PRIYADARSHINI COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, NAGPUR

B.TECH. Fourth Semester (Artificial Intelligence & Data Science) (C.B.C.S.)

Subject: DBMS
UNIT :1

Q. No. MCQ Correct

Option

1. What is the full form of DBMS?

a) Data of Binary Management System
b) Database Management System
c) Database Management Service B
d) Data Backup Management System
Explanation: DBMS is abbreviated as Database Management
System. Database Management System stores the data and
allows authorized users to manipulate and modify the data.

2 What is a database?
a) Organized collection of information that cannot be accessed,
updated, and managed
b) Collection of data or information without organizing
c) Organized collection of data or information that can be C
accessed, updated, and managed
d) Organized collection of data that cannot be updated
Explanation: It is defined as an organized collection of data or
information for easy access, updating, and management in a
computer.

3. What is DBMS?
a) DBMS is a collection of queries
b) DBMS is a high-level language
c) DBMS is a programming language D
d) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data
Explanation: DBMS is nothing but a storehouse wherein the
authorized user can create a database to store, modify or
 retrieve the organized data in the table. It can be modified or
retrieved by users who have access to DBMS only.

4 Which type of data can be stored in the database?

a) Image oriented data
b) Text, files containing data
c) Data in the form of audio or video
d) All of the above D
Explanation: The reason for creating the database management
system was to store large data and these data can be of any
form image, text, audio, or video files, etc. DBMS allows the
users to store and access the data of any format.
5 Which of the following is not a type of database?
a) Hierarchical
b) Network D
c) Distributed
d) Decentralized
Explanation: Different types are:
1) Centralized
2) Distributed
3) Relational
4) NoSQL
5) Cloud
6) Object-oriented
7) Hierarchical
8) Network

6. Which type of data can be stored in the database?

a) Image oriented data
b) Text, files containing data
c) Data in the form of audio or video D
d) All of the above
Explanation: The reason for creating the database management
 system was to store large data and these data can be of any
form image, text, audio, or video files, etc. DBMS allows the
users to store and access the data of any format.

7. Which of the following is a feature of DBMS?

a) Minimum Duplication and Redundancy of Data
b) High Level of Security
c) Single-user Access only
d) Support ACID Property
Explanation: The important features of a database management C
system are:
1) Minimum Duplication and Redundancy of Data
2) High Level of Security
3) Mulitple-user Access
4) Support ACID Property
8. Which of the following is a function of the DBMS?
a) Storing data
b) Providing multi-users access control
c) Data Integrity D
d) All of the above
Explanation: The purpose of creating DBMS was to store the
data. The data stored in the database management system can
be can accessed by multiple users if the access is provided. The
data stored will be accurate and complete hence providing data
integrity.
9. Which of the following is generally used for performing tasks
like creating the structure of the relations, deleting relation?
DML(Data Manipulation Language)
Query D
Relational Schema
DDL(Data Definition Language)
Explanation: The term “DDL” stands for Data Definition
 Language, used to perform all other essential tasks such as
deleting relation and related schemas in defining the structure
relation.
10. What do you mean by one to many relationships?
One class may have many teachers
One teacher can have many classes B
Many classes may have many teachers
Many teachers may have many classes
Explanation: We can understand the “one to many”
relationship as a teacher who may have more than one class to
attend
11. A Database Management System is a type of
_________software.
It is a type of system software
It is a kind of application software A
It is a kind of general software
Both A and C
Explanation: The DBMS (or Database Management System) is
a kind of system software used for several operations such as
creating tables/databases, storing data, managing databases. It
also allows modifying the data stored in the database as well.
12.
____ Data refers to describing the data description,
representing data semantics, and describing the consistency
constraints that apply to the data. C
a) Adding
b) Modifying
c) Modeling
d) Refining
Explanation:Modeling data refers to describing the data
description, representing data semantics, and describing the
consistency constraints that apply to the data.
13 Which of the following is not the type of the data model?
Relational Data Model
 Semi-structured data Model
Entity-Relationship Model
Process-based Data Model D
Explanation:Process-based Data Model does not come under
the type of data models.

14. As data objects and relationships among them are represented

logically in an ______.
Relational Data Model
ER Model
Object-based Model
Semi-structured
Explanation:As data objects and relationships among them are
represented logically in an ER model.
B

15. Which type of data model is an extension of ER Model? B

Relational Data Model
Object-based Data Model
Structured Data Model
Semi-structured Data Model
Explanation:Object-based Data Model is an extension of ER
Model.

16. Data specifications can be specified when the same-type data

items have different attributes, as in a ____ model.
Relational Data Model
Object-based Data Model D
ER Model
Semi-structured Data Model
Explanation:Data specifications can be specified when the
same-type data items have different attributes, as in a semi-
structured model
17. What type of schema objects are there in schema?
Primary Key
Foreign Key
Views D
All of the above
Explanation:The types of schema objects present in the schema
are primary key, foreign key, views, columns, data types, table
& stored procedure, etc.

18. _____ diagrams can be used to represent database schemas.

Visual
Logical
Analytical A
Structural
Explanation:Visual diagrams can be used to represent database
schemas.

19. DBMS provides a convenient and efficient environment.

a) True A
b) False
Explanation: The statement is true. DBMS stands for Database
Management System. It provides an efficient and easy to use
environment.
20. Which of the following isn’t a level of abstraction? C
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
Explanation: There are three levels of abstraction: physical,
logical and the view level. These three levels are involved in
DBMS.
21. A level that describes how a record is stored.
a) physical A
b) logical
c) user
d) view
Explanation: The answer is physical. The physical level
describes how the record gets stored.
e.g. Customer.

22. A level that describes data stored in a database and the

relationships among the data.
a) physical
b) logical B
c) user
d) view
Explanation: The answer is logical. The logical level describes
the relationships between the data. Physical level describes
how the data is stored.

23. The term "Data independence" refers to____ DBMS

a) Data is defined separately and not included in the
programs B
b) Programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of
the data
c) Programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of
the data
d) Both B & C

24. Which of the following is a procedural language?

A) Relational algebra
B) Query language
C) Tuple relational calculus
D) Domain relational calculus
25. Which of the following gives a logical structure of the database
graphically?
a) Entity-relationship diagram A
b) Entity diagram
c) Database diagram
d) Architectural representation
Explanation: E-R diagrams are simple and clear—qualities that
may well account in large part for the widespread use of the E-
R model.
26. Consider a directed line(->) from the relationship set advisor to
both entity sets instructor and student. This indicates
_________ cardinality
a) One to many B
b) One to one
c) Many to many
d) Many to one
Explanation: This indicates that an instructor may advise at
most one student, and a student may have at most one advisor.

27. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a
primary key is termed a __________
a) Strong entity set
b) Variant set
c) Weak entity set
d) Variable set
Explanation: An entity set that has a primary key is termed a
strong entity set.

28.
If you were collecting and storing information about your
music collection, an album would be considered a(n) _____
a) Relation
b) Entity B
c) Instance
 d) Attribute
Explanation: An entity set is a logical container for instances of
an entity type and instances of any type derived from that entity
type.
29
SQL contains which component in its process?
a) Optimization Engines
b) SQL Query Engines D
c) Query Dispatchers
d) All of the above
Explination:The SQL query process consists of components
such as Optimization Engines, SQL Query Engines, and Query
Dispatchers, etc.
30.
Which of the following statement is true?
a) SQL statements are used for most operations in a C
database.
b) Relational algebra and tuple relationship calculus are
needed for SQL syntax.
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
Explanation:SQL statements are used for most operations in a
database and Relational algebra and tuple relationship calculus
are needed for SQL syntax.

31.
Which of the following is not an SQL Statement?
a) SELECT Statement
b) UPDATE Statement
D
c) TRUNCATE TABLE Statement
d) FROM Statement
Explanation:SQL Statements are SELECT, UPDATE,
TRUNCATE TABLE.
32.
The ability to query data, as well as insert, delete, and alter
tuples, is offered by ____________
a) TCL (Transaction Control Language)
b) DCL (Data Control Language)
c) DDL (Data Definition Langauge)
d) DML (Data Manipulation Langauge
33.
______________ is a set of one or more attributes taken
collectively to uniquely identify a record.
a) Primary Key
b) Foreign key
c) Super key C

d) Candidate key
Explanation: Foreign key creates a relationship between two
relations. Super key is the superset of all the keys in a relation.
A candidate key is used to identify tuples in a relation.
34.
Which command is used to remove a relation from an SQL?
a) Drop table
b) Delete
A
c) Purge
d) Remove
Explanation: Delete command is used to delete the existing
record from the table. The drop table deletes the whole
structure of the relation. Purge removes the table which cannot
be obtained again.
35. D
Which of the following set should be associated with weak
entity set for weak entity to be meaningful?
a) Neighbour set
b) Strong entity set
c) Owner set
 d) Identifying set
Explanation: Every weak entity must be linked to an
identifying entity; in other words, the existence of the weak
entity set is contingent on the presence of the identifying entity
set. The weak entity set that the identifying entity set identifies
is said to be owned by the identifying entity set. Owner entity
set is another name for it.
36.
_________________ operations do not preserve non-matched
tuples.
a) Left outer join
b) Inner join
c) Natural join B

d) Right outer join

Explanation: Left outer join returns all the rows from the table
that is on the left side and matching rows on the right side of
the join. Inner join returns all rows when there is at least one
match in BOTH tables. Natural join returns the common
columns from the tables being joined. A right outer join returns
all the rows from the table that is on the right side and matching
rows on the left side of the join.

37.
The logical design, and the snapshot of the data at a given
instant in time is known as?
a) Instance & Relation
b) Relation & Schema
c) Domain & Schema
D
d) Schema & Instance
Explanation: Instance is an instance of time, the relation is also
known as table consists of data with similar characteristics,
Domain is the collection of values that an attribute can contain
and schema is a representation.
38.
__________ command is used in SQL to issue multiple
CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW and GRANT statements in
a single transaction.
a) CREATE CLUSTER
b) CREATE PACKAGE C
c) CREATE SCHEMA
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: A schema is a description of a system’s structure
in a formal language supported by the database management
system, and it refers to data organization as a blueprint for how
a db is built.
After groups have been established, SQL applies predicates in
the ___________ clause, allowing aggregate functions to be
used.
a) Where
D
b) Having
c) Group by
d) With
Explanation: The “with” clause was introduced to reduce the
complexity of the queries which are lengthy. The “with” clause
allows you to define a temporary relation whose definition is
only visible to the query in which it appears.
 PRIYADARSHINI COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, NAGPUR
B.TECH. Fourth Semester (Artificial Intelligence & Data Science)
(C.B.C.S.)
Subject: DBMS(UNIT 2)

Q MCQues Correct
No. Option
1. Choose the correct statement regarding superkeys a
a) A superkey is an attribute or a group of multiple
attributes that can uniquely identify a tuple
b) A superkey is a tuple or a set of multiple tuples
that can uniquely identify an attribute
c) Every superkey is a candidate key
d) A superkey is an attribute or a set of attributes that
distinguish the relation from other relation
Explanation: A superkey is an attribute or a set of
multiple attributes that can uniquely identify a tuple.
It is used to differentiate between tuples.

2. What is an Instance of a Database? c

a) The logical design of the database system
b) The entire set of attributes of the Database put
together in a single relation
c) The state of the database system at any given point
of time
d) The initial values inserted into the Database
immediately after its creation
Explanation: The state of the database system at any
given point of time is called as an Instance of the
 database.

3. What is a foreign key? c

a) A foreign key is a primary key of a relation which
is an attribute in another relation
b) A foreign key is a superkey of a relation which is
an attribute in more than one other relations
c) A foreign key is an attribute of a relation that is a
primary key of another relation
d) A foreign key is the primary key of a relation that
does not occur anywhere else in the schema
Explanation: A foreign key is an attribute of a
relation that is initially a primary key of another
relation. A foreign key usage preserves referential
integrity.

4. What action does ⋈ operator perform in relational a

algebra
a) Output specified attributes from all rows of the
input relation and remove duplicate tuples from the
output
b) Outputs pairs of rows from the two input relations
that have the same value on all attributes that have
the same name
c) Output all pairs of rows from the two input
relations (regardless of whether or not they have the
same values on common attributes)
d) Return rows of the input relation that satisfy the
predicate
Explanation: ⋈ Outputs specified attributes from all
 rows of the input relation. Remove duplicate tuples
from the output. The operation is called the join
operation.

5. What does the “x” operator do in relational algebra? c

a) Output specified attributes from all rows of the
input relation. Remove duplicate tuples from the
output
b) Output pairs of rows from the two input relations
that have the same value on all attributes that have
the same name
c) Output all pairs of rows from the two input
relations (regardless of whether or not they have the
same values on common attributes)
d) Returns the rows of the input relation that satisfy
the predicate
Explanation: The “x” operator outputs all pairs of
rows from the two input relations (regardless of
whether or not they have the same values on
common attributes). This operation is called as the
Cartesian product operation and is similar to the
Cartesian product of sets.

6. An attribute is a __________ in a relation. b

a) Row
b) Column
c) Value
d) Tuple
Explanation: An attribute is a column in a relation. A
 tuple is a row in a relation.

7. What is the method of specifying a primary key in a d

schema description?
a) By writing it in bold letters
b) By underlining it using a dashed line
c) By writing it in capital letters
d) By underlining it using a bold line
Explanation: We can specify a primary key in
schema description by underlining the respective
attribute with a bold line.
10. State true or false: If a relation consists of a foreign b
key, then it is called a referenced relation of the
foreign key dependency.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: If a relation has a foreign key, then it is
called a referencing relation of the foreign key
dependency.

11. To include integrity constraint in an existing relation C

use :
a) Create table
b) Modify table
c) Alter table
d) Drop table

Explanation: SYNTAX – alter table table-name add

constraint, where constraint can be any constraint on
 the relation.

12. Which of the following is not an integrity b

constraint?
a) Not null
b) Positive
c) Unique
d) Check ‘predicate’

Explanation: Positive is a value and not a constraint.

13. CREATE TABLE Manager(ID NUMERIC,Name a
VARCHAR(20),budget NUMERIC,Details
VARCHAR(30));
Inorder to ensure that the value of budget is non-
negative which of the following should be used?
a) Check(budget>0)
b) Check(budget<0)
c) Alter(budget>0)
d) Alter(budget<0)

Explanation: A common use of the check clause is to

ensure that attribute values satisfy specified
conditions, in effect creating a powerful type system.

14. Foreign key is the one in which the ________ of one B

relation is referenced in another relation.
a) Foreign key
b) Primary key
c) References
d) Check constraint
 Explanation: The foreign-key declaration specifies
that for each course tuple, the department name
specified in the tuple must exist in the department
relation.

15. CREATE TABLE course B

(...
FOREIGN KEY (dept name) REFERENCES
department
. . . );
Which of the following is used to delete the entries in
the referenced table when the tuple is deleted in
course table?
a) Delete
b) Delete cascade
c) Set null
d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: The delete “cascades” to the course

relation, deletes the tuple that refers to the
department that was deleted.

16. Domain constraints, functional dependency and c

referential integrity are special forms of _________
a) Foreign key
b) Primary key
c) Assertion
d) Referential constraint
 Explanation: An assertion is a predicate expressing a
condition we wish the database to always satisfy.

17. 8. Which of the following is the right syntax for the A

assertion?
a) Create assertion ‘assertion-name’ check
‘predicate’;
b) Create assertion check ‘predicate’ ‘assertion-
name’;
c) Create assertions ‘predicates’;
d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: None.

18. Data integrity constraints are used to: C

a) Control who is allowed access to the data
b) Ensure that duplicate records are not entered into
the table
c) Improve the quality of data entered for a specific
property (i.e., table column)
d) Prevent users from changing the values stored in
the table

Explanation: None.

19. Which of the following can be addressed by C

enforcing a referential integrity constraint?
a) All phone numbers must include the area code
b) Certain fields are required (such as the email
 address, or phone number) before the record is
accepted
c) Information on the customer must be known
before anything can be sold to that customer
d) When entering an order quantity, the user must
input a number and not some text (i.e., 12 rather than
‘a dozen’)

Explanation: The information can be referred to and

obtained.

20. Which one of the following is a set of one or more C

attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a
record?
a) Candidate key
b) Sub key
c) Super key
d) Foreign key
Explanation: Super key is the superset of all the keys
in a relation.

21. Consider attributes ID, CITY and NAME. Which b

one of this can be considered as a super key?
a) NAME
b) ID
c) CITY
d) CITY, ID
Explanation: Here the id is the only attribute which
can be taken as a key. Other attributes are not
uniquely identified.
22. The subset of a super key is a candidate key under a
what condition?
a) No proper subset is a super key
b) All subsets are super keys
c) Subset is a super key
d) Each subset is a super key
Explanation: The subset of a set cannot be the same
set. Candidate key is a set from a super key which
cannot be the whole of the super set.

23. A _____ is a property of the entire relation, rather b

than of the individual tuples in which each tuple is
unique.
a) Rows
b) Key
c) Attribute
d) Fields
Explanation: Key is the constraint which specifies
uniqueness.

24. Which one of the following attribute can be taken as c

a primary key?
a) Name
b) Street
c) Id
d) Department
Explanation: The attributes name, street and
department can repeat for some tuples. But the id
attribute has to be unique. So it forms a primary key.
25. Which one of the following cannot be taken as a d
primary key?
a) Id
b) Register number
c) Dept_id
d) Street
Explanation: Street is the only attribute which can
occur more than once.

26. An attribute in a relation is a foreign key if the b

_______ key from one relation is used as an attribute
in that relation.
a) Candidate
b) Primary
c) Super
d) Sub
Explanation: The primary key has to be referred in
the other relation to form a foreign key in that
relation.

27. The relation with the attribute which is the primary c

key is referenced in another relation. The relation
which has the attribute as a primary key is called
______________
a) Referential relation
b) Referencing relation
c) Referenced relation
d) Referred relation
Explanation: None.
28. The ______ is the one in which the primary key of c
one relation is used as a normal attribute in another
relation.
a) Referential relation
b) Referencing relation
c) Referenced relation
d) Referred relation
Explanation: None.

29. A _________ integrity constraint requires that the a

values appearing in specified attributes of any tuple
in the referencing relation also appear in specified
attributes of at least one tuple in the referenced
relation.
a) Referential
b) Referencing
c) Specific
d) Primary
Explanation: A relation, say r1, may include among
its attributes the primary key of another relation, say
r2. This attribute is called a foreign key from r1,
referencing r2. The relation r1 is also called the
referencing relation of the foreign key dependency,
and r2 is called the referenced relation of the foreign
key.

30. Relational Algebra is a __________ query language c

that takes two relations as input and produces another
relation as an output of the query.
 a) Relational
b) Structural
c) Procedural
d) Fundamental
Explanation: This language has fundamental and
other operations which are used on relations.

31. Which of the following is a fundamental operation in d

relational algebra?
a) Set intersection
b) Natural join
c) Assignment
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The fundamental operations are select,
project, union, set difference, Cartesian product, and
rename.

32. Which of the following is used to denote the b

selection operation in relational algebra?
a) Pi (Greek)
b) Sigma (Greek)
c) Lambda (Greek)
d) Omega (Greek)
Explanation: The select operation selects tuples that
satisfy a given predicate.

33. For select operation the ________ appear in the a

subscript and the ___________ argument appears in
the paranthesis after the sigma.
a) Predicates, relation
 b) Relation, Predicates
c) Operation, Predicates
d) Relation, Operation
Explanation: None.

34. The ___________ operation, denoted by −, allows us b

to find tuples that are in one relation but are not in
another.
a) Union
b) Set-difference
c) Difference
d) Intersection
Explanation: The expression r − s produces a relation
containing those tuples in r but not in s.

35. Which is a unary operation: d

a) Selection operation
b) Primitive operation
c) Projection operation
d) Generalized selection
Explanation: Generalization Selection takes only one
argument for operation.

36. Which is a join condition contains an equality a

operator:
a) Equijoins
b) Cartesian
c) Natural
d) Left
 Explanation: None.

37. In precedence of set operators, the expression is b

evaluated from
a) Left to left
b) Left to right
c) Right to left
d) From user specification
Explanation: The expression is evaluated from left to
right according to the precedence.

38. Which of the following is not outer join? d

a) Left outer join
b) Right outer join
c) Full outer join
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: The FULL OUTER JOIN keyword
combines the result of both LEFT and RIGHT joins.

39. The assignment operator is denoted by b

a) ->
b) <-
c) =
d) ==
Explanation: The result of the expression to the right
of the ← is assigned to the relation variable on the
left of the ←.
40. Find the ID, name, dept name, salary for instructors a
whose salary is greater than $80,000 .
a) {t | t ε instructor ∧ t[salary] > 80000}
b) Э t ∈ r (Q(t))
c) {t | Э s ε instructor (t[ID] = s[ID]∧ s[salary] >
80000)}
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: This expression is in tuple relational
format.

41. A query in the tuple relational calculus is expressed c

as:
a) {t | P() | t}
b) {P(t) | t }
c) {t | P(t)}
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: The tuple relational calculus, is a
nonprocedural query language. It describes the
desired information without giving a specific
procedure for obtaining that information.

42. Which of the following symbol is used in the place c

of except?
a) ^
b) V
c) ¬
d) ~
Explanation: The query ¬P negates the value of P.
43. “Find all students who have taken all courses offered b
in the Biology department.” The expressions that
matches this sentence is :
a) Э t ε r (Q(t))
b) ∀ t ε r (Q(t))
c) ¬ t ε r (Q(t))
d) ~ t ε r (Q(t))
Explanation: ∀ is used denote “for all” in SQL.

44. Which of the following is the comparison operator b

in tuple relational calculus
a) ⇒
b) =
c) ε
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: The comparison operators are (<, ≤, =,
=, >, ≥).

45. . An expression in the domain relational calculus is d

of the form
a) {P(x1, x2, . . . , xn) | < x1, x2, . . . , xn > }
b) {x1, x2, . . . , xn | < x1, x2, . . . , xn > }
c) { x1, x2, . . . , xn | x1, x2, . . . , xn}
d) {< x1, x2, . . . , xn > | P(x1, x2, . . . , xn)}
Explanation: Here x1, x2, . . . , xn represent domain
variables. P represents a formula composed of atoms,
as was the case in the tuple relational calculus.

46. In domain relaional calculus “there exist” can be d

 expressed as
a) (P1(x))
b) (P1(x)) Э x
c) V x (P1(x))
d) Э x (P1(x))
Explanation:Э is used to denote “some” values in
relational calculus.

47. A set of possible data values is called d

a) Attribute
b) Degree
c) Tuple
d) Domain
Explanation: None.
 PRIYADARSHINI COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, NAGPUR
B.TECH. Fourth Semester (Artificial Intelligence & Data Science) (C.B.C.S.)
Subject: DBMS
UNIT-3

Q. MCQ Correct
No. Option
1. 1. A database is ___ to reduce the number of disk accesses B
needed to process queries in order to improve performance.
A. Non-indexed
B. Indexed
C. Inserted
D. Updated

Explanation: A database is indexed to reduce the number of

disk accesses needed to process queries in order to improve
performance.
2 2. What is index? D
A. Type of Dataset
B. Type of Database
C. Type of Record
D. Type of Data Structure

Explanation: Index is the type of data structure.

3. 3. A database ___ can be quickly accessed and located with it. C

A. Row
B. Column
C. Table
D. Field

Explanation: A database table can be quickly accessed and

located with it.
4. Some database columns can be used to create ___. C

A. Indices
B. Files
C. Indexes
D. Records
 Explanation: Some database columns can be used to create
indexes.

5. 5. How many columns are there in Structure of Index? A

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Explanation: There are 2 columns in the Structure of Index.

6. 6. Which of the following is the column in structure of index? C

A. Search Key
B. Data Reference
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

The columns in the structure of index are -

i. Search Key
ii. Data Reference

7. 7. A copy of the ___ of the table is in the first column of the C

database, i.e., search key.

A. Primary Key
B. Candidate Key
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

A copy of the primary key or candidate key of the table is in

the first column of the database.

8. 8. A ___ key is sorted in order to make it easy to access data A

corresponding to it.
 A. Primary
B. Foreign
C. Composite
D. Alternate

Explanation:

A primary key is sorted in order to make it easy to access data

corresponding to it.

9. 9. ___ are found in the second column of the database. C

A. Datasets
B. Data structure
C. Data references
D. Data items

Explanation:

Data references are found in the second column of the

database.

10. Each ___ consists of a set of pointers containing the address of C

the disk block containing the value for that ___.

A. Dataset
B. Data Item
C. Key
D. Log

Explanation:

Each key consists of a set of pointers containing the address of

the disk block containing the value for that key.

11. How many indexing methods are there? B

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
 D. 6

Explanation:

There are 4 indexing methods.

12. Which of the following is an indexing method? D

A. Primary
B. Clustering
C. Secondary
D. All of the above

Explanation:

The indexing methods are -

i. Ordered
ii. Primary
iii. Clustering
iv. Secondary

13. How many types of primary index are there? A

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Explanation:

There are 2 types of primary index.

14. Which of the following is the type of primary index? C

A. Dense Index
B. Spare Index
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:
 The type of primary index are -

i. Dense Index
ii. Spare Index

15. Searches are usually made ___ by sorting the indices. C

A. Slower
B. Dimmer
C. Faster
D. Stopped

Explanation:

Searches are usually made faster by sorting the indices.

16. Indexes that are ordered are referred to as ___ indices. A

A. Ordered
B. Primary
C. Clustering
D. Secondary

Explanation:

Indexes that are ordered are referred to as ordered indices.

17. It is known as primary indexing if the index is created based on A

the table's primary key.

A. Primary
B. Foreign
C. Alternate
D. Composite

Explanation:

It is known as primary indexing if the index is created based on

the table's primary key.
18. Records containing these primary keys are uniquely identified A
by these keys and have a ___ relationship between them.

A. 1:1
B. 1:M
C. M:1
D. M:M

Explanation:

Records containing these primary keys are uniquely identified

by these keys and have a 1:1 relationship between them.

19 Since primary keys are sorted, ___ operations are quite C

efficient because of their sorted order.

A. Add
B. Update
C. Search
D. Delete

Explanation:

Since primary keys are sorted, search operations are quite

efficient because of their sorted order.

20 Each search key value in the data file has an index record in B
the ___ index.

A. Sparse
B. Dense
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

Each search key value in the data file has an index record in
the dense index.

21 There is no difference in the number of ___ in the index and C

main tables when using Dense Index.
 A. Files
B. Databases
C. Records
D. Datasets

Explanation:

There is no difference in the number of records in the index

and main tables when using Dense Index.

22 The index record itself takes up ___ space in a dense index. D

A. Less
B. Little
C. Few
D. More

Explanation:

The index record itself takes up more space in a dense index.

23 Which of the following is the type of primary index? C

A. Dense Index
B. Spare Index
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

The type of primary index are -Dense and Sparse Indexing.24

24 Besides the search key, index records contain a pointer to the C

___ data on the disk.

A. Previous
B. Consecutive
C. Actual
D. None

Explanation:
 Besides the search key, index records contain a pointer to the
actual data on the disk.

25 ___ index records appear only for a few items in the data file. B

A. Dense
B. Sparse
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

Sparse index records appear only for a few items in the data
file.

26 Sparse index items point to ___. C

A. Files
B. Records
C. Blocks
D. None

Explanation:

Sparse index items point to blocks.

27 An index that points to the records in a ___ in the main table B

rather than each record in the main table is a sparse index.

A. Filled Space
B. Gap
C. Files
D. Records

Explanation:

An index that points to the records in a gap in the main table

rather than each record in the main table is a sparse index.

28 An ordered data file can be considered a ___ index. D

 A. Primary
B. Dense
C. Sparse
D. Clustered

Explanation:

An ordered data file can be considered a clustered index.

29 The index can be built on columns other than ___ keys, which A
are not guaranteed to be unique.

A. Primary
B. Foreign
C. Composite
D. Alternate

Explanation:

The index can be built on columns other than primary keys,

which are not guaranteed to be unique.

30 Clustering can be used to identify records faster by grouping C

___ columns to get the unique value and creating an index
from them.

A. One
B. Two
C. Two or more
D. None

Explanation:

Clustering can be used to identify records faster by grouping

two or more columns to get the unique value and creating an
index from them.

31 Creating indices for these groups of records such as in A

clustering index is done after groups of records which have
similar characteristics are ____ together.

A. Grouped
 B. Distributed
C. Replaced
D. None

Explanation:

Creating indices for these groups of records is done after

groups of records which have similar characteristics are
grouped together.

32 In the case of creating separate disk blocks for individual C

clusters, that's referred to as a ___.

A. Technique
B. Better
C. Better Technique
D. Technique Better

Explanation:

In the case of creating separate disk blocks for individual

clusters, that's referred to as a better technique.

33 Whenever the size of the table increases, so does the size of the B
___ in the sparse index.

A. Table
B. Mapping
C. Files
D. Adding

Explanation:

Whenever the size of the table increases, so does the size of the
mapping.

34 A mapping would typically be kept in ____ memory in order A

to make address fetching faster.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Ternary
 D. None

Answer: A) Primary

Explanation:

A mapping would typically be kept in primary memory in

order to make address fetching faster.

35 Based on the ___ mapped to the secondary memory, that A

memory searches for the data.

A. Address
B. Number
C. Name
D. Type

Explanation:

Based on the address mapped to the secondary memory, that

memory searches for the data.

36 Fetching the address becomes slower when the mapping size C

grows.

A. Faster
B. Super faster
C. Slower
D. None

Explanation:

Fetching the address becomes slower when the mapping size

grows.

37 When the mapping size grow which index is inefficient? A

A. Sparse
B. Secondary
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
 Explanation:

When the mapping size grows, the sparse index is inefficient.

38 Adding another level of ___ to secondary ___ reduces the size A

of mapping.

A. Indexing
B. Mapping
C. Adding
D. Merging

Explanation:

Adding another level of indexing to secondary indexing

reduces the size of mapping.

39 As part of the secondary index method, the columns are C

initially selected for their huge ranges, resulting in a small
first-level mapping size. After that, each range is further
divided into ___ ranges.

A. Bigger
B. Larger
C. Smaller
D. Wider

Explanation:

As part of the secondary index method, the columns are

initially selected for their huge ranges, resulting in a small
first-level mapping size. After that, each range is further
divided into smaller ranges.

40 Both the ___ level mapping and actual data are stored on the B
hard disk (secondary memory).

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. None
 Explanation:

Both the second level mapping and actual data are stored on
the hard disk (secondary memory).

41 A ___ binary search tree is a B+ tree. A

A. Balanced
B. Unbalanced
C. Positive
D. B Positive

Explanation:

A balanced binary search tree is a B+ tree.

42 There is/are ___ levels of indexing in the B+ tree. D

A. Single
B. Double
C. Triple
D. Multiple

Explanation:

There are multiple levels of indexing in the B+ tree.

43 The leaf nodes of the B+ tree represent actual data ___. C

A. Sets
B. Bases
C. Points
D. Types

Explanation:

The leaf nodes of the B+ tree represent actual data points.

44 A B+ tree maintains the same height of all leaf nodes. A

A. Same
 B. Similar
C. Different
D. Far

Explanation:

A B+ tree maintains the same height of all leaf nodes.

45 A ___ is used to link the leaf nodes in the B+ tree. C

A. Stack
B. Queue
C. Link List
D. None

Explanation:

A link list is used to link the leaf nodes in the B+ tree.

46 B+ trees can support ___ access. C

A. Sequential
B. Random
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

B+ trees can support both sequential and random access.

47 There is an equal distance between every leaf node and its B

counterpart at the ___ node in the B+ tree.

A. Leaf
B. Root
C. Stem
D. None

Explanation:

There is an equal distance between every leaf node and its

 counterpart at the root node in the B+ tree.

48 The B+ tree has a ___ number of branches of the order n. A

A. Fixed
B. Different
C. Separate
D. Consecutive

Explanation:

The B+ tree has a fixed number of branches of the order n.

49 A ___ are included in the B+ tree. C

A. Leaf Node
B. Internal Node
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

A leaf node and an internal node are included in the B+ tree.

50 The root node of the B+ tree contains the most ___ (n/2). B

A. Record Points
B. Record Pointers
C. Record Sets
D. Record Files

Explanation:

The root node of the B+ tree contains the most record pointers
(n/2).

51 n is the ___ number of pointers an internal node contains. B

A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. Average
 D. None

Explanation:

n is the maximum number of pointers an internal node

contains.

52 At least n/2 record pointers and n/2 key values can be C

contained in a/an/the ___ node(s) of the B+ tree.

A. Leaf
B. Internal
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

At least n/2 record pointers and n/2 key values can be

contained in a leaf node of the B+ tree.

53 Leaf nodes contain the maximum number of ___ n. C

A. Record Pointers
B. Key Values
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

Leaf nodes contain the maximum number of record pointers

and key values n.

54 Two attributes can be functionally ___ on/of each other. A

A. Dependent
B. Independent
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:
 Two attributes can be functionally dependent on each other.

55 An attribute that is ___ and the primary key of a table are B

typically functionally dependent on one another.

A. Key
B. Non-Key
C. One-Key
D. Many-Key

Explanation:

An attribute that is non-key and the primary key of a table are

typically functionally dependent on one another.

56 Functional dependencies are classified as ___ on the left. C

A. Dependent
B. Determined
C. Determinants
D. Database

Explanation:

Function dependencies are classified as determinants on the

left.

57 __ is the right side of making functional dependency. B

A. Determinants
B. Dependency
C. Independency

Explanation:

Dependency is the right side of making functional dependency.

58 How many types of functional dependencies are there? D

A. 1
B. 2
 C. 3
D. 4

Explanation:

There are mainly four types of Functional Dependency in

DBMS:

i. Trivial functional dependency

ii. Non-Trivial functional dependency
iii. Multivalued functional dependency
iv. Transitive functional dependency

59 Which of the following is a type of functional dependency? C

A. Trivial Functional Dependency

B. Non-trivial Functional Dependency
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

There are mainly four types of Functional Dependency in

DBMS:

i. Trivial functional dependency

ii. Non-Trivial functional dependency
iii. Multivalued functional dependency
iv. Transitive functional dependency

60 If ___, then A -> B has trivial functional dependency. A

A. B is a subset of A
B. A is a subset of B
C. A is a subset of A'
D. B is a subset of B'

Explanation:

If B is a subset of A, then A -> B has trivial functional

dependency.
61 Which of the following is a trivial functional dependency? A

A. A->B, if B is a subset of A
B. A->A
C. B->B
D. All of the above

Explanation:

These are the trivial functional dependencies -

i. A->B
ii. A->A
iii. B->B

62 If ___, then A -> B has non-trivial functional dependency. A

A. B is not a subset of A
B. A is not a subset of B
C. A is not a subset of A'
D. B is not a subset of B'

Explanation:

If B is not a subset of A, then A -> B has non-trivial functional

dependency.

63 A -> B is a ___l, when A intersection B is NULL. B

A. Complete Trivial
B. Complete Non-Trivial
C. Incomplete Trivial
D. Incomplete Non-Trivial

Explanation:

A -> B is a complete non-trivial, when A intersection B is

NULL.

64 A ___ is normalized after it has been organized. B

A. Table
 B. Database
C. Row
D. Column

Explanation:

A database is normalized after it has been organized.

65 By normalizing relations or sets of relations, one minimizes C

___.

A. Data
B. Fields
C. Redundancy
D. Database

Explanation:

By normalizing relations or sets of relations, one minimizes

redundancy.

66 In addition to removing undesirable characteristics, D

normalization also eliminates ___ anomalies.

A. Insert
B. Update
C. Delete
D. All of the above

Explanation:

In addition to removing undesirable characteristics,

normalization also eliminates insert, update, and delete
anomalies.

67 A common approach to normalization is to ___ the larger table D

into smaller tables and link them together by using
relationships.

A. Add
B. Subtract
C. Multiply
 D. Divide

Explanation:

A common approach to normalization is to divide the larger

table into smaller tables and link them together by using
relationships.

68 Redundancy is reduced in a database table by using the ___ B

form.

A. Abnormal
B. Normal
C. Special
D. None

Explanation:

Redundancy is reduced in a database table by using the normal

form.

69 In practical applications, how many types of Normal Forms are B

there?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Explanation:

There are 4 types of normal forms.

1. 1-NF

2. 2-NF

3. 3-NF

4. BCNF

70 Which of the following is not a type of Normal Form? D

 A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. 10NF

Explanation:

10NF is not a type of Normal Form.

71 Which of the following is a type of Normal Form? B

A. ACNF
B. BCNF
C. CCNF
D. DCNF

Explanation:

BCNF is a type of Normal Form.

72 When a relation contains an atomic value, it is a ___ relation. A

A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. BCNF

Explanation:

When a relation contains an atomic value, it is a 1NF relation.

73 2NF relations are those that are in 1NF with all the attribute A
types dependent on the ___ key.

A. Primary
B. Foreign
C. Composite
D. Alternate

Explanation:

2NF relations are those that are in 1NF with all the attribute
 types dependent on the primary key.

74 When a relation is in 2NF and there is ___, it is in 3NF. B

A. Transition Dependency
B. No Transition Dependency
C. Relational Dependency
D. No Relational Dependency

Explanation:

When a relation is in 2NF and there is no transition

dependency, it is in 3NF.

75 A relation is in ___ if it is in Boyce Codd normal form and D

does not have any multivalued dependencies.

A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. 4NF

Explanation:

A relation is in 4NF if it is in Boyce Codd normal form and

does not have any multivalued dependencies.

76 What is TRUE about the First Normal Form (1NF)? D

A. If a relation contains an atomic value, it will be 1NF.

B. A table attribute cannot contain more than one value,
according to this rule.
C. A single-valued attribute can only be stored in it.
D. All of the above

Explanation:

In case of First Normal Form (1NF) -

a. If a relation contains an atomic value, it will be 1NF.

b. A table attribute cannot contain more than one value,
according to this rule.
 c. A single-valued attribute can only be stored in it.

77 What is TRUE about the Second Normal Form (2NF)? C

A. Relational must belong to 1NF in the 2NF.

B. All attributes other than the primary key are fully
functional in the second normal form
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Explanation:

In case of Second Normal Form (2NF) -

a. Relational must belong to 1NF in the 2NF.

b. All attributes other than the primary key are fully
functional in the second normal form

78 What is TRUE about the Third Normal Form (3NF)? D

A. When a relation is in 2NF and does not contain transitive

partial dependencies, it will be in 3NF.
B. Data duplication is reduced by using 3NF.
C. It helps maintain the integrity of the data.
D. All of the above

Explanation:

In case of Third Normal Form (3NF) -

a. When a relation is in 2NF and does not contain transitive

partial dependencies, it will be in 3NF.
b. Data duplication is reduced by using 3NF.
c. It helps maintain the integrity of the data.

79 What is TRUE about BCNF? D

A. The advanced version of 3NF is BCNF.

B. BCNF is stricter than 3NF.
C. The super key is X for any functional dependency of X -
> Y in the table.
 D. All of the above

Explanation:

In case of BCNF -

a. The advanced version of 3NF is BCNF.

b. BCNF is stricter than 3NF.
c. The super key is X for any functional dependency of X -
> Y in the table.

80 A relation is in ___ if it is in Boyce Codd normal form and D

does not have any multivalued dependencies.

A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. 4NF

Explanation:

A relation is in 4NF if it is in Boyce Codd normal form and

does not have any multivalued dependencies.

81
 PRIYADARSHINI COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, NAGPUR
B.TECH. Fourth Semester (Artificial Intelligence & Data Science)
(C.B.C.S.)
Subject:DBMS(UNIT 4)

Q. MCQ Correct
No. Option
1. A collection of data designed to be used by different people is b
called a/an
a) Organization
b) Database
c) Relationship
d) Schema
Explanation: Database is a collection of related tables.
2 Which of the following is the oldest database model? d
a) Relational
b) Deductive
c) Physical
d) Network
Explanation: The network model is a database model
conceived as a flexible way of representing objects and their
relationships.
3. Which of the following schemas does define a view or views d
of the database for particular users?
a) Internal schema
b) Conceptual schema
c) Physical schema
d) External schema
Explanation: An externally-defined schema can provide access
to tables that are managed on any PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL
Server, SAS, Oracle, or MySQL database.

4. 4. Which of the following is an attribute that can uniquely b

identify a row in a table?
a) Secondary key
 b) Candidate key
c) Foreign key
d) Alternate key
Explanation: A Candidate Key can be any column or a
combination of columns that can qualify as unique key in
database.

5. Which of the following are the process of selecting the data B

storage and data access characteristics of the database?
a) Logical database design
b) Physical database design
c) Testing and performance tuning
d) Evaluation and selecting
Explanation: The physical design of the database optimizes
performance while ensuring data integrity by avoiding
unnecessary data redundancies.

6. Which of the following terms does refer to the correctness and d

completeness of the data in a database?
a) Data security
b) Data constraint
c) Data independence
d) Data integrity
Explanation: ACID property is satisfied by transaction in
database.

7. The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is b

a
a) One-to-one relationship
b) One-to-many relationship
c) Many-to-many relationship
d) Many-to-one relationship
Explanation: One entity department is related to several
employees.

8. A table can be logically connected to another table by defining c

 a
a) Super key
b) Candidate key
c) Primary key
d) Unique key
Explanation: A superkey is a combination of attributes that can
be uniquely used to identify a database record.

9. If the state of the database no longer reflects a real state of the d

world that the database is supposed to capture, then such a
state is called
a) Consistent state
b) Parallel state
c) Durable state
d) Inconsistent state
Explanation: SQL data consistency is that whenever a
transaction is performed, it sees a consistent database.

10. 10. Ensuring isolation property is the responsibility of the b

a) Recovery-management component of the DBMS
b) Concurrency-control component of the DBMS
c) Transaction-management component of the DBMS
d) Buffer management component in DBMS
Explanation: Concurrency control ensures that correct results
for concurrent operations are generated while getting those
results as quickly as possible.

11. In query processing, the ___________ is the lowest-level c

operator to access data.
a) Index Search
b) Linear search
c) File scan
d) Access paths
Explanation: File scans are search algorithms that locate and
retrieve records that fulfill a selection condition.
12. In a ____________ the system scans each file block and tests b
all records to see whether they satisfy the selection condition.
a) Index Search
b) Linear search
c) File scan
d) Access paths
Explanation: An initial seek is required to access the first block
of the file.
13. Index structures are referred to as __________ since they d
provide a path through which data can be located and accessed.
a) Index Search
b) Linear search
c) File scan
d) Access paths
Explanation: A primary index is an index that allows the
records of a file to be read in an order that corresponds to the
physical order in the file.

14. Search algorithms that use an index are referred to as a

a) Index Search
b) Linear search
c) File scan
d) Access paths
Explanation: Selection predicates are used to guide in the
choice of the index to use in processing the query.

15. Which algorithm uses equality comparison on a key attribute a

with a primary index to retrieve a single record that satisfies
the corresponding equality condition.
a) A2
b) A4
c) A5
d) A6
Explanation: A2 – primary index, equality on key.

16. The strategy can retrieve a single record if the equality b

condition is on a key; multiple records may be retrieved if the
 indexing field is not a key is
a) A2
b) A4
c) A5
d) A6
Explanation: A4 – Secondary index, equality.

17. The algorithm that uses a secondary ordered index to guide d

retrieval for comparison conditions involving <,≤,≥, or > is
a) A2
b) A4
c) A5
d) A6
Explanation: A6 – Secondary index, comparison.

18. The ___ algorithm scans each index for pointers to tuples that C
satisfy an individual condition.
a) A2
b) A4
c) A9
d) A6
Explanation: A9 – Conjunctive selection by an intersection of
identifiers.

19. If access paths are available on all the conditions of a a

disjunctive selection, each index is scanned for pointers to
tuples that satisfy the individual condition. This is satisfied by
a) A10
b) A7
c) A9
d) A6
Explanation: A10 – Disjunctive selection by union of
identifiers.
20. Conjunctive selection using one index. This is b
a) A10
b) A7
c) A9
d) A6
Explanation: To reduce the cost of A7 we choose a i and one of
algorithms A1 through A6 for which the combination results in
the least cost for i (r ). The cost of algorithm A7 is given by the
cost of the chosen algorithm.
21. A ________ explores the space of all query evaluation plans a
that are equivalent to a given query.
a) Cost based optimizer
b) Space based optimizer
c) Time based optimizer
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: A cost based optimizer explores the space of all
query evaluation plans that are equivalent to a given query, and
chooses the one with the least estimated cost.
22. What is the disadvantage of cost based optimizers? a
a) It is too expensive
b) It is inefficient in producing results
c) It does not perform the desired function
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Cost based optimizers may be expensive as
exploring space of all possible plans might prove to be costly.
23. A particular sort order is said to be _________ sort order if it a
could be useful for a later operation.
a) Interesting
b) Reusable
c) Efficient
d) Good
Explanation: A particular sort order is said to be interesting-
sort order if it could be useful for a later operation.
24. 5. State true or false: Making multiple copies of the same sub- a
expressions must be avoided
a) True
b) False
 Explanation: For promoting space efficiency, making multiple
copies of the same sub-expressions must be avoided.

25. The join orders where the right operand of each join is in one b
of the initial relations are called as ________
a) Right deep join orders
b) Left deep join orders
c) Outer join orders
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The join orders where the right operand of each
join is in one of the initial relations are called as left deep join
orders.

26. Optimizers use __________ to reduce the cost of optimization. c

a) Analyzers
b) Statistics
c) Heuristics
d) Caches
Explanation: Cost based optimizers may be expensive as
exploring space of all possible plans might prove to be costly.
So, optimizers use heuristics to reduce the cost of optimization.
27. Caching and reuse of query plans is called as ________ b
a) Query caching
b) Plan caching
c) Plan memorizing
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Caching and reuse of query plans is called as plan
caching. It is used because the optimal plan for the new
constants may differ from the optimal plan for the initial
values.

28. What technique is used for the evaluation of a query with a c

nested sub query?
a) Caching
b) Decorrelated evaluation
 c) Correlated evaluation
d) Time based evaluation
Explanation: The technique used to evaluate a query with a
nested sub query is called as correlated evaluation. It is not
very efficient as a large number of I/O operations may occur.

29. The process of replacing a nested query with a query with a b

join is known as _________
a) Correlation
b) Decorrelation
c) Cache handling
d) Join replacement

Explanation: The process of replacing a nested query with a

query with a join is known as decorrelation. It is more
complicated when the nested sub query uses aggregate
functions inside it.

30. A view whose contents are computed and stored is called as c

_______
a) Storage view
b) Backup view
c) Materialized view
d) Advanced view
Explanation: A view whose contents are computed and stored
is called as a materialized view. I does not only store the query
defining the view.
31. The task of keeping a view up to date with the underlying data b
is called as ________
a) View handling
b) View maintenance
c) View management
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The task of keeping a view up to date with the
underlying data is called as view maintenance.
32. What are differentials in view management? d
a) The differences between relations
b) The changes made to a relation
c) The changes made to an expression
d) More than one of the mentioned
Explanation: The changes made to a relation or and expression
are known as differentials in materialized view management.
 PRIYADARSHINI COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING,
NAGPUR
B.TECH. Fourth Semester (Artificial Intelligence & Data
Science) (C.B.C.S.) Subject: DBMS
UNIT 5

Q. MCQ Correct
No. Option

1 Collections of operations that form a single logicalunit of work

are called
a) Views
D
b) Networks
c) Units
d) Transactions
Explanation: Collections of operations that form asingle
logical unit of work are called transactions. A database system
must ensure proper execution
of transactions. 2. The “all-or-

2
The “all-or-none” property is commonly referred
to as
C
a) Isolation
b) Durability
c) Atomicity
d) None of the mentioned
 Explanation: The all or none policy is commonly referred to
as atomicity. It ensures that a work is either completed or not
completed and there areno intermediate stages

3 Which of the following is a property oftransactions?

a) Atomicity
b) Durability
c) Isolation D

d) All of the mentioned View Answer Explanation:

Atomicity, Durability and Isolation are all properties of
transaction

4 Execution of translation in isolation preserves the

of a database
a) Atomicity
b) Consistency B

c) Durability
d) All of the mentioned View Answer Explanation:Execution
of translation in isolation preserves the consistency of a
database. It ensures that no
other transaction is running concurrently

5 Which of the following is not a property of atransaction?

 a) Atomicity B
b) Simplicity
c) Isolation
d) Durability
Explanation: Simplicity is not a property of a transaction.
Atomicity, Isolation, Durability are allparts of ACID
properties
6 Which of the following systems is responsible forensuring
durability?
a) Recovery system
b) Atomic system A
c) Concurrency control system
d) Compiler system
Explanation: The recovery system is responsible for the
maintenance of durability. In addition, it also ensures
atomicity

7 Which of the following systems is responsible forensuring

isolation?
a) Recovery system C
b) Atomic system
c) Concurrency control system
d) Compiler system
 Explanation: The concurrency control system isresponsible for
ensuring isolation in a database
system

8 State true or false: Information residing in the volatile

storage does not usually survive systemcrashes
a) True
b) False A
Explanation: Information residing in the volatile storage does
not usually survive system crashes but the information in
stable storage can survivesystem crashes efficiently

9 A transaction that has not been completedsuccessfully

is called as
a) Compensating transaction
b) Aborted transaction B
c) Active transaction
d) Partially committed transaction
Explanation: Aborted transaction is a state afterthe transaction
has been rolled back and the database has been restored to the
state prior to
the transaction

10 Which of the following is not a transaction state?

a) Active
b) Partially committed D
 c) Failed
d) Compensated
Explanation: Compensated is not a transaction state. But
active, partially committed and failedare different states of a
transaction.
11 The execution sequences in concurrency controlare termed
as B
a) Serials
b) Schedules
c) Organizations
d) Ti
Explanation: The execution sequences in concurrency control
are known as schedules

12 The scheme that controls the interaction betweenexecuting

transactions is called as a)
Concurrency control scheme
b) Multiprogramming scheme
c) Serialization scheme A
d) Schedule scheme
Explanation: The scheme that controls the interaction
between executing transactions iscalled as concurrency
control scheme

13 A transaction is delimited by statements (orfunction

calls) of the form
 a) Begin transaction and end transaction
b) Start transaction and stop transaction
c) Get transaction and post transaction A

d) Read transaction and write transaction

Explanation: The transaction consists of alloperations
executed between the begin transaction and end
transaction.
14 The database system must take special actions to ensure that
transactions operate properly withoutinterference from
concurrently executing database statements. This property is C
referred to as a) Atomicity
b) Durability
c) Isolation
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: Even though multiple transactions may execute
concurrently, the system guaranteesthat, for every pair of
transactions Ti and Tj, it appears to Ti that either Tj finished
execution before Ti started or Tj started execution after Ti
finished

15 The property of a transaction that persists all thecrashes is

a) Atomicity
 b) Durability B
c) IsolatioN
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: After a transaction completes successfully, the
changes it has made to the database persist, even if there are
system failures.
16 states that only valid data will bewritten
to the database.
a) Consistency
b) Atomicity A
c) Durability
d) Isolation
Explanation: If for some reason, a transaction is executed that
violates the database’s consistencyrules, the entire transaction
will be rolled back and the database will be restored to a state
consistent with those rules.

17
Transaction processing is associated witheverything
below except

a) Producing detail summary or exception reports

C
b) Recording a business activity
c) Confirming an action or triggering a response d)Maintaining
a data
 Explanation: Collections of operations that form asingle
logical unit of work are called transactions.
18
The Oracle RDBMS uses the statement to declare
a new transaction start and its properties.
a) BEGIN B

b) SET TRANSACTION
c) BEGIN TRANSACTION
d) COMMIT
Explanation: Commit is used to store all thetransaction

19
If a schedule S can be transformed into a schedule
S’ by a series of swaps of non-conflicting
instructions, then S and S’ are
C
a) Non conflict equivalent
b) Equal
c) Conflict equivalent
d) Isolation equivalent
Explanation: If a schedule S can be transformed
into a schedule S’ by a series of swaps of non-
conflicting instructions, then S and S’ are conflict
equivalent. Not all serial schedules are conflict
equivalent to each other
20
A schedule is if it is conflict
equivalent to a serial schedule.

a) Conflict serializable
A
b) Conflicting
c) Non serializable
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: A schedule is conflict serializable if itis conflict
equivalent to a serial schedule. The concept of conflict
equivalence leads to the
concept

21
The set of in a precedence graph consists of all
the transactions participating in theschedule

a) Vertices
A
b) Edges
c) Directions
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The set of vertices in a precedence graph consists
of all the transactions participatingin the schedule. Precedence
graph is a simple andefficient way of determining conflict
serializability
of the schedule
22
A of the transactions can be obtained by
finding a linear order consistent withthe partial order of the
precedence graph.

a) Serializability order A

b) Direction graph
c) Precedence graph
d) Scheduling scheme
Explanation: A Serializability order of the transactions can be
obtained by finding a linearorder consistent with the partial
order of the precedence graph. This process is called as
topological sorting.

23
State true or false: If I = read(Q) and J = read(Q)then the
order of I and J does not matter.
A
a) True
b) False
Explanation: If I = read(Q) and J = read(Q) then theorder of I
and J does not matter because both I
and J are read operations on the query

24
A lock that allows concurrent transactions to access different
rows of the same table is knownas a
D
a) Database-level lock
 b) Table-level lock
c) Page-level lock
d) Row-level lock
Explanation: Locks are used to maintain databaseconsistency

25
Which of the following protocols ensures conflict
serializability and safety from deadlocks?

a) Two-phase locking protocol

B
b) Time-stamp ordering protocol
c) Graph based protocol
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Time-stamp ordering protocol ensures
conflict serializability and safety fromdeadlocks

26
The lock allows concurrent transactions to access the same
row as long as they require the use of different fields within
that row.

a) Table-level
b) Page-level
c) Row-leveL
d) Field-level
27
Which of the following is a procedure for acquiring the
necessary locks for a transaction where all necessary locks are
acquired before anyare released?

a) Record controller D

b) Exclusive lock
c) Authorization rule
d) Two phase lock
Explanation: Two-phase lock is a procedure for acquiring the
necessary locks for a transaction where all necessary locks are
acquired before any
are released.

28
In order to reduce the overhead in retrieving therecords from
the storage space we use
B
a) Logs
b) Log buffer
c) Medieval space
d) Lower records
Explanation: The output to stable storage is inunits of
blocks
29
The order of log records in the stable storage
as the order in which they werewritten
to the log buffer.
A
a) Must be exactly the same
b) Can be different
c) Is opposite
d) Can be partially same
Explanation: As a result of log buffering, a log record may
reside in only main memory (volatile storage) for a considerable
time before it is output
to stable storage.

30
Before a block of data in main memory can be output to the
database, all log records pertainingto data in that block must
have been output to stable storage. This is C
a) Read-write logging
b) Read-ahead logging
c) Write-ahead
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The WAL rule requires only that theundo
information in the log has been output to stable storage, and it
permits the redo
information to be written later.
31
The policy, allows a transaction to
commit even if it has modified some blocks that have not yet
been written back to disk. B
a) Force
b) No-force
c) Steal
d) No-steal
Explanation: No-force policy allows faster commitof
transactions

32
Locks on buffer blocks are unrelated to locks usedfor
concurrency-control of transactions, and releasing them in a
non-two-phase manner does not have any implications on
transaction serializability. This is
A
a) Latches
b) Swap Space
c) Dirty Block
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: These locks, and other similar locksthat are
held for a short duration.

33
The subsystem responsible for the allocation ofbuffer space
is called as
 a. Buffer allocator
b.Buffer manager
c.Buffer enhance
d. Buffer intermediary

34
The is the fastest and most costly formof
storage, which is relatively small; its use is managed by the
computer system hardware.

a. Cache
b. Disk
c.Main memory

d. Flash memory

35
The flash memory storage used are

a. NOR Flash
b. OR Flash
c.AND Flash d. All of the mentioned
36
The primary medium for the long-term onlinestorage of
data is the where the
entire database is stored on magnetic disk. a.
Semiconductor memory b. Magnetic disks c.Compact
disks

d. Magnetic tapes
 Optical disk systems contain a few drives and
numerous disks that can be loaded into one ofthe drives
automatically (by a robot arm) on demand.

a. Tape Storage
b. Jukebox c.Flash
memory
d. All of mentioned

37
Which function is used to return a handle to thedatabase?

a) prepareDatabase()
b) showDocCount()
A
c) executeSql()
d) openDatabase()
Explanation: prepareDatabase() function is used to return a
handle to database. It is necessary to first create the database.
showDocCount() showsthe real work after creating the
database. Syntaxof calling a JavaScript function is: function
prepareDatabase(ready, error).

38
openDatabase() method does not take theargument in D
 a) database name
b) display name
c) database version
d) server name
Explanation: openDatabase() and openDatabaseSync()
methods takes the name ofthe database, version of the
database, display name, estimated size in bytes of the data
that is to be stored in the database. openDtabase() method
works on WorkerUtils and Window,
openDatabaseSync() method works

39
Which error is invoked when
SQLTransactionCallback does not execute?

a) INVALID_ACCESS_ERR \
D
b) UNKNOWN_ERR
c) TIMEOUT_ERR
d) INVALID_STATE_ERR View
Explanation: When SQLTransactionCallback,
SQLStatementErrorCallback, SQLStatementCallback does not
execute then INVALID_STATE_ERR error is raised. This
error is
raised from inside a SQLTransactionErrorCallback.
40
Which object is created for read-only transaction?
a) Foo object
b) SQLTransactionSync B

c) DatabaseSync object
d) SQLTransaction
Explanation: For read-only transaction, we createthe object
SQLTransactionSync. If the first argument is NULL then we
throw SQLException which is Error code 0.

41 Which of the following is known as the process ofviewing

cross-tab with a fixed value of one attribute?

a) Dicing
b) Pivoting
c) Slicing
d) Both Pivoting and Dicing:
Explanation: Slice procedure takes one dimension from a cube
and turns it into a new sub-cube. Dice takes two or more
dimensions from a cube and
creates a new sub-cube from them.
42
Which of the error is raised when the quantity ofdata is too
much?
A
a) TOO_LARGE_ERR
b) UNKNOWN_ERR
c) TIMEOUT_ERR
d) QUOTA_ERR
Explanation: When the quantity of the data returned from the
database is very large then TOO_LARGE_ERR is invoked. To
minimize the datawe can use SQL “LIMIT” i.e. modifier to
reduce the
size of the resultant se

What is the required argument to openDatabase?

a) version number
A
b) database name
c) size of a database
d) text description
Explanation: The required argument to openDatabase is
version number. So it is mandatory that you should know the
version number before we try to open the database. If wedo not
pass this argument then an exception is
thrown
43
Which of the following represents a query in thetuple relational
calculus?
B
a) { }{P(t) | t }

b) {t | P(t)}
c) t | P() | t
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: A nonprocedural query language isthe tuple
relational calculus. It specifies the needed information but
does not provide a
detailed strategy for obtaining it.

44
The logical design, and the snapshot of the data ata given
instant in time is known as?

a) Instance & Relation

D
b) Relation & Schema
c) Domain & Schema
d) Schema & Instance
Explanation: Instance is an instance of time, the relation is
also known as table consists of data with similar
characteristics, Domain is the collection of values that an
attribute can contain
and schema is a representation.
45
Which of the following functions constructhistograms and use
buckets for ranking?
A
a) Ntil()
b) Newtil()
c) Rank()
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: ntile(n) returns the number of the bucket in which
each tuple is stored, with bucket
numbers beginning with 1

46
command is used in SQL to issue multipleCREATE
TABLE, CREATE VIEW and GRANT
statements in a single transaction. C
a) CREATE CLUSTER
b) CREATE PACKAGE
c) CREATE SCHEMA
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: A schema is a description of a system’s structure
in a formal language supportedby the database management
system, and it refers to data organization as a blueprint for how
a db is built
47
Which of the following key is required in to handlethe data
when the encryption is applied to the data so that the
unauthorised user cannot access the data?

a) Primary key D

b) Authorised key
c) Encryption key
d) Decryption key
Explanation: The encryption key is used to encryptthe message.
Even if the message is intercepted by an enemy, the enemy will
be unable to decryptand interpret the message because he lacks
the
key