therapy. What
signs and symptoms would the client show if therapy is inadequate?
A. Decreased shortness of breath
B. Improved chest x-ray
C. Nonproductive cough
D. Positive acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample after 2 months of
treatment
● Continuing to have acid-fast bacilli in the sputum after 2 months indicated
continued infection.

11. A client diagnosed with active TB would be hospitalized primarily for which of the
following reasons?
A. To evaluate his condition
B. To determine his compliance
C. To prevent spread of the disease
D. To determine the need for antibiotic therapy
● The client with active TB is highly contagious until three consecutive sputum
cultures are negative, so he's put in respiratory isolation in the hospital.

12. A community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community

members regarding TB. The nurse tells the group that one of the first symptoms
associated with TB is:
A. A bloody, productive cough
B. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum
C. Chest pain
D. Dyspnea
● One of the first pulmonary symptoms includes a slight cough with the
expectoration of mucoid sputum.

13. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) have been prescribed for a client with TB. A
nurse reviews the medical record of the client. Which of the following, if noted in the
client's history, would require physician notification?
A. Heart disease
B. Allergy to penicillin
C. Hepatitis B
 D. Rheumatic fever
● Isoniazid and rafampin are contraindicated in clients with acute liver disease or a
history of hepatic injury.

14. A client who is HIV+ has had a PPD skin test. The nurse notes a 7-mm area of
induration at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the results as:
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Inconclusive
D. The need for repeat testing
● The client with HIV+ status is considered to have positive results on PPD skin
test with an area greater than 5-mm of induration. The client with HIV is
immunosuppressed, making a smaller area of induration positive for this type of
client.

15. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with TB. Which assessment, if made by the
nurse, would not be consistent with the usual clinical presentation of TB and may
indicate the development of a concurrent problem?
A. Nonproductive or productive cough
B. Anorexia and weight loss
C. Chills and night sweats
D. High-grade fever
● The client with TB usually experiences cough (non-productive or productive),
fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, dyspnea, hemoptysis, chest discomfort or pain,
chills and sweats (which may occur at night), and a low-grade fever.

16. The nurse obtains a sputum specimen from a client with suspected TB for laboratory
study. Which of the following laboratory techniques is most commonly used to identify
tubercle bacilli in sputum?
A. Acid-fast staining
B. Sensitivity testing
C. Agglutination testing
D. Dark-field illumination
● The most commonly used technique to identify tubercle bacilli is acid-fast
staining. The bacilli have a waxy surface, which makes them difficult to stain in
the lab. However, once they are stained, the stain is resistant to removal, even
with acids. Therefore, tubercle bacilli are often called acid-fast bacilli.

17. Which of the following family members exposed to TB would be at highest risk for
contracting the disease?
A. 45-year-old mother
B. 17-year-old daughter
C. 8-year-old son
D. 76-year-old grandmother
● Elderly persons are believed to be at higher risk for contracting TB because of
decreased immunocompetence. Other high-risk populations in the US include the
urban poor, AIDS, and minority groups.

18. The nurse is teaching a client who has been diagnosed with TB how to avoid
spreading the disease to family members. Which statement(s) by the client indicate(s)
that he has understood the nurses instructions? Select all that apply.
A. "I will need to dispose of my old clothing when I return home."
B. "I should always cover my mouth and nose when sneezing."
C. "It is important that I isolate myself from family when possible."
D. "I should use paper tissues to cough in and dispose of them
properly."
E. "I can use regular plate and utensils whenever I eat."

19. A client has a positive reaction to the PPD test. The nurse correctly interprets this
reaction to mean that the client has:
A. Active TB
 B. Had contact with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Developed a resistance to tubercle bacilli
D. Developed passive immunity to TB
● A positive PPD test indicates that the client has been exposed to tubercle bacilli.
Exposure does not necessarily mean that active disease exists.

20. INH treatment is associated with the development of peripheral neuropathies. Which
of the following interventions would the nurse teach the client to help prevent this
complication?
A. Adhere to a low cholesterol diet
B. Supplement the diet with pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Get extra rest
D. Avoid excessive sun exposure
● INH competes with the available vitamin B6 in the body and leaves the client at
risk for development of neuropathies related to vitamin deficiency. Supplemental
vitamin B6 is routinely prescribed.

21. The nurse should include which of the following instructions when developing a
teaching plan for clients receiving INH and rifampin for treatment for TB?
A. Take the medication with antacids
B. Double the dosage if a drug dose is forgotten
C. Increase intake of dairy products
D. Limit alcohol intake
● INH and rifampin are hepatotoxic drugs. Clients should be warned to limit intake
of alcohol during drug therapy. Both drugs should be taken on an empty
stomach. If antacids are needed for GI distress, they should be taken 1 hour
before or 2 hours after these drugs are administered. Clients should not double
the dosage of these drugs because of their potential toxicity. Clients taking INH
should avoid foods that are rich in tyramine, such as cheese and dairy products,
or they may develop hypertension.

22. The public health nurse is providing follow-up care to a client with TB who does not
regularly take his medication. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this
client?
A. Ask the client's spouse to supervise the daily administration of the
medications.
B. Visit the clinic weekly to ask him whether he is taking his medications
regularly.
C. Notify the physician of the client's non-compliance and request a different
prescription.
D. Remind the client that TB can be fatal if not taken properly.
● Directly observed therapy (DOT) can be implemented with clients who are not
compliant with drug therapy. In DOT, a responsible person, who may be a family
member or a health care provider, observes the client taking the medication.
Visiting the client, changing the prescription, or threatening the client will not
ensure compliance if the client will not or cannot follow the prescribed treatment.

23. The Causative agent of Tuberculosis is said to be:

A. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
B. Hansen's Bacilli
C. Bacillus Anthracis
D. Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococcus

_____________________________________________________________________

FROM SCRIBD
______________________________________________________________________

FROM NURSING.COM

1. A client is being admitted to the hospital from home with complications of

tuberculosis. When making a room assignment, the nurse would most likely
consider which of the following factors?
A. Whether a nursing assistant is available to help the client
B. The nurses assigned to work during the shift
C. Whether the client will have someone staying with him
D. The hospital's isolation procedures

2. A school is offering tuberculosis testing for all of its employees. The health nurse
administers the injections to each of the employees using a tuberculin syringe. At
which angle does the nurse administer the injections into the skin?
A. 25 degree
B. 10 degree
C. 60 degree
D. 90 degree

3. Which of the following is a true statement regarding tuberculosis?

A. The only organ affected by TB is the lungs
B. Most people exposed to TB develop an active infection
C. TB is typically transmitted through the droplet route
D. TB is caused by an infection with a bacterium called Mycobacterium
4. While caring for a client who is recovering from surgery, the nurse finds out that
the client is infected with active tuberculosis. Prior to this discovery, the nurse
had only been using standard precautions. Which action of the nurse is most
appropriate for providing proper precautions in this situation?
A. Start using precautions right away by wearing a surgical mask when
entering the client's room
B. Start using precautions right away by placing the client in a negative
pressure room and using a respirator mask
C. Start using precautions right away by wearing a gown and gloves while
providing client care
D. Notify the provider and tell the next shift that they will have to start using
precautions

5. A nurse who works in a long-term care facility has learned that one of the
residents has developed active tuberculosis. What should the nurse do to protect
the other residents?
A. Do not allow visitors to the center until the client has been adequately
treated
B. Isolate the client from everyone else except the client's roommate, who
most likely has already been exposed
C. Allow the client to remain in the nursing home but provide isolation
precautions and treat the active disease
D. Administer masks to all residents and ask them to wear them around the
infected client

6. The nurse is discharging a client with tuberculosis. The client asks if it is possible
to stop taking the tuberculosis medication once she feels better. Which of the
following is the most appropriate response?
A. "If you don't finish the entire treatment course, it can lead to drug
resistance and complications in the future"
B. "That would be appropriate if you save the extra medication for future
occurrences"
C. "No, that would not be appropriate"
D. "Yes, this is the normal course of action for those with tuberculosis"

7. A nurse is providing discharge education to a client who was diagnosed with

tuberculosis 2 months ago. Which of the following client statements indicates
more teaching is necessary?
A. "I'll have to wear a mask when I go out to public places."
B. "I need to see the doctor one final time next month for follow up"
C. "I'll make sure all of my family members that I've been around will get
tested."
D. "I'll finish my entire course of these drugs, even if I'm feeling better."

8. The nurse is caring for a client with tuberculosis and is giving report to the
oncoming nurse. Which of the following statements is most appropriate?
A. "The client is positive for TB and will require airborne precautions"
B. "The client screened positive for TB so I have stocked surgical masks
outside the room"
C. "Since the client has started TB treatment, there are only 24 hours left for
isolation precautions"
D. "The client is positive for TB and will require enteric precautions"

9. A nurse must use a N95 respirator for protection against tuberculosis with a
client. Which of the following considerations should be used while the nurse is
utilizing this mask?
A. The N95 respirator will not protect against influenza
B. The N95 respirator does not provide a seal around the sides of the mask
C. When a N95 respirator is not available, the nurse should use a surgical
mask instead
D. The mask must be fitted specifically for the nurse
 10. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. The client is just completing a
9-month regimen of medication as part of treatment for the condition in which she
responded well. Which of the following choices describes how follow-up is
handled for the client who was treated successfully?
A. Follow-up is needed only if the client experiences symptoms of TB
B. The client needs a follow-up chest x-ray and sputum culture one time
C. The client needs an annual follow-up chest x-ray
D. The client needs monthly AFB smears for a period of 2 years after
treatment ends
______________________________________________________________________

FROM QUIZLET ULIT

1. A woman whose husband was recently diagnosed with active pulmonary

tuberculosis (TB) is a tuberculin skin test converter. Management of her care
would include:
A. scheduling her for annual tuberculin skin testing.
B. placing her in quarantine until sputum cultures are negative.
C. gathering a list of persons with whom she has had recent contact.
D. advising her to begin prophylactic therapy with isoniazid (INH).

2. The physician determines that a client has been exposed to someone with
tuberculosis. The nurse expects the physician to order which of the following?
A. Daily oral doses of isoniazid (Nydrazid) and rifampin (Rifadin) for 6 months
to 2 years
B. Isolation until 24 hours after antitubercular therapy begins
C. Nothing, until signs of active disease arise
D. Daily doses of isoniazid, 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year

3. After diagnosing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the physician tells family
members that they must receive isoniazid (INH [Laniazid]) as prophylaxis against
tuberculosis. The client's teenage daughter asks the nurse how long the drug must be
taken. What is the usual duration of prophylactic isoniazid therapy?
A. 3 to 5 days
B. 1 to 3 weeks
C. 2 to 4 months
D. 6 to 12 months
ANSWER: 6 to 12 months

4. A patient who has tuberculosis (TB) is being treated with combination drug therapy.
The nurse explains that combination drug therapy is essential because:
Recommendations for the initial treatment of tuberculosis
A. It minimizes the required dosage of each of the medications.
B. It helps reduce the unpleasant side effects of the medications.
C. It shortens amount of time that the treatment regimen will be needed.
D. It discourages the development of resistant strains of the TB organism
ANSWER: D. It discourages the development of resistant strains of the TB
organism
● Recommendations for the initial treatment of tuberculosis (TB) include a four-
drug regimen until drug susceptibility tests are available. After susceptibility is
established, the regimen can be altered, but patients should still receive at least
two drugs to prevent emergence of drug-resistance organisms. Dosage, side
effects, and duration of the regimen are not reasons for combination drug therapy
in a patient with TB.

5. A patient began taking antitubercular drugs a week ago. The nurse reviews the
patient's medical record and learns that the patient has a 10-year history of consuming
one standard drink of alcohol three times a week. The patient states, "In the last week,
my urine turned orange and I am very worried about it." How should the nurse respond?
 A. Inform the patient that it is one of the side effects of the antitubercular drug
rifampin.
B. Recognize that the tuberculosis may have spread to the liver, and further
medical consultation is required.
C. Recognize that the liver may be damaged due to alcohol, and so a liver
function test should be performed.
D. Instruct the patient to stop taking antitubercular drugs immediately and
consult the primary health care provider.
ANSWER: Inform the patient that it is one of the side effects of the antitubercular
drug rifampin.
● A nurse should be aware of some of the common side effects of antitubercular
drugs like rifampin, one of which is orange discoloration of body fluids such as
urine, sweat, tears, and sputum. It may also cause hepatitis. Liver damage can
lead to jaundice, which usually presents as yellowish discoloration of urine and
sclera. However it is highly unlikely that tuberculosis has spread to the liver. The
alcohol intake of the patient is within normal limits, and so it is not correct to say
that alcohol may have damaged the liver. It is also inappropriate to advise the
patient to stop taking antitubercular drugs.

6. The nurse cares for an immunocompetent patient. Which clinical manifestation is

most indicative of pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Mucopurulent sputum
B. Diarrhea and fatigue
C. Lymph node enlargement
D. Hematuria and dehydration
ANSWER: A. Mucopurulent sputum
● A cough that progresses in frequency and produces mucoid or mucopurulent
sputum is the most common symptom of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Diarrhea,
hematuria, and dehydration are manifestations not directly associated with
pulmonary TB. Fatigue and lymph node enlargement may be seen with TB but
are not as indicative as is the production of mucopurulent sputum.

7. The patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has been diagnosed with
Candida albicans, an opportunistic infection. The nurse knows the patient needs more
teaching when the patient says,
A. "I will be given amphotericin B to treat the fungus."
B. "I got this fungus because I am immunocompromised."
C. "I need to be isolated from my family and friends so they won't get it."
D. "The effectiveness of my therapy can be monitored with fungal serology
titers."

ANSWER: C. "I need to be isolated from my family and friends so they won't get
it."
● The patient with an opportunistic fungal infection does not need to be isolated
because C. albicans is not transmitted from person to person. This
immunocompromised patient will be likely to have a serious infection so it will be
treated with intravenous amphotericin B. The effectiveness of the therapy can be
monitored with fungal serology titers.

8. The nurse is caring for the patient with a productive cough. The nurse collects a
sputum specimen for an acid-fast bacillus (AFB) smear. What collection time by the
nurse is most appropriate?
A. 6 AM
B. 12 noon
C. 6 PM
D. 9 PM
● The correct answer is 6 AM because if the patient has a productive cough, early
morning is the ideal time to collect sputum specimens for an AFB smear because
secretions collect during the night. Twelve noon, 6 PM, and 9 PM are incorrect,
because all of these times are afternoon or evening hours and the amount of
secretions for the specimen may not be optimal.
9. A 48-year-old patient with sudden onset of respiratory distress is scheduled for a stat
ventilation-perfusion scan. What explanations should the nurse provide to the patient
about the procedure?
A. Radioisotope is injected and inhaled to examine the lungs.
B. You will be sedated during the test to prevent you from moving.
C. We need to be sure there is no metal in your body before this test.
D. You will feel a sensation of chest pressure as the dye circulates through
your body.
ANSWER: A. Radioisotope is injected and inhaled to examine the lungs.
● A ventilation perfusion scan has two parts. In the perfusion portion, a
radioisotope is injected into the blood and the pulmonary vasculature is outlined.
In the ventilation part, the patient inhales a radioactive gas that outlines the
alveoli. Sedation is not required; magnetic imaging is not a component of the
examination, so the patient can have the test even if there is metal in the body.
Chest pressure may indicate an adverse reaction and is not normal.

10. The nurse cares for a patient with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which assessment
finding best indicates that the patient has been following the prescribed treatment plan?
A. Negative sputum cultures
B. Clear breath sounds bilaterally
C. Decrease in the number of coughing episodes
D. Conversion of the Mantoux test from positive to negative
● A patient's sputum is expected to convert to negative within three months of the
beginning of treatment. If it does not, the patient is either not taking the
medication or has drug-resistant organisms. Bilaterally clear breath sounds and a
decrease in coughing are good indications that the patient is following the
prescribed plan, but they are not as confirmatory as negative sputum cultures.
Once a person has been exposed to the tuberculosis-causing organism, the
Mantoux test will always elicit a positive result.

11. The nurse cares for a patient with tuberculosis who is taking isoniazid and rifampin.
About which data found in the patient's health history is the nurse most concerned?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Asthma attacks
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Allergy to penicillin
● Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin are tuberculosis medications that are metabolized in
the liver and are extremely toxic. They are contraindicated in the patient with a
history of liver disease, including any form of hepatitis. A history of asthma,
rheumatic fever, or allergy to penicillin is not a contraindication to the
administration of INH and rifampin.

12. When can airborne infection isolation for a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)
be discontinued?
A. Once isoniazid drug therapy has been initiated
B. After three consecutive acid-fast bacillus (AFB) smears are negative
C. After effective instruction on the use of a high-efficiency particulate air
(HEPA) mask
D. When two consecutive negative x-ray results are confirmed
● Airborne infection isolation is indicated for the patient with pulmonary or laryngeal
TB until the patient is noninfectious (defined as effective drug therapy, clinical
improvement, and three negative AFB smears). Therapy must be deemed
effective. Teaching the patient to properly use the HEPA mask isn't a criterion for
terminating isolation. Chest x-rays are not criteria to terminate isolation.

13. To maintain patient safety, the nurse would question the health care provider about
the prescription for prednisone if the patient also had which condition?
A. Systemic fungal infection
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Renal insufficiency
 ● Systemic fungal infection would be a contraindication to the use of prednisone
because the drug can interfere with the body's ability to fight infection. Although
blood sugars may increase and fluid retention may occur, diabetes, congestive
heart failure, and renal insufficiency are not absolute contraindications to the use
of prednisone, although it should be used with caution.

14. A client is prescribed rifampin (Rifadin), 600 mg P.O. daily. Which statement about
rifampin is true?
A. It's usually given alone.
B. Its exact mechanism of action is unknown.
C. It's tuberculocidal, destroying the offending bacteria.
D. It acts primarily against resting bacteria.

15. A client admitted to the facility for treatment for tuberculosis receives instructions
about the disease. Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further
instruction?
A. "I will have to take the medication for up to a year."
B. "This disease may come back later if I am under stress."
C. "I will stay in isolation for at least 6 weeks."
D. “I will always have a positive test for tuberculosis."
______________________________________________________________________

FROM CHATGPT
1. What is the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis (TB)?
A. Blood transfusion
B. Airborne droplets
C. Fecal-oral route
D. Direct contact with skin lesions
Answer: B. Airborne droplets
Rationale: TB is primarily transmitted through inhaling airborne droplets when a person
with active TB coughs, sneezes, or talks.

2. Which of the following is the first-line medication used to treat active

tuberculosis?
A. Rifampin
B. Isoniazid
C. Streptomycin
D. Rifabutin
Answer: B. Isoniazid
Rationale: Isoniazid is a first-line drug for the treatment of active tuberculosis. It is
typically used in combination with other drugs.

3. A client with tuberculosis is being discharged from the hospital. Which

statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I need to wear a mask when around other people."
B. "I can return to work as soon as I feel better."
C. "I will complete the full course of antibiotics."
D. "I should have a follow-up appointment to check my progress."
Answer: B. "I can return to work as soon as I feel better."
Rationale: A person with TB should not return to work until they are no longer
contagious, which typically takes several weeks after starting treatment.

4. What is the main symptom of pulmonary tuberculosis?

A. Night sweats
B. Joint pain
C. Unexplained weight loss
D. Persistent cough with sputum
Answer: D. Persistent cough with sputum
Rationale: A persistent cough with sputum, often bloody, is one of the hallmark
symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis.
5. The nurse is educating a patient on tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following
statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "You will need to be isolated until you finish your entire course of antibiotics."
B. "You will need to take antibiotics for a minimum of 2 weeks."
C. "You should avoid crowded places for at least 4 weeks after starting
antibiotics."
D. "You should take antibiotics until your symptoms are gone."
Answer: C. "You should avoid crowded places for at least 4 weeks after starting
antibiotics."
Rationale: Patients should avoid crowded places to minimize the spread of TB until
they are no longer contagious, typically after 2-4 weeks of treatment.

6. What does a positive Mantoux tuberculin skin test (TST) indicate?

A. Active tuberculosis
B. Exposure to tuberculosis
C. Complete immunity to tuberculosis
D. A history of a past infection with tuberculosis
Answer: B. Exposure to tuberculosis
Rationale: A positive TST indicates exposure to TB, but not necessarily active disease.
Further testing (like a chest X-ray) is needed to diagnose active TB.

7. Which of the following medications can cause hepatotoxicity and should be

monitored during tuberculosis treatment?
A. Rifampin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
Answer: B. Isoniazid
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause liver damage, so liver function tests should be
monitored during treatment.

8. A patient with tuberculosis is experiencing a productive cough, hemoptysis,

and weight loss. The nurse should assess for which of the following
complications?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Renal failure
C. Meningitis
D. Respiratory failure
Answer: A. Pneumothorax
Rationale: Hemoptysis and a persistent cough in TB patients may lead to complications
like a pneumothorax due to lung damage.

9. Which of the following is a common side effect of rifampin?

A. Red-orange discoloration of urine
B. Weight gain
C. Hypotension
D. Tinnitus
Answer: A. Red-orange discoloration of urine
Rationale: Rifampin can cause a harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids
such as urine and sweat.

10. Which of the following is a key aspect of the nursing management of a patient
with tuberculosis?
A. Encouraging rest and fluid intake
B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory acidosis
C. Administering antitussive medications
D. Administering a flu vaccine
Answer: A. Encouraging rest and fluid intake
Rationale: Rest and hydration are important to help the patient recover, along with
medication adherence.
11. A patient with active tuberculosis asks why they are prescribed a combination
of medications. What is the nurse's best response?
A. "Combining medications decreases the risk of developing drug-resistant
tuberculosis."
B. "The medications help to reduce side effects."
C. "Combination therapy is prescribed to treat tuberculosis more quickly."
D. "The medications work better when combined."
Answer: A. "Combining medications decreases the risk of developing drug-resistant
tuberculosis."
Rationale: Using multiple drugs reduces the risk of TB becoming resistant to treatment.

12. What is the duration of the typical treatment regimen for active tuberculosis?
A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C. 6 months
Rationale: Treatment for active TB usually lasts 6 months to ensure full eradication of
the bacteria.

13. Which of the following should a nurse include in the discharge instructions
for a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?
A. "You may stop taking your medications as soon as you feel better."
B. "You should avoid all visitors until your sputum is negative for tuberculosis."
C. "Your family members should take the same medications as you."
D. "You will need to return for follow-up care to ensure the infection is gone."
Answer: D. "You will need to return for follow-up care to ensure the infection is gone."
Rationale: Regular follow-up is necessary to monitor the effectiveness of treatment and
to ensure that the patient is no longer contagious.

14. The nurse is caring for a client with tuberculosis who is receiving ethambutol.
Which of the following should be monitored regularly?
A. Kidney function
B. Liver enzymes
C. Visual acuity
D. Blood pressure
Answer: C. Visual acuity
Rationale: Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, leading to vision problems, so regular
visual acuity tests are necessary.

15. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a positive tuberculosis skin test. The
patient denies symptoms of active TB. What is the nurse's next action?
A. Initiate treatment with first-line TB drugs
B. Schedule a chest X-ray to rule out active TB
C. Perform a sputum culture for tuberculosis
D. Reassure the patient that the test result is a false positive
Answer: B. Schedule a chest X-ray to rule out active TB
Rationale: A positive TB skin test requires further evaluation with a chest X-ray to
determine if the patient has active TB.

16. Which of the following is a significant side effect of pyrazinamide?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Liver toxicity
C. Hearing loss
D. Vision changes
Answer: B. Liver toxicity
Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause liver damage, so liver function tests should be
monitored during treatment.

17. Which laboratory test should be performed to confirm a diagnosis of

tuberculosis?
 A. Sputum culture
B. Complete blood count (CBC)
C. Urine culture
D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Answer: A. Sputum culture
Rationale: A sputum culture is the gold standard for diagnosing active tuberculosis.

18. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in
healthcare settings?
A. Administering a TB vaccine to all employees
B. Isolating patients with suspected or confirmed TB in negative pressure rooms
C. Wearing only a face shield when caring for TB patients
D. Limiting visitors to the patient’s room
Answer: B. Isolating patients with suspected or confirmed TB in negative pressure
rooms
Rationale: Negative pressure rooms help contain the airborne particles and prevent the
spread of TB to other patients and healthcare workers.

19. Which of the following is true regarding the use of the BCG vaccine for
tuberculosis?
A. The BCG vaccine is recommended for all healthcare workers in the United
States.
B. The BCG vaccine provides 100% protection against tuberculosis.
C. The BCG vaccine is often used in countries with high TB prevalence.
D. The BCG vaccine is effective in treating active tuberculosis.
Answer: C. The BCG vaccine is often used in countries with high TB prevalence.
Rationale: The BCG vaccine is used in countries with high TB rates to prevent severe
forms of the disease, especially in children, but it is not widely used in the U.S.

20. Which of the following is an important consideration for patients on

tuberculosis treatment?
A. Avoiding alcohol use while taking medications
B. Avoiding any physical activity
C. Taking antibiotics only during symptomatic periods
D. Taking antibiotics with food to decrease side effects
Answer: A. Avoiding alcohol use while taking medications
Rationale: Alcohol should be avoided because it increases the risk of liver damage,
especially when taking drugs like isoniazid and rifampin.

21. A patient with tuberculosis (TB) is being treated with multiple drugs. What
should the nurse emphasize to the patient regarding medication adherence?
A. "You can stop taking the medication once you feel better."
B. "You must complete the entire course of therapy to ensure the infection is fully
treated."
C. "You will only need to take the medication for one month."
D. "It’s okay to miss doses if you forget, just continue as soon as possible."
Answer: B. "You must complete the entire course of therapy to ensure the infection is
fully treated."
Rationale: Completing the entire course of TB treatment is essential to fully eradicate
the bacteria and prevent resistance.

22. What is the purpose of directly observed therapy (DOT) in treating

tuberculosis?
A. To ensure that the patient takes the medication as prescribed
B. To reduce the risk of liver toxicity from the drugs
C. To reduce the cost of TB treatment
D. To monitor for allergic reactions to TB medications
Answer: A. To ensure that the patient takes the medication as prescribed
Rationale: DOT is used to ensure patients adhere to their medication regimen, helping
to prevent treatment failure and drug resistance.

23. A nurse is caring for a patient with tuberculosis who has a persistent cough
and night sweats. Which of the following interventions is a priority?
 A. Administering a cough suppressant
B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
C. Implementing airborne precautions
D. Encouraging frequent ambulation
Answer: C. Implementing airborne precautions
Rationale: Since tuberculosis is airborne, the patient must be placed on airborne
precautions to prevent spreading the infection to others.

24. Which of the following is the most common side effect of isoniazid?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Hematemesis
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Severe headache
Answer: A. Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, especially if the patient is
deficient in vitamin B6, which is why vitamin B6 supplementation is often prescribed.

25. What should the nurse teach a patient who is prescribed rifampin for
tuberculosis?
A. "You should take rifampin with food to prevent stomach upset."
B. "Rifampin can cause your urine, sweat, and tears to turn orange."
C. "You should discontinue the medication if you experience any digestive
upset."
D. "Rifampin will cure tuberculosis in 2 weeks."
Answer: B. "Rifampin can cause your urine, sweat, and tears to turn orange."
Rationale: Rifampin causes a harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, which
the patient should be aware of to avoid unnecessary concern.

26. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to diagnose latent
tuberculosis infection (LTBI)?
A. Sputum culture
B. Chest X-ray
C. Tuberculin skin test (TST) or Interferon-Gamma Release Assay (IGRA)
D. Bronchoscopy
Answer: C. Tuberculin skin test (TST) or Interferon-Gamma Release Assay (IGRA)
Rationale: The TST or IGRA is used to detect latent TB infection. These tests can
indicate exposure to TB but require further testing to confirm if the infection is active.

27. What is a major side effect of ethambutol that the nurse should monitor for in
a patient receiving treatment for tuberculosis?
A. Visual disturbances
B. Severe gastrointestinal upset
C. Jaundice
D. Hearing loss
Answer: A. Visual disturbances
Rationale: Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, leading to visual disturbances such as
color blindness or blurred vision. Regular eye exams should be performed during
therapy.

28. A nurse is educating a patient who has been diagnosed with active
tuberculosis. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A. "I should stay in isolation until my symptoms disappear."
B. "I can stop the treatment if I no longer feel sick."
C. "I will complete the entire course of medication, even if I feel better."
D. "My family should be treated with the same medications."
Answer: C. "I will complete the entire course of medication, even if I feel better."
Rationale: It's crucial for patients to complete the entire course of treatment to ensure
the infection is fully eradicated and prevent drug resistance.

29. A patient is receiving treatment for tuberculosis and develops a fever, fatigue,
and loss of appetite. What should the nurse do first?
 A. Administer antipyretic medications
B. Perform a chest X-ray
C. Assess liver function tests
D. Contact the healthcare provider to report the symptoms
Answer: C. Assess liver function tests
Rationale: These symptoms may indicate a side effect of tuberculosis medications,
such as liver toxicity (common with isoniazid and rifampin), and liver function should be
assessed.

30. Which of the following clients is at the highest risk of developing active
tuberculosis?
A. A client who has a recent history of pneumonia
B. A client with a weakened immune system due to HIV
C. A client with a family history of hypertension
D. A client with recent hip surgery
Answer: B. A client with a weakened immune system due to HIV
Rationale: HIV weakens the immune system, which increases the risk of developing
active tuberculosis if exposed to the bacteria.

31. A nurse is preparing to administer tuberculosis medications to a patient. What

is the priority nursing assessment before starting treatment?
A. Baseline liver function tests
B. Blood pressure measurement
C. Oxygen saturation levels
D. Recent chest X-ray results
Answer: A. Baseline liver function tests
Rationale: Many TB drugs, such as isoniazid and rifampin, can affect liver function, so
baseline liver function tests should be done prior to starting therapy.

32. Which of the following is a sign of advanced tuberculosis?

A. Increased appetite
B. Productive cough with blood
C. Decreased sputum production
D. Absence of fever
Answer: B. Productive cough with blood
Rationale: A productive cough with blood (hemoptysis) is a common sign of advanced
TB, as the lungs are damaged by the infection.

33. A patient with tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid. Which of the following

should the nurse advise the patient to report immediately?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Loss of appetite and jaundice
C. Skin rash
D. Muscle cramps
Answer: B. Loss of appetite and jaundice
Rationale: These symptoms may indicate hepatotoxicity, a serious side effect of
isoniazid, and should be reported immediately.

34. Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to monitor the effectiveness of
treatment in a patient with active tuberculosis?
A. Sputum culture
B. Complete blood count (CBC)
C. Chest X-ray
D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Answer: A. Sputum culture
Rationale: A sputum culture is used to monitor the bacterial load and determine if the
patient is still infectious.

35. The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with multidrug-resistant

tuberculosis (MDR-TB). What is a key consideration when treating this patient?
A. Treatment will likely involve multiple drug regimens for a longer duration.
B. The patient is not contagious and can be treated outpatient.
 C. The patient should receive a combination of antitussive and antibiotics.
D. The patient will need a flu shot to prevent complications.
Answer: A. Treatment will likely involve multiple drug regimens for a longer duration.
Rationale: MDR-TB requires a more aggressive and prolonged treatment regimen,
often involving second-line medications and a longer duration of therapy.

36. The nurse is caring for a patient with tuberculosis who is taking rifampin.
Which of the following should the nurse teach the patient?
A. "You should take this medication on an empty stomach to enhance
absorption."
B. "This medication can cause your urine and tears to become orange."
C. "You will need to wear a mask when in public places."
D. "You will be required to have weekly blood tests while taking this medication."
Answer: B. "This medication can cause your urine and tears to become orange."
Rationale: Rifampin causes a harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, which
the patient should be aware of to prevent unnecessary alarm.

37. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis is receiving treatment with multiple

medications. Which laboratory test should be monitored regularly to assess for
drug toxicity?
A. Complete blood count (CBC)
B. Serum creatinine levels
C. Liver function tests
D. Arterial blood gases (ABG)
Answer: C. Liver function tests
Rationale: Many tuberculosis medications, particularly isoniazid and rifampin, can
cause liver toxicity, so liver function tests should be regularly monitored.

38. What should be the nurse's priority in managing a patient with active
tuberculosis?
A. Providing education about the importance of medication adherence
B. Teaching the patient about the prevention of drug-resistant tuberculosis
C. Ensuring that the patient is on appropriate isolation precautions
D. Encouraging the patient to stay at home until treatment is completed
Answer: C. Ensuring that the patient is on appropriate isolation precautions
Rationale: Preventing the spread of TB to others is the priority, and isolation
precautions are necessary to contain airborne transmission.

39. A patient with tuberculosis is prescribed a regimen that includes ethambutol.

Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
A. Instruct the patient to monitor for blurred vision.
B. Advise the patient to avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
C. Monitor the patient's blood glucose levels regularly.
D. Assess the patient's weight weekly for signs of fluid retention.
Answer: A. Instruct the patient to monitor for blurred vision.
Rationale: Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, leading to vision problems, so regular
monitoring for visual disturbances is necessary.

40. Which of the following is a characteristic of latent tuberculosis infection

(LTBI)?
A. It is not infectious to others.
B. It presents with cough and hemoptysis.
C. It is always symptomatic.
D. It requires immediate treatment to prevent active TB.
Answer: A. It is not infectious to others.
Rationale: LTBI does not cause symptoms and is not contagious, but it can progress to
active tuberculosis if the immune system weakens. Treatment is typically given to
prevent the progression to active TB.

41. A patient with tuberculosis (TB) has been prescribed the medication
combination of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which of the
following is the most important nursing intervention during the first few weeks of
therapy?
 A. Assess the patient for signs of liver toxicity.
B. Administer the medications with food to prevent stomach irritation.
C. Monitor for signs of peripheral neuropathy.
D. Ensure the patient receives a daily vitamin B12 supplement.
Answer: A. Assess the patient for signs of liver toxicity.
Rationale: The combination of TB medications can cause liver toxicity, particularly
isoniazid and rifampin. Liver function should be monitored closely, especially in the early
stages of treatment.

42. Which of the following should be included in the discharge teaching for a
patient with active tuberculosis?
A. "You can return to work as soon as you feel well enough."
B. "You should wear a mask when you are around other people."
C. "You will no longer be contagious after 1 week of treatment."
D. "It is safe to stop the medication if you feel better."
Answer: B. "You should wear a mask when you are around other people."
Rationale: Patients with active TB should wear a mask and avoid close contact with
others until they are no longer contagious, typically after several weeks of treatment.

43. What is the primary concern for a nurse caring for a patient with multidrug-
resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB)?
A. The risk of medication side effects
B. The cost of second-line medications
C. The length of the treatment regimen
D. The risk of transmission to others
Answer: D. The risk of transmission to others
Rationale: MDR-TB is more difficult to treat and is associated with prolonged treatment
regimens. The priority concern is preventing transmission, as MDR-TB is resistant to
common medications.

44. A patient is receiving treatment for tuberculosis and complains of numbness

and tingling in the hands and feet. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A. Administer vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) as prescribed.
B. Increase the dose of isoniazid.
C. Assess the patient's blood glucose levels.
D. Discontinue all TB medications.
Answer: A. Administer vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) as prescribed.
Rationale: Peripheral neuropathy is a common side effect of isoniazid. Vitamin B6 is
often given to prevent or treat this side effect.

45. A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculosis test to a patient. Which of

the following actions is most important?
A. Prepare a tuberculin syringe and inject it subcutaneously.
B. Use a 27-gauge needle to inject 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative (PPD)
intradermally.
C. Draw 1 mL of PPD and inject it intramuscularly.
D. Apply an alcohol swab to the skin before administering the injection.
Answer: B. Use a 27-gauge needle to inject 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative (PPD)
intradermally.
Rationale: The TB skin test (TST) involves injecting 0.1 mL of PPD intradermally with a
27-gauge needle. The test results are read within 48-72 hours to assess for a reaction.

46. A patient with tuberculosis is taking rifampin. Which of the following should
the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A. "You may notice that your urine, sweat, and tears turn an orange color."
B. "This medication may cause your blood pressure to rise."
C. "You should avoid taking this medication if you are pregnant."
D. "You can stop taking rifampin if you feel better."
Answer: A. "You may notice that your urine, sweat, and tears turn an orange color."
Rationale: Rifampin is known to cause harmless red-orange discoloration of body fluids
such as urine, sweat, and tears. Patients should be informed of this to prevent alarm.
47. A patient with tuberculosis is prescribed the drug pyrazinamide. Which of the
following should the nurse monitor?
A. Serum potassium levels
B. Serum glucose levels
C. Liver function tests
D. Visual acuity
Answer: C. Liver function tests
Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause liver toxicity, so it is important to monitor liver
function tests regularly during treatment.

48. A patient with latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) is being started on isoniazid
therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following side effects?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Jaundice and dark urine
C. Diarrhea and dehydration
D. Muscle weakness and cramps
Answer: B. Jaundice and dark urine
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause liver toxicity, which may manifest as jaundice and dark
urine. These symptoms should be reported immediately.

49. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis who is receiving
combination therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to
promote medication adherence?
A. Educate the patient about the importance of completing the full course of
treatment.
B. Encourage the patient to stop taking medications if they feel better.
C. Discontinue therapy if the patient experiences mild side effects.
D. Allow the patient to skip doses if they experience any gastrointestinal upset.
Answer: A. Educate the patient about the importance of completing the full course of
treatment.
Rationale: Completing the full course of tuberculosis treatment is essential to prevent
the development of drug-resistant tuberculosis and ensure full eradication of the
bacteria.

50. A nurse is educating a patient on preventing the spread of tuberculosis (TB).

Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. "You should avoid sharing utensils, towels, and cups with others."
B. "You can return to work as soon as you begin taking your medications."
C. "You can stop wearing a mask once your symptoms are gone."
D. "You should isolate yourself from others for the first 24 hours of treatment."
Answer: A. "You should avoid sharing utensils, towels, and cups with others."
Rationale: TB is an airborne infection, but it can also be spread through shared
personal items. Patients should avoid sharing utensils and other personal items, as a
precautionary measure to prevent the spread.

______________________________________________________________________

FROM CHATGPT ULIT

1. Which of the following is the most common symptom of tuberculosis?

a) Chest pain
b) Hemoptysis
c) Chronic cough
d) Weight gain
Answer: c) Chronic cough
Explanation: The most common symptom of tuberculosis is a chronic, productive
cough that lasts more than 3 weeks.

2. What is the primary method for diagnosing tuberculosis?

a) Chest X-ray
b) Mantoux skin test
 c) Sputum culture
d) Blood test
Answer: c) Sputum culture
Explanation: A sputum culture is the most definitive diagnostic method for tuberculosis,
as it allows identification of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

3. Which of the following is a risk factor for tuberculosis?

a) Good nutritional status
b) Close contact with infected individuals
c) Regular exercise
d) High levels of vitamin D
Answer: b) Close contact with infected individuals
Explanation: Close contact with individuals infected with TB increases the risk of
transmission, especially in crowded or poorly ventilated environments.

4. What is the most effective treatment regimen for active tuberculosis?

a) Single-drug therapy
b) Combination therapy
c) Antibiotics for 7 days
d) Non-drug treatments
Answer: b) Combination therapy
Explanation: Combination therapy is the most effective treatment for active
tuberculosis to prevent resistance. It typically involves drugs like isoniazid, rifampin,
ethambutol, and pyrazinamide.

5. A patient with tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid (INH). What is a common

side effect of this medication?
a) Jaundice
b) Diarrhea
c) Rash
d) Blurred vision
Answer: a) Jaundice
Explanation: Isoniazid can cause liver toxicity, leading to jaundice. Regular liver
function tests are essential during treatment.

6. A 55-year-old patient with a history of TB is being discharged from the hospital.

What should the nurse teach the patient regarding infection control?
a) Wear a mask when in public
b) Discontinue treatment when symptoms improve
c) Avoid contact with others for 6 months
d) Take medications only when symptoms are severe
Answer: a) Wear a mask when in public
Explanation: Patients with active TB should wear a mask when in public to prevent the
spread of the bacteria. They should also continue treatment as prescribed until cleared
by a healthcare provider.

7. What is the purpose of the Mantoux skin test for tuberculosis?

a) To identify active TB infection
b) To determine if a person has been exposed to TB
c) To measure the severity of TB symptoms
d) To treat latent TB infection
Answer: b) To determine if a person has been exposed to TB
Explanation: The Mantoux test identifies if an individual has been exposed to
Mycobacterium tuberculosis but does not indicate whether the person has active TB.

8. Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated tuberculosis?

a) Heart failure
b) Pneumothorax
c) Pulmonary fibrosis
d) Liver failure
Answer: c) Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation: If left untreated, tuberculosis can cause significant lung damage, leading
to pulmonary fibrosis, which can impair lung function.
9. A patient is diagnosed with latent tuberculosis. What is the treatment
recommendation?
a) Immediate initiation of combination therapy
b) No treatment required
c) A 6-month course of isoniazid
d) A 3-month course of rifampin
Answer: c) A 6-month course of isoniazid
Explanation: Latent tuberculosis is treated with isoniazid for about 6 months to prevent
the development of active TB.

10. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure for
tuberculosis transmission?
a) Isolating patients with active TB
b) Administering BCG vaccine
c) Taking a daily multivitamin
d) Increasing the patient’s fluid intake
Answer: a) Isolating patients with active TB
Explanation: Isolation of patients with active TB is crucial to prevent transmission. The
use of airborne precautions, such as wearing an N95 mask, is recommended.

11. Which of the following laboratory tests would be used to monitor for drug
resistance in tuberculosis?
a) Sputum acid-fast bacillus (AFB) smear
b) Mantoux skin test
c) Sputum culture and drug sensitivity testing
d) Chest X-ray
Answer: c) Sputum culture and drug sensitivity testing
Explanation: Sputum culture followed by drug sensitivity testing identifies resistant
strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, guiding treatment decisions.

12. A patient with TB asks why the doctor prescribed multiple drugs for
treatment. What is the nurse's best response?
a) “This helps to reduce the chances of the bacteria becoming resistant.”
b) “Taking multiple drugs ensures you’ll feel better faster.”
c) “Multiple drugs are necessary for proper pain management.”
d) “This will cure the infection in less time.”
Answer: a) “This helps to reduce the chances of the bacteria becoming resistant.”
Explanation: Combining drugs reduces the risk of the bacteria developing resistance,
which is a major concern in tuberculosis treatment.

13. A patient is being treated for tuberculosis with a regimen that includes
rifampin. What is an important side effect of this medication?
a) Yellowing of the skin
b) Tinnitus
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) Orange discoloration of urine
Answer: d) Orange discoloration of urine
Explanation: Rifampin can cause orange or red discoloration of urine, sweat, and
tears. Patients should be informed of this harmless side effect.

14. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for developing active
tuberculosis?
a) A 35-year-old office worker with no history of respiratory illness
b) A 25-year-old homeless person with untreated HIV
c) A 45-year-old smoker with a productive cough
d) A 60-year-old who works with livestock
Answer: b) A 25-year-old homeless person with untreated HIV
Explanation: Individuals with HIV are at a significantly higher risk for developing active
TB, particularly if they are in a high-risk environment such as homelessness.

15. What type of isolation is required for a patient with active tuberculosis?
 a) Droplet isolation
b) Airborne isolation
c) Contact isolation
d) Standard precautions
Answer: b) Airborne isolation
Explanation: TB is spread via airborne particles, so patients with active TB require
airborne precautions, including a negative pressure room and N95 respirators.

16. A patient with TB reports feeling nauseous and lethargic. What should the
nurse assess first?
a) Liver function
b) Oxygen saturation
c) Blood pressure
d) Fluid intake
Answer: a) Liver function
Explanation: Nausea and lethargy can indicate hepatotoxicity, a potential side effect of
TB medications like isoniazid or rifampin. Liver function tests should be conducted
immediately.

17. Which of the following is a common side effect of ethambutol, a drug used to
treat tuberculosis?
a) Nausea
b) Vision changes
c) High blood pressure
d) Skin rash
Answer: b) Vision changes
Explanation: Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, leading to vision changes such as
blurred vision or color blindness. Regular eye exams are recommended.

18. What is the duration of treatment for active tuberculosis?

a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 2 years
d) 3 months
Answer: a) 6 months
Explanation: Active tuberculosis is typically treated for at least 6 months with
combination therapy to ensure eradication of the bacteria.

19. Which of the following is the most common site of tuberculosis infection?
a) Skin
b) Brain
c) Lungs
d) Kidneys
Answer: c) Lungs
Explanation: Tuberculosis most commonly affects the lungs, but it can also affect other
organs like the kidneys, bones, and brain in severe cases.

20. A patient with tuberculosis is being treated with multiple antibiotics. What is
the most important nursing intervention during this treatment?
a) Monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal distress
b) Ensuring the patient maintains proper hydration
c) Teaching the patient about the importance of completing the full treatment
regimen
d) Limiting the patient's exposure to sunlight
Answer: c) Teaching the patient about the importance of completing the full treatment
regimen
Explanation: It is crucial for patients to complete their full course of TB treatment to
ensure eradication of the bacteria and prevent the development of drug-resistant TB.

21. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be a complication of

untreated tuberculosis?
a) Pneumonia
b) Meningitis
 c) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
d) Hemoptysis and lung damage
Answer: d) Hemoptysis and lung damage
Explanation: Untreated tuberculosis can lead to severe lung damage, including the
development of hemoptysis (coughing up blood) due to cavitary lesions and tissue
destruction.

22. A patient is diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI). What is the
recommended treatment to prevent progression to active TB?
a) Start immediate antiretroviral therapy
b) Initiate a 9-month course of isoniazid
c) Begin a 3-month course of rifampin
d) No treatment required for LTBI
Answer: b) Initiate a 9-month course of isoniazid
Explanation: The most common treatment for latent tuberculosis infection is a 9-month
course of isoniazid to prevent the development of active tuberculosis.

23. What is the purpose of the Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine in

tuberculosis prevention?
a) To cure active tuberculosis
b) To reduce the risk of developing TB meningitis in children
c) To eradicate latent TB infection
d) To completely prevent TB transmission
Answer: b) To reduce the risk of developing TB meningitis in children
Explanation: The BCG vaccine is primarily used in some countries to reduce the risk of
severe forms of tuberculosis, particularly TB meningitis, in children.

24. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with
tuberculosis who is not adhering to the prescribed treatment regimen?
a) Increase the dose of medication
b) Implement Directly Observed Therapy (DOT)
c) Encourage the patient to take medications only when symptoms occur
d) Allow the patient to skip doses when feeling better
Answer: b) Implement Directly Observed Therapy (DOT)
Explanation: Directly Observed Therapy (DOT) involves healthcare workers directly
observing the patient taking their medication to ensure adherence, which is critical for
preventing drug resistance.

25. A patient with tuberculosis is being treated with pyrazinamide. What potential
side effect should the nurse monitor for?
a) Visual disturbances
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) Rash
d) Hearing loss
Answer: b) Hepatotoxicity
Explanation: Pyrazinamide can cause liver toxicity. Regular liver function tests are
important to monitor for signs of liver damage during treatment.

26. Which of the following is a clinical sign that a patient with tuberculosis may
be infectious?
a) A negative chest X-ray
b) A positive Mantoux skin test
c) A productive cough with sputum containing blood
d) No symptoms, only a positive sputum culture
Answer: c) A productive cough with sputum containing blood
Explanation: A productive cough with bloody sputum (hemoptysis) indicates active
tuberculosis and that the patient may be infectious.

27. Which of the following is true about the transmission of tuberculosis?

a) Tuberculosis is transmitted by contaminated food and water.
b) Tuberculosis is transmitted via direct skin contact.
c) Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne droplets when an infected person
 coughs or sneezes.
d) Tuberculosis is transmitted by sexual contact.
Answer: c) Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne droplets when an infected
person coughs or sneezes.
Explanation: TB is primarily transmitted through the air when an infected person
coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing respiratory droplets containing Mycobacterium
tuberculosis.

28. A patient with tuberculosis reports taking a supplement of vitamin B6. What is
the nurse's best response?
a) “Vitamin B6 is not recommended while on TB medication.”
b) “Vitamin B6 can help prevent nerve damage caused by isoniazid.”
c) “Vitamin B6 may interfere with the effectiveness of TB treatment.”
d) “Vitamin B6 is recommended only for patients with active TB.”
Answer: b) “Vitamin B6 can help prevent nerve damage caused by isoniazid.”
Explanation: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, and vitamin B6
supplementation is often prescribed to prevent this side effect.

29. What is the primary goal of tuberculosis treatment?

a) To reduce the symptoms of tuberculosis
b) To prevent the transmission of tuberculosis to others
c) To eradicate the bacteria from the body
d) To cure the infection in the shortest time possible
Answer: c) To eradicate the bacteria from the body
Explanation: The primary goal of tuberculosis treatment is to eliminate Mycobacterium
tuberculosis from the body and prevent resistance, relapse, and transmission.

30. A patient with tuberculosis is on rifampin therapy. Which of the following

should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
a) "This medication may cause your urine to turn orange or red."
b) "Rifampin will cause excessive drowsiness, so you should avoid driving."
c) "You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life."
d) "You should avoid foods high in vitamin K."
Answer: a) "This medication may cause your urine to turn orange or red."
Explanation: Rifampin can cause urine, sweat, and tears to turn orange or red. This is
a harmless side effect, but patients should be informed to avoid concerns.

31. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of isoniazid?

a) History of active liver disease
b) History of hypertension
c) History of asthma
d) Pregnancy in the first trimester
Answer: a) History of active liver disease
Explanation: Isoniazid is contraindicated in patients with active liver disease because it
can cause hepatotoxicity. Liver function should be closely monitored during treatment.

32. What is the primary function of the Directly Observed Therapy (DOT) strategy
in tuberculosis treatment?
a) To reduce the cost of TB treatment
b) To ensure that the patient is taking the medication as prescribed
c) To increase the patient's social support
d) To monitor the patient’s weight and nutritional intake
Answer: b) To ensure that the patient is taking the medication as prescribed
Explanation: DOT ensures that patients adhere to the prescribed treatment regimen,
helping to prevent drug resistance and ensuring full recovery.

33. A patient with tuberculosis is being treated with multiple medications. What is
an essential aspect of monitoring the patient’s progress?
a) Frequent blood glucose monitoring
b) Regular chest X-rays
c) Monthly liver function tests
d) Monitoring for dehydration
Answer: c) Monthly liver function tests
Explanation: Since several TB medications, such as isoniazid and rifampin, can cause
liver toxicity, regular liver function tests are essential to monitor the patient’s safety.

34. Which of the following laboratory tests would confirm the diagnosis of active
tuberculosis?
a) Positive Mantoux test
b) Sputum culture showing Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Blood culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Positive chest X-ray
Answer: b) Sputum culture showing Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: A sputum culture is the gold standard for diagnosing active tuberculosis,
as it confirms the presence of the bacteria in respiratory secretions.

35. What is the primary concern when treating a patient with multi-drug resistant
tuberculosis (MDR-TB)?
a) Prolonged treatment duration and potential side effects
b) Risk of spreading TB to family members
c) High cost of treatment
d) Difficulty diagnosing MDR-TB
Answer: a) Prolonged treatment duration and potential side effects
Explanation: Treating multi-drug resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is challenging due to
the need for second-line drugs, which often have more severe side effects and require a
longer treatment period.

36. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the care plan
for a patient with active tuberculosis?
a) Encourage frequent hand washing
b) Provide a high-protein diet
c) Recommend immunization with the BCG vaccine
d) Instruct the patient to stop the medications if side effects occur
Answer: b) Provide a high-protein diet
Explanation: Patients with tuberculosis may experience weight loss and malnutrition,
so a high-protein diet is essential to support healing and recovery.

37. Which of the following is most likely to indicate that a patient with
tuberculosis is improving on treatment?
a) Negative sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Increased white blood cell count
c) Fever persists for 3 weeks after starting treatment
d) Positive acid-fast bacillus (AFB) smear
Answer: a) Negative sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The most reliable indicator that a patient with tuberculosis is improving on treatment is a
negative sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This indicates that the
bacteria are no longer detectable in the sputum, meaning the treatment is working to
eliminate the infection. A negative sputum culture is considered a primary way to
confirm that the infection is being controlled.

38. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take if a patient with
tuberculosis exhibits signs of hepatotoxicity, such as jaundice?
a) Continue the prescribed medications as usual
b) Discontinue all medications and notify the healthcare provider
c) Increase fluid intake to flush out toxins
d) Encourage the patient to eat a high-fat diet
Answer: b) Discontinue all medications and notify the healthcare provider
Explanation: Signs of hepatotoxicity, including jaundice, require immediate attention.
The nurse should discontinue the medications and notify the healthcare provider for
further evaluation and management.

39. What is the recommended duration of treatment for a patient with active
tuberculosis?
 a) 1-2 months
b) 6 months
c) 12 months
d) 24 months
Answer: b) 6 months
Explanation: The typical treatment regimen for active tuberculosis is a combination of
drugs for at least 6 months to ensure the complete eradication of the bacteria and
prevent resistance.

40. A patient with tuberculosis is prescribed a combination of medications

including isoniazid and rifampin. What is the most important point to include in
the teaching plan?
a) "These medications must be taken together to ensure full effectiveness."
b) "You will only need to take these medications for a few weeks."
c) "Avoid eating grapefruit while taking these medications."
d) "If you feel better, you can stop taking the medications."
Answer: a) "These medications must be taken together to ensure full effectiveness."
Explanation: Isoniazid and rifampin are commonly used in combination to treat
tuberculosis. It's important that patients take the full course of all prescribed medications
as directed to prevent drug resistance and relapse.

41. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing tuberculosis?
a) A 35-year-old healthy adult who works as a teacher
b) A 55-year-old smoker with diabetes mellitus
c) A 25-year-old athlete who exercises regularly
d) A 50-year-old with a history of asthma
Answer: b) A 55-year-old smoker with diabetes mellitus
Explanation: People with compromised immune systems, such as those with diabetes
mellitus or chronic conditions like smoking-related lung damage, are at a higher risk for
developing tuberculosis.

42. Which laboratory test would be the most reliable to confirm a diagnosis of
tuberculosis?
a) Mantoux test
b) Sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Chest X-ray
d) Complete blood count (CBC)
Answer: b) Sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: The sputum culture is the gold standard for diagnosing active tuberculosis
because it confirms the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in respiratory
secretions.

43. Which of the following is the most common route of transmission for
tuberculosis?
a) Sexual contact
b) Direct skin contact
c) Airborne droplets
d) Ingestion of contaminated food
Answer: c) Airborne droplets
Explanation: Tuberculosis is primarily transmitted through the air when an infected
person coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing airborne droplets containing
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

44. Which of the following statements is true regarding the isolation of a patient
with active tuberculosis?
a) The patient can be placed in a regular hospital room with no precautions.
b) The patient should be placed in a negative-pressure room with airborne
precautions.
c) The patient only requires contact precautions.
d) The patient should be isolated in a single room with droplet precautions.
Answer: b) The patient should be placed in a negative-pressure room with airborne
precautions.
Explanation: Active tuberculosis requires airborne precautions to prevent the spread of
the bacteria. A negative-pressure room helps contain airborne particles.

45. A patient with tuberculosis is prescribed ethambutol. The nurse should teach
the patient to report which of the following?
a) Yellowing of the skin or eyes
b) Changes in vision
c) Shortness of breath
d) Chest pain
Answer: b) Changes in vision
Explanation: Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, leading to vision changes such as
blurred vision or color blindness. The patient should report any changes in vision
immediately.

46. Which of the following is an important nursing consideration when

administering isoniazid to a patient with tuberculosis?
a) The drug should be taken with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
b) The patient should be monitored for signs of hepatotoxicity, such as jaundice.
c) The drug may cause excessive sedation.
d) The patient should take the drug only during the night.
Answer: b) The patient should be monitored for signs of hepatotoxicity, such as
jaundice.
Explanation: Isoniazid can cause liver damage, so it is essential to monitor for signs of
hepatotoxicity, including jaundice, elevated liver enzymes, and fatigue.

47. What is the most important reason for completing the full course of
tuberculosis treatment, even if symptoms improve?
a) To prevent reinfection with tuberculosis
b) To avoid the development of drug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
c) To ensure rapid recovery and reduce the duration of symptoms
d) To eliminate any chance of developing diabetes
Answer: b) To avoid the development of drug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
Explanation: Completing the full course of tuberculosis treatment is essential to
prevent the development of drug-resistant strains, which can make future treatment
more difficult.

48. Which of the following is a common side effect of rifampin in patients with
tuberculosis?
a) Tinnitus
b) Orange-colored urine
c) Seizures
d) Bradycardia
Answer: b) Orange-colored urine
Explanation: Rifampin can cause the urine, sweat, and tears to turn orange or red. This
side effect is harmless but can be alarming if the patient is not informed.

49. What should the nurse prioritize when assessing a patient who is starting
treatment for active tuberculosis?
a) Monitoring the patient’s nutritional intake
b) Teaching the patient about the potential side effects of treatment
c) Monitoring for signs of depression
d) Ensuring that the patient is isolated from others
Answer: b) Teaching the patient about the potential side effects of treatment
Explanation: Teaching the patient about potential side effects is essential to ensure
compliance and prevent serious complications, such as hepatotoxicity or vision changes
from TB medications.

50. A patient diagnosed with active tuberculosis is being treated with isoniazid,
rifampin, and pyrazinamide. What is an important nursing consideration during
this treatment?
 a) The patient should be advised to avoid alcohol to prevent liver damage.
b) The patient should take medications only when symptoms are severe.
c) The patient should avoid eating large meals to prevent medication interactions.
d) The patient should be advised to rest in bed until complete recovery.
Answer: a) The patient should be advised to avoid alcohol to prevent liver damage.
Explanation: Isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide can cause liver toxicity. Patients
should avoid alcohol to reduce the risk of further liver damage during treatment.