14-07-2024

2404CMD303033240002 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) If the direction cosines of the vector are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) are two vectors given by and . The magnitude of the component of

along is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The angle between the vectors and is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Minimum of value of is :

(1) –AB
(2) zero
(3) AB
(4) None of these

5)

Find the torque of a force acting at the point :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) If vectors and are equal vectors, then the value of a is :

(1) –5
(2) 2
(3) –3
(4) 4

7) The diagonals of a parallelogram are represented by vectors and .

Then the area of the parallelogram is :-

(1) unit
(2) unit
(3) 171 unit
(4) 72 unit

8) If and . Find :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) Two forces (shown in figure) act on a body simultaneously. Among the given options which force

when added will give resultant in North-East direction ?

(1) 1 N in North direction
(2) 1 N in East direction
(3) 3 N in West direction
(4) 1 N in North-East direction

10) A vector can be resolved :-

(1) Only in two components

(2) Only in three components
(3) In any number of components
(4) Either in two or three components

11) What is the projection of on ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) A given vector , the angle between and y-axis is :-

(1) tan–1 3/2

(2) tan–1 2/3
(3) sin–1 2/3
(4) cos–1 2/3

13) A vector points vertically upward and points towards south. The vector product is :

(1) zero
(2) along west
(3) along east
(4) vertically downward

14) If then calculate the value of .

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 3

15) A particle moves on a circular path with constant speed 15 m/s. Find the change in speed &
magnitude of change in velocity, when particle completes half revolution :-

(1) 30 m/s, 30 m/s

(2) 0, 30 m/s
(3) 0, 15 m/s
(4) 0, 0

16) A particle starts with a velocity of 2 ms–1 and moves in a straight line with a retardation of 0.1
ms–2. The first time at which the particle is 15 m from the starting point is :

(1) 10 s
(2) 20 s
(3) 30 s
(4) 40 s

17) A particle moves along a semicircle of radius 10 m in 5 seconds. The average velocity of the
particle is

(1) 2π ms- 1
(2) 4π ms-1
(3) 2 ms-1
(4) 4 ms- 1

18) A particle is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 40 m/s. The ratio of its accelerations
after 1s and 2s of its motion is:

(1) 2
(2) 9.8
(3) 1
(4) 4.9

19) An object initially at rest moves along x-axis subjected to an acceleration (a) which varies with
time (t) according to relation a = (2t + 5 ) If initial velocity of partical is 5m/s then its velocity after 2
second will be :-

(1) 14 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 19 m/s

20) Distance travelled by the tip of hour's hand of length 10 cm in 100 sec is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
21) A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km with constant speed of 2.5 km/hr and walks back
with a constant speed of 4 km/hr. His average speed for round trip expressed in km/hr is

(1)

(2)

(3) 3

(4)

22) A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the
ground. What is the position of the ball at T/3 second?

(1) h/9 meters from the ground

(2) 7h/9 meters from the ground
(3) 8h/9 meters from the ground
(4) 17h/18 meters from the ground

23) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average
speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A particle starts from origin & moves towards positive y-axis to the point (0, 20m) & return back
to the point (0, 5m). The ratio of distance travelled to the magnitude of displacement is :-

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 7 : 1
(4) 1 : 7

25) A body starting from rest covers a distance of 9 m in the fifth second. The acceleration of the
body is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) .2 m/s2
(3) 1.8 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

26) A body is moving with a uniform acceleration covers 40 m is the first 4 s and 120 m in next 4 s.
Its initial velocity and acceleration are :-

(1) 0, 5 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s, 4 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s, 0
(4) 4 m/s, 5 m/s2

27) The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by x = a + bt2 where a = 8.5 m, b = 2.5
m/s2 and t is measured in seconds. What is average velocity between t = 2 sec to t = 4 sec ?

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 12 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 18 m/s

28) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 144 km/h in 20 seconds, it covers a distance
of:

(1) 20 m
(2) 400 m
(3) 1440 m
(4) 2980 m

29)

At an instant t, the coordinates of a particle x = at2, y = bt2 and z = 0, then its velocity at the instant
t will be

(1) t

(2) 2t
(3)
(4) 2t2

30) If displacement is x = a0 + a1t + a2t2 then acceleration is :-

(1) a0
(2) a1
(3) a2
(4) 2a2

31) A body starting from rest moves with constant acceleration, the ratio of distance covered by the
body during the 5th sec. to that covered in 5 sec. is :

(1) 9/25
(2) 3/5
(3) 25/9
(4) 1/25

32) A car moving with a velocity of 20 m/s can be stopped by the application of a constant force "F"
in a distance of 16 m. If the velocity of the car is 50 m/s. It can be stopped by this force is :-

(1) 40 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 125 m
(4) 250 m

33) A ball is dropped from top of a tower of 100 m height simultaneously another ball was thrown
upward from bottom of the tower with a speed of 50 m/s (g = 10 m/s2). They will cross each other
after

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 3 sec
(4) 4 sec

34) A rocket is fired vertically from the ground. It moves upwards with a constant acceleration 20
m/s2 for 30 sec after which the fuel is finished. After what time from the instant of firing the rocket
will attain the maximum height ? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 90 s
(2) 45 s
(3) 60 s
(4) 75 s

35) A train 200 m long crosses a bridge 300 m long. It enters the bridge with a speed of 30 ms–1 and
leaves it with a speed of 50 ms–1. What is the time taken to cross the bridge ?

(1) 2.5 s
(2) 7.5 s
(3) 12.5 s
(4) 15.0 s

SECTION - B

1) Figure shows a cube of edge length a. The angle between and is -

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

2) Two birds are flying in sky with their velocities and

where 't' in in sec then at what time their velocities are perpendicular to each other :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 1 sec
(3) 3 sec
(4) 1/2 sec

3) Figure shows three vectors where C is the mid-point of AB. Then which of the

following relation is correct ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) If is perpendicular to , then projection of on will be :-

(1) 0
(2) a – b

(3)

(4)

5) If , which of the following can not be a possible case?

(1)

(2) angle between and = 30o and angle between and = 150o all three vectors are of
equal magnitude.
(3) is a null vector
(4) , and are along x, y and z-axis respectively.

6) Vector makes equal angles with x, y and z axis. Value of its components (in terms of magnitude
of ) will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A particle is thrown upwards from ground. It experiences a constant resistance force which
produces a retardation of 2 m/s2. The ratio of time of ascent to the time of descent is (g = 10 m/s2) :

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) BC is the diameter of a circle of radius 62.5 cm. A particle moves with constant speed of 2.5 cm/s
from B to C through A on straight line.

Find time taken.

(1) 70s
(2) 50s
(3) 80s
(4) 100s
9) A particle travels with speed 100 m/s from the point (10, 20) in a direction Find its
position vector after 2 seconds.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Two boys A and B are about to start a race. If A is initially 9 m behind B and A starts runing with
constant velocity 10 m/s and B starts runing with acceleration of 2 m/s2 then time after which A will
overtake B is :-

(1) 1s
(2) 9s
(3) 10s
(4) 8s

11) A body is dropped from the top of a tower. During the last second of its fall it travels a distance
equal to 35 m, then find total time :

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 6

12) A body released from a height falls freely towards earth. Another body is released from the same
height exactly one second later. The separation between the two bodies two second after the release
of the second body is (g = 10m/s2) :–

(1) 9.8 m
(2) 49 m
(3) 25 m
(4) None

13) A balloonist releases a bag from a balloon rising constantly at 40 ms–1 at a time when the balloon
is 100 m above the ground. If g = 10 ms–2, then the bag reaches the ground in :-

(1) 16 s
(2) 18 s
(3) 10 s
(4) 20 s
14) A particle is moving in a straight line and passes through a point O with a velocity of 10 ms–1.
The particle moves with a constant retardation of 5 ms–2 for 3 s and there after moves with constant
velocity. How long after leaving O does the particle return to O ?

(1) 3 s
(2) 8 s
(3) Never
(4) 4.5 s

15) A particle is projected vertically upwards and it reaches the maximum height 'H' in time 'T'. The
height of the particles at any time t will be :-

(1) g(t – T)2

(2)
H– g(t – T)2

(3)
g(t – T)2

(4)
gt2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) "Iso" can not be used for structure :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) In isooctane, total number of primary, secondary, tertiary C and quaternary C are ?

(1) 1°C = 5, 2°C = 1, 3°C = 2, 4°C = 1

(2) 1°C = 6, 2°C = 1, 3°C = 1, 4°C = 1
(3) 1°C = 5, 2°C = 1, 3°C = 1, 4°C = 1
(4) 1°C = 5, 2°C = 2, 3°C = 1, 4°C = 1

3) The no. of C-atom in IInd member of ester is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

4) Which of the following is incorrect statement about homologous series :-

(1) Members of homologous series have same chemical properties

(2) Successive homologue has difference of CH3
(3) Members of homologous series have different physical properties
(4) None

5)

The name of is :-

(1) S-propyl alcohol

(2) isopropyl alcohol
(3) Dimethyl carbinol
(4) Both (2) and (3)

6) Compound which is not heterocyclic :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Number of σ and π bond in given compound :-

(1) 27σ + 5π
(2) 18σ + 6π
(3) 22σ + 4π
(4) 20σ + 3π

8) In the hydrocarbon The state of hybridization of carbon x, y and z are in

the following sequence :-

x y z
2
(A) sp sp sp3
(B) sp3 sp2 sp
3
(C) sp sp sp2
(D) sp2 sp3 sp
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

9) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :-

(1) 3-(Carboxyethyl) pentane-1,5-dioic-acid

(2) 3-(Carboxymethyl) hexanoic - acid
(3) 3-(Carboxymethyl) hexane-1,6-dioic-acid
(4) Butane-1,2,4-tricarboxylic – acid

10) The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) Ethoxy formyl chloride

(2) Ethoxy methanoyl chloride
(3) Ethyl chloro methanoate
(4) Ethoxy carbonyl chloride

11) The suffix of the principal group, the prefixes for the other groups and the name of the parent in
the structure :-
are given by the set :

(1) -oic acid, chloro, hydroxy, oxo, methyl, 4-heptene

(2) -oic acid, chloro, hydroxy, methyl, oxo, 4-heptene
(3) -one, carboxy, chloro, methyl, hydroxy, 4-heptene
(4) -one, carboxy, chloro, methyl, hydroxy, 4-heptene

12) The IUPAC name of is

(1) 3-methylcyclohexene
(2) 1-methylcyclohex-2-ene
(3) 6-methylcyclohexene
(4) 1-methylcyclohex-5-ene

13) The IUPAC name of C6H5COCl is

(1) chlorobenzyl ketone

(2) benzene chloroketone
(3) benzenecarbonyl chloride
(4) chlorophenyl ketone

14) The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the
IUPAC system of nomenclature is

(1) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COOH

(2) –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2, –CHO
(3) –SO3H, –COOH, –CONH2, –CHO
(4) –CHO, –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2

15) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) 4-Bromo-3-cyanophenol
(2) 2-Bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile
(3) 2-Cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene
(4) 6-Bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile

16) The IUPAC name of the compound : CH3CH = CHC ≡ CH is

(1) Pent-4-yn-2-ene
(2) Pent-3-en-1-yne
(3) Pent-2-en-4-yne
(4) Pent-1-yn-3-ene

17)

The IUPAC name of the compound is :

(1) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
(2) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene
(3) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene
(4) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene

18)

IUPAC name of is

(1) 1,4—Hexenyne
(2) 1—Hexene—5—yne
(3) 1—Hexyn—5—ene
(4) 1 , 5—Hexynene

19) The IUPAC name of is

(1) 3-ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane

(2) 1, 1-diethyl-2, 2-dimethylpentane
(3) 4, 4-dimethyl-5, 5-diethylpentane
(4) 5, 5-diethyl-4, 4-dimethylpentane

20) The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH = CHC ≡ CH is

(1) pent-4-yn-2-ene
(2) pent-3-en-1-yne
(3) pent-2-en-4-yne
(4) pent-2-yn-3-ene

21) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) 4-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
(2) 2-bromo-3-methylpent-4-ene
(3) 3-methyl-4-bromopent-2-ene
(4) 3-methyl-2-bromopent-4-ene

22) Given two structures are :-

(a)

(b)

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Structural isomer
(4) Metamer

23) Which of the following compound show cis and trans isomerism?

(1) Cl–CH = CH – Cl

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)
Which type of isomerism is observed between I and II.

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Metamers
25) -

(1) Functional Isomers

(2) Position Isomers
(3) Chain Isomers
(4) Metamers

26) The number of metamers of the compound with molecular formula C5H12O is/are :-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

27)

Which of the following is incorrect isomeric pair

(1)
Functional isomer

(2)
Functional isomer

(3)
Chain isomer

(4)

Metamers

28) The hybridization of carbon atoms in C–C single bond of H–C C–CH=CH2 is

(1) sp3–sp3
(2) sp2–sp3
(3) sp3–sp
(4) sp–sp2

29) Structures CH3 — CH2 — CH = CH2 and are

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Both chain & position isomers
(4) Not isomers

30) CH3CH2CH2NH2, CH3CH2NHCH3 and are related to which type of Isomerism?

(1) Functional Isomers

(2) Chain Isomers
(3) Metamers
(4) Position isomers

31) Which of the following is correctly matched.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32)

Degree of unsaturation for benzene is/are?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

33) What is the correct relationship between the following compounds?

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Identical

34) Molecular formula C4H10O represent

(1) Four primary alcohol

(2) Three secondary alcohol
(3) One tertiary alcohol
(4) All of these

35) The number of structural isomers for C5H10 are :

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 9

SECTION - B

1) Number of geometrical isomer possible for following compound :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

2) Number of compounds which can show geometrical isomerism :-

(1) 7
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 4

3) Compounds which can show geometrical isomerism :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Compounds which can show geometrical isomerism :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Which of the following does not represent E form:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Which of the following isomerism exists between pair of compound ?

H–C≡C–CH3 &

(1) Ring chain isomer

(2) Functional isomer
(3) Chain isomer
(4) (1) & (2) both

7) The number of geometrical isomers shown by the given compound are :-

CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH–C2H5

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5
8) Which of the following compounds has no geometrical isomer :-

(1) 1-Phenylpropene
(2) 1, 2-Diphenylethene
(3) 1, 2-Diphenylpropene
(4) 1, 1-Diphenylpropene

9) Total number of geometrical isomer are possible for the given compound :-

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 6

10) The number of geometrical isomers for

(CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH=CH2) is

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 6

11) Which of the following has E-configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following is heterocyclic compound

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 1 & 2 both

13) Which of the following has E-configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which among the following will show geometrical isomerism :

(1)

(2)

(3) C6H5–CH=N–OH
(4) All of these

15) Which compound has Z-configuration :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister
chromatids remain associated at their centromeres :-

(1) Anaphase I
(2) Anaphase II
(3) Metaphase I
(4) Metaphase II

2) Choose the correct sequence of events in cells cycle.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) The figures below show three stages (A, B, C) of mitotic division. Select the option giving correct

identification together with what it represents :-

(1) B – Splitting of centeromere

(2) A – Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(3) C – Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle
(4) B – Chromosomes consist of one chromatid

4) Most of the cell organells duplication occur in which phase :-

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2
(4) M-Phase

5) If in a cell, the amount of DNA is 2C in G1 then what will be ratio of amount of DNA - G2 :
Prophase : Anaphase

(1) 4C : 4C : 4C
(2) 2C : 4C : 4C
(3) 1C : 4C : 4C
(4) 4C : 2C : 2C

6) Prophase of the mitotic division is :

(1) Longer and more complex than Prophase-I of Miosis.

(2) Shorter and less complex than prophase of Meiosis
(3) Longer and less complex than prophase of Meiosis
(4) Shorter and more complex than prophase-I of Meiosis

7) Chromosome replication occurs in

(1) Interphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Anaphase

8) Chromosome with two chromatids move towards poles during

(1) Anaphase
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Metaphase-I

9) DNA segregation is an essential feature of mitosis because:

(1) Each daughter cell must receive a complete set of chromosomes

(2) It is necessary for the physical separation of daughter cells
(3) Only one daughter cell should receive the parental DNA
(4) It ensures that the parent cell is large enough to divide
10)

Synaptonemal complex is a structure of

(1) cytokinesis
(2) chromosomal disfunction
(3) terminalisation
(4) chromosomal pairing

11) Identify the following diagram :

(1) Transition to Metaphase

(2) Transition to Anaphase-II
(3) Transition to Metaphase -I
(4) Transition to Anaphase

12) A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer, which gives correct

identification of the stage with its characteristics.

(1) Telophase — Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms

(2) Late anaphase — Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, Golgi complex not present
(3) Cytokinesis — Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells
(4) Telophase1 — Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet

13)

Crossing over takes place between :-

(1) Two non homologous chromosome

(2) Two sister chrometids
(3) Two homologous chromosome
(4) Four Non homologous chromosome
14) In which stage of cell division, chromosomes are most condensed ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

15) Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere ?

(1) Metaphase I
(2) Metaphase II
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Telophase II

16) How many chromosomes shall be present in a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if its egg cell has
five chromosome:-

(1) 10 (Ten)
(2) 20 (Twenty)
(3) 30 (Thirty)
(4) 40 (Forty)

17) During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during :-

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Prophase-II
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Anaphase-II

18) The final stage of meiotic prophase I is :-

(1) Diplotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Metaphase

19) In which stage, the chromosomes that have reached their respective poles decondense and lose
their individuality/identity :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

20) Which one ensures maintenance of chromosome number generation after generation?
(1) Mitosis
(2) Meiosis
(3) Cytokinesis
(4) Interphase

21) During quiescent phase of cell cycle :-

(1) DNA replication occurs

(2) Cell remain metabolically active
(3) Cell become dead
(4) Cell is showing active cell division

22) Identify the given below stage with its respective event :-

Splitting of the
(1) Anaphase-II
centromeres

Homologous
(2) Anaphase-I
chromosomes separate

Splitting of the
(3) Anaphase-I
centromeres

Bivalent chromosomes
(4) Metaphase-I align on the equatorial
plate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) In the nucleus of an egg, the number of chromosome is 25. Find the number of chromatids
during metaphase-I ?

(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 200
(4) 100

24) Phragmoplast is precursor of

(1) leucoplast
(2) chloroplast
(3) spindle apparatus
(4) cell plate

25) Morphology of chromosomes is most easily studied in which phase –

(1) Metaphase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Prophase

26) If the n = 16 in plant cell then how many possible bivalent in metaphase - I of meiosis

(1) 32 Bivalents
(2) 16 Tetravalents
(3) 16 Bivalents
(4) 32 Tetravalents

27) How many statements are correct?

(i) Spindle fibres attached to secondary constriction.
(ii) Nucleolus contains nucleus and chromatin net.
(iii) All the cell organelles perform different but specific function.
(iv) A single human cell has approximately two metre long thread of DNA distributed among its forty
six chromosomes.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

28) Match the column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) G1-phase (i) Tubulin protein synthesis

(B) G2-phase (ii) DNA replication

(C) S-phase (iii) Quiescent stage

(D) G0-phase (iv) RNA & protein synthesis

Option :-
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

29) Assertion :- Metaphase chromosomes are made up of four sister chromatids

Reason :- Histones are synthesised in metaphase.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is the NOT correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

30) It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human cells takes 24 hours. Which phase of the
cycle, do you think occupies the maximum part of cell cycle?

(1) Prophase
(2) Interphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Metaphase

31) How many chromosomes will the cell have at G1, after S and after G2 phase, if gamete formed by
it has 8 chromosome.

(1) 16, 16, 16

(2) 16, 16, 8
(3) 8, 8, 8
(4) 8, 16, 16

32) Identify the following figure.

(1) Early prophase

(2) Metaphase
(3) Late prophase
(4) Telophase

33) At the end of prophase which cell organelles disappear :-

(1) Ribosomes, Chromatin

(2) Golgi complex, Nucleolus
(3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Centriole
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Chromatin

34) A bivalent consists of

(1) two chromatids and one centromere
(2) two chromatids and two centromeres
(3) four chromatids and two centromeres
(4) four chromatids and four centromeres.

35) Post mitotic gap phase and synthetic phases of cell cycle are also respectively referred to as

(1) G2 and S
(2) G1 and S
(3) G1 and G2
(4) S and G2

SECTION - B

1) Match the column-I with column-II

(1) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i

(2) I-i, II-iv, III-ii, IV-iii
(3) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
(4) I-iii, II-ii, III-i, IV-iv

2) What is not correct about Mitosis ?

(1) Usually restricted to the diploid cells of animals and haploid cells of some social insects
(2) It is not equational division
(3) Growth in multicellular organisms is a result of Mitosis
(4) Meristematic tissues show mitosis

3) Find the correct match :

(1) Leptotene – pairing of homologous chromosomes

(2) Pachytene – Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
(3) Zygotene – Formation of synaptonemal complex
(4) Diplotene – Terminalization of chiasmata

4) Centrioles undergo duplication during of and begin to move towards opposite poles of
the cell during stage of :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) S-Phase Interphase Prophase Mitosis

(2) S-Phase Interphase Anaphase Mitosis

(3) Prophase Mitosis Metaphase Mitosis

(4) Prophase Mitosis Anaphase Mitosis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Choose the incorrect match in given figure for A, B, C or D in cell cycle of

plant cell :

(1) A = Cell organelles double

(2) B = Centriole duplication
(3) C = Tubulin protein synthesis
(4) D = Cell do not divide

6) Tetrad is made of

(1) four nonhomologous chromatids

(2) four nonhomologous chromosomes
(3) four homologous chromosomes with four chromatids
(4) two homologous chromosomes and each with two chromatids

7) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram depicting cell cycle and select the correct option.
 A B C D
(1) G0 G1 S G2
(2) G1 S G2 G0
(3) G1 G0 S G2
(4) S G0 G1 G2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Find the correct sequence stages prophase-I of meiosis-I :-

(1) Leptotene → Zygotene → Diplotene → Pachytene → Diakinesis

(2) Leptotene → Pachytene → Zygotene → Diplotene → Diakinesis
(3) Zygotene → Leptotene → Pachytene → Diakinesis → Diplotene
(4) Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene → Diplotene → Diakinesis

9) Sequence of figures given below showing stages in cell division.

Find the missing stage in between (i) & (ii)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

10) Choose the incorrect pair :-

(1) Synapsis – Zygotene

(2) Synaptonemal complex – Leptotene
(3) Crossing over – Pachytene
(4) Terminalisation of chiasmata – Diakinesis

11) Read the following statements :

(A) Both the chromatids of chromosome are joined by a structure called centromere
(B) During cell division spindle fibres are attached to satellite
(C) Telomeres are rich in guanine base
(D) Every chromosome essentially has a secondary constriction
Find out correct sequence of true(T) and flase(F) statements :-

(1) T F T T
(2) F T F T
(3) T F T F
(4) T T F F

12) If at the end of meiosis each daughter cell has four chromosomes, how many chromosomes
would a diploid cell have in G1 phase of cell cycle?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16

13)

If Diplotene - P,Diakinesis - Q ,Leptotene -R , Zygotene - S and Pachytene - T ,then arrange them in

the sequence of occurrence.

(1) P→R→S→Q→T
(2) R→P→T→S→Q
(3) R→Q→S→P→T
(4) R→S→T→P→Q

14) Recombination process occurs between.......

(1) Non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

(2) Sister chromatid of homologous chromosome
(3) Sister chromatids of non homologous chromosomes
(4) Non sister chromatids of non homologous chromosomes

15) The interphase nucleus :-

(1) Nucleus of a cell when it is dividing

(2) Have duplicated centrioles
(3) Does not have nucleolus
(4) Have pores in their nuclear envelope

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Which of the following is a zwitter ion ?

(1) a
(2) a and b
(3) a and c
(4) b

2) Identify A and B bonds in the following diagrammatic representation of a portion of glycogen :-

 A=1-4 α-glycosidic bonds,
(1)
B-1-6 α-glycosidic bonds
A=1-6 α-glycosidic bonds,
(2)
B=1-4 α-glycosidic bonds
A =1-1 α-glycosidic bonds,
(3)
B=1-1 α-glycosidic bonds
A=1-4 α-glycosidic bonds,
(4)
B=1-4 α-glycosidic bonds

3) Read the given statements carefully :

1. Lipids are water insoluble
2. Mostly lipid do not form polymer
3. Simple lipids are ester of fatty acid & glycerol
4. Unsaturated fatty acids called non essential fatty acid
How many statements is/are correct ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) All the above

4) Ligaments are made up of :-

(1) Only white fiber

(2) Yellow fiber and white fiber
(3) Yellow fiber and muscle fiber
(4) White fiber & muscle fiber

5) Which of the following secondary metabolites are used as drugs?

(1) Abrin and ricin

(2) Vinblastin and curcumin
(3) Anthocyanins
(4) Gums and cellulose

6) One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is :-

(1) Chitin
(2) Peptidoglycan
(3) Cellulose
(4) Hemicellulose

7) The biomolecule whose weight is less than ________ dalton (Da) is referred to as biomicromolecule:

(1) 800
(2) 18
(3) 1000
(4) 10,000

8) A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :-

only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to, which a phosphate group is
(1)
also attached
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to, which a phosphate
(2)
group is also attached
a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group, which is also attached to a
(3)
glycerol molecule
only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycol molecule to, which a phosphate group is also
(4)
attached

9) Specificity of proteins is due to :-

(1) Types of amino acids

(2) Sequence of nucleosides
(3) Sequence of amino acid
(4) Number of amino acids

10)

Here some amino acids are given. How many amino acids is in list given below are essential amino
acids.

Methionine, Glutamic Acid, Alanine, Histidine, Valine, Cysteine, Serine

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 6

11) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a-serine, b-glycine, c-alanine

(2) a-glycine, b-serine, c-alanine
(3) a-glycine, b-alanine, c-serine
(4) a-alanine, b-serine, c-glycine

12) Protein exhibiting 3–D structure with irregular folding of polypeptide chain.........

(1) Secondary structure

(2) Primary structure
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) α – helix

13) Given below are two statement :

Statement I : The chemical and physical properties of amino acids are essentially of the amino,
carboxyl and the R functional group.
Statement II : A particular property of amino acids is the ionizable nature of –NH2 and –COOH
groups. Hence, in solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acid changes.
Chose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) Both statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

14) How many statement/statements is/are incorrect with respect to glandular epithelium.
(a) Some squamous or cuboidal cells get specialized for secretion and are called glandular
epithelium
(b) Unicellular glands consists of isolated glandular cells
(c) Multicellular glands consists of cluster of cells like salivary glands
(d) Exocrine glands release their products directly into the fluid bathing the gland.
(e) Endocrine glands secrete mucus, saliva, earwax, oil milk, digestive enzyme and other cell
products.

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

15) A non-proteinaceous enzyme is :

(1) Lysozyme
(2) Ribozyme
(3) Ligase
(4) Deoxyribounclease

16) Which enzyme show maximum turn over number :-

(1) Lysozyme
(2) Catalase
(3) Carbonic anhydrase
(4) Flavoprotein

17) Enzyme increases the rate of Biochemical reactions :-

(1) By lowering the temperature of substrate molecule.

(2) By lowering the activation energy.
(3) By increases in activation energy of substrate
(4) By decrease in C-value paradox of chromosomes.

18) Represented below is the effect of change in pH on enzyme activity. Which one of the following
conclusions can be made by this diagram?

Enzyme show its highest activity at a particular pH, both below and above this pH, activity
(1)
declines
(2) With increasing pH, activity increases upto a limit then it became constant
(3) At a particular pH, activity is minimum, both below and above this pH activity increases
(4) Enzyme activity is affected by temperature not by pH so it is completely a hypothetical graph

19) S – G + S' → S + S' – G

Type of reaction is catalysed by which of the following enzyme class?

(1) Class-I
(2) Class-II
(3) Class-V
(4) Class-IV

20) Non protein part which cannot be easily separated from apoenzyme is :-

(1) Prosthetic group

(2) Coenzyme
(3) Activator
(4) Holoenzyme (conjugated enzyme)

21) Given below are the example of few amino acids :

Glutamic acid, lysine, valine, tyrosine, phenylalanine, tryptophan

How many of the above are aromatic amino acids ?

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 3

22) Assertion (A) : The long protein chain is folded upon itself like a hollow woolen ball, give rise
to the tertiary stricture.
Reason (R) : Tertiary structure gives a 3-D form of protein.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

23) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II
(Component) (% of the total cellular mass)
(a) Ions (i) 1
(b) Lipids (ii) 2
(c) Carbohydrates (iii) 3
(d) Nucleic acids (iv) 5–7
(e) Proteins (v) 10–15
(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv, e–v
(2) a–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–v, e–iv
(3) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv, e–v
(4) a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–v, e–i

24) Find the incorrect match :-

Polysaccharide Linkage
(1) Chitin β-(1,4)
(2) Glycogen β-(1,4)
(3) Cellulose β-(1,4)
(4) Inulin β-(1,2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Vitamin serves the function of :-

(1) An enzyme
(2) A coenzyme
(3) A holoenzyme
(4) A hormone

26) Identify A, B and C as the following figures of simple epithelium tissue :-

(A) ——→

(B) ——→
(C) ——→

(1) A-Squamous, B-Ciliated columnar, C-Cuboidal

(2) A-Ciliated columnar, B-Squamous, C-Cuboidal
(3) A-Cuboidal, B-Squamous, C-Ciliated columnar
(4) A-Ciliated columnar, B-Cuboidal, C-Squamous

27) Which of the following is non-competitive reversible inhibition ?

(1) Inhibition by succinate dehydrogenase.

(2) Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
(3) Inhibition of PFK by low ATP
(4) Inhibition of PFK by excess ATP

28) Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is :

(1) permanent and stable

(2) transient but stable
(3) permanent but unstable
(4) transient and unstable

29) Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate, is :-

(1) Inhibition by substrate analogue

(2) Competitive inhibition
(3) Reversible
(4) All

30) For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires

(1) Copper
(2) Zinc
(3) Iron
(4) Niacin

31) Which of the following is true

(1)
Affinity of Enzyme
(2) Km = Vmax
(3)
(4)
Km is enzyme concentration required for Vmax

32) CO2 + H2O H2CO3

In the absence of an enzyme, this above reaction is

(1) Very slow, about 2000 molecules of H2CO3 being formed in a minute
(2) Very slow, about 200 molecules of H2CO3 being formed in an hour
(3) Very fast, 6,00,000 molecules of H2CO3 being formed in a second
(4) Very fast, such that 10 million molecules of H2CO3 are being formed in a minute

33) With the rise/increase in substrate concentration, the rate of enzymatic reaction-

(1) Increases continuously.

Increases at first, reaching a maximum velocity which is not exceeded by any further rise in
(2)
concentration.
(3) Decreases
(4) Remains unaffected

34) Read the following four statements(A-D)

A. Epithelium tissue has a free surface which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment.
B. Epithelium tissue provides a covering or a lining for some part of the body
C. In epithelium tissue the cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix
D. Simple epithelium consists of two or more cells layers
How many of the above statements are correct:-

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

35)
Which the following statements are true?
(a) This tissue has cells and fibres loosely arranged in semi-fluid ground substance.
(b) It contains mast cells which secrete fibres.
(c) Figure b is modification of a.

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a) and c only
(4) All are true statements

SECTION - B

1) Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

(1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

2) Fibroblasts :-

(1) Cells that produce and secrete fibres

(2) Cells that produce and secrete blood
(3) Cells that produce and secrete lymph
(4) Cells that produce and secrete plasma

3)

Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II
Help to stop substances from leaking
a. Adhering Junctions 1.
across a tissue
Perform cementing to keep
b. Gap Junctions 2.
neighbouring cells together
Facilitate the cells to communicate
c. Tight Junctions 3.
with each other
(1) a–3, b–2, c–1
(2) a–2, b–3, c–1
(3) a–2, b–1, c–3
(4) a–1, b–3, c–2

4) The main function of compound epithelium is :-

(1) Helps is secretion

(2) Helps is excretion
(3) Helps is absorption
(4) Protection against chemical and mechanical stress

5) The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in:-

(1) Bile duct and oesophagus

(2) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(3) Fallopian tube and urethra
(4) Renal pelvis and stomach

6) Reducing sugars are sugars which can reduce Cu2+ ions into Cu+. Which of the following does not
represent a reducing sugar ?

(1) Maltose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Glucose
(4) Fructose

7) Chemically, carbohydrates are :-

(1) Polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketones

(2) Polyamino alcohols
(3) Polyhydroxy acids
(4) Polyethers

8)
The above diagrammatic representation is the formula of :-

(1) Lecithin
(2) Cholesterol
(3) Uridylic acid
(4) Phosphatic acid

9) Hydrophilic head of phospholipid molecule include :-

(1) 2 molecules of fatty acid

(2) H3PO4 only
(3) H3PO4 + 2 molecule of fatty acid
(4) H3PO4 + Nitrogenous compound

10) _______ is the most abundant protein in animal world and _______ is the most abundant protein in
the whole biosphere :

(1) Insulin, PEP-case

(2) Insulin, RuBisCO
(3) Collagen, PEP-case
(4) Collagen, RuBisCO

11) Which of the following is an optically inactive carbohydrate ?

(1) Glyceraldehyde
(2) Dihydroxyacetone
(3) Ribose
(4) Glucose

12) Select the correct option, which represents the homopolysaccharides made up of glucose
monomers:

(1) Sucrose, lactose, maltose

(2) Chitin, glycogen, starch
(3) Starch, inulin, peptidoglycan
(4) Starch, glycogen, cellulose

13) To analyse chemical composition of a cell, the animal/plant tissue can be homogenized in which
of the following Chemical?

(1) Hydrochloric acid

(2) Sodium hydroxide
(3) Trichloro acetic acid
(4) Sulphuric acid

14) A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide is not having :-

(1) Sugar
(2) Phosphate
(3) Nitrogen base
(4) Phosphate & sugar

15) The three structural formulae A, B and C are given here. Identify them and select the correct
option:-
 A B C

Adenine Adenosine Adenylic acid

(1)
(N-base) (Nucleotide) (Nucleoside)

Adenine Adenosine Adenylic acid

(2)
(N-base) (Nucleoside) (Nucleotide)

Adenosine Adenylic acid Adenine

(3)
(Nucleoside) (Nucleotide) (N-base)

Adenosine Adenylic acid Deoxyadenylic

(4)
(Nucleoside) (Nucleotide) acid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 2 4 1 1 4 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 1 4 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 4 3 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 2 2 1 3

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 3 2 2 4 3 3 B 3 3 1 1 3 2 2 2 2 2 1 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 4 1 1 2 2 1 4 1

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 2 4 4 3 4 1 4 1 2 4 1 4 4 1

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 2 1 3 4 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 4 4 1 3 1 1 4 2 1 3 2 3 2

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 3 1 2 4 1 4 2 2 3 3 4 1 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 3 2 2 1 3 2 3 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 4 1 2 2 3 4 4 4 2 1 2 2 4 3

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 1 2 4 2 2 1 1 4 4 2 4 3 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

3)

7)

9)

should be along North–East direction

12)

14)
2(1) sin ∴ θ = 90°

15)

vi =
vf = –
Change in speed =
= 15 – 15 = 0
Change in velocity =
= =

16)

15 = 2t – or t = 10 s

18)

We know that the acceleration in a motion under gravity is constant which is

Hence, the required ratio will be

20) Distance =

21)

so, average speed

24)

Initial position = (0,0)

Final position = (0, 5)

=5–0
distance = 20 + 15 = 35 m

27)

Here acceleration = constant so

Average velocity =
= 6(2.5) = 15 m/s

28) v = 144 × = 40 m/s

a= = 2 m/s2

s= at2 =

33)

34)

Velocity at the time when fuel is finished :-

V = U + at = 0 + 20 × 30
V = 600 m/s
Now, the time taken by the rocket to reach at max. height after this instant :-
0 = 600 – 10 × t
t = 60 sec.
The total time taken by the rocket to reach at max. height = 30 + 60 = 90 sec.

36)

37)
t2 = 1
t = 1sec

38)

From the figure

or
Adding these two equations, we get, , as AC and BC are equal and opposite vectors.

41)

45)

Relative motion of A

uAB = uA – uB
= 10 – 0 m/s t2 – 10t + 9 = 0
aAB = aA – aB t = 1s, 9s
= 0 – 2 m/s2
SAB = 9m
t=?

46) Snth = 35 m

48) S = ut + at2

–100 = 40t + (–10)t2

5t2 – 40t – 100 = 0
t2 – 8t – 20 = 0
by solving equation t = 10 sec

49) For first 3 seconds,

 v = u + at,
= 10 – (5)(3)
= – 5m/s

S = (10) (3) – (5)(3)2

= 7.5 m

Now, speed is same, t2 = = 1.5 sec

T = t1 + t2 = 3 + 1.5 = 4.5 sec

50) S = ut + at2 (from the tower)

S = 0 + g (t – T)2
Hence from ground

S = H – 1/2 g (t – T)2

CHEMISTRY

67)
3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexane

88)

This compound can show G.I. and optical both.

89)

This compound can show G.I. and optical both.

90)
(1) (E–form)
(2) E–form

(3) (Z–form)
(4) E–form

91)

H–C≡C–CH3 &
C3H4 C3H4
∴ Ring chain isomer
(all ring chain isomer are functional isomer)

92)

Two pairs of cis & trans forms

93)

Same group present of sp2–c atom

94)

Number of geometrical isomers = 2n

n=3
∴ Number of G.I. = 23 = 8

95) No. of G.I. = 2n, n = 2 ∴ No. of G.I. = 22 = 4

96)

98)
 99) The correct option is D all of these
Geometrical Isomerism arises due to different arrangement atoms/groups around a system
where free rotation of bonds is restricted.

Free rotation of bonds can be restricted in following ways.

1) by double bond
2) by cyclic system

Cycloalkanes exhibit geometrical isomerism due to restricted rotation about single bond.

a, b are showing syn and anti isomerism. 'c' is showing cis and trans isomerism.

100)

Theoritical

BOTANY

101)

NCERT - XI ; Page No. # 169

102) XI NEW NCERT Pg # 121

103) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 164

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 168

119)

Module No-1 Pg. # 214

120) NCERT XI Pg # 170

122) NCERT-XI, Eng. Pg. # 169 [Fig. 10.3]

NCERT-XI, िहदी पे ज # 169 [िच 10.3]

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 165

127) iii and iv are correct

129) NCERT 11th pg no.165

 130)

131)

NCERT XI, Page # 164-165

139)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 163, Para - 05

141) Tetrad is made up of two homologous chromosomes and each with two chromatids.

144) NCERT Page No.165

145) NCERT XI Pg. # 168

146)

Misceleneous

ZOOLOGY

152) NCERT XII, Pg. # 148

157)

NCERT XI Pg.# 146

161)

NCERT Pg.#145

164)

Some columnar or cuboidal cells get specialized for secretion and are called glandular
epithelium.
Endocrine glands release their products directly into the fluid bathing the gland.
Exocrine glands secrete mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk, digestive enzymes and other cells
products.

169) Transferase are class II enzymes which catalyse transfer of a group.

171) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 144

183) NCERT Pg. # 158

 185)

(a) and (c) are true statements.

Fibroblast cells secrete fibres.

187)

NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 103, para 2

188)

NCERT XI, Page#102, 3rd para

190)

NCERT Pg. # 101 (Para-6)

193)

NCERT Pg # 145, Fig.-9.1

197) NCERT Pg. # 148