This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions.

Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A disc of mass 1 kg is kept horizontally in air by firing bullets of mass 0.05 kg each vertically at it, at the rate of 10
per second. If bullets rebound with the same speed, the speed with which these are fired will be (take g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 0.098 m/s (2) 0.98 m/s (3) 9.8 m/s (4) 98 m/s
2. The minimum distance between real object and real image formed by concave mirror of focal length ‘ f ’ is ____
(1) 2f (2) 3f (3) 4f (4) Zero
3. If initial and final velocities of body are 10 m/s and 40 m/s and acceleration of body is uniform, then find
average velocity of the body in the given time ?
(1) 25 m/s (2) 10 m/s (3) 30 m/s 25
(4) m/s
3
4. A skater rolls over an inclined plane of height ‘5m’. Find its velocity at the end of the smooth inclined plane.
Assume the mass of the skater to be 50kg. (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s (3) 8 m/s (4) 20 m/s

5. A bird is flying 15 m above the surface of a pond. What is the apparent position of the bird as viewed by a fish 2 m
below the surface?
(given – nw = 4/3, nair = 1)
(1) 15 m (2) 17 m
(3) 200 m (4) 22 m
6. Which of the following does not require medium to propagate ?
(1) Radio-waves (2) Water-waves
(3) Sound-waves (4) Waves in string
7. As we goes towards the centre of the earth from the surface, our weight will ______
(1) increase (2) decrease
(3) weights will be same but mass will decrease (4) weight and mass both will decrease
8. An object of mass 10 kg placed on a rough surface. A force of 50 N is applied on an object and there is a frictional
force of 20 N present between object and surface. Which of the statement is correct for given condition ?
(1) The acceleration of an object is 5 m/s2. (2) The object doesn’t move.
(3) The net force on an object is 30 N. (4) The object will move with uniform velocity.
9. A square of area 4 mm2 is made from thin wire and is placed in front of a concave mirror with the plane of
square perpendicular to the axis of the mirror and the axis passes through the centre of square. If focal length of
mirror is 10 cm and square is placed 15 cm from it, find area of image of the square.
(1) 1 mm2 (2) 8 mm2 (3) 16 mm2 (4) 32 mm2
10. Three Cars P, Q and R are moving on a levelled Straight road. their distance time graph are as shown in the
figure below, which of the following is correct statement regarding motion of these car ?

(1) Car P is faster then R (2) Car P is slowest

(3) Car R is slower than P (4) Car Q is slower than P
11. A planet was discovered with twice the radius that of earth and having 4 times the mass of the earth, then
acceleration due to gravity of this planet will be
(1) 9.8 m/s2 (2) 4.9 m/s2 (3) 19.6 m/s2 (4) 14.7 m/s2
12. Which of the following correctly represents the graphical variation between sin i and sin r?
(Where i is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of refraction)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

13. The distance between 1st crest and 3rd trough of a wave is 10 cm. If the wave takes 0.01 sec to complete one
oscillation, find the distance the wave would travel in 10 sec.
(1) 40 cm (2) 40 m (3) 20 cm (4) 20 m
14. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 50 cm. Calculate the power of lens to enable him to read a book placed
at 40 cm.
(1) 0.2 D (2) 0.5 D (3) 2 D (4) 5 D
15. An object of mass ‘m’ is kept at height ‘h’ from the ground, then it’s gravitational potential energy is _________
(1) (m + g)h (2) m(g + h) (3) (m + h)g (4) mgh
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
16. Which of the following ions is/are polyatomic?
I Nitride II Bicarbonate III Sulphide IV Oxide V Phosphate
(1) I, III & V (2) II & V only (3) I, II & IV (4) III, IV & V
17. Balance the following equation, and find out the values of a, b, c, d and e respectively.
a Pb3O4 + b HCl → c PbCl2 + d Cl2 + e H2O
(1) 1, 8, 6, 1, 2 (2) 2, 4, 6, 1, 2 (3) 1, 8, 3, 1, 4 (4) 2, 4, 3, 1, 4
18. How many protons are present in an atom/ion, if it contains 14 neutrons, 10 electrons and its atomic number is
13?
(1) 14 (2) 11 (3) 10 (4) 13
19. What will be the ratio by mass of combining elements in Hydrogen sulphide?
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 1 : 16 (3) 3 : 7 (4) 1 : 8
20. Highly reactive metals can be extracted by
(1) electrolysis of molten chlorides (2) heat reduction
(3) smelting (4) reduction using aluminium
21. Observe the given chemical reactions, and select the option which represents the correct compounds for P, Q, R
and S respectively.
Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + H2O( ℓ ) + P
Ca(OH)2 + CO2(g) → Q + H2O( ℓ )
CaCO3(s) + H2O( ℓ ) + CO2(g) → R
NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4Cl + S
P Q R S
(1) SO2(g) CaCO3(g) Ca(HCO3)2(aq) NaHCO3(s)
(2) CaOCl2( ℓ ) Ca(HCO3)2(s) CaCO3(s) NaCl(s)
(3) CO2(g) CaCO3(s) Ca(HCO3)2(aq) NaHCO3(s)
(4) CO2(g) Ca(HCO3)2(s) CaCO3(s) Na2CO3(s)
22. Dilute acids do not produce carbon dioxide on being treated with ________.
(1) Marble (2) Baking soda (3) Lime water (4) Limestone
23. pH of different solutions are given below –
P → 2.3 – 3.5
Q → 12.5 – 14.0
R→6–8
S → 9.5 – 11.6
Arrange these solution in the increasing order of their hydronium ion concentration.
(1) S < Q < R < P (2) R < P < S < Q (3) P < R < S < Q (4) Q < S < R < P
24. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Sodium and potassium are the hardest metals.
(ii) Gold and silver are the most ductile metals.
(iii) Good thermal conductivity of metals make them suitable for jewellery making.
(iv) Graphite is good conductor of electricity.
(1) (ii), (iii) & (iv) only (2) (i), (iii) & (iv) only
(3) (ii) & (iv) only (4) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
25. A white coloured salt on heating, decomposes to form a yellow coloured solid and two gases, one of the gas is
the product of photosynthesis. The white coloured salt is _____.
(1) PbSO4 (2) Pb(NO3)2 (3) FeSO4 (4) AgCl
26. Which of the following are incorrectly matched with their electronic configurations?
(1) O2– → 2, 8 (2) Mg2+ → 2, 8, 4
(3) P3– → 2, 8, 8 (4) Li+ → 2
27. Assertion: Electron is regarded as a universal particle.
Reason: The name 'electron' was given by Stoney.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
28. Carbon monoxide and Nitric oxide are the examples of __________.
(1) acidic oxides (2) neutral oxides
(3) amphoteric oxides (4) basic oxides
29. Which of the following gas as product is incorrectly matched when their respective reactant undergoes
decomposition?
Reactant Product (gas)
(1) Zinc carbonate Oxygen
(2) Silver bromide Bromine
(3) Silver chloride Chlorine
(4) Calcium carbonate Carbon dioxide
30. A small amount of quick lime is taken in a beaker and water is slowly added to this. Which of the following
observations is/are correct about this activity?
i) The beaker becomes hot because it is an exothermic reaction.
ii) A precipitate is formed which is also called as lime stone.
iii) This reaction is a combination reaction.
(1) i and ii only (2) ii and iii only (3) i and iii only (4) i, ii and iii
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. The organs which remove the metabolic waste products from the animal body are called excretory organs.
Humans have kidney as their primary excretory organ. Although there are some organs that remove certain waste
products & are known as accessory excretory organs. From the given options, identify the accessory excretory
organ/s in humans.
(1) Lungs
(2) Skin
(3) Nephron
(4) Both (1) & (2)
32. Identify the substance which is not found in lymph of a healthy individual.
(1) Fatty acids
(2) Oxygen
(3) Water
(4) Haemoglobin
33. The figure given below shows the site of gaseous exchange in human lungs. From the options given below,
identify any one labelled part 'A', 'B', 'C' & 'D' along with its function ?

(1) B : Red blood cell - transport of CO2 mainly

(2) C : Venule - passes oxygen to tissues
(3) A : Pleural cavity - main site of aerobic respiration
(4) D : Capillary wall - exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place across the wall of capillary
34. In which of the following structure, amino acids are likely to be present in highest concentration ?
(1) Blood capillaries of villi
(2) Wall of rectum
(3) Both lacteals and blood capillaries of villi
(4) Lacteals of villi
35. Refer to the given diagram & identify the parts labelled as 'X', 'Y' & 'Z'.

(1) X ⇒ Collecting duct (2) X ⇒ Afferent arteriole

Y ⇒ Glomerulus Y ⇒ Glomerulus
Z ⇒ Efferent arteriole Z ⇒ Collecting duct
(3) X ⇒ DCT (4) X ⇒ Collecting duct
Y ⇒ Efferent arteriole Y ⇒ Efferent arteriole
Z ⇒ Glomerulus Z ⇒ Glomerulus
36. Refer to the given statements with either one or two blanks.
(i) The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much 'P' than terrestrial organisms because water has 'Q'
content of oxygen than air.
(ii) Plants often die in water logged soil because soil is unable to supply sufficient 'R' to roots. Under these
conditions, root will respire 'S' , producing alcohol.
(iii) Single molecule of ATP is broken down giving rise to 'T' Kcal/mol energy which can drive the
endothermic reactions taking place in the cell.
(iv) During the day, 'U' generated during respiration in plants is used up for 'V' hence oxygen release is
the major event during the day.
(v) In terrestrial plants, gaseous exchange occurs through 'W' , 'X' and root hairs.
(vi) First step of cellular respiration is 'Y' that is common in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration 'Z' is
not required in this process.
Form the given options, select the correct one to fill any five blanks.
(1) R - oxygen, S - Anaerobically, U-Oxygen, W-Stomata, X - Lenticels.
(2) P - Faster, U - Carbon dioxide, V - Photosynthesis, W - Stomata, Y - Krebs' cycle.
(3) P - Faster, Q - less, T - 30.5, U - oxygen, W - Stomata.
(4) R - oxygen, T - 7.3, U - Carbon dioxide, W - stomata, Y - glycolysis.
37. Refer to the given venn diagrams

Identify 'X', 'Y' and 'Z' with respect to the main nitrogenous waste product.
(1) X - Urea, Y - Ammonia, Z - Uric acid (2) X - Ammonia, Y - Urea, Z - Uric acid
(3) X - Uric acid, Y - Ammonia, Z - Urea (4) X - Urea, Y - Uric acid, Z - Ammonia
38. Read the given information carefully.
Some animals changes their body temperature according to the temperature in the environment. Animals, like
'P' and many 'Q' have 'R' chambered heart and tolerate some mixing of the oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood.
Identify 'P', 'Q' and 'R' from the given options.
(1) P - Pisces, Q - Reptiles, R - Three (2) P - Amphibians, Q - Reptiles, R - Three
(3) P - Reptiles, Q - Amphibians, R - Two (4) P - Mammals, Q - Reptiles, R - Two
39. Ravi, Manish, Ishita, Saurav, Surbhi & Sonali are students of class 10th. While studying, they discussed some
points regarding nutrition in plants and animals and following statements were given by them :
Ravi : Indian pipe & coral roots are plants which release O2 during the process of photosynthesis.
Manish : Cuscuta have haustoria which penetrate the stem of host plant to obtain food/nutrients.
Ishita : NADPH + H+ oxidizes O2 and CO2 to form glucose during dark reaction.
Saurav : Liver is the largest organ that releases bile for digestion of proteins.
Surbhi : Chloroplast is absent in epidermis of leaf while present in guard cells surrounding stomata.
Sonali : Solar energy is converted into mechanical energy to prepare food & this food is transported as starch in
plants.
Select the correct option.
(1) Ravi, Manish and Ishita are correct while Saurav, Surbhi and Sonali are incorrect.
(2) Manish and Surbhi are correct while Saurav, Sonali, Ravi and Ishita are incorrect.
(3) Saurav, Surbhi, Sonali & Manish are correct while Ravi and Ishita are incorrect.
(4) Only Saurav & Sonali are correct.
40. Flowering plants have vascular tissues, xylem and phloem. From the given option, select the common
characteristic among xylem and phloem.
(1) Transport in both upward & downward direction.
(2) Presence of sclerenchymatous fibres.
(3) Made up of one living & three dead components.
(4) Both (2) & (3)
41. Read the following statements carefully.
a. Plant body have a large proportion of the dead cells in comparison to animals.
b. In tall plants, raw materials and energy can easily diffuse to all parts.
c. At roots, cells in contact with the soil passively takes up ions and sucrose.
d. Translocation of food and other substances takes place in the sieve tube with the help of companion cells.
e. Translocation of food in the phloem takes place in the form of glucose.
Choose the incorrect set of statements from the options given below.
(1) a, b & c only (2) c, d & e only
(3) b, c & e only (4) b, c & d only
42. Match the column-I with column-II & select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(i) Pulmonary artery (a) Blood clotting
(ii) RBC (b) Plasma protein
(iii) Heparin (c) Deoxygenated blood
(iv) Capillaries (d) Transport of O2
(v) Platelets (e) Site of exchange of substances
(vi) Prothrombin (f) Natural anticoagulant
(1) (i) - d, (ii) - c, (iii) - a, (iv) - b, (v) - f, (vi) - e
(2) (i) - c, (ii) - d, (iii) - f, (iv) - e, (v) - a, (vi) - b
(3) (i) - c, (ii) - f, (iii) - d, (iv) - a, (v) - b, (vi) - e
(4) (i) - f, (ii) - e, (iii) - a, (iv) - c, (v) - b, (vi) - d
43. The basic functions performed by living organisms to maintain their life on earth are called life processes. There
are mainly four essential life processes out of which respiration is defined as -
(1) A process that uses carbon dioxide, produces oxygen and converts the energy released during
oxidation of food into ATP.
(2) A process that uses oxygen and carbon dioxide to form ATP.
(3) A process that uses nitrogen, produces oxygen and converts the energy released during reduction of
food into ADP.
(4) A process that uses oxygen, produces carbon dioxide and converts the energy released during
oxidation of food into ATP.
44. Which of the following labelled part of circulatory system has high concentration of Carbon dioxide?

(1) P and Q (2) R and P (3) Only S (4) Q and S

45. What is the end product of anaerobic respiration in muscle cells?
(I) Lactic acid (II) CO2
(III) Water (IV) Alcohol
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) I, II and III only (4) I, III and IV only
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
x
46. When a positive integer x is divided by positive integer y, the remainder is 9. If = 96.12, what is the value of y?
y
(1) 96 (2) 75
(3) 48 (4) 25
47. If the zeroes of the given polynomial p(x) = 2x2 + 3( λ – 2)x – ( λ + 4) be equal in magnitude but opposite in
sign, then λ is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 0 (4) 2
48. In the given figure (not drawn to scale), ∠ ADC = 130° and BC = BE. If AB ⊥ CE, then ∠ CEB is equal to

(1) 50°
(2) 30°
(3) 40°
(4) 45°
49. If sides of a triangle are 16 cm, 30 cm and 34 cm, then its area is equal to
(1) 225 cm2
(2) 225 3 cm2

(3) 240 cm2

(4) 450 cm2
50. The mean of a1, a2, a3, a4, … a20 is m. Find the mean of a1 + 1, a2 + 2, a3 + 3, … , a20 + 20.
(1) m + 20
(2) 2m + 21
(3) 21
m+
2
(4) 21
2m +
2
51. A sector equal to one-third of a circle of radius 10.5 cm is folded to form a cone by joining the two bounding
radii of the sector. What is the volume (in cm3) of the cone so formed?
343 3
(1) π
12
343 3
(2) π
6
343 2
(3) π
12
343 2
(4) π
6
52. In the given figure (not drawn to scale), DS = DR, ∠ D = 36°, ∠ B = 42°, then the measure of ∠ E is

(1) 30° (2) 20° (3) 25° (4) 35°

0.99999999 0.99999991
53. The value of − is equal to
1.0001 1.0003
(1) 10 –8 (2) 3(10 –8)
(3) 3(10 –4) (4) 2(10 –4)
54. If points P and Q lies in 2nd and 4th quadrant respectively, then which of the following statement is always true?
(1) Sum of the abscissa and ordinate of point P is positive.
(2) Sum of the abscissa and ordinate of point Q is positive.
(3) Product of the abscissa and ordinate of point P is negative.
(4) Difference of the abscissa and ordinate of point P is negative.
55. If α , β be the zeroes of the polynomial x2 – px + r and α , 2 β be the zeroes of the polynomial x2 – qx + r, then
2
9r
the value of is
2
(1) (2q – p) (4p – 2q)
(2q − p) (4p − 2q)
(2)
9
(3) (2q – p) (2p – q)
(2q − p) (2p − q)
(4)
3
56. If x = asin θ , y = acos θ and x2 + y2 = 1, then value of a is
(1) 1
(2) – 1
(3) Either 1 or – 1
(4) 1
2
57. From 87x + 53y = 15; 53x + 87y = – 155, find the value of x – y.
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) – 5
1 1
58. If and are the zeroes of the polynomial px2 – qx + r, then p, q and r satisfy the relation
cosecθ sec θ
(1) p2 + q2 + 2pr = 0
(2) p2 – q2 + 2pr = 0
(3) p2 + r2 + 2pq = 0
(4) p2 – q2 – 2pr = 0
59. A man sells a full cone ice-cream at Rs. 20 in which cost of empty cone and profit is Rs. 5. If he puts a
hemispherical shape ice-cream scoop on it's top with base exactly same in size of top of cone (profit is same in
both), then he sells it at Rs. 50, then height of cone will be
(1) Same as radius of hemispherical top.
(2) Half of radius of hemispherical top.
(3) Double of radius of hemispherical top.
(4) Triple of radius of hemispherical top.
60. In the given figure (not drawn to scale), which of the following statements is true?

(1) AB = CD
(2) AC = CD
(3) BC = CD
(4) AD < CD
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “The father of his brother is the only son of my grandfather.”
How is the woman related to the man in the photograph ?
(1) Mother (2) Aunt (3) Daughter (4) Sister
62. If instead of 365 days, a year was of 400 days and a leap year was of 450 days, then what will be the day on 1st
day of year 2031 if 1st day of year 2021 is a Thursday given that a week still has 7 days?
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday
(3) Wednesday (4) Can't be determined
63. Which upcoming year will have the same calendar as of year 2024?
(1) 2051 (2) 2053 (3) 2050 (4) 2052
64. A train is running 4 min late and becoming 3 second late in each minute then after how many minutes this train
is completely one hour late?
(1) 1140 minutes (2) 1120 minutes (3) 1122 minutes (4) 1220 minutes
65. How many times the hour hand and the minute hand coincide in a clock between 10:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. (same
day)?
(1) 3 times (2) 4 times (3) 5 times (4) 6 times
66. In a certain code language, "CAD" is written as "8" and "SAP” is written as "9". How is "CAN” written in that
code language?
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 6
67. How many triangles are there in the following figure?

(1) 19 (2) 21 (3) 25 (4) 23

68. Here 3 positions of a dice are shown below. Which sign will be come in place of ‘?’ ?

(1) ÷ (2) – (3) × (4)

69. A train is running from South to North and the air flow is from West to East. Find the direction of smoke
exhausted from the train?
(1) North-East (2) South-East (3) South (4) South-West
70. Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

71. Let "%" stands for "is equal to", "?" for "greater than" and "#" for "lesser than". If 6x% 5y and 2y?3z, then
(1) 2x ? 3z (2) 4x ? 5z
(3) 2x # z (4) 4x % 3z
72. Find the missing number in the figure given below.

(1) 64 (2) 107

(3) 69 (4) 84
73. In a certain code language, MANGO is written as 188 and RUN is written as 79, then the word ANGARE will be
coded as:
(1) 524 (2) 425
(3) 542 (4) 245
74. Find the next term in the following series.
N, L, G, W, F, F, ?
(1) W (2) U
(3) X (4) S
75. Find the next term that will continue the following number series.
2, 18, 80, 332, 984, 1978, ?
(1) 1972
(2) 1968
(3) 1966
(4) 1962
76. In a row at a bus stop, A is 9th from the right end and B is 7th from the left end. They both interchange their
positions. If there are 20 people in the row, what will be the new position of B from the left?
(1) 11th
(2) 12th
(3) 13th
(4) 10th
77. In a class among the passed students Priya is 32nd from the top. Mohit who is 5 ranks below Priya and he is 19th
from the bottom. All the students from the class appeared for an examination. If the ratio of the students who
passed in the examination to those who failed is 5:1 for the class, how many students were there in the class?
(1) 66 (2) 60
(3) 75 (4) 90
78. Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G belong to seven different countries viz. India, Nepal, China, America,
Russia, France and England but not necessarily in the same order. They like seven different colours viz. Pink,
Red, Black, Blue, White, Yellow and Green but not necessarily in the same order.
One who likes Black does not belong to Russia. B is from China and does not like Blue. The one who belongs to
Nepal neither like Blue nor White. A is from England. The one who belongs to America likes Pink. C likes
Green but he is neither from France nor from Russia. E is from India and likes Yellow. D likes Red and G likes
Black. Who likes Blue?
(1) A (2) C
(3) B (4) F
79. Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Q is sitting between V and S.
W is third to the left of Q and second to the right of P. R is sitting between P and V while Q and T are not sitting
opposite to each other. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) S and P are sitting opposite to each other.
(2) R is third to the right of S.
(3) T is sitting between U and S.
(4) P is sitting between R and U.
80. In the following question few statements are given followed by some conclusions. Consider the statements to be
completely true and answer which of the given conclusions can be derived based on the statements.
Statements :
(I) Some apples are pen.
(II) Some pineapples are pen.
(III) No pen is a dot.
Conclusions :
(I) All apples are pineapples.
(II) No apples are pen.
(III) Some apples are not pineapples.
(IV) Some dots are pineapples.
(1) Only conclusion (II) is correct. (2) Only conclusion (IV) is correct.
(3) Either conclusion (I) or (III) is correct. (4) None of the conclusion is correct.
 ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 1 4 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 2 4 2 3 4 2 1

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 1 3 4 4 4 1 4 4 1 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 2 4 2 1 2 4 3 3 3 3 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 2
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 4 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 1 1 3 3

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