2022 AAP In-Service Examination

** No scenario **

Overall Sequence: 1, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 1, Item ID: 1070, Scenario ID:
0 Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

PDL fibroblasts are cells originating from:

a. endoderm.
b. enamel organ.
c. ectomesenchyme.
d. reduced enamel epithelium.
Overall Sequence: 2, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 2, Item ID: 4626, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

Muscles of mastication are derived from which pharyngeal arch?

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Overall Sequence: 3, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 3, Item ID: 6280, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

Which structure must be displaced to allow for fusion of the lateral palatal shelves to occur?
a. Uvula
b. Tongue
c. Primary palate
d. Nasal conchae
Overall Sequence: 4, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 4, Item ID: 8128, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

In the developing tooth, what separates the dental follicle from the dental papilla?
a. Enamel organ
b. Dental lamina
c. Oral epithelium
d. Reduced enamel epithelium
Overall Sequence: 5, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 5, Item ID: 6793, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

The amount of collagen in a tissue can be determined by its _____ content.

a. glycine
b. proline
c. hydroxylysine
d. hydroxyproline
Overall Sequence: 6, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 6, Item ID: 7157, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

The _____ fibers are associated with post-retention relapse of orthodontically positioned teeth.
a. oblique
b. horizontal
c. transseptal
d. dentoperiosteal
Overall Sequence: 7, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 7, Item ID: 7160, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

The largest mass of lymphoid tissue in the oral cavity is found in the:
a. floor of the mouth.
b. mucosa of the soft palate.
c. ventral surface of the tongue.
d. posterior part of the oral cavity.
Overall Sequence: 8, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 8, Item ID: 6900016, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

According to Everett (1958), intermediate bifurcation ridges were noted in ______% of mandibular first molars.

a. 53
b. 63
c. 73
Overall Sequence: 9, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 9, Item ID: 11300190, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

Cementum is similar to alveolar bone proper in that it has:

a. vasculature.
b. innervation.
c. Sharpey's fibers.
Overall Sequence: 10, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 10, Item ID: 11300191, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

Enamel contains ____% of organic matrix.

a. 1
b. 25
c. 75
d. 99
Overall Sequence: 11, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 11, Item ID: 11300192, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

The main collagen type in the PDL is:

a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
Overall Sequence: 12, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 12, Item ID: 11500008, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

The dendritic processes of osteocytes communicate with neighboring osteocytes via:

a. canaliculi.
b. Haversian canals.
c. Volkmann's canals.
Overall Sequence: 13, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 13, Item ID: 11500009, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

Compared to junctional epithelium, the sulcular epithelium is _____ permeable.

a. more
b. equally
c. less
Overall Sequence: 14, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 14, Item ID: 11500010, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

Which papillae of the tongue contain functional taste buds?

a. Filiform and foliate

b. Filiform and fungiform
c. Foliate and circumvallate
d. Circumvallate and fungiform
Overall Sequence: 15, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 15, Item ID: 1907, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

What muscle separates the sublingual and submandibular spaces?

a. Buccinator
b. Mylohyoid
c. Lateral pterygoid
d. Medial pterygoid
Overall Sequence: 16, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 16, Item ID: 6325, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

What nerve does an infraorbital block anesthetize?

a. Lacrimal
b. Zygomaticofacial
c. Middle superior alveolar
d. Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal
Overall Sequence: 17, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 17, Item ID: 6794, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

Which muscle is activated when opening the mouth?

a. Masseter
b. Temporalis
c. Medial pterygoid
d. Anterior digastric
Overall Sequence: 18, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 18, Item ID: 6798, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

All of the following bones form the orbit EXCEPT the:

a. ethmoid.
b. maxillary.
c. sphenoid.
d. temporal.
Overall Sequence: 19, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 19, Item ID: 11300186, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

All intrinsic muscles of the tongue are supplied by the _____ artery.

a. facial
b. lingual
c. sublingual
Overall Sequence: 20, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 20, Item ID: 11300187, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

The motor innervation of all intrinsic tongue muscles is from the _____ nerve.

a. pharyngeal
b. hypoglossal
c. glossopharyngeal
Overall Sequence: 21, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 21, Item ID: 11300188, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

The main blood supply to all teeth and supporting structures is derived from the _____ artery.

a. facial
b. lingual
c. maxillary
Overall Sequence: 22, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 22, Item ID: 11300189, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

The parotid gland is mainly a _____ gland.

a. serous
b. mucous
c. seromucous
Overall Sequence: 23, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 23, Item ID: 11500021, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

Studies of the edentulous anterior maxilla have shown that the nasopalatine canal _____ during ridge resorption.

a. shrinks
b. enlarges
c. migrates apically
d. remains unchanged
Overall Sequence: 24, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 24, Item ID: 11500023, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.A. Embryology and Anatomy

The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve exits the cranial fossa through the foramen:

a. ovale.
b. magnum.
c. spinosum.
d. rotundum.
Overall Sequence: 25, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 25, Item ID: 6454, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.F. Biostatistics, Experimental Design and Data Analysis

A survey of a population at a single point in time defines:

a. cohort studies.
b. case-control studies.
c. cross-sectional studies.
d. randomized controlled trials.
Overall Sequence: 26, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 26, Item ID: 10800002, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.F. Biostatistics, Experimental Design and Data Analysis

The _____ of a test is the proportion of subjects without the disease who test negative.

a. specificity
b. sensitivity
c. positive predictive value
d. negative predictive value
Overall Sequence: 27, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 27, Item ID: 10800023, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.F. Biostatistics, Experimental Design and Data Analysis

The number of new cases of a disease within a specified time period is referred to as the:

a. extent.
b. severity.
c. incidence.
d. prevalence.
Overall Sequence: 28, Item Group: 1, Sequence in Group: 28, Item ID: 10800024, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.F. Biostatistics, Experimental Design and Data Analysis

The probability that an outcome would occur by chance is known as the:

a. p-value.
b. specificity.
c. sensitivity.
d. kappa value.
Overall Sequence: 29, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 1, Item ID: 3783, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Cleavage of the N and C terminals of the procollagen molecule occurs in the:

a. nucleus.
b. cytoplasm.
c. extracellular space.
d. endoplasmic reticulum.
Overall Sequence: 30, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 2, Item ID: 4658, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Collagen is synthesized within the endoplasmic reticulum as:

a. procollagen.
b. tropocollagen.
c. protocollagen.
d. preprocollagen.
Overall Sequence: 31, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 3, Item ID: 4664, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Which protein is an inhibitor of osteoclast differentiation?

a. OPG
b. Osteonectin
c. Osteopontin
d. Bone sialoprotein
Overall Sequence: 32, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 4, Item ID: 12800004, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

What is the predominant glycosaminoglycan found in alveolar bone?

a. Hyaluronic acid
b. Heparan sulfate
c. Dermatan sulfate
d. Chondroitin sulfate
Overall Sequence: 33, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 5, Item ID: 4227, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

The main function of tight junctions is to:

a. transmit regulatory signaling.

b. prevent leakage between cells.
c. promote transport between cells.
d. transmit mechanical force signaling.
Overall Sequence: 34, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 6, Item ID: 5823, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

What amino acid is a precursor for melanin?

a. Tyrosine
b. Threonine
c. Methionine
d. Tryptophan
Overall Sequence: 35, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 7, Item ID: 1001, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Which protein is directly responsible for tumor suppression, repair of damaged DNA, and apoptosis in strategic
checkpoints of the cell cycle?

a. p53
b. TGF-β
c. Cyclin A
d. Cyclin D
Overall Sequence: 36, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 8, Item ID: 1005, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Which formation represents a common example of secondary structure in proteins?

a. Chevron plot
b. Double helix
c. G-quadruplex
d. β-pleated sheet
Overall Sequence: 37, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 9, Item ID: 7195, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

In wound re-epithelialization, what clears a path for basal keratinocytes to migrate through a fibrin clot?
a. Plasmin
b. Heparin
c. Troponin
d. Thrombin
Overall Sequence: 38, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 10, Item ID: 7199, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Following tissue injury, the immediate physiologic response is:

a. vasoconstriction.
b. platelet activation.
c. margination of leukocytes.
d. complement cascade activation.
Overall Sequence: 39, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 11, Item ID: 7201, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Growth factors are biochemically classified as _____ molecules.

a. polylipid
b. polypeptide
c. polynucleoside
d. polysaccharide
Overall Sequence: 40, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 12, Item ID: 11200008, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Which is NOT part of the cyclooxygenase pathway?

a. Prostacyclins
b. Leukotrienes
c. Thromboxanes
d. Prostaglandins
Overall Sequence: 41, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 13, Item ID: 11200009, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

What will MOST likely occur when fibrin clot formation is disrupted during the healing phase of GTR?

a. Ankylosis
b. Reattachment
c. LJE attachment
Overall Sequence: 42, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 14, Item ID: 11200014, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

rhPDGF-BB primarily enhances:

a. osteogenesis.
b. angiogenesis.
c. cementogenesis.
Overall Sequence: 43, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 15, Item ID: 12800021, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

All of the following ligands bind to the receptor tyrosine kinase superfamily EXCEPT:
a. EGF.
b. IGF.
c. PDGF.
d. cortisol.
Overall Sequence: 44, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 16, Item ID: 12800022, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

What hormone facilitates active calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract?
a. Calcitonin
b. Aldosterone
c. Cholecalciferol
d. Parathyroid hormone
Overall Sequence: 45, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 17, Item ID: 3851, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Fibrinogen is enzymatically converted to fibrin by:

a. plasmin.
b. thrombin.
c. factor Xa.
d. factor VII.
Overall Sequence: 46, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 18, Item ID: 8497, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

The approximate lifespan of a platelet is ______ days.

a. 4
b. 10
c. 16
d. 22
Overall Sequence: 47, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 19, Item ID: 8515, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

The Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors include all EXCEPT:

a. II.
b. VII.
c. IX.
d. XI.
Overall Sequence: 48, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 20, Item ID: 8702, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

The cardioprotective effect of low-dose aspirin may be negated by co-administration of which medication?
a. Ibuprofen (Advil®)
b. Metoprolol (Lopressor®)
c. Acetaminophen (Tylenol®)
d. Hydrochlorothiazide (Diuril®)
Overall Sequence: 49, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 21, Item ID: 4165, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

The first phase of the action potential is produced by:

a. closing of sodium channels.

b. opening of sodium channels.
c. closing of potassium channels.
d. opening of potassium channels.
Overall Sequence: 50, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 22, Item ID: 8533, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is a neurotransmitter with _____ activity.

a. presynaptic and inhibitory
b. postsynaptic and inhibitory
c. presynaptic and excitatory
d. postsynaptic and excitatory
Overall Sequence: 51, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 23, Item ID: 11900020, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

What cranial nerve is associated with syncope?

a. VII
b. VIII
c. IX
d. X
Overall Sequence: 52, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 24, Item ID: 5096, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Which hormone is secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone
d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Overall Sequence: 53, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 25, Item ID: 5866, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Which enzyme plays a key role in the biosynthesis of naturally occurring estrogens?
a. Aromatase
b. Androgenase
c. 5-α-reductase
d. Sulfotransferase
Overall Sequence: 54, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 26, Item ID: 6869, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Erythropoietin is released by the kidneys primarily in response to:

a. an elevated hematocrit.
b. an elevated plasma iron concentration.
c. a decrease in plasma CO2 concentration.
d. a decrease in plasma oxygen concentration.
Overall Sequence: 55, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 27, Item ID: 7228, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

A decrease in blood glucose generally results in pancreatic secretion of:

a. gastrin.
b. insulin.
c. glucagon.
d. somatostatin.
Overall Sequence: 56, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 28, Item ID: 7234, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Complete removal of the _____ gland will result in absolute loss of calcitonin production.
a. thyroid
b. adrenal
c. pituitary
d. parathyroid
Overall Sequence: 57, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 29, Item ID: 6867, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone signaling pathway results in increased:

a. water excretion.
b. sodium reabsorption.
c. bradykinin production.
d. potassium conservation.
Overall Sequence: 58, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 30, Item ID: 7237, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

What salivary protein is a hydrolytic enzyme involved in the breakdown of polysaccharides?

a. Mucin
b. Amylase
c. Lactoferrin
d. Muramidase
Overall Sequence: 59, Item Group: 2, Sequence in Group: 31, Item ID: 8665, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.B. Biochemistry-Physiology

Which metal is an essential trace element?

a. Copper
b. Bismuth
c. Cadmium
d. Beryllium
Overall Sequence: 60, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 1, Item ID: 13200025, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Which is a degradative enzyme secreted by P. gingivalis that plays an important role in modulating host immune
responses?

a. Caspase
b. Cysteine protease
c. Deoxyribonuclease
d. Alkaline phosphatase
Overall Sequence: 61, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 2, Item ID: 13200024, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Which is a key protective function of the biofilm matrix?

a. Spacing
b. Quenching
c. Scaffolding
d. Quorum sensing
Overall Sequence: 62, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 3, Item ID: 13200032, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Which is a virulence factor of P. gingivalis?

a. Defensin
b. Gingipain
c. Lysosome
d. Lipoteichoic acid
Overall Sequence: 63, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 4, Item ID: 13200033, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What virulence factor becomes activated by binding to β2 integrin lymphocyte function-associated antigen-1
(LFA-1)?

a. Esterase
b. Leukotoxin
c. Collagenase
d. Lipopolysaccharide
Overall Sequence: 64, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 5, Item ID: 13200034, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

According to Heyman et al. (2020), implants have an impact on oral mucosal homeostasis, inducing periodontal
bone loss in a _____- specific manner.

a. time
b. virus
c. niche
d. bacteria
Overall Sequence: 65, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 6, Item ID: 13200036, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What type of virus is SARS-CoV-2?

a. Single-stranded RNA
b. Double-stranded RNA
c. Single-stranded DNA
d. Double-stranded DNA
Overall Sequence: 66, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 7, Item ID: 11600049, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

In the herpesvirus-P. gingivalis-periodontitis axis, which is most strongly associated with elevated levels of
putative periodontal pathogens?

a. Coxsackie virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Varicella-Zoster virus
d. Human herpesvirus-8
Overall Sequence: 67, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 8, Item ID: 13200020, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What is the main component of cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria?

a. β-lactamase
b. Endopeptidase
c. Lipoteichoic acid
d. Lipopolysaccharide
Overall Sequence: 68, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 9, Item ID: 13200028, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What subgingival bacterium is considered a bridging species?

a. T. forsythia
b. P. gingivalis
c. T. denticola
d. F. nucleatum
Overall Sequence: 69, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 10, Item ID: 5109, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

All of the following periodontal pathogens invade oral epithelial tissues EXCEPT:
a. T. denticola.
b. P. gingivalis.
c. E. corrodens.
d. A. actinomycetemcomitans.
Overall Sequence: 70, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 11, Item ID: 11600031, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What structure in an immunoglobulin activates the complement system?

a. Fc
b. Fab
c. Light chain
d. Hinge region
Overall Sequence: 71, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 12, Item ID: 11600043, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Which bacterial component mediates adherence to the host cell surface?

a. Cilia
b. Fimbria
c. Flagella
d. Plasmid
Overall Sequence: 72, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 13, Item ID: 13200040, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What is the role of prokaryotic viruses (bacteriophages) in periodontal diseases?

a. Change matrix structure

b. Decrease biofilm thickness
c. Increase biofilm complexity
d. Simplify bacterial composition
Overall Sequence: 73, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 14, Item ID: 13200038, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Of the COVID-19 vaccines authorized by the FDA, which type is the most commonly used?

a. Vector
b. mRNA
c. Toxoid
d. Attenuated
Overall Sequence: 74, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 15, Item ID: 13200016, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Which adhesion molecule is important in tethering and rolling of circulatory neutrophils on the endothelial wall?

a. Selectin
b. Vitronectin
c. Fibronectin
Overall Sequence: 75, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 16, Item ID: 13200017, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What is a main neutrophil chemoattractant released by gingival epithelial cells when exposed to periodontal
pathogens?

a. IL-1
b. IL-6
c. IL-8
d. IL-10
Overall Sequence: 76, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 17, Item ID: 5492, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

How many antigen-binding sites are there in an IgG molecule?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 10
Overall Sequence: 77, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 18, Item ID: 6894, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Recognition of LPS released by periodontal pathogens is mainly associated with:

a. TLR-3.
b. TLR-4.
c. TLR-6.
d. TLR-8.
Overall Sequence: 78, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 19, Item ID: 11600028, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What initiates the assembly of the membrane attack complex?

a. C3a
b. C3b
c. C5a
d. C5b
Overall Sequence: 79, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 20, Item ID: 11800059, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

The isotypes of immunoglobulins are defined by the:

a. light chain C region.

b. light chain V region.
c. heavy chain C region.
d. heavy chain V region.
Overall Sequence: 80, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 21, Item ID: 13200037, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

According to Marouf et al. (2021), COVID-19 patients with periodontitis have higher levels of circulatory _____
as compared to non-periodontitis patients.

a. CRP
b. HbA1c
c. Vitamin D
d. Lymphocytes
Overall Sequence: 81, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 22, Item ID: 11800012, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Th1 cells primarily secrete _____ that is responsible for cell-mediated immunity to intracellular pathogens.

a. IL-1
b. IL-6
c. IFN-γ
d. TNF-α
Overall Sequence: 82, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 23, Item ID: 12900016, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Which is a cell involved in the adaptive immune system?

a. NK cell
b. Neutrophil
c. Lymphocyte
d. Macrophage
Overall Sequence: 83, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 24, Item ID: 13200009, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What is the role of Th17 lymphocytes in periodontal disease progression?

a. Release IL-10 and TGF

b. Promote bone resorption
c. Induce effector T cell activation
Overall Sequence: 84, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 25, Item ID: 11800064, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What characterizes the resolution of inflammation by resolvins?

a. Increased neutrophil apoptosis

b. Increased neutrophil infiltration
c. Reduced macrophage bacterial clearance
d. Reduced antigen presentation by dendritic cells
Overall Sequence: 85, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 26, Item ID: 13200006, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

What are the antimicrobial proteins within gingival epithelium that play a key role against periodontal
pathogens?

a. Lectins
b. Adhesins
c. Integrins
d. Defensins
Overall Sequence: 86, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 27, Item ID: 13200014, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Which MMP is mainly involved in collagen type I destruction?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 7
d. 8
Overall Sequence: 87, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 28, Item ID: 4298, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

All of the following are mediators of bone resorption EXCEPT:

a. IL-1.
b. IL-6.
c. TNF-a.
d. TGF-β.
Overall Sequence: 88, Item Group: 3, Sequence in Group: 29, Item ID: 13200042, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.C. Microbiology and Immunology

Dental plaque affects RANKL and OPG interaction by:

a. upregulating RANKL.
b. downregulating OPG.
c. activating osteoblasts.
Overall Sequence: 89, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 1, Item ID: 13300009, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Keles Yucel et al. (2020), levels of salivary aMMP-8 in individuals with gingivitis are _____
compared to healthy controls.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 90, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 2, Item ID: 13300013, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Goodson (2020), obese children with gingivitis have a ____ concentration of hydroxyproline in
saliva than obese children without gingivitis.

a. significantly higher
b. similar
c. significantly lower
Overall Sequence: 91, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 3, Item ID: 13300015, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Page and Schroeder (1976), the established lesion occurs _____ days after the beginning of plaque
accumulation.

a. 2-4
b. 4-7
c. 8-12
d. 14-21
Overall Sequence: 92, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 4, Item ID: 5504, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Four to six weeks after quitting smoking, gingival bleeding:

a. increases.
b. remains unchanged.
c. decreases.
Overall Sequence: 93, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 5, Item ID: 5906, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Gingival bleeding in patients with diabetes is most influenced by the:

a. type of diabetes.
b. duration of diabetes.
c. diabetes medications.
d. level of metabolic control.
Overall Sequence: 94, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 6, Item ID: 6913, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Which hormone has a major effect on gingival vasculature and the production of inflammatory mediators?
a. Testosterone
b. Progesterone
c. Parathyroid hormone
Overall Sequence: 95, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 7, Item ID: 6917, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

The modern formulations of oral contraceptives _____ the risk of developing gingival inflammation.

a. increase
b. do not influence
c. decrease
Overall Sequence: 96, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 8, Item ID: 9067, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

A possible mechanism of action of cyclosporine in the development of drug-induced gingival enlargement is that
it:

a. inhibits intracellular calcium influx.

b. increases vascularity of the lamina propria.
c. decreases production of sulfated mucopolysaccharides.
Overall Sequence: 97, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 9, Item ID: 10400058, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Scannapieco and Gershovich (2020), there is _____ evidence to support the use of probiotics in the
treatment of gingivitis.

a. strong
b. moderate
c. weak
Overall Sequence: 98, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 10, Item ID: 3604, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Hirschfeld and Wasserman (1978), which tooth is LEAST likely to be lost from periodontal
disease?
a. Maxillary incisor
b. Maxillary canine
c. Mandibular canine
d. Mandibular first premolar
Overall Sequence: 99, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 11, Item ID: 5158, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

What is the most common crystal form of calculus?

a. Brushite
b. Hydroxyapatite
c. Magnesium whitlockite
d. Octacalcium phosphate
Overall Sequence: 100, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 12, Item ID: 5523, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

A. actinomycetemcomitans serotype A is in which bacterial complex?

a. Red
b. Green
c. Orange
d. Purple
Overall Sequence: 101, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 13, Item ID: 6405, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Which factor accounts for most of the variance in IgG2 levels in families with what was formerly known as
aggressive periodontitis?
a. Race
b. Heritability
c. Tobacco use
Overall Sequence: 102, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 14, Item ID: 6922, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Martinez-Canut et al. (1997), the prevalence of pathologic tooth migration in periodontitis patients
is approximately:
a. 16%.
b. 36%.
c. 56%.
d. 76%.
Overall Sequence: 103, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 15, Item ID: 7298, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

In a cohort of treated aggressive periodontitis patients followed over six years, Dopico et al. (2016) found _____
to be associated with tooth loss.
a. mobility
b. bleeding
c. suppuration
d. PD > 6mm
Overall Sequence: 104, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 16, Item ID: 10200028, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

The appearance of _____ signals the resolution of inflammation.

a. IL-6
b. IL-8
c. RANKL
d. lipoxins
Overall Sequence: 105, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 17, Item ID: 10200030, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Masters and Hoskins (1964), the highest prevalence of cervical enamel projections was seen in the
_____ molars.

a. facial of maxillary
b. palatal of maxillary
c. facial of mandibular
d. lingual of mandibular
Overall Sequence: 106, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 18, Item ID: 11300020, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Canis et al. (1979) observed all of the following modes of calculus attachment EXCEPT:

a. attachment by secondary cuticle.

b. direct attachment of calculus matrix.
c. penetration of organisms into cementum.
d. mechanical locking into cementum resorption undercuts.
Overall Sequence: 107, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 19, Item ID: 11300111, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Hyperglycemia leads to the irreversible formation of ______ that have a direct pro-inflammatory and pro-
oxidant effect on cells.

a. CRP
b. AGEs
c. RAGEs
d. glycosylated hemoglobin
Overall Sequence: 108, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 20, Item ID: 12400077, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to a 26-year longitudinal study by Heitz-Mayfield et al. (2003), the majority of sites with attachment
loss in compliant male subjects ≤ 40 years of age was in the form of:

a. pocket formation.
b. gingival recession.
c. a combination of gingival recession and pocket formation.
Overall Sequence: 109, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 21, Item ID: 12400078, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

What pathology is indicated by the arrow?

a. Calculus
b. Root fracture
c. Cemental tear
d. Endo-perio lesion
Overall Sequence: 110, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 22, Item ID: 12400080, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Harrel and Nunn (2004), the presence of occlusal discrepancies results in _________ levels of
gingival recession compared to areas without discrepancies.

a. increased
b. similar
c. decreased
Overall Sequence: 111, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 23, Item ID: 12400081, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Microbial dysbiosis can manifest as all of the following EXCEPT a(n):

a. expansion of pathobionts.
b. decrease in beneficial species.
c. increased number of symbionts.
Overall Sequence: 112, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 24, Item ID: 12400091, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Berglundh and Donati (2005), the most common cell type in periodontitis lesions is the:

a. PMN.
b. B cell.
c. plasma cell.
d. macrophage.
Overall Sequence: 113, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 25, Item ID: 12400092, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Tal (1984), intrabony pockets were frequently associated with interproximal distances greater than
_______ mm.

a. 0.5
b. 1.2
c. 2.0
d. 2.6
Overall Sequence: 114, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 26, Item ID: 6935, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Necrotizing gingivitis is most commonly located in the:

a. anterior maxilla.
b. posterior maxilla.
c. anterior mandible.
d. posterior mandible.
Overall Sequence: 115, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 27, Item ID: 6936, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

The drug of choice in treating patients with necrotizing periodontal disease is:

a. tetracycline HCl.
b. metronidazole (Flagyl®).
c. azithromycin (Zithromax®).
Overall Sequence: 116, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 28, Item ID: 2981, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Pericoronitis is a local accumulation of _____ within the overlying gingival flap surrounding the crown of a
partially erupted tooth.
a. plaque
b. exudate
c. red blood cells
Overall Sequence: 117, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 29, Item ID: 11300047, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Herrera et al. (2000), what was the main etiologic factor for the development of a periodontal
abscess in non-periodontitis cases?

a. Pathogenic bacteria
b. Subgingival calculus
c. Overhanging restoration
d. Impacted foreign object
Overall Sequence: 118, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 30, Item ID: 12400069, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Molecular defects in the basement membrane that could predispose individuals to periodontitis is seen in which
condition?

a. Gaucher disease
b. Epidermolysis bullosa
c. Papillon Lefèvre syndrome
d. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome
Overall Sequence: 119, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 31, Item ID: 11300079, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

Safioti et al. (2017) found increased levels of titanium particles in peri-implantitis lesions. The proposed
mechanism was:

a. improper instrumentation.
b. excessive insertion torque.
c. dissolution of implant surface.
Overall Sequence: 120, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 32, Item ID: 11300179, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Isler et al. (2019), thin tissue biotype is _____ correlated with the severity of peri-implantitis
compared to thick tissue biotype.

a. positively
b. not
c. negatively
Overall Sequence: 121, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 33, Item ID: 12400083, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

According to Yi et al. (2020), a greater prevalence of peri-implantitis was observed when the emergence angle of
the prosthesis was ≥ _______ degrees.

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
Overall Sequence: 122, Item Group: 4, Sequence in Group: 34, Item ID: 12400086, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.D. Periodontal Etiology and Pathogenesis

In a histopathologic study by Wilson et al. (2015), the predominant foreign body particles found in the soft tissue
biopsies of peri-implantitis lesions were:

a. silicon.
b. titanium.
c. zirconium.
d. aluminum.
Overall Sequence: 123, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 1, Item ID: 11600087, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

An _____effect occurs when a medication binds to a separate ligand on a receptor site and modifies the receptor
response.

a. inverse
b. agonistic
c. allosteric
d. antagonistic
Overall Sequence: 124, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 2, Item ID: 11600156, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

A drug must _____ to readily penetrate the blood-brain barrier.

a. be hydrophilic
b. be lipid soluble
c. have high polarity
d. have a high molecular weight
Overall Sequence: 125, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 3, Item ID: 11600081, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Adding potassium clavulanate to a penicillin-based antibiotic increases resistance to _____ produced by

bacteria.

a. β-lactamase
b. transpeptidases
c. penicillin-binding proteins
Overall Sequence: 126, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 4, Item ID: 11900120, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Photosensitivity is a known adverse reaction associated with:

a. doxycycline.
b. amoxicillin (Amoxil®).
c. clindamycin (Cleocin®).
d. metronidazole (Flagyl®).
Overall Sequence: 127, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 5, Item ID: 11900038, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Unvaccinated members of the dental team are ____ times more likely to become infected with the hepatitis B
virus than the general population.

a. 2-5
b. 12-15
c. 22-25
Overall Sequence: 128, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 6, Item ID: 11900040, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

A formulation of fluoride that is anti-gingivitis, anti-cariogenic, and desensitizing is _____ fluoride.

a. sodium
b. stannous
c. silver diamine
d. acidulated phosphate
Overall Sequence: 129, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 7, Item ID: 11600114, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which is considered a true mandibular block technique, offering sensory anesthesia to the majority of V3
distribution?

a. Incisive nerve block

b. Gow-Gates nerve block
c. Vazirani-Akinosi nerve block
d. Halstead approach (infraorbital nerve block)
Overall Sequence: 130, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 8, Item ID: 11600115, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which is an amide-type anesthetic?

a. Procaine
b. Prilocaine
c. Tetracaine
d. Benzocaine
Overall Sequence: 131, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 9, Item ID: 11900121, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

The most common paresthesia following dental anesthesia involves the ____ nerve.

a. lingual
b. greater palatine
c. inferior alveolar
d. posterior superior alveolar
Overall Sequence: 132, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 10, Item ID: 7337, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease because it:
a. induces hyperkalemia.
b. induces hyperventilation.
c. reduces respiratory acidosis.
d. reduces hypoxic drive for respiration.
Overall Sequence: 133, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 11, Item ID: 6400022, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which is most likely to increase the incidence of post-operative nausea and vomiting?

a. Propofol (Diprivan®)
b. Midazolam (Versed®)
c. Fentanyl (Sublimaze®)
d. Dexamethasone (Decadron®)
Overall Sequence: 134, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 12, Item ID: 11600121, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

When bound to the the μ-opioid receptor, naloxone HCl (Narcan®) acts as a:

a. complete agonist.
b. complete antagonist.
c. mixed agonist/antagonist.
Overall Sequence: 135, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 13, Item ID: 11600137, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which condition routinely occurs after intravenous administration of an opioid?

a. Dyspnea
b. Tachypnea
c. Orthopnea
d. Bradypnea
Overall Sequence: 136, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 14, Item ID: 11600129, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Celecoxib (Celebrex®) is classified as a _____ inhibitor.

a. selective COX-1
b. selective COX-2
c. non-selective COX
Overall Sequence: 137, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 15, Item ID: 11600162, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which is a complete opioid agonist?

a. Tramadol (Ultram®)
b. Naltrexone (Revia®)
c. Butorphanol (Stadol®)
d. Methadone (Dolophine®)
Overall Sequence: 138, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 16, Item ID: 11900055, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

A potential complicating factor for venipuncture in the antecubital fossa is that the _____ vein lies directly over
the median nerve, ulnar artery, and radial artery.

a. lateral basilic
b. medial basilic
c. lateral cephalic
d. median cephalic
Overall Sequence: 139, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 17, Item ID: 11900097, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

According to ADA guidelines for sedation monitoring, which is NOT one of the functions that must be
continually assessed?

a. Circulation
b. Temperature
c. Oxygenation
d. Consciousness
Overall Sequence: 140, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 18, Item ID: 11900122, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

The only monitor used during sedation that can detect fluids in the airway is the:

a. pulse oximeter.
b. electrocardiogram.
c. blood pressure cuff.
d. precordial stethoscope.
Overall Sequence: 141, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 19, Item ID: 7346, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which class of antianginal drugs works by reducing the rate and contractility of the heart, thus reducing energy
and oxygen demand of the heart?
a. Nitrates/nitrites
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. ß-adrenergic receptor blockers
Overall Sequence: 142, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 20, Item ID: 7348, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

A possible adverse event following administration of anti-hypertensive medications is:

a. syncope.
b. tachycardia.
c. oversedation.
d. hypoglycemia.
Overall Sequence: 143, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 21, Item ID: 6400034, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Which drug selectively inhibits thrombin (factor IIa)?

a. Apixaban (Eliquis®)
b. Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)
c. Rivaroxaban (Xarelto®)
d. Warfarin sodium (Coumadin®)
Overall Sequence: 144, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 22, Item ID: 11600102, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

A patient taking adalimumab (Humira®) may be at an increased risk of _____ following dental surgery.

a. bleeding
b. infection
c. insomnia
d. dyskinesia
Overall Sequence: 145, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 23, Item ID: 6979, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Emergency treatment of laryngospasm might include all EXCEPT:

a. administering albuterol.
b. positive-pressure oxygen.
c. oropharyngeal suctioning.
d. administering succinylcholine.
Overall Sequence: 146, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 24, Item ID: 6400041, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Lidocaine HCl (Xylocaine®) functions as an antiarrhythmic by inhibiting:

a. cholinergic response.
b. extracellular Ca2+ influx.
c. ion flux via Na+ channels.
d. atrioventricular and sinus node activity.
Overall Sequence: 147, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 25, Item ID: 11900065, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

If an advanced airway is placed to treat respiratory arrest, the patient should be ventilated:

a. 12-16 breaths/minute.
b. once every 5-6 seconds.
c. with a tidal volume of 1000 mL.
d. at the end of a cycle of 30 compressions.
Overall Sequence: 148, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 26, Item ID: 11900110, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

For patients with stable narrow-complex supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), the initial recommended
medication if non-medication is:

a. atropine.
b. adenosine.
c. epinephrine.
d. lidocaine HCl.
Overall Sequence: 149, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 27, Item ID: 6450, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Drinking alcohol while taking metronidazole (Flagyl®) is contraindicated due to a(n):

a. high risk of pruritis.

b. disulfuram-like reaction.
c. onset of adverse CNS effects.
d. decreased efficacy of metronidazole (Flagyl®.
Overall Sequence: 150, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 28, Item ID: 9357, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

For a patient taking a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, using anesthetics containing epinephrine
increases the risk for:

a. tachycardia.
b. respiratory depression.
c. increased diastolic blood pressure.
d. symptomatic methemoglobinemia.
Overall Sequence: 151, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 29, Item ID: 11600140, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

The combined pharmacological effects of acetaminophen and codeine to produce analgesia is an example of
what type of drug interaction?

a. Summation
b. Antagonism
c. Potentiation
Overall Sequence: 152, Item Group: 5, Sequence in Group: 30, Item ID: 11900124, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: I.E. Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Antibiotics that have been implicated in causing torsades de pointes and should be prescribed with caution in
patients at risk for Long QT Syndrome include all EXCEPT:

a. cephalexin (Keflex®).
b. clindamycin (Cleocin®).
c. clarithromycin (Biaxin®).
d. levofloxacin (Levaquin®).
Overall Sequence: 153, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 1, Item ID: 4397, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

Management of the conscious patient in acute respiratory distress includes placing the patient in what position?

a. Supine
b. Upright
c. Trendelenburg
d. Head between knees
Overall Sequence: 154, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 2, Item ID: 5220, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

All laboratory test values listed below are normal EXCEPT:

a. INR = 1.
b. WBC= 7.5 X 109 per L
c. Bleeding Time = 5 minutes.
d. Platelet count = 100,000 cells/mm3
Overall Sequence: 155, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 3, Item ID: 6468, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

The HbA1c reflects the average glucose level in the blood over the preceding _____ weeks.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 12
d. 24
Overall Sequence: 156, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 4, Item ID: 6400033, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

When monitoring blood pressure, the first Kortotkoff sound is best related to:

a. heart rate.
b. blood viscosity.
c. ejection fraction.
d. systolic blood pressure.
Overall Sequence: 157, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 5, Item ID: 11100001, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to the 2017 guidelines from the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart
Association, the systolic pressure range in the "elevated" category is _____ mmHg.

a. 110-119
b. 120-129
c. 130-139
d. > 140
Overall Sequence: 158, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 6, Item ID: 11100003, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

A patient with poorly controlled diabetes will be classified as ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists):

a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
Overall Sequence: 159, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 7, Item ID: 11100006, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to NHANES 2011-2012, frequent recreational cannabis users that had never smoked tobacco had an
approximately _____-fold increase in odds of developing severe periodontitis compared to non-cannabis users.

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
Overall Sequence: 160, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 8, Item ID: 12500004, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

What laboratory test is used to evaluate the intrinsic coagulation pathway?

a. PTT
b. Bleeding time
c. Prothrombin time
d. Platelet function analyzer (PFA)
Overall Sequence: 161, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 9, Item ID: 12500045, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

Normal HbA1c levels are typically less than _____% in non-diabetic patients.

a. 5.5
b. 6.0
c. 6.5
d. 7.0
Overall Sequence: 162, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 10, Item ID: 5237, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

Huynh-Ba et al. (2010) reported that the mean width of the buccal bony wall of extraction sockets in the anterior
maxilla is _____mm.
a. 0.4
b. 0.8
c. 1.2
d. 1.6
Overall Sequence: 163, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 11, Item ID: 7385, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to Heitz-Mayfield et al. (2010), which bacterial species has an affinity for titanium surfaces and is
associated with deep peri-implantitis lesions?
a. S. aureus
b. P. gingivalis
c. >T. denticola
d. Streptococcus sp.
Overall Sequence: 164, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 12, Item ID: 7386, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to Mombelli et al. (2012), a higher prevalence of peri-implantitis is associated with:

a. smoking and diabetes.
b. smoking and history of periodontitis.
c. diabetes and history of periodontitis.
d. diabetes and inadequate keratinized tissue.
Overall Sequence: 165, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 13, Item ID: 11100016, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to Löe et al. (1986), approximately ____ % of individuals showed no periodontal disease progression
despite the lack of professional care.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
Overall Sequence: 166, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 14, Item ID: 12500028, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

Bouri et al. (2008) showed that dental implants surrounded by >2mm of keratinized tissue presented with _____
radiographic bone loss when compared to implants surrounded by < 2mm of keratinized tissue.

a. more
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 167, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 15, Item ID: 12500029, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

Which factor entails the LOWEST risk for molar tooth loss according to Miller et al. (2014)?

a. Mobility
b. Smoking
c. Probing depth
d. Furcation defect
Overall Sequence: 168, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 16, Item ID: 12500070, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to the 2017 AAP/EFP World Workshop, which additional characteristic is required to diagnose Stage
IV periodontitis as compared to Stage III?

a. PD >5 mm
b. Complex rehabilitation
c. Vertical bone loss >3 mm
d. Grade II furcation involvement
Overall Sequence: 169, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 17, Item ID: 12500071, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to the 2017 AAP/EFP World Workshop, clinical characteristics of peri-implant mucositis include all
EXCEPT:

a. BOP.
b. erythema.
c. increasing PD.
d. progressive bone loss.
Overall Sequence: 170, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 18, Item ID: 12500072, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to the 2017 AAP/EFP World Workshop, interdental clinical attachment loss of 6 mm and the loss of 3
teeth due to periodontitis will be diagnosed as Stage _____ periodontitis.

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Overall Sequence: 171, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 19, Item ID: 12500073, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to the 2017 AAP/EFP World Workshop, radiographic bone loss of 2 mm over 5 years with
molar/incisor pattern can be categorized as grade:

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
Overall Sequence: 172, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 20, Item ID: 12500074, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to the 2017 AAP/EFP World Workshop, mucogingival deformities and conditions around teeth
include all EXCEPT:

a. abnormal color.
b. lack of gingiva.
c. periodontal abscesses.
d. decreased vestibular depth.
Overall Sequence: 173, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 21, Item ID: 7370, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

Which model of periodontal disease activity describes periods of intense destruction around one or more
affected teeth during defined stages of an individual's life?

a. Continuous
b. Linear accelerated
c. Asynchronous multiple burst
Overall Sequence: 174, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 22, Item ID: 7538, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to Goodson et al. (1984), attachment loss precedes radiographic bone loss by _____ months.
a. 0-2
b. 3-5
c. 6-8
d. 9-12
Overall Sequence: 175, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 23, Item ID: 10442, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

Haffajee et al. (1983) evaluated suppuration and bleeding on probing as indicators for disease activity and found
that both had:
a. high sensitivity and high specificity.
b. high sensitivity and low specificity.
c. low sensitivity and high specificity.
d. low sensitivity and low specificity.
Overall Sequence: 176, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 24, Item ID: 5571, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

Persson (1991) showed a mean difference of ____ mm in PD when sites were measured with the probe inserted
in a midproximal versus line-angle position.
a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
d. 2.0
Overall Sequence: 177, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 25, Item ID: 7541, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to Kan et al. (2003), the level of the interproximal papilla of a single, anterior implant is primarily
related to the:

a. peri-implant tissue biotype.

b. proximal bone level next to the implant.
c. interproximal bone level next to adjacent teeth.
Overall Sequence: 178, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 26, Item ID: 13100002, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

In the absence of previous records, implants with radiographic bone loss of ≥ 3 mm, BOP, and ______ is
diagnostic for peri-implantitis?

a. PD ≥ 6 mm
b. suppuration
c. recession ≥ 3 mm
Overall Sequence: 179, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 27, Item ID: 11100032, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

According to the 2017 AAP Best Evidence Review, there is _____ evidence to support the use of CBCT for
diagnosis of infrabony and furcation defects during periodontal treatment planning.

a. strong
b. no
c. limited
Overall Sequence: 180, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 28, Item ID: 12500064, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

When assessing thin bone around dental implants using CBCT, Razavi et al. (2012) reported that the
measurements _____ the histological assessment.

a. overestimated
b. were similar to
c. underestimated
Overall Sequence: 181, Item Group: 7, Sequence in Group: 29, Item ID: 12500065, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.A. Diagnosis

The unit associated with the determination of CBCT resolution is the:

a. pixel.
b. prism.
c. voxel.
d. Hounsfield.
Overall Sequence: 182, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 1, Item ID: 6179, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Waerhaug et al. (1978), what is the threshold PD in mm beyond which residual calculus was still
present on the majority of the root surfaces following SCRP?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Overall Sequence: 183, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 2, Item ID: 10900067, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

The classification of gingival recession type (RT) is primarily based upon the:

a. tooth location.
b. gingival thickness.
c. keratinized tissue width.
d. interproximal attachment level.
Overall Sequence: 184, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 3, Item ID: 10900069, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Herrera et al. (2020), locally delivered antimicrobial agents as an adjunct to SCRP result in an
approximate mean additional PD reduction of ____ mm.

a. 0.4
b. 0.8
c. 1.2
Overall Sequence: 185, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 4, Item ID: 10900070, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

Which type of powered device generates the highest vibration frequency during SCRP?

a. Sonic
b. Piezoelectric
c. Magnetostrictive
Overall Sequence: 186, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 5, Item ID: 7558, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Selipsky (1976), on average it takes _____ month(s) after osseous surgery for the increased tooth
mobility to return to the pre-operative level.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 12
Overall Sequence: 187, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 6, Item ID: 7561, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

How many months after periodontal flap surgery do most interproximal soft tissue craters resolve?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
Overall Sequence: 188, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 7, Item ID: 10900072, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Rosling et al. (1976), two years after periodontal surgery, patients without optimal oral hygiene
exhibited _____ attachment loss compared to those with optimal oral hygiene.

a. more
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 189, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 8, Item ID: 10900075, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

Antimicrobial photodynamic therapy most commonly employs the _____ laser.

a. diode
b. Nd:YAG
c. Er:YAG
d. carbon dioxide
Overall Sequence: 190, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 9, Item ID: 6194, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Fardal and Grytten (2013), in patients with a history of periodontitis, the costs related to the
treatment of implant biological complications are _____ as compared to those of periodontal re-treatment.
a. a fifth
b. half
c. double
d. five times more
Overall Sequence: 191, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 10, Item ID: 6543, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Wood and Mealey (2012), ridge preservation using FDBA led to a _____ percentage of vital bone
as compared to DFDBA after 19 weeks.
a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 192, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 11, Item ID: 6500020, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Kan et al. (2011), using the image shown, what is the most common sagittal root position in
relation to the anterior maxillary osseous housing?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Overall Sequence: 193, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 12, Item ID: 10900077, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Atieh et al. (2010), the use of platform-switched implants led to approximately _____ mm less
marginal bone loss, compared to platform-matched implants.

a. 0.1
b. 0.4
c. 0.7
d. 1.0
Overall Sequence: 194, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 13, Item ID: 7575, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

Which therapeutic endpoint is the basis for the Kwok and Caton (2007) prognosis system?
a. BOP
b. Tooth loss
c. Periodontal stability
d. Oral health-related quality of life
Overall Sequence: 195, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 14, Item ID: 7582, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

Hirschfeld & Wasserman (1978) showed that the MOST frequently lost teeth were:
a. maxillary molars.
b. mandibular molars.
c. maxillary incisors.
d. mandibular incisors.
Overall Sequence: 196, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 15, Item ID: 10900080, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Cortellini et al. (2017), over a 20-year period, the regenerative approach incurred a _____ long-
term re-treatment cost compared to the access flap alone.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 197, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 16, Item ID: 10900082, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Derks and Tomasi (2015), the estimated mean prevalence of peri-implantitis on an implant-based
analysis is approximately _____ %.

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
Overall Sequence: 198, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 17, Item ID: 10900086, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

Dental implants placed in previously failed sites have a _____ survival rate compared to implants placed in
pristine sites.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 199, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 18, Item ID: 10900087, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Hellden et al. (1989), the percentage of molars that were caries-free and in function 3 years after
tunneling of Class III furcations was:

a. 25%.
b. 50%.
c. 75%.
d. 100%.
Overall Sequence: 200, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 19, Item ID: 10900088, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

The term "periodontal phenotype" is composed of all of the following EXCEPT:

a. gingival thickness.
b. keratinized tissue width.
c. supracrestal tissue attachment dimension.
Overall Sequence: 201, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 20, Item ID: 10900089, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Hämmerle et al. (1995), tactile sensitivity of an implant restoration is _____ compared to a natural
tooth.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 202, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 21, Item ID: 10900090, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

The rate of orthodontic extrusion for implant site preparation is _____ the rate for crown lengthening.

a. faster than
b. similar to
c. slower than
Overall Sequence: 203, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 22, Item ID: 10900091, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Corrente et al. (2003), after OFD and radiographic evaluation, orthodontic intrusion of maxillary
incisors with initial infrabony defects _____ the defect depth.

a. decreased
b. did not change
c. increased
Overall Sequence: 204, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 23, Item ID: 6222, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

According to Burgett et al. (1992), patients who received occlusal adjustment and periodontal therapy had _____
CAL gain as compared to those with periodontal therapy alone.
a. greater
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 205, Item Group: 8, Sequence in Group: 24, Item ID: 10900092, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.B. Treatment Planning and Prognosis

The "zone of co-destruction" as a theory to explain traumatic occlusion on the periodontium was first described
by the _____ group.

a. Polson
b. Lindhe
c. Glickman
d. Waerhaug
Overall Sequence: 206, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 1, Item ID: 10200031, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Cairo et al. (2011), what is the recession type (RT) seen at tooth #25?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
Overall Sequence: 207, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 2, Item ID: 10200032, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

Based upon Pini-Prato et al. (2010), the dental surface defect type classification for tooth #25 is:
a. A-.
b. A+.
c. B-.
d. B+.
Overall Sequence: 208, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 3, Item ID: 10200033, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

All of the following are possible etiological factors for the recession observed on tooth #25 EXCEPT:
a. tooth malposition.
b. traumatic brushing.
c. trauma from occlusion.
d. previous orthodontic treatment.
Overall Sequence: 209, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 4, Item ID: 10200034, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

If considering a CAF procedure for root coverage on tooth #25, which would be the most favorable factor for
success?
a. Vestibular depth
b. Frenal attachment
c. Gingival phenotype
d. Interproximal bone loss
Overall Sequence: 210, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 5, Item ID: 10200035, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Sullivan and Atkins (1968), the graft shown on teeth #24-25 survives the first few days through a
process known as:
a. organic union.
b. vascularization.
c. plasmatic circulation.
Overall Sequence: 211, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 6, Item ID: 7401, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Bergström et al. (2000), former smokers showed ______ periodontal breakdown over 10 years
compared to non-smokers.

a. faster
b. similar
c. slower
Overall Sequence: 212, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 7, Item ID: 7001, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

Unwaxed floss is _____ effective in terms of plaque removal and controlling gingivitis compared to waxed floss.
a. more
b. equally
c. less
Overall Sequence: 213, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 8, Item ID: 10800013, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Hogan et al. (2007), new brush heads for powered toothbrushes were found to be _____ in plaque
removal efficiency compared to 3-month-old brush heads for powered toothbrushes.

a. superior
b. similar
c. inferior
Overall Sequence: 214, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 9, Item ID: 10800042, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Dörfer et al. (2016), brushing in areas of pre-existing gingival recession with an oscillating-
rotating power toothbrush resulted in a _____ reduction of gingival recession compared to using a manual
toothbrush over a period of 3 years.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 215, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 10, Item ID: 10800008, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Valkenburg et al. (2016), toothbrushing with a dentifrice had a(n) _____ effect on the mechanical
removal of plaque compared to toothbrushing without a dentifrice.

a. superior
b. similar
c. inferior
Overall Sequence: 216, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 11, Item ID: 10800012, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Sanz et al. (1989), 0.12% CHX mouthrinses used post-surgically decreased dental plaque scores by
approximately:

a. 35%.
b. 45%.
c. 55%.
d. 65%.
Overall Sequence: 217, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 12, Item ID: 5644, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

Nishimine & O'Leary (1979) demonstrated that ultrasonic instrumentation removed ______ root surface
endotoxin compared to hand instrumentation.
a. more
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 218, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 13, Item ID: 7009, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

The effectiveness of ultrasonic debridement of class II and III furcations is _____ to hand scaling.
a. superior
b. similar
c. inferior
Overall Sequence: 219, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 14, Item ID: 7405, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Lindhe et al. (1982), the critical PD at which surgical treatment will result in CAL loss is:

a. 2.1.
b. 2.8.
c. 3.5.
d. 4.2.
Overall Sequence: 220, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 15, Item ID: 10800021, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

The use of _____ instruments may result in smoother root surfaces after SCRP.

a. hand
b. sonic
c. ultrasonic
Overall Sequence: 221, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 16, Item ID: 3, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Machtei et al. (2020), after initial implant debridement, bi-weekly supragingival plaque removal
and CHX chip placement in peri-implantitis defects resulted in a(n) _____ PD reduction compared to bi-weekly
supragingival plaque removal alone.

a. superior
b. similar
c. inferior
Overall Sequence: 222, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 17, Item ID: 10800019, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

What locally delivered antimicrobial (LDA) agent is approved by the FDA to be used as a stand-alone treatment
for improving the clinical disease parameters of periodontitis?

a. Chlorhexidine chip (Periochip®)

b. Doxycycline hyclate gel (Atridox®)
c. Minocycline microspheres (Arestin®)
Overall Sequence: 223, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 18, Item ID: 10800073, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

In a RCT by Anoixiadou et al. (2021), the use of EMD as an adjunct to minimally invasive non-surgical
treatment of intrabony defects resulted in a(n) _____ PD reduction compared to minimally invasive non-surgical
treatment alone.

a. superior
b. similar
c. inferior
Overall Sequence: 224, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 19, Item ID: 10800020, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

When considering systemic antibiotics in periodontitis patients, which is recommended in combination with
metronidazole (Flagyl®) for β-lactam allergic patients?

a. Amoxicillin (Amoxil®)
b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro®)
c. Doxycycline (Vibramycin®)
d. Clindamycin HCl (Cleocin®)
Overall Sequence: 225, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 20, Item ID: 10800072, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Blanco et al. (2021), the use of systemic metronidazole as an adjunct to the non-surgical treatment
of peri-implantitis resulted in a(n) _____ PD reduction compared to placebo.

a. superior
b. similar
c. inferior
Overall Sequence: 226, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 21, Item ID: 10800074, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

In a systematic review by Stavropoulos et al. (2018), the use of low-dose oral bisphosphonates resulted in a(n)
_____ survival rate of implants compared to patients without oral bisphosphonates.

a. superior
b. similar
c. inferior
Overall Sequence: 227, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 22, Item ID: 6622, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Frisch et al. (1967), the most important prerequisite for the "curtain" approach to maxillary anterior
esthetics is the presence of:

a. no palatal bone loss.

b. no mobility of the anterior teeth.
c. interproximal probing depths of 5mm.
d. mid-labial sulcus depths less than 4mm.
Overall Sequence: 228, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 23, Item ID: 12900034, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

What incision technique is shown in the image?

a. Sulcular
b. Straight-line
c. Scalloped sub-marginal
Overall Sequence: 229, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 24, Item ID: 7420, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Chambrone and Tatakis (2016) untreated buccal recessions in individuals with good oral hygiene
revealed a _______ probability of progression compared to individuals with poor oral hygiene during long-term
follow-up.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 230, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 25, Item ID: 7427, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Tatakis and Chambrone (2016), early suture removal had _____ influence on the completeness of
root coverage following CAF.

a. a positive
b. no
c. a negative
Overall Sequence: 231, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 26, Item ID: 7000019, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Reiser et al. (1996), the mean distance from the CEJ to the greater palatine neurovascular bundle in
the "average" palate is ____ mm.

a. 7
b. 12
c. 17
Overall Sequence: 232, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 27, Item ID: 12900027, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

When comparing CTG + CAF versus CAF alone for the treatment of recession in restored NCCLs, Cairo et al.
(2020) showed that the addition of a CTG improved outcomes only when baseline gingival thickness was ≤
_____ mm.

a. 0.84
b. 1.24
c. 1.64
Overall Sequence: 233, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 28, Item ID: 12900028, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Arzouman et al. (2021), there is _______ vertical shrinkage when the mucosal flap in FSTA
recipient sites is sutured compared to flaps left free to heal by secondary intention.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 234, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 29, Item ID: 12900029, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

Ozsagir et al. (2020) showed that injectable PRF with microneedling performed _____ to injectable PRF alone
for increasing gingival thickness in individuals with a thin periodontal phenotype.

a. superior
b. similar
c. inferior
Overall Sequence: 235, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 30, Item ID: 12900031, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

Keratinized and attached gingival width _____ from the mixed to permanent dentition.

a. increases
b. remains the same
c. decreases
Overall Sequence: 236, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 31, Item ID: 12900033, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to the classification by Cairo et al. (2011), the gingival recession type (RT) shown in the photo and
charting of #24 is RT:

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
Overall Sequence: 237, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 32, Item ID: 12900035, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

The incision approach shown between #7 and #8 is best described as the _____ preservation technique.

a. papilla
b. modified papilla
c. simplified papilla
Overall Sequence: 238, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 33, Item ID: 12900036, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

The incision approach shown is best described as a(n) _____ flap.

a. envelope
b. full-thickness
c. partial-thickness
Overall Sequence: 239, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 34, Item ID: 5692, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Kaldahl et al. (1996), the incidence of periodontal breakdown in the maintenance phase is lowest
for sites treated with:

a. MWF.
b. SCRP.
c. coronal scaling.
d. osseous resective surgery.
Overall Sequence: 240, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 35, Item ID: 6055, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

Ochsenbein (1986) noted that the extent of osseous surgery depended on the relationship between the depth of
the interproximal craters and the:

a. molar root trunk length.

b. lingual inclination of molars.
c. thickness of palatal/lingual bone.
Overall Sequence: 241, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 36, Item ID: 6057, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Ochsenbein (1986), a shallow crater is defined as _____ mm in depth.

a. 1-2
b. 3-4
c. 5-6
Overall Sequence: 242, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 37, Item ID: 12900023, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Ferrarotti et al. (2020), the mean percentage of pocket elimination was _____% following osseous
resective surgery.

a. 78
b. 88
c. 98
Overall Sequence: 243, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 38, Item ID: 12900032, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

The type of bony architecture shown between #2 and #3 is best described as _____ architecture.

a. positive
b. flat
c. negative
Overall Sequence: 244, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 39, Item ID: 12900026, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Clem et al. (2021), the clinical results achieved with the Er,Cr:YSGG laser were _____ to a
minimally invasive surgical technique in the treatment of intrabony defects./p>

a. superior
b. similar
c. inferior
Overall Sequence: 245, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 40, Item ID: 6066, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Cortellini and Tonetti (2001), GTR outcomes are _______ for vital teeth compared to teeth with
adequate root canal therapy.

a. superior
b. similar
c. inferior
Overall Sequence: 246, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 41, Item ID: 6663, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Cortellini and Tonetti (2004), what is the long-term survival (>10 years) of teeth following GTR
treatment of intrabony defects?

a. 66%
b. 76%
c. 86%
d. 96%
Overall Sequence: 247, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 42, Item ID: 6667, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

The use of root surface conditioning agents in regenerative procedures leads to ______ CAL gain compared to
no use of adjunctive agents.

a. greater
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 248, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 43, Item ID: 7044, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

In Part II of the human histological studies by Bowers et al. (1989), significant formation of a new attachment
apparatus was seen in:
a. grafted, submerged teeth.
b. grafted, non-submerged teeth.
c. non-grafted, submerged teeth.
d. non-grafted, non-submerged teeth.
Overall Sequence: 249, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 44, Item ID: 12900024, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Stavropoulos et al. (2021), combination therapies were _____ efficacious than monotherapies
following periodontal regeneration.

a. more
b. equally
c. less
Overall Sequence: 250, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 45, Item ID: 12900025, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Nibali et al. (2021), an increased number of bony walls _____ bone and CAL gain following
periodontal regeneration.

a. positively influenced
b. did not influence
c. negatively influenced
Overall Sequence: 251, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 46, Item ID: 5707, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Bower et al. (2003), all of the following positively influenced regeneration of mandibular Class II
furcations EXCEPT:

a. root divergence = 3mm.

b. root trunk length = 2mm.
c. horizontal depth of defect = 4mm.
d. interproximal bone height at the furcation.
Overall Sequence: 252, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 47, Item ID: 6682, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Bower (1979), what percentage of furcation entrances have a diameter of < 0.75 mm?

a. 18%
b. 38%
c. 58%
d. 78%
Overall Sequence: 253, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 48, Item ID: 11200099, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Jepsen et al. (2020), which treatment modality results in the greatest vertical CAL gain in
furcations?

a. OFD
b. EMD alone
c. Bone graft with membrane
Overall Sequence: 254, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 49, Item ID: 12900030, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Jepsen et al. (2020), performing pulpotomy with vital root resection resulted in:

a. residual PD ≥6 mm.
b. teeth being vital up to 7 years.
c. increased root fracture prevalence.
Overall Sequence: 255, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 50, Item ID: 11800104, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to a systematic review by Carvalho et al. (2021), the average annual tooth loss per patient is ____
during long-term periodontal maintenance.

a. 0.1
b. 0.4
c. 0.7
d. 1.0
Overall Sequence: 256, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 51, Item ID: 11800105, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Costa et al. (2021), patients with periodontitis recurrence had _____ plasma CRP levels as
compared to those without periodontitis recurrence.

a. increased
b. similar
c. decreased
Overall Sequence: 257, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 52, Item ID: 11800106, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Reiniger et al. (2021), self-performed mechanical plaque control at 12- or 24-hour intervals had a
_____ BOP percentage as compared to the 48-hour interval.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 258, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 53, Item ID: 11800107, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Al-Harthi et al. (2021), which factor was associated with tooth loss among the periodontitis
patients without routine maintenance?

a. Gender
b. Diabetes history
c. Brushing frequency
d. Occupational status
Overall Sequence: 259, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 54, Item ID: 11800108, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Tai et al. (2021), the ____ type of impacted molar was associated with a higher prevalence of
dental and periodontal lesions at the adjacent mandibular second molars.

a. inverted
b. horizontal
c. distoangular
d. mesioangular
Overall Sequence: 260, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 55, Item ID: 11800109, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Lucas-Taule et al. (2021), autotransplantation of third molars into the extraction recipient sites had
a ____ % survival rate over an average of 29 months.

a. 67.2
b. 77.2
c. 87.2
d. 97.2
Overall Sequence: 261, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 56, Item ID: 11800113, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Carcuac et al. (2020), the peri-implantitis group with a modified surface had___ risk of recurrence
as compared to the group with non-modified implant surfaces.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 262, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 57, Item ID: 11800114, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Amara et al. (2021), crestal ridge reduction at the sockets of periodontally compromised teeth
grafted with bovine bone and collagen membrane was ___ compared to those without grafts.

a. greater
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 263, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 58, Item ID: 11800115, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Nelson et al. (2020), sockets grafted with FDBA+DFDBA had ____ vital bone formation after 8-
10 weeks of healing as compared to 18-20 weeks of healing.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 264, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 59, Item ID: 11800116, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Mercado et al. (2021), the maxillary anterior sockets grafted with EMD and DBBM-collagen had
_____ change in ridge width as compared to DBBM-collagen alone.

a. greater
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 265, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 60, Item ID: 11800119, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Jung et al. (2021), implants placed with simultaneous GBR using a resorbable membrane had ____
vertical bone loss compared to non-resorbable membranes.

a. more
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 266, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 61, Item ID: 11800121, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Slagter et al. (2021), immediately placed and provisionalized implants had _____ mean marginal
bone level changes as compared to immediates with delayed provisionals.

a. more
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 267, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 62, Item ID: 11800122, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Rivara et al. (2020), platform-switched implants placed with 2 mm of inter-implant distance had
____ crestal bone loss as compared to those placed with 3 mm of inter-implant distance.

a. more
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 268, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 63, Item ID: 11800123, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Atef et al. (2021), immediate implants placed with socket shield technique had _____ buccal bone
resorption as compared to those having the buccal gap grafted with xenograft.

a. more
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 269, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 64, Item ID: 11800124, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Kern et al. (2021), single implants placed in the midline of edentulous mandibles and immediately
loaded with an overdenture retained by a ball attachment had a _____ survival rate after 5 years.

a. 64.7%
b. 74.7%
c. 84.7%
Overall Sequence: 270, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 65, Item ID: 11800126, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Kofina et al. (2021), implant sites with a grafting history had ____ soft tissue closure as compared
to those without a grafting history.

a. faster
b. similar
c. slower
Overall Sequence: 271, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 66, Item ID: 11800127, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Bozkaya et al. (2021), implants treated with photobiomodulation therapy had _____ stability
during healing as compared to the untreated implants.

a. better
b. similar
c. worse
Overall Sequence: 272, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 67, Item ID: 11800128, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Santos et al. (2021), sockets grafted with autogenous mineralized dentin matrix had ____
proportions of residual graft as compared to sockets grafted with xenografts.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 273, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 68, Item ID: 11800130, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Ben-Zvi et al. (2021), oro-antral communications secondary to dental implant placement have a
_____ risk of purulent discharge as compared to oro-antral communications unrelated to implant therapy.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 274, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 69, Item ID: 11800131, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Romandini et al. (2021), the prevalence of buccal soft tissue dehiscences in non-molar implants
was approximately:

a. 16%.
b. 36%.
c. 56%.
Overall Sequence: 275, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 70, Item ID: 11800134, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

In a comparative implant maintenance study by Koldsland et al. (2020), chitosan brushes showed _____ PD
reduction compared to titanium curettes.

a. greater
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 276, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 71, Item ID: 7097, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

The drug of choice for a symptomatic adult patient with the EKG strip shown is:

a. atropine.
b. lidocaine.
c. adenosine.
d. 50% dextrose.
Overall Sequence: 277, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 72, Item ID: 11600143, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

If a patient suddenly stops breathing and has no pulse, the provider should deliver chest compressions and
breaths at what ratio?

a. 30 breaths to 2 compressions
b. 30 compressions to 2 breaths
c. 15 breaths to 2 compressions
d. 15 compressions to 2 breaths
Overall Sequence: 278, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 73, Item ID: 13300002, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

An unconscious hypoglycemic adult patient can be treated with:

a. 4 ounces of orange juice orally.

b. 1 ml of 5% dextrose IV solution.
c. 30 ml of 50% dextrose IV solution.
d. Flumazenil (Romazicon®) IV 0.2 mg/min.
Overall Sequence: 279, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 74, Item ID: 10400039, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Magrin et al. (2020), the angular discrepancy between the virtual and the clinical implant position
was _____ when using stereolithographic guides compared to conventional guides in the placement of single
mandibular implants.

a. higher
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 280, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 75, Item ID: 13300003, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Castro et al. (2020), the change in alveolar ridge dimension in sites treated with L-PRF was _____
compared to those treated with A-PRF+.

a. greater
b. similar
c. lower
Overall Sequence: 281, Item Group: 9, Sequence in Group: 76, Item ID: 13300005, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.C. Therapy

According to Barootchi et al. (2021), untreated sites adjacent to ADM-treated sites showed _____ apical
displacement of the gingival margin when compared to ADM-treated sites after 9 years.

a. more
b. similar
c. less
Overall Sequence: 282, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 1, Item ID: 6733, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which is found in virtually all biopsies of verruca vulgaris?

a. Coxsackievirus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Herpes simplex virus
d. Human papillomavirus
Overall Sequence: 283, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 2, Item ID: 12600010, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which mucosal lesion is flat, brown, and produced by a focal increase in the number of melanocytes?

a. Cutaneous ephelis
b. Oral melanotic macule
c. Oral melanoacanthoma
d. Acquired melanotic nevus
Overall Sequence: 284, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 3, Item ID: 7489, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

What is the MOST severe presentation of erythema multiforme?

a. Stevens Johnson Syndrome
b. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
c. Angina Bullosa Hemorrhagica
d. Epidermolysis Bullosa Acquisita
Overall Sequence: 285, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 4, Item ID: 12013, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Mucous membrane pemphigoid most frequently involves the oral cavity and:
a. pharynx.
b. esophagus.
c. conjunctiva.
Overall Sequence: 286, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 5, Item ID: 12051, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

The initial oral manifestation of _____ is usually painless.

a. pemphigus
b. primary herpes
c. primary syphilis
Overall Sequence: 287, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 6, Item ID: 12303, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

To confirm a suspected latex allergy, a dermatologist will most likely try to identify latex-specific:
a. IgA.
b. IgE.
c. IgG.
d. IgM.
Overall Sequence: 288, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 7, Item ID: 1829, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Squamous cell carcinoma is LEAST likely to occur at which site?

a. Tongue
b. Lower lip
c. Upper lip
d. Buccal mucosa
Overall Sequence: 289, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 8, Item ID: 6741, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

The retrocuspid papilla is microscopically similar to what soft tissue tumor?

a. Lymphangioma
b. Giant cell fibroma
c. Granular cell tumor
d. Oral focal mucinosis
Overall Sequence: 290, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 9, Item ID: 6744, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which congenital lesion tends to undergo gradual involution with time?

a. Hemangioma
b. Port wine stain
c. Arteriovenous malformation
d. Kaposiform hemangioendothelioma
Overall Sequence: 291, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 10, Item ID: 7492, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which is the most common "tumor" of the oral cavity?

a. Irritation fibroma
b. Pyogenic granuloma
c. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
d. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
Overall Sequence: 292, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 11, Item ID: 12341, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which is the most common type of skin cancer?

a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Overall Sequence: 293, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 12, Item ID: 7499, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which is NOT a disease of viral origin?

a. Mumps
b. Rubella
c. Cat scratch disease
d. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
Overall Sequence: 294, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 13, Item ID: 12140, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

One of the features that help distinguish herpes zoster from other vesiculobullous eruptions is:
a. severe lancinating pain.
b. unilateral distribution of lesions.
c. subepidermal bullous formation.
d. a seasonal pattern of development.
Overall Sequence: 295, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 14, Item ID: 12148, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Mucosal lesions that discharge a yellowish exudate containing "sulfur" granules are most likely due to:
a. actinomycosis.
b. blastomycosis.
c. cryptococcosis.
d. histoplasmosis.
Overall Sequence: 296, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 15, Item ID: 12600029, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which form of oral candidiasis generally presents as a red, asymptomatic lesion?

a. Hyperplastic
b. Angular cheilitis
c. Chronic atrophic
d. Pseudomembranous
Overall Sequence: 297, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 16, Item ID: 12074, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

What is characterized by excessive length of tubular bones, a high-arched palatal vault, a bifid uvula, and
malocclusion?
a. Achondroplasia
b. Marfan syndrome
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Treacher Collins syndrome
Overall Sequence: 298, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 17, Item ID: 12111, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

The triad of recurrent labial edema, fissured tongue, and relapsing facial paralysis characterizes _____
syndrome.
a. Down
b. Ehlers-Danlos
c. Treacher Collins
d. Melkersson-Rosenthal
Overall Sequence: 299, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 18, Item ID: 5408, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Acromegaly is caused by _____ closure of the epiphyseal plates.

a. excess production of growth hormone after
b. excess production of growth hormone prior to
c. insufficient production of growth hormone after
d. insufficient production of growth hormone prior to
Overall Sequence: 300, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 19, Item ID: 5768, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Addison's disease can lead to what intraoral manifestation?

a. Boggy edema of the gingiva
b. Multiple periodontal abscesses
c. Linear-shaped vestibular ulcerations
d. Hyperpigmentation of the oral mucosa
Overall Sequence: 301, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 20, Item ID: 5410, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

According to the AAP Position Paper (2005), which medication is associated with the highest incidence of
gingival enlargement?

a. Phenytoin (Dilantin®)
b. Nifedipine (Procardia®)
c. Diltiazem (Cardiazem®)
d. Cyclosporine (Gengraf®)
Overall Sequence: 302, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 21, Item ID: 11400067, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which antibiotic is associated with dark green discoloration of the bone resulting in a blue-gray appearance
through mucosa?

a. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro®)
b. Metronidazole (Flagyl®)
c. Minocycline HCl (Minocin®)
d. Amoxicillin/Clavulanate (Augmentin®)
Overall Sequence: 303, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 22, Item ID: 12600035, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

All of the following medications have been shown to cause pigmentation of the gingival tissues EXCEPT:

a. tetracycline.
b. oral contraceptives.
c. hydroxychloroquine.
d. calcium channel blockers.
Overall Sequence: 304, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 23, Item ID: 11400029, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Prominent "hair-on-end" radiographic appearance of calvaria is a typical manifestation of:

a. anemia.
b. leukemia.
c. thalassemia.
d. neutropenia.
Overall Sequence: 305, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 24, Item ID: 12600036, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

What form of anemia is identified by the failure of the hematopoietic precursor cells to produce adequate
numbers of all types of blood cells?

a. Aplastic
b. Pernicious
c. Sickle cell
d. Megaloblastic
Overall Sequence: 306, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 25, Item ID: 7128, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which is a malignancy of mesenchymal cells that has the ability to produce osteoid?
a. Osteoma
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Osteoblastoma
d. Osteoid osteoma
Overall Sequence: 307, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 26, Item ID: 10200004, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

What posterior mandible bone cyst does NOT require treatment?

a. Static
b. Simple
c. Aneurysmal
Overall Sequence: 308, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 27, Item ID: 11400030, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Most central giant cell granulomas are found in the _____ and are _____.

a. maxilla; symptomatic
b. maxilla; asymptomatic
c. mandible; symptomatic
d. mandible; asymptomatic
Overall Sequence: 309, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 28, Item ID: 11400033, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

The botryoid odontogenic cyst is a multi-compartmentalized variant of which cyst?

a. Primordial
b. Dentigerous
c. Lateral periodontal
d. Calcifying odontogenic (Gorlin)
Overall Sequence: 310, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 29, Item ID: 12600040, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which lesion is most likely to present histologically with a cystic lumen lined by a corrugated parakeratotic
surface and a palisaded basal cell layer?

a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Odontogenic keratocyst
c. Lateral periodontal cyst
d. Botryoid odontogenic cyst
Overall Sequence: 311, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 30, Item ID: 2391, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Where do mucoceles most commonly occur?

a. Upper lip
b. Lower lip
c. Soft palate
d. Floor of the mouth
Overall Sequence: 312, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 31, Item ID: 3475, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Which of the following may be a cause of sialorrhea?

a. Rabies
b. Salivary gland aplasia
c. Systemic amitriptyline
d. Systemic pseudoephedrine
Overall Sequence: 313, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 32, Item ID: 7519, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Postherpetic neuralgia is associated with what virus?

a. Coxsackievirus A22
b. Varicella-zoster virus
c. Humanherpesvirus 4
d. Herpes simplex virus type 1
Overall Sequence: 314, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 33, Item ID: 11400039, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Bell's palsy affects muscles innervated by cranial nerve:

a. III.
b. V.
c. VII.
d. X.
Overall Sequence: 315, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 34, Item ID: 5427, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

All of the laboratory tests below are used to monitor liver function EXCEPT:

a. creatinine kinase.
b. alanine aminotransferase.
c. aspartate aminotransferase.
d. gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase.
Overall Sequence: 316, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 35, Item ID: 6772, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

What laboratory result would be markedly prolonged in a patient taking clopidogrel (Plavix®)?
a. Bleeding time
b. Prothrombin time (PT)
c. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
d. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Overall Sequence: 317, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 36, Item ID: 7521, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

An estimated average glucose (eAG) of 154 mg/dL is equal to an HbA1c (%) of:
a. 6.0.
b. 6.5.
c. 7.0.
d. 7.5.
Overall Sequence: 318, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 37, Item ID: 12025, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

Jeffcoat et al. (2001) showed a _____ association between preterm birth and periodontitis at 21 to 24 weeks of
gestation.
a. significant
b. lack of
c. weak
Overall Sequence: 319, Item Group: 10, Sequence in Group: 38, Item ID: 12388, Scenario ID: 0
Dimension: II.D. Oral Pathology/Oral Medicine

According to DeStefano et al. (1993), which group was associated with the greatest increase in risk for
cardiovascular disease?
a. Men over 50 years old
b. Men under 50 years old
c. Women over 50 years old
d. Women under 50 years old
 2022 AAP In-Service Examination
Answer Key
Sequence in
Overall Sequence Item Group Section Group Item Key
1 1 I.A/I.F 1 1070 C
2 1 I.A/I.F 2 4626 A
3 1 I.A/I.F 3 6280 B
4 1 I.A/I.F 4 8128 A
5 1 I.A/I.F 5 6793 D
6 1 I.A/I.F 6 7157 C
7 1 I.A/I.F 7 7160 D
8 1 I.A/I.F 8 6900016 C
9 1 I.A/I.F 9 11300190 C
10 1 I.A/I.F 10 11300191 A
11 1 I.A/I.F 11 11300192 A
12 1 I.A/I.F 12 11500008 A
13 1 I.A/I.F 13 11500009 C
14 1 I.A/I.F 14 11500010 D
15 1 I.A/I.F 15 1907 B
16 1 I.A/I.F 16 6325 C
17 1 I.A/I.F 17 6794 D
18 1 I.A/I.F 18 6798 D
19 1 I.A/I.F 19 11300186 B
20 1 I.A/I.F 20 11300187 B
21 1 I.A/I.F 21 11300188 C
22 1 I.A/I.F 22 11300189 A
23 1 I.A/I.F 23 11500021 B
24 1 I.A/I.F 24 11500023 D
25 1 I.A/I.F 25 6454 C
26 1 I.A/I.F 26 10800002 A
27 1 I.A/I.F 27 10800023 C
28 1 I.A/I.F 28 10800024 A
29 2 I.B 1 3783 C
30 2 I.B 2 4658 D
31 2 I.B 3 4664 A
32 2 I.B 4 12800004 D
33 2 I.B 5 4227 B
34 2 I.B 6 5823 A
35 2 I.B 7 1001 A
36 2 I.B 8 1005 D
37 2 I.B 9 7195 A
38 2 I.B 10 7199 A
39 2 I.B 11 7201 B
40 2 I.B 12 11200008 B
41 2 I.B 13 11200009 C
42 2 I.B 14 11200014 B
43 2 I.B 15 12800021 D
44 2 I.B 16 12800022 C
45 2 I.B 17 3851 B
46 2 I.B 18 8497 B
 2022 AAP In-Service Examination
Answer Key
Sequence in
Overall Sequence Item Group Section Group Item Key
47 2 I.B 19 8515 D
48 2 I.B 20 8702 A
49 2 I.B 21 4165 B
50 2 I.B 22 8533 B
51 2 I.B 23 11900020 D
52 2 I.B 24 5096 B
53 2 I.B 25 5866 A
54 2 I.B 26 6869 D
55 2 I.B 27 7228 C
56 2 I.B 28 7234 A
57 2 I.B 29 6867 B
58 2 I.B 30 7237 B
59 2 I.B 31 8665 A
60 3 I.C 1 13200025 B
61 3 I.C 2 13200024 D
62 3 I.C 3 13200032 B
63 3 I.C 4 13200033 B
64 3 I.C 5 13200034 C
65 3 I.C 6 13200036 A
66 3 I.C 7 11600049 B
67 3 I.C 8 13200020 C
68 3 I.C 9 13200028 D
69 3 I.C 10 5109 C
70 3 I.C 11 11600031 A
71 3 I.C 12 11600043 B
72 3 I.C 13 13200040 C
73 3 I.C 14 13200038 B
74 3 I.C 15 13200016 A
75 3 I.C 16 13200017 C
76 3 I.C 17 5492 A
77 3 I.C 18 6894 B
78 3 I.C 19 11600028 D
79 3 I.C 20 11800059 C
80 3 I.C 21 13200037 A
81 3 I.C 22 11800012 C
82 3 I.C 23 12900016 C
83 3 I.C 24 13200009 B
84 3 I.C 25 11800064 A
85 3 I.C 26 13200006 D
86 3 I.C 27 13200014 D
87 3 I.C 28 4298 D
88 3 I.C 29 13200042 A
89 4 I.D 1 13300009 B
90 4 I.D 2 13300013 A
91 4 I.D 3 13300015 D
92 4 I.D 4 5504 A
 2022 AAP In-Service Examination
Answer Key
Sequence in
Overall Sequence Item Group Section Group Item Key
93 4 I.D 5 5906 D
94 4 I.D 6 6913 B
95 4 I.D 7 6917 B
96 4 I.D 8 9067 A
97 4 I.D 9 10400058 C
98 4 I.D 10 3604 C
99 4 I.D 11 5158 B
100 4 I.D 12 5523 B
101 4 I.D 13 6405 B
102 4 I.D 14 6922 C
103 4 I.D 15 7298 D
104 4 I.D 16 10200028 D
105 4 I.D 17 10200030 C
106 4 I.D 18 11300020 C
107 4 I.D 19 11300111 B
108 4 I.D 20 12400077 B
109 4 I.D 21 12400078 C
110 4 I.D 22 12400080 B
111 4 I.D 23 12400081 C
112 4 I.D 24 12400091 C
113 4 I.D 25 12400092 D
114 4 I.D 26 6935 C
115 4 I.D 27 6936 B
116 4 I.D 28 2981 B
117 4 I.D 29 11300047 D
118 4 I.D 30 12400069 B
119 4 I.D 31 11300079 C
120 4 I.D 32 11300179 A
121 4 I.D 33 12400083 C
122 4 I.D 34 12400086 B
123 5 I.E 1 11600087 C
124 5 I.E 2 11600156 B
125 5 I.E 3 11600081 A
126 5 I.E 4 11900120 A
127 5 I.E 5 11900038 A
128 5 I.E 6 11900040 B
129 5 I.E 7 11600114 B
130 5 I.E 8 11600115 B
131 5 I.E 9 11900121 A
132 5 I.E 10 7337 D
133 5 I.E 11 6400022 C
134 5 I.E 12 11600121 B
135 5 I.E 13 11600137 D
136 5 I.E 14 11600129 B
137 5 I.E 15 11600162 D
138 5 I.E 16 11900055 B
 2022 AAP In-Service Examination
Answer Key
Sequence in
Overall Sequence Item Group Section Group Item Key
139 5 I.E 17 11900097 B
140 5 I.E 18 11900122 D
141 5 I.E 19 7346 C
142 5 I.E 20 7348 A
143 5 I.E 21 6400034 B
144 5 I.E 22 11600102 B
145 5 I.E 23 6979 A
146 5 I.E 24 6400041 C
147 5 I.E 25 11900065 B
148 5 I.E 26 11900110 B
149 5 I.E 27 6450 B
150 5 I.E 28 9357 A
151 5 I.E 29 11600140 A
152 5 I.E 30 11900124 A
153 7 II.A 1 4397 B
154 7 II.A 2 5220 D
155 7 II.A 3 6468 C
156 7 II.A 4 6400033 D
157 7 II.A 5 11100001 B
158 7 II.A 6 11100003 C
159 7 II.A 7 11100006 A
160 7 II.A 8 12500004 A
161 7 II.A 9 12500045 A
162 7 II.A 10 5237 B
163 7 II.A 11 7385 B
164 7 II.A 12 7386 B
165 7 II.A 13 11100016 B
166 7 II.A 14 12500028 C
167 7 II.A 15 12500029 D
168 7 II.A 16 12500070 B
169 7 II.A 17 12500071 D
170 7 II.A 18 12500072 C
171 7 II.A 19 12500073 C
172 7 II.A 20 12500074 C
173 7 II.A 21 7370 C
174 7 II.A 22 7538 C
175 7 II.A 23 10442 C
176 7 II.A 24 5571 B
177 7 II.A 25 7541 C
178 7 II.A 26 13100002 A
179 7 II.A 27 11100032 C
180 7 II.A 28 12500064 C
181 7 II.A 29 12500065 C
182 8 II.B 1 6179 C
183 8 II.B 2 10900067 D
184 8 II.B 3 10900069 A
 2022 AAP In-Service Examination
Answer Key
Sequence in
Overall Sequence Item Group Section Group Item Key
185 8 II.B 4 10900070 B
186 8 II.B 5 7558 D
187 8 II.B 6 7561 D
188 8 II.B 7 10900072 A
189 8 II.B 8 10900075 A
190 8 II.B 9 6194 D
191 8 II.B 10 6543 C
192 8 II.B 11 6500020 A
193 8 II.B 12 10900077 B
194 8 II.B 13 7575 C
195 8 II.B 14 7582 A
196 8 II.B 15 10900080 C
197 8 II.B 16 10900082 B
198 8 II.B 17 10900086 C
199 8 II.B 18 10900087 C
200 8 II.B 19 10900088 C
201 8 II.B 20 10900089 C
202 8 II.B 21 10900090 C
203 8 II.B 22 10900091 A
204 8 II.B 23 6222 A
205 8 II.B 24 10900092 C
206 9 II.C 1 10200031 B
207 9 II.C 2 10200032 A
208 9 II.C 3 10200033 C
209 9 II.C 4 10200034 A
210 9 II.C 5 10200035 C
211 9 II.C 6 7401 B
212 9 II.C 7 7001 B
213 9 II.C 8 10800013 B
214 9 II.C 9 10800042 B
215 9 II.C 10 10800008 B
216 9 II.C 11 10800012 C
217 9 II.C 12 5644 C
218 9 II.C 13 7009 A
219 9 II.C 14 7405 D
220 9 II.C 15 10800021 A
221 9 II.C 16 3 A
222 9 II.C 17 10800019 B
223 9 II.C 18 10800073 B
224 9 II.C 19 10800020 B
225 9 II.C 20 10800072 A
226 9 II.C 21 10800074 B
227 9 II.C 22 6622 D
228 9 II.C 23 12900034 C
229 9 II.C 24 7420 A
230 9 II.C 25 7427 C
 2022 AAP In-Service Examination
Answer Key
Sequence in
Overall Sequence Item Group Section Group Item Key
231 9 II.C 26 7000019 B
232 9 II.C 27 12900027 A
233 9 II.C 28 12900028 B
234 9 II.C 29 12900029 A
235 9 II.C 30 12900031 A
236 9 II.C 31 12900033 B
237 9 II.C 32 12900035 B
238 9 II.C 33 12900036 C
239 9 II.C 34 5692 D
240 9 II.C 35 6055 A
241 9 II.C 36 6057 A
242 9 II.C 37 12900023 C
243 9 II.C 38 12900032 C
244 9 II.C 39 12900026 B
245 9 II.C 40 6066 B
246 9 II.C 41 6663 D
247 9 II.C 42 6667 B
248 9 II.C 43 7044 A
249 9 II.C 44 12900024 A
250 9 II.C 45 12900025 A
251 9 II.C 46 5707 B
252 9 II.C 47 6682 C
253 9 II.C 48 11200099 C
254 9 II.C 49 12900030 B
255 9 II.C 50 11800104 A
256 9 II.C 51 11800105 A
257 9 II.C 52 11800106 C
258 9 II.C 53 11800107 C
259 9 II.C 54 11800108 D
260 9 II.C 55 11800109 D
261 9 II.C 56 11800113 A
262 9 II.C 57 11800114 C
263 9 II.C 58 11800115 C
264 9 II.C 59 11800116 B
265 9 II.C 60 11800119 B
266 9 II.C 61 11800121 B
267 9 II.C 62 11800122 B
268 9 II.C 63 11800123 C
269 9 II.C 64 11800124 C
270 9 II.C 65 11800126 C
271 9 II.C 66 11800127 B
272 9 II.C 67 11800128 C
273 9 II.C 68 11800130 A
274 9 II.C 69 11800131 A
275 9 II.C 70 11800134 B
276 9 II.C 71 7097 A
 2022 AAP In-Service Examination
Answer Key
Sequence in
Overall Sequence Item Group Section Group Item Key
277 9 II.C 72 11600143 B
278 9 II.C 73 13300002 C
279 9 II.C 74 10400039 C
280 9 II.C 75 13300003 B
281 9 II.C 76 13300005 A
282 10 II.D 1 6733 D
283 10 II.D 2 12600010 B
284 10 II.D 3 7489 B
285 10 II.D 4 12013 C
286 10 II.D 5 12051 C
287 10 II.D 6 12303 B
288 10 II.D 7 1829 D
289 10 II.D 8 6741 B
290 10 II.D 9 6744 A
291 10 II.D 10 7492 A
292 10 II.D 11 12341 A
293 10 II.D 12 7499 C
294 10 II.D 13 12140 B
295 10 II.D 14 12148 A
296 10 II.D 15 12600029 C
297 10 II.D 16 12074 B
298 10 II.D 17 12111 D
299 10 II.D 18 5408 A
300 10 II.D 19 5768 D
301 10 II.D 20 5410 A
302 10 II.D 21 11400067 C
303 10 II.D 22 12600035 D
304 10 II.D 23 11400029 C
305 10 II.D 24 12600036 A
306 10 II.D 25 7128 B
307 10 II.D 26 10200004 A
308 10 II.D 27 11400030 D
309 10 II.D 28 11400033 C
310 10 II.D 29 12600040 B
311 10 II.D 30 2391 B
312 10 II.D 31 3475 A
313 10 II.D 32 7519 B
314 10 II.D 33 11400039 C
315 10 II.D 34 5427 A
316 10 II.D 35 6772 A
317 10 II.D 36 7521 C
318 10 II.D 37 12025 A
319 10 II.D 38 12388 A