Complete Guide
Complete Guide
25
Archer Review
Table of Contents
Introduction Part III: Specialties
114 Shock
121 Endocrine
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Archer Review
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
DAY 1 SCHEDULE
9 AM - 4 PM CT
TIME TOPIC
9:00 - 9:25 AM Welcome/Test Plan/Intro
9:25 - 10:15 AM Foundations (Part 1)
S U M M A R Y
10:15 - 10:25 AM Break
10:25 - 11:15 AM Foundations (Part 2)
11:15 - 11:25 AM Break
11:25 - 12:15 PM Cardiac (Part 1)
12:15 - 1:00 PM Lunch
1:00 - 1:50 PM Cardiac (Part 2)
1:50 - 2:00 PM Break
2:00 - 3:10 PM Respiratory
3:10 - 3:20 PM Break
K E Y T E R M S
3:20 - 3:40 PM Prioritization
3:40 - 4:00 PM Test Anxiety
Part I: N ot es
Building Blocks Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
5
Archer Review
Foundations Part I N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
ABG Interpretation
Get it right, every time!
D E T A I L S
The body likes the pH to be 7.35-7.45
If it gets higher or lower than this, it tries to bring it back into normal range!
This is called compensation
Metabolic Respiratory
Kidneys make bicarbonate, a base There are Lungs either retain, or blow off, CO2
More bicarb more alkalotic TWO More CO2 more acidotic
(pH goes HIGHER) (pH goes LOWER)
ways to
Less bicarb more acidotic Less CO2 more alkalotic
compensate
(pH goes LOWER) (pH goes HIGHER)
Normal Values
S U M M A R Y
pH 7.35-7.45
CO2 35-45
7.4
perfect!
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
7
Archer Review
Question 1
Your client has the pH 7.58
N ot es
following arterial Q U E S T I O N S
blood gas values. CO₂ 35
HCO₃ 41
StepAcidosis
#1: Acidosis or alkalosis?
or alkalosis?
7.58 > 7.45 Alkalosis
7.58 > 7.45 Alkalosis. D E T A I L S
StepRespiratory
#2: Metabolic or respiratory?
or metabolic?
The HCO₃ is too high, causing a metabolic alkalosis.
The HCO₃ is too high, causing a metabolic alkalosis.
StepCompensation?
#3: Compensated or uncompensated?
The CO₂ is normal - not helping! Uncompensated.
The CO₂ is normal - not helping! Uncompensated.
Knowledge Check!
Question 2
S U M M A R Y
A client presents with the following ABG results.
What is the correct interpretation?
a. pH: 7.23
b. CO₂: 67
c. HCO₃: 28
Answer:
Acidosis or alkalosis?
pH <7.4 Acidosis.
Respiratory or metabolic?
The CO₂ is high. CO₂ is an acid. High acid causes acidosis. CO₂ is causing the problem
Respiratory.
Compensation?
Since CO₂ is causing the problem, look to HCO₃ and see if it is trying to help. The HCO₃
is normal, it is not helping, so this is uncompensated.
Question 3
A client presents with the following ABG results.
What is the correct interpretation? K E Y T E R M S
a. pH: 7.37
b. CO₂: 80
c. HCO₃: 42
Answer:
Acidosis or alkalosis?
pH <7.4 Acidosis.
Respiratory or metabolic?
The CO₂ is high. CO₂ is an acid. High acid causes acidosis. CO₂ is causing the problem
Step #1: Acidosis or Alkalosis?
Respiratory.
pH is normal.
Compensation?
Step #2: Respiratory or metabolic?
TheSince
CO₂CO₂is normal. The
is causing theHCO₃ is normal.
problem, look to HCO₃ and see if it is trying to help. The HCO₃
Step #3: Compensation.
is high. HCO₃ is a base. Lots of base raises our pH. This is helping the problem - so the
Notgas
needed…. Everything
is compensated. is normal!
Partially or fully? Look at the pH! It is within the normal range, so
the HCO₃ has fully fixed the problem. This is a fully compensated blood gas. 8
Archer Review
Question 4
A client presents with the following ABG results.
What is the correct interpretation?
a. pH: 7.58
N ot es
b. CO₂: 48 Q U E S T I O N S
c. HCO₃: 38
Answer:
Acidosis or alkalosis?
pH >7.4 Alkalosis.
D E T A I L S
Respiratory or metabolic?
The CO₂ is high. CO₂ is an acid. High acid causes acidosis. The HCO₃ is high. HCO₃ is a
Step base.
#1: Acidosis
A high baseor causes
Alkalosis?
alkalosis. We have an alkalosis, so the HCO₃ is causing the
pH <7.4 Acidosis
problem. When HCO₃ is the problem, it is metabolic.
Step #2: Respiratory or metabolic?
Compensation?
The CO₂ is high. CO₂ is an acid. High acid causes acidosis. CO₂ is causing the
Since HCO₃
problem is causing the problem, look to CO₂ and see if it is trying to help. The CO₂ is
Respiratory.
Step high. CO₂ is an acid. High acid lowers the pH, and the current pH is too high. This is
#3: Compensation.
Sincehelping
CO₂ isthe problem - so the gas is compensated. Partially or fully? Look at the pH! It is
causing the problem, look to HCO₃ and see if it is trying to help. The
NOT within the normal range, so the CO₂ has only partially fixed the problem. This is a
HCO₃partially
is normal, it is not helping, so this is uncompensated.
compensated blood gas.
Question 5
A client presents with the following ABG results.
What is the correct interpretation?
a. pH: 7.43
b. CO₂: 51
c. HCO₃: 42 S U M M A R Y
Answer:
Acidosis or alkalosis?
pH >7.4 Alkalosis.
Respiratory or metabolic?
The CO₂ is high. CO₂ is an acid. High acid causes acidosis. The HCO₃ is high. HCO₃ is a
Step #1: Acidosis
base. A highorbase
Alkalosis?
causes alkalosis. We have an alkalosis, so the HCO₃ is causing the
pH <7.4 Acidosis
problem. When HCO₃ is the problem, it is metabolic.
Step #2: Respiratory or metabolic?
The CO₂ isCompensation?
high. CO₂ is an acid. High acid causes acidosis. CO₂ is causing the problem Respiratory.
Step #3: Compensation.
Since HCO₃ is causing the problem, look to CO₂ and see if it is trying to help. The CO₂ is
Since CO₂ is causing the problem, look to HCO₃ and see if it is trying to help. The HCO₃ is high. HCO₃ is a
high.ofCO₂
base. Lots baseisraises
an acid.our High acidis lowers
pH. This helpingthe
the pH, and the
problem - so current pHcompensated.
the gas is is too high. This is or
Partially
helping
fully? Look thepH!
at the problem - sothe
It is within thenormal
gas is range,
compensated. Partially
so the HCO₃ or fully?
has fully Look
fixed the at the pH.
problem. This Itis is
a fully
within the
compensated normal
blood gas. range, so the CO₂ has fully fixed the problem. This is a fully
compensated blood gas.
Question 6
A client presents with the following ABG results.
What is the correct interpretation?
a. pH: 7.62
K E Y T E R M S
b. CO₂: 14
c. HCO₃: 18
Answer:
Acidosis or alkalosis?
pH >7.4 Alkalosis.
Acidosis or Alkalosis?
pH >7.4Respiratory
Alkalosis or metabolic?
Respiratory
The CO₂ or is metabolic?
low. CO₂ is an acid. Low acid causes alkalosis. The HCO₃ is low. HCO₃ is a
The CO₂ isLow
base. high.base
CO₂ is an acid.acidosis.
causes High acidThe
causes
CO₂acidosis. The HCO₃
is causing is high. HCO₃Respiratory.
the problem is a base. A high
base causes alkalosis. We have an alkalosis, so the HCO₃ is causing the problem. When HCO₃ is the
Compensation?
problem, it is metabolic.
Since CO₂ is causing the problem, look to HCO₃ and see if it is trying to help. The HCO₃
Compensation?
is low.
Since HCO₃Low HCO₃the
is causing lowers thelook
problem, pH,to and
CO₂theandcurrent
see if it ispH is too
trying high.
to help. TheThis
CO₂isishelping
high. CO₂the
is an
problem
acid. High acid - lowers
so the the
gaspH, is and
compensated.
the current pHPartially or This
is too high. fully? Look atthe
is helping the pH! It -issoNOT
problem within
the gas
is compensated. Partiallyso
the normal range, orthe
fully? Look at
HCO₃ theonly
has pH! Itpartially
is NOT withinfixedthe thenormal range,This
problem. so the
is CO₂ has
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only partially fixed the
compensated problem.
blood gas. This is a partially compensated blood gas.
9
ANSWER KEY -
FOUNDATIONS PART 1
Base
Page 6 Acid
Acidotic or Alkalotic
Respiratory or Metabolic
Page 7
Compensated or Uncompensated
Lactated Ringer’s
Page 11 Cerebral edema
Lactated Ringer’s
10
Archer Review
IV Fluids
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
“The concentration of a solution as
Tonicity compared to another solution”
How much stuff is in this fluid…
compared to something else
D E T A I L S
Blood vs IV fluid
Isotonic IV Fluids
IV fluid with osmolarity similar to blood.
Isotonic Expand intravascular fluid volume and do NOT
cause a shift in fluid.
Hypotonic IV Fluids
IV fluid with osmolarity lower than blood.
Moves fluid out of blood vessels into cells and
Hypotonic
interstitial spaces.
Hypertonic IV Fluids
IV fluid with osmolarity higher than blood.
Hypertonic Moves fluid out of cells and interstitial spaces
and into blood vessels.
Foundations Part II N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Electrolytes
D E T A I L S
Sodium 135-145 mEq/L Magnesium 1.5-2.5 mg/dL
Potassium 3.5-5 mEq/L Chloride 98-106 mEq/L
Calcium 9-10.5 mg/dL Phosphorus 3-4.5 mg/dL
Sodium - Na+
Sodium 135-145 mEq/L
The most abundant extracellular cation
Regulates water in the cells of the body
Water follows sodium
Sodium is important in:
The brain
Nerves
Muscle cells
Hypernatremia S U M M A R Y
Recognize Cues K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
Take Action
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Hyponatremia S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
Recognize Cues
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Archer Review
Take Action
Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Anything
processed! S U M M A R Y
Replacing sodium
Replace sodium slowly
0.5 mEq/hr
Changing the sodium level too quickly causes fluid shifts
Cerebral edema
Increased ICP
implement?
NCLEX Question
The nurse is caring for a client whose most recent serum sodium level was 152
mEq/L. Which of the following signs and symptoms do they suspect are caused by
the client's sodium level? Select all that apply.
a. Lethargy
b. Dry mucous membranes
c. Tachypnea
d. Cyanosis
e. Dry mouth
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Archer Review
Answer: A, B, and E
A is correct. Sodium plays a very important role in the brain, and imbalances in the
serum sodium level can cause major neurological changes. The client who is
N ot es
hypernatremic, or has a sodium level greater than 145 mEq/L is at risk for changes Q U E S T I O N S
in their level of consciousness ranging from restlessness and agitation to lethargy,
stupor, and coma.
B is correct. The client who has a high sodium level, greater than 145 mEq/L will
have dry mucous membranes. This is due to the relationship sodium has with
water. Water follows sodium, so where there is an increased level of sodium in the
extracellular space, water leaves the cells and follows the sodium into the D E T A I L S
extracellular space. This causes the dry mouth and mucous membranes.
E is correct. Dry mucous membranes are an expected finding in hypernatremia.
C is incorrect. Tachypnea, or an increased respiratory rate, is not a symptom of
hypernatremia. Sodium plays a very important role in the brain and nerves as well
as water balance. The major symptoms to monitor for will be neurological, not
respiratory.
D is incorrect. Cyanosis, or a bluish discoloration of the skin resulting from poor
circulation or inadequate oxygenation of the blood, is not a symptom of
hypernatremia. Sodium imbalance can cause many devastating neurological
symptoms, but will not result in cyanosis.
Chloride - Cl
Chloride 98-106 mEq/L
Hyperchloremia
Causes Assessment Treatment
Cl
Cushing’s Syndrome containing meds
Excess corticosteroid No NS for IVFs -
administration consider LR instead
Excess chloride Monitor all electrolytes -
administration it’s usually not the only
NORMAL SALINE! imbalance!
K E Y T E R M S
Hypochloremia
Causes Assessment Treatment
Cl
Monitor all electrolytes -
Sweating it’s usually not the only
Vomiting
imbalance!
Diarrhea
Cystic Fibrosis
Addison’s Disease
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Archer Review
Calcium - Ca
Calcium 9-10.5 mg/dL N ot es
Stored in the bones, absorbed in the GI system, and excreted by the kidneys Q U E S T I O N S
Plays an important role in bones, teeth, nerves, and muscles
Important for coagulation
Is controlled by parathyroid hormone and Vitamin D
Hypercalcemia Causes
Excessive intake of calcium
Hyperparathyroidism
Excessive intake of Vitamin D
Vitamin D toxicity
Cancer of the bones
Immobility
Recognize Cues
S U M M A R Y
Take Action
K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
Hypocalcemia Causes
Renal failure
Notes
Acute pancreatitis Q U E S T I O N S
Malnutrition
Malabsorption
Celiac disease
Crohn’s disease
Alcoholism
Bulimia D E T A I L S
Vitamin D deficiency
Hypoparathyroidism
Hyperphosphatemia
Recognize Cues
S U M M A R Y
Take Action
PO calcium supplements
Administer with Vitamin D
Vitamin D increases absorption of
calcium
IV calcium supplements
Calcium rich diet
Calcium works
like a sedative!
17
Archer Review
Phosphorus
Phosphorus 3-4.5 mg/dL Notes
Major role is in cellular metabolism and energy Q U E S T I O N S
production (ATP)
Makes up the phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes
Large component of bones and teeth
Has an inverse relationship with calcium
Calcium’s enemy!
D E T A I L S
Hyperphosphatemia
S U M M A R Y
Hypophosphatemia
Symptoms are
related to the
hypercalcemia
secondary to
hypophosphatemia.
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Archer Review
NCLEX Question
The nurse is reviewing their clients' laboratory findings and notes that one of her
clients has a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dL. They know that of each of the
following clients, which ones are most likely to have this result? Select all that
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
apply.
a. The client with breast cancer and bone metastases
b. The client with obesity
c. The client with Vitamin D toxicity
d. The client with hypoparathyroidism
e. The client with chronic renal failure
D E T A I L S
Answer: D and E
D is correct. The client with hypoparathyroidism is most likely to suffer from
hypocalcemia. The normal calcium level is 9.0-10.5 mg/dL, so with this client's
level of 7.2 they have too little calcium in the blood. The client who experiences
hypoparathyroidism has too little parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH regulates the
serum calcium concentration through its effects on the bones, kidneys, and
intestines. When there is too little PTH, there are decreased calcium levels, or
hypocalcemia.
E is correct. Hypocalcemia is a common problem in chronic renal failure and end-
stage renal disease (ESRD). There are two reasons for hypocalcemia in kidney
disease: increased phosphorus and decreased renal production of activated Vitamin
D (1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D). Phosphorus accumulates in renal failure.
Hyperphosphatemia results in binding to calcium and precipitates as calcium
phosphate in tissues and bones, causing hypocalcemia. The kidney is responsible
for activating Vitamin D and restoring calcium balance. In the setting of renal
diseases, one loses the capacity to activate vitamin D and calcium level drops. For
these reasons, physicians often order phosphate binders to reduce phosphorus and S U M M A R Y
calcitriol (activated vitamin D, 1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D) in chronic renal failure/
ESRD.
A is incorrect. The client with malignancy and bone metastases are more likely to
have hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia. This is due to bone destruction from
osteoclasts and the leak of calcium into blood. In addition, malignancies often cause
"paraneoplastic hypercalcemia" by secreting substances called "PTH-related
peptides" that have actions similar to Parathormone ( PTH).
B is incorrect. Obesity is not a risk factor for hypocalcemia. Malnutrition and
malabsorption, such as in celiac and crohn’s disease clients, can cause
hypocalcemia due to decreased absorption, but obesity would not cause this.
C is incorrect. The client with Vitamin D toxicity would put a client at risk for
hypercalcemia, or a serum calcium level greater than 10.5 mg/dL. This is due to the
relationship between Vitamin D and calcium; Vitamin D enhances the absorption of
calcium. Therefore, Vitamin D toxicity would lead to increased absorption of
calcium and a hypercalcemic state.
Magnesium - Mg
Magnesium 1.5-2.5 mg/dL
K E Y T E R M S
Stored in the bones and cartilage
Plays a major role in skeletal muscle contraction
Important for ATP formation
Activates vitamins
Necessary for cellular growth
Is directly related to calcium
Calcium’s friend!
Hypermagnesemia Causes
Excessive dietary intake
Too many magnesium containing medications
Over-correction of hypomagnesemia
Renal failure
19
Archer Review
Recognize Cues
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Take Action
Treat the cause
Hold any fluids or meds
containing magnesium
Loop diuretics
Calcium gluconate
Dialysis
Hypomagnesemia Causes S U M M A R Y
Alcoholism
Malnutrition
Malabsorption
Hypoparathyroidism
Hypocalcemia
Diarrhea
Recognize Cues
K E Y T E R M S
Take Action
Treat the cause
Monitor cardiac rhythm
Administer magnesium
PO - Magnesium hydroxide
IV - given very slowly
20
Archer Review
NCLEX Question
The nurse is caring for a client with a serum magnesium level of 3.2 mg/dL. they
know that which of the following could have caused this electrolyte abnormality?
N ot es
Select all that apply. Q U E S T I O N S
a. Renal failure
b. Alcoholism
c. Anorexia
d. Diarrhea
e. Malnutrition D E T A I L S
Answer: A
A is correct. The normal magnesium level is 1.5-2.5 mg/dL. This client has a level
of 3.2, and is experiencing hypermagnesemia. Renal failure can cause
hypermagnesemia due to the fact that the process that keeps the levels of
magnesium in the body at normal levels does not work properly in people with
kidney dysfunction.
B is incorrect. Alcoholism is a risk factor for hypomagnesemia, and this client has
hypermagnesemia. Hypomagnesemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality
observed in alcoholic clients. There is a loss of magnesium from tissues and
increased urinary loss, and chronic alcohol abuse depletes the total body supply of
magnesium.
C is incorrect. Anorexia is a risk factor for hypomagnesemia, and this client has
hypermagnesemia. This is due to malnutrition and a lack of dietary intake of
magnesium.
D is incorrect. Diarrhea is a risk factor for hypomagnesemia, and this client has
hypermagnesemia. Magnesium is absorbed in the GI tract, and with diarrhea there S U M M A R Y
is decreased absorption of magnesium leading to hypomagnesemia.
E is incorrect. A client who is malnourished will have had a poor dietary intake of
magnesium, leading to hypomagnesemia.
Potassium - K
Potassium 3.5-5 mEq/L
Hyperkalemia Causes
Too much potassium moved from intracellular to extracellular
Burns
Tissue damage
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Too much total potassium
Renal failure
Excessive K+ intake
Medications
ACE inhibitors
Potassium-sparing diuretics 21
Archer Review
EKG Changes
Wide, flat P waves
Prolonged PR interval
Widened QRS interval
Depressed ST segment
Tall, peaked T waves
Take Action
Interventions depend on severity of hyperkalemia and the symptoms present
MONITOR CARDIAC RHYTHM Drive potassium into cells
Discontinue any potassium D5W + regular insulin
supplements Albuterol
IV potassium Bicarbonate
PO supplements Reduce total body potassium
Potassium restricted diet Kayexalate
IV Calcium gluconate or chloride Diuretics
Given if EKG changes are Hydrochlorothiazide
present to protect the Furosemide
myocardium Dialysis
Used when severe
hyperkalemia is not
responding to other
interventions
Laxatives
D Drugs Diuretics
Corticosteroids
NPO Bulimia nervosa
I Inadequate K intake Poor diet Alcoholism
Anorexia nervosa
Polydipsia
T Too much water Excessive IVF administration
Take Action
Prevent arrhythmias
Place on cardiac telemetry
Hold digoxin
Prevent further K+ loss
Hold furosemide or other potassium
wasting drugs
Give more potassium
IV Potassium supplements
Oral potassium supplements
Give with food to prevent GI upset
Diet rich in potassium
NCLEX Question
The nurse is evaluating their client's lab results and notes that the potassium is 5.5
mEq/L. They review the telemetry monitor, looking for which of the following signs?
Select all that apply.
a. Inverted T waves
b. Widened QRS interval
c. Tall, peaked T waves
d. Prominent U-waves
e. Prolonged PR interval Answer: B, C, and E
B is correct. A widened QRS interval is a very important EKG finding in
hyperkalemia. Other EKG changes clients may experience when they are K E Y T E R M S
hyperkalemic include wide, flat P waves, a prolonged PR interval, a depressed ST
segment, and tall, peaked T waves.
C is correct. Tall, peaked T waves is a hallmark sign of hyperkalemia on an EKG.
Remember this one - it is a very common topic for NCLEX questions!! Hyperkalemia
leads to serious arrhythmias, and can progress to heart block, ventricular fibrillation,
or even asystole if left untreated.
E is correct. A prolonged PR interval is one of the EKG changes that occurs with
hyperkalemia.
A is incorrect. The normal range for potassium is 3.5 - 5 mEq/L. This client is
experiencing hyperkalemia. In hyperkalemia, there are tall, peaked T waves.
Inverted T waves is a sign of hypokalemia.
D is incorrect. The normal range for potassium is 3.5 - 5 mEq/L. This client is
experiencing hyperkalemia. Prominent U-waves are a sign of hypokalemia, or a
potassium less than 3.5, not hyperkalemia.
A client comes in with a potassium
abnormality. What should the nurse do first? 23
ANSWER KEY -
FOUNDATIONS PART 2
Brain Fluid loss
Page 12 Nerves Hypotension
Muscle cells Weak pulses
24
Archer Review
Part II: N ot es
System by System Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Coagulation Panel K E Y T E R M S
Activated partial Prothrombin Time (PT)
thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Tests the extrinsic coagulation cascade
Tests the intrinsic coagulation
Normal value: 10 - 12s
cascade
Not on anticoagulants: 30 - 40s International Normalized Ratio (INR)
On heparin, “therapeutic aPTT”: It is calculated from a PT and is used to
1.5-2.5x normal monitor how well warfarin is working
Not on anticoagulants: 0.9-1.2s
On warfarin, “therapeutic INR”: 2-3s
Cardiac Labs
Troponin Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
Troponins are a group of proteins found in skeletal and cardiac muscle
fibers that regulate muscular contraction
Troponin detected in the bloodstream indicates myocardial injury
Normal = 0-0.4
D E T A I L S
BNP
When there is fluid retention, the heart senses the need to pump harder to
move fluid forward, and releases BNP
Test for CHF
Normal <100
Cardiac Cycle
Superior Aorta
vena cava
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary Pulmonary
veins veins
K E Y T E R M S
Right ventricle
Left ventricle
Inferior
vena cava
EKGs Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
P wave:
Atrial depolarization
QRS complex:
Ventricular depolarization
T wave:
Ventricular repolarization
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
P-wave Normal
PR Interval 0.12-0.20
QRS <0.12
Rate 60-100
Regularity Regular
27
Archer Review
Sinus Tachycardia
Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
Sinus Bradycardia
Pacing
EDUCATION
DO
Keep a pacemaker identification card in your wallet
Take a bath and shower 48 hrs post PPM insertion THREE
Operate household appliances - it’s safe!
TYPES
Notify airport security of pacemaker
DON’T Transcutaneous
Transvenous
Apply pressure over the generator Permanent K E Y T E R M S
Wear tight clothing
Get lead wires wet (temporary pacemakers)
Get an MRI
Transvenous
Permanent
Transcutaneous
28
Archer Review
Atrial Arrhythmias
Causes
Atrial Fibrillation
N ot es
Heart disease Q U E S T I O N S
MI
CHF
Pericarditis
Interventions D E T A I L S
Fix the cause
Cardioversion
Antiarrhythmics:
Amiodarone
Beta blockers:
Metoprolol
Calcium channel
blockers: Diltiazem Atrial Flutter
S U M M A R Y
Causes Interventions
P-wave Hidden Fix the cause
Caffeine
PR Interval Immeasurable Cardioversion
CHF
QRS <0.12 Adenosine
Fatigue
Rate 150 or higher
Hypoxia
Regularity Regular
Altered pacemaker in heart
Ventricular Arrhythmias
Interventions
Ventricular Fibrillation
Ventricular
Fibrillation
Fix the cause
Defibrillate K E Y T E R M S
CPR
Causes Epinephrine
Both are MI, Ischemia, Hypoxia,
LIFE THREATENING! Acidosis, Hypokalemia, Ventricular
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Fix the cause
Pulse present
Cardioversion
Pulseless
Defibrillate
Ventricular Tachycardia CPR
Epinephrine
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Asystole LIFE
THREA -
TENING
!!! N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Causes Interventions D E T A I L S
P-wave None Fix the cause
PR Interval None Follows VT/VF Hypokalemia CPR
QRS None Acidosis Hypothermia Epinephrine
Rate None Hypoxia Overdose
Regularity N/A
Knowledge Check!
Answer key on the next page
Question 1
S U M M A R Y
Question 2
Question 3
a. Ventricular tachycardia
b. Atrial tachycardia
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Ventricular fibrillation 30
Archer Review
Question 4 N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
a. Supraventricular tachycardia
b. Ventricular tachycardia
c. Atrial tachycardia
d. Sinus tachycardia
Question 5
S U M M A R Y
a. Normal sinus rhythm
b. Sinus bradycardia
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Sinus tachycardia
Question 6
a. Ventricular fibrillation
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Atrial flutter
d. Ventricular tachycardia
K E Y T E R M S
Cardiac Pharmacology N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Antihypertensives
ACE inhibitors Calcium Channel Blockers
Captopril Amlodipine
Enalapril Nifedipine D E T A I L S
Lisinopril Verapamil
Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers Diltiazem
Losartan Direct acting vasodilators
Hydralazine
Nitroglycerin
Answer: C, D, and E
C is correct. The client should not stop taking their calcium supplements. There is
no evidence to say oral calcium supplements will reduce the effects of CCBs. Also,
this client needs calcium supplements for his osteoporosis. Therefore, this does not
reflect the correct understanding by the client and needs additional teaching.
D is correct. There is a less than 2% chance that the person can get constipated
from Nifedipine, it is not true that the client is highly likely to get constipated from
Nifedipine. Therefore, this statement does not reflect the correct understanding by
the client and needs additional teaching.
S U M M A R Y
E is correct. The client should not hold Nifedipine if they get a cough and tongue
swelling. Cough and tongue swelling (Angioedema) are common side effects seen
with ACE inhibitors, not with CCBs. The client is also on Lisinopril (ACEI), which
may lead to this side effect, so the nurse will need to explain this to the client.
A is incorrect. Gum/ gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect with extended-
standing use of Nifedipine.
B is incorrect. The client should avoid getting up too quickly from a sitting or lying
position. Because of peripheral vasodilation, Nifedipine causes postural or
orthostatic hypotension. So, the client should be aware of getting up slowly from
the lying/ sitting position so they do not become dizzy.
Beta Blockers
Propranolol
Atenolol
Metoprolol
Esmolol
Sotalol K E Y T E R M S
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Antiarrhythmics
Amiodarone
Adenosine
Notes
Atropine Q U E S T I O N S
Adenosine
Therapeutic class: Antiarrhythmic
Indication: Supraventricular tachycardia
D E T A I L S
Action: Slows conduction through the AV node, interrupts re-entry pathways
through AV node, restoring normal sinus rhythm
Nursing Considerations:
There will be a period of asystole after administration
Warn the client - it will feel like someone kicked them in the chest!
Warn the family - they will flatline on the monitor!
Rapid push - or it will not work
Use with extreme caution in asthmatics
Atropine
Therapeutic class: Antiarrhythmic; anticholinergic
Indications: Excessive secretions, sinus bradycardia, heart block
Action: Inhibition of acetylcholine, increasing the HR, causing bronchodilation,
and decreases secretions
Nursing Considerations:
Monitor for urinary retention and constipation S U M M A R Y
Avoid in clients with glaucoma
Digoxin
Therapeutic class: Cardiac glycoside
Indications: Heart failure, atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, cardiogenic shock
Action: Increases contractility of the heart (how strong the heart pumps)
Nursing Considerations:
Therapeutic level: 0.5-2ng/mL
Monitor for toxicity
Hypokalemia increases risk for toxicity: caution with loop diuretics
and licorice extract
HOLD the medication if HR is <60
Antidote: digoxin immune FAB
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Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
Hemodynamics D E T A I L S
Preload
Amount of blood returning to right side of the heart
Afterload
Pressure against which the left ventricle must pump to eject blood
Compliance
How easily the heart muscle expands when filled with blood
Contractility
Strength of contraction of the heart muscle
Stroke volume
Volume of blood pumped out of the ventricles with each contraction
Cardiac output
The amount of blood the heart pumps through the circulatory system in
a minute
Cardiac Output S U M M A R Y
CO = SV X HR
K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
Hypertension Complications
S U M M A R Y
Complete plaque
The most common type of cardiovascular disease
blockage leading to
Common types lack of adequate
Chronic stable angina oxygen to the heart
STEMI and NSTEMI
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Treatment
Nitroglycerin D E T A I L S
Venous and arterial dilation → decreased
afterload → increased CO
Given sublingual
Administer 1 pill q5 minutes for 3 doses
Do not swallow
Keep in a dark bottle in dry, cool place
Expected side effect = headache
Myocardial Infarction
Assessment
Chest pain
Crushing
Radiating to left arm or jaw S U M M A R Y
Between shoulder blades
Epigastric discomfort/indigestion
Fatigue
Shortness of breath
Vomiting
Treatment
Cath lab within 90 minutes for PCI
Percutaneous coronary intervention
K E Y T E R M S
Especially important if it’s a STEMI!
O: Oxygen
N: Nitroglycerin
T: Thrombolytics (if appropriate)
I: Antiplatelets (e.g., aspirin or other medications)
M: Monitoring and Medical care
E: EKG to assess heart activity
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Archer Review
Education N ot es
Quit smoking Q U E S T I O N S
Diet
Low fat
Low salt
Low cholesterol
Exercise
Avoid isometric exercises D E T A I L S
Walking is a good choice
Nurses’ Notes
1900 – A 56-year-old female presents to the emergency department (ED) with
reports of epigastric pain, shortness of breath, and dizziness. The client reports that
the symptoms started eight hours ago and have progressively worsened. The client
arrives pale and diaphoretic. The client has a medical history of type II diabetes
S U M M A R Y
mellitus and stated that her blood glucose has been very high. The blood glucose
was taken, and it was 110 mg/dL.
NGN Answer: A, D, E, F, G
Heart Failure K E Y T E R M S
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S U M M A R Y
Treatment
DECREASE THE WORKLOAD OF THE HEART!
Primary strategy is to decrease afterload:
ACE Inhibitors
Arterial dilation decreased afterload Increased stroke volume
ARBS
Decrease BP decreased afterload Increased CO
Increase contractility
Digoxin
Diuresis
Client needs help reducing excess fluid Report rapid K E Y T E R M S
weight gain
(3 lb in a week
Education or 1-2 lb
Take diuretic medications in the AM overnight)
Monitor electrolyte levels while on diuretics
Low sodium diet
This helps decrease fluid
Elevate the HOB
Will help with breathing
Daily weight
What findings are
Same time consistent with right
Same scale sided heart failure?
Same clothes
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Air Embolism S U M M A R Y
Positioning:
Durant’s maneuver
Left lateral
trendelenburg
This should prevent an air
embolism from lodging in
the lungs - will stay in the
right heart K E Y T E R M S
40
ANSWER KEY - CARDIAC
Page 25 2-3 seconds
Page 26 BNP pulmonary artery
Page 27 Atrial depolarization Ventricular depolarization Regular
Page 28 Pacing 100 - 150 it’s safe!
Atrial fibrillation Adenosine
Page 29
Atrial flutter Epinephrine
Page 32 discontinued if it does Contraindicated gingival hyperplasia
Page 33 C, D, and E hypoglycemia
Page 34 asystole glaucoma 0.5-2ng/ml 60
Page 35 contractility End organ function
>180/<120 mmHg High salt intake
Page 36
Heart failure Diuretics
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N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Respiratory
D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
Respiratory System Anatomy
Terminology
Ventilation
Air movement in and out
of the lungs
Oxygenation
Oxygen in the
bloodstream
Perfusion
Oxygen in the tissues
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Work of Breathing
Nasal flaring
N ot es
How easy is it for the client to take a deep Q U E S T I O N S
breath? Supraclavicular retractions Accessory
muscle use
Retractions
Note location and severity
Location
Subcostal Intercostal retractions
Subcostal
Intracostal retractions D E T A I L S
Supraclavicular
Tracheal
Nasal flaring
Head bobbing Cyanosis
Grunting
S U M M A R Y
AGE 14
Asthma
What is Asthma? K E Y T E R M S
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Pathophysiology
Airway is abnormally reactive - heightened sensitivity
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Assessment
Shortness of breath
Unable to speak
Evaluate how many words they
can say before taking a breath
Cough
Increased work of breathing Wheeze S U M M A R Y
Retractions Prolonged expiration
Tracheal tug Can’t hear any breath sounds?
Head bobbing Complete obstruction!
Albuterol
Therapeutic class: Bronchodilator; short-acting beta 2 agonist (SABA)
Indications: Asthma, COPD
Action: Binds to beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the airway leading to relaxation
of the smooth muscles in the airways
Nursing Considerations:
Be very cautious when using in clients with heart disease, diabetes,
glaucoma, or seizures
Causes tachycardia
Terbutaline
Therapeutic class: Selective beta 2 adrenergic agonist K E Y T E R M S
Indications: Rescue/relief and maintenance drug for wheezing, SOB, and
coughing caused by asthma
Action: Binds to beta 2 adrenergic receptors in the respiratory system to cause
bronchodilation by inhibiting the release of hypersensitivity reaction products
from mast cells
Nursing Considerations:
Side effects: jitteriness, dizziness, drowsiness, sleep disturbances,
weakness, headache, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, hypertension,
hyperglycemia, CNS overstimulation
Assess HR, BP, EKG, blood glucose
Can be given orally, SC, or by inhaler
4-6 hour duration
More side effects with oral administration because it requires higher
dosage
Teach proper inhaler use
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Let’s reassess: N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
AGE 14
Airway
Intubate?
Adrenergic agonists
Open up airway
Albuterol
Breathing
Oxygen administration
Theophylline -
Bronchodilator
Dexamethasone -
Steroid - reduce
inflammation
Circulation
IV fluids
K E Y T E R M S
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Non-Invasive Ventilation
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Asthma Complication
Status Asthmaticus
Theophylline Bronchodilator
Theophylline
Bronchodilator Helps keep bronchioles open and prevent
wheezing,
Helps keep bronchioles open and butbut
prevent wheezing, must beused
must be used regularly
regularly
Allergen control
Clean environment
Clean environment
Allergen Control Minimize dust, pet dander, and mold
Minimize dust, pet dander, and mold
No secondhand smoke No secondhand smoke
Steroids
Betamethasone
Dexamethasone
Cortisone
Methylprednisolone 46
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Methylprednisolone
Therapeutic class: corticosteroid N ot es
Indications: Inflammation, allergy, autoimmune disorders Q U E S T I O N S
Action: Suppress inflammation and normal immune response
Nursing Considerations:
Monitor for too much steroids
Cushing’s symptoms - buffalo hump
Side effects
Immunosuppression
D E T A I L S
Hyperglycemia
Osteoporosis
Delayed wound healing
Antihistamines
Type Action Example
Histamine-2 Famotidine
Block production of stomach acid
blocker Ranitidine S U M M A R Y
Diphenhydramine
Therapeutic class: Antihistamine
Indications: Allergy, anaphylaxis, sedation
Action: Antagonizes effects of histamine, CNS depression
Nursing Considerations:
Monitor for drowsiness
Anticholinergic effects
Nurses’ Notes
1700 – 12-year-old male arrives with his parents after playing outside with K E Y T E R M S
friends and suddenly developing shortness of breath. The client’s mother
believes he is having an asthma attack. He has a medical history of asthma,
insulin dependent diabetes mellitus, and is current on all immunizations. No
known allergies.
Question
The nurse reviews the assessment information and identifies that which two (2)
pieces of assessment data require follow-up?
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
a. The client being anxious
b. Non-productive cough
c. Audible expiratory stridor
d. History of diabetes mellitus
e. Temperature of 99 ᵒ F (37.2ᵒ C)
f. Oxygen saturation of 89% D E T A I L S
NGN Answer:
A cough and the client being anxious are common findings associated with asthma.
The most concerning finding that requires follow-up is the audible stridor and the
oxygen saturation of 89%. Stridor signifies that the upper airways are closing,
which indicates that the asthma attack is advancing. The low oxygen saturation
further supports the seriousness of this asthma attack.
Chronic Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
What is COPD? S U M M A R Y
A group of lung
diseases that block
airflow and make it
difficult to breathe
Includes:
Emphysema
Chronic
bronchitis
Damage is not
reversible
K E Y T E R M S
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Assessment
Barrel chest
Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
Accessory muscle use
Retractions
Nasal flaring
Tracheal tug
Congestion
Lung sounds
D E T A I L S
Diminished
Crackles Normal Chest Barrel Chest
Wheezes Anterior to posterior Anterior to posterior
Acidotic diameter is short to the diameter is EQUAL
Hypercarbic transverse diameter. to the transverse
Hypoxic diameter.
Treatment
Be very careful with oxygen administration!
In the normal client, hypercarbia stimulates the body to breathe
This client has been hypercarbic for an extended period of time
For them, hypoxia has become the driving factor to stimulate
breathing
Bronchodilators
Chest physiotherapy
Increased fluid intake S U M M A R Y
Encourage pursed lip breathing to help expire completely
Eat small frequent meals to avoid overdistention of the stomach which
impedes the diaphragm
K E Y T E R M S
The HCP has already
A year later, you ordered a CXR:
move to a new job
at the urgent care
and one night who
comes in but your
old friend James!
Let’s see what he
came in for...
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Pneumonia N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
What is Pneumonia?
Inflammation of the lung affecting the
alveoli
Alveoli
Tiny air sacs of the lungs which D E T A I L S
allow for gas exchange
Alveoli become filled with pus and
liquid
This blocks gas exchange from
occurring
Classifications
Viral
Caused by viruses such as RSV,
adenovirus, and influenza
Bacterial
Fungal
Chemical irritation
Aspiration
When foreign bodies such as food and
secretions enter the lungs S U M M A R Y
Causes inflammation and infection
leading to pneumonia
Diagnosis
Chest X-Ray
“Patchy infiltrates”
Sputum culture
Bacterial source detected
K E Y T E R M S
Assessment
High fever
Cough
Tachypnea
Crackles
Chest pain
Work of breathing
Retractions
Tracheal tug
Nasal flaring
Head bobbing
Accessory muscle use
Pursed lip breathing
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Treatment In addition: N ot es
Maintain airway Chest physiotherapy Q U E S T I O N S
Suction Antipyretics
Monitor SpO₂ Analgesics
Monitor breathing Cough suppressant
Assess for increased work of Expectorants
breathing Antibiotics if bacterial source D E T A I L S
Provide support as needed Isolation (dependent on type)
Humidified oxygen
Maintain circulation
Monitor for dehydration
IVF if unable to tolerate PO
Guaifenesin Expectorant
S U M M A R Y
Acetylcysteine Mucolytic
Acute Respiratory
Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
“An acute condition characterized by bilateral pulmonary infiltrates and severe
hypoxemia in the absence of evidence for cardiogenic pulmonary edema”
K E Y T E R M S
Fluid collects Deprives body
in alveoli of oxygen
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Archer Review
Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Trauma
Burns
Aspiration
Overdose
Near drowning
Assessment
Chest x-ray
Diffuse bilateral infiltrates
“Whited-out”
Hypoxemia
Pale K E Y T E R M S
Cool
Dusky
Mottled
Low SpO2
Treatment
Intubation and mechanical ventilation
High pressures Treat the
Prone positioning underlying
Prevent infection condition!
Prevent barotrauma
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Archer Review
The MD
determines
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
James’ airway is
in danger.
What do you
anticipate?
D E T A I L S
Tracheostomy
An artificial airway used for long-term needs
Stoma is made in the neck and the tube is inserted into the trachea
Breathing occurs through the tracheostomy, not the nose and mouth
Used for:
Tracheal obstruction K E Y T E R M S
Slow ventilator weaning
Tracheal damage
Neuromuscular damage
Cannot place ETT tube/client
decompensates
Dressing
and Ties
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Tracheostomy care
N ot es
Position client into fowler’s or semi-fowler’s Q U E S T I O N S
Invasive Ventilation
Endotracheal tube
Tracheostomy
Mechanical ventilator
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Archer Review
Ventilator Alarms N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Knowledge Check!
Copious
Name the
Tubing
secretions ventilator alarm! disconnect S U M M A R Y
Treatment
Intubation and mechanical ventilation
High pressures
Prone positioning
Prevent infection
Ventilator associated pneumonia
TREAT THE
UNDERLYING
Prevent barotrauma CONDITION!
K E Y T E R M S
Pneumothorax
AIR IN THE Space between the lung and the chest wall
OR PLEURAL Normally contains a small amount of fluid
SPACE Helps the lungs glide smoothly during
GAS
breathing
When air enters it causes the lung to collapse
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Archer Review
TWO TYPES
Spontaneous
N ot es
No apparent cause, often due to the rupture of small air Q U E S T I O N S
sacs (alveoli) in the lung
Commonly seen in those with lung diseases like COPD
Traumatic D E T A I L S
Caused by chest injuries such as rib fractures, puncture
wounds, or medical procedures that accidentally
puncture the lung, like central line insertions or
mechanical ventilation
Assessment
Decreased or absent breath sounds on the affected side
Asymmetrical chest wall movement on the affected side
Sudden, sharp, and localized chest pain on the affected side
Dyspnea
Rapid, shallow breathing
Tachypnea
Cyanosis
Tension pneumothorax may present with severe respiratory distress, tracheal
deviation away from the affected side, and hemodynamic instability S U M M A R Y
Treatment
Chest tube
Deep breathing
Semi-Fowler’s position
Pain management
Oxygen
Chest Tubes
K E Y T E R M S
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S U M M A R Y
Nursing Considerations
Always keep the drainage system below the level of
K E Y T E R M S
the client's chest
Ensure the tubing is free of kinks and draining freely
There should be no dependent loops in the tubing
Know WHY the client has a chest tube!
Monitor the drainage
Color - serous or serosanguinous
Odor - none
Consistency - thin-thick
Amount - no more than 70ml/hr
More? Or drainage stops in the first 24
hours? Notify the HCP!
Mark hourly
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Pulmonary Embolism S U M M A R Y
Treatment
Oxygen
Anticoagulants
Assessment Thrombolytics
Anxiety
Dyspnea
Chest pain What position do you use
Hypoxemia
Rales for a pulmonary
Diaphoresis embolism?
Hemoptysis
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
Keeps the
blot clot in
the right
atrium so that
it doesn’t go
to the lungs
S U M M A R Y
Allows for
better lung
expansion to
improve
breathing
K E Y T E R M S
59
ANSWER KEY - RESPIRATORY
Page 42 Ventilation
Page 43 breath Chronic inflammation
Page 44 Unable to speak tachycardia 4-6 hour duration
Page 45 Airway Oxygen IV Fluids
Page 46 Constant set pressure Two
Page 47 Buffalo hump Diphenhydramine
Page 48 C and F reversible
Page 49 Barrel chest oxygen administration!
Page 50 Alveoli Aspiration Pursed lip breathing
Page 51 Maintain airway hypoxemia
Respiratory acidosis “Whited-out”
Page 52 Prone positioning
Page 53 Mouth or nose bilaterally
Page 54 1 finger sterile procedure 10 seconds
Page 55 High Low High Low barotrauma
Page 56 Spontaneous affected side Chest tube
Page 57 Water seal chamber Tidaling 70 mL/hr
Page 58 Stay with the client Hemoptysis High fowler’s position
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Archer Review
Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
PRIORITIZATION
W H A T O R W H O
N E E D S I M M E D I A T E D E T A I L S
A T T E N T I O N ?
S U M M A R Y
ABCs of Prioritization
K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
Spectrum of Stability
Transfer to ICU N ot es
Acute
Q U E S T I O N S
Unexpected Prepare for discharge
Assess first Assign for float RN
Changing condition Assign to new grad RN
Middle of
Unstable Less stable More stable Stable
the road D E T A I L S
NCLEX Question
You are called to assess a 4-year-old client who has suffered second and
third-degree burns to her chest, abdomen, and legs. It is estimated that
about 40% of her TBSA is burned. Upon assessment, her vital signs are as
follows:
HR: 140 RR: 44 BP: 90/60 SpO2: 88% on room air
Which of the following interventions is the priority?
A. Fluid replacement
B. Intubation and mechanical ventilation
S U M M A R Y
C. Wound debridement
D. Standard precautions
Answer: B
Choice B is correct. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are the priority for this
client. Intubation is the "A" in the ABC’s mnemonic and stands for airway. The
stem of the question states that this client has burns to her chest. You know that
smoke inhalation can burn the trachea and compromise the airway, and wounds to
the chest are an indication that inhalation injury has likely occurred. Additionally,
the client is tachycardic, tachypneic, and desaturated. She is working hard to
compensate by increasing her heart and respiratory rates. Still, it is not keeping up
with her oxygenation and perfusion needs, as evidenced by the client's
desaturation in room air. This client needs intubation and mechanical ventilation
immediately to secure the airway and prevent rapid respiratory failure due to
inhalation injury. Remember your ABCs! Airway, Breathing, Circulation. This is the
correct order of priority actions! You must address the airway first!
Choice A is incorrect. Although fluid replacement will be necessary when treating
a burn victim, it is not the priority action and is the incorrect answer to this K E Y T E R M S
question. Every answer here is a correct action that would be necessary during the
care of your client, but the priority is not a fluid replacement. If you picked this
answer, you might remember that a large amount of third spacing occurs during
the first 24 hours after a burn. Hypovolemic shock can ensue if adequate fluid
replacement does not occur. This falls under the "C" in your ABCs, which stands
for circulation. While fluid replacement is essential, you must prioritize the airway.
Choice C is incorrect. While wound debridement is undoubtedly essential for
infection prevention and healing in the burn victim, there is a more urgent priority.
Wound debridement is not part of your ABCs or an immediate priority.
Choice D is incorrect. Although it is correct to implement standard precautions for
a burn victim to prevent infection, a more urgent priority is present. Implementing
standard precautions is not a part of the ABCs and is not an immediate priority for
this client.
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
NCLEX Question
The nurse is taking vital signs on her client with a diagnosis of acute lymphocytic
leukemia. Their temperature is 38.7C (101.6F). What is the nurse's first priority?
A. Place cool washcloths on the client’s head.
B. Continue with her assessment.
C. Obtain intravenous access on the client.
D. Assess the client’s perfusion
Answer: C
C is correct. The priority action is to establish intravenous access for this client.
This client has a diagnosis of ALL, so the nurse knows that he is
immunocompromised. He is very susceptible to infections, and with a fever of 38.7
C, the nurse should have a great deal of suspicion that the client has some sort of K E Y T E R M S
infection. Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics will need to be initiated right away.
Therefore, the priority for the nurse is to start an IV.
A is incorrect. Placing cool washcloths on the client's head is not the priority, as
there is a better answer. This would only need to be done if the client was at risk
for seizures due to an incredibly high body temperature. The temperature of 38.7C
does not warrant cooling measures, and the nurse has another immediate priority,
given the client's immunosuppression and her suspicion of an infection.
B is incorrect. It is not appropriate for the nurse to continue with her assessment.
She suspects an infection in her immunocompromised client. Another answer has
an immediate priority.
D is incorrect. Assessing the client's perfusion has nothing to do with the nurse's
suspicion that the client likely has an infection. She should immediately establish
IV access for the administration of antibiotics
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Archer Review
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Priority
toolkit D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
Priority toolkit
ABCs
1
Who is the most unstable?
2
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
3
Nursing process
4
K E Y T E R M S
Only call the HCP if there’s nothing you can do to help your client
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Archer Review
Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
TEST ANXIETY
H O W T O C A L M
D E T A I L S
Y O U R N E R V O U S
S Y S T E M
S U M M A R Y
Prevention
K E Y T E R M S
Combating
Test Anxiety
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
The 3-2-1
Rule for
Anxiety
S U M M A R Y
ANSWER KEY -
PRIORITIZATION/TESTING
STRATEGIES
Page 61 Intubate Adequate respirations Fluids
Page 62 B
Page 63 C
K E Y T E R M S
Day 1,
done!
See you tomorrow
morning at 9:00 am
Central Time!
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Archer Review
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
DAY 2 SCHEDULE
9 AM - 4 PM CT
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
68
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
Meninges
Three layers of connective
tissue covering the CNS
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
Pupils are PERRLA Current GCS is 14 Significant periorbital
bruising where the
Pupils are equal, round, reactive Minus one for confusion hockey puck hit her in
to light and accommodation (but remember, she was passed
the left eye
out a few minutes ago!)
Additional bruise forming over
the R mastoid process
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Archer Review
Skull Fracture
N ot es
Open fracture Torn dura
Q U E S T I O N S
Closed fracture Dura is intact
Basilar skull fracture
Battle’s sign Bruising over the
mastoid process
Raccoon eyes Periorbital bruising
Cerebrospinal rhinorrhea
D E T A I L S
Test drainage for CSF
Halo test
Glucose
Never insert an NG
tube in a client with a
suspected basilar
skull fracture!
S U M M A R Y
Do you suspect
an epidural or
subdural
hematoma?
Intracranial Hemorrhage N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Superior
sagittal sinus
K E Y T E R M S
72
Burr hole drilled...but that's not N ot es
everything building up in Mrs. Jayne's Q U E S T I O N S
Spinal
cord
K E Y T E R M S
Hydrocephalus N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Increased accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid
Increases ICP
Causes:
D E T A I L S
Tumor
Hemorrhage
Infection
Congenital
Can also be
S U M M A R Y
used to
measure ICP
K E Y T E R M S
Jayne.
Let's see how she's doing. D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
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Archer Review
Meningitis D E T A I L S
What is Meningitis?
S U M M A R Y
Bacterial meningitis
K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
Assessment N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Nuchal rigidity
Photophobia
Kernig’s sign
Brudzinski’s sign
Brudzinski’s Sign
D E T A I L S
With the client placed supine, passive flexion
of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the
knee and hips.
Kernig’s Sign
K E Y T E R M S
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Treatment
Steroids
Notes
Analgesics Q U E S T I O N S
Antibiotics - only if bacterial!!
Isolation precautions
Viral - standard
Bacterial - Droplet
Considered a medical emergency
Bacterial meningitis is VERY contagious D E T A I L S
Prevention
Hib vaccine
Those who are immunized have protection against Hib
meningitis
Meningococcal conjugate or MenACWY vaccines
Recommended for anyone living in close proximity to others
Seizures
Increased ICP
Infection in the brain
Injury to the brain K E Y T E R M S
Drug abuse
Hyper- or hypoglycemia
Hyponatremia
Medications
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Types of Seizures
Notes
Tonic-clonic: phases of tonic (muscle stiffening/rigidity) and clonic
Q U E S T I O N S
(rhythmic jerking) spasm, immediate loss of consciousness
Generalized
involve both cerebral
Myoclonic: sudden, brief, shock-like contractions of a muscle/group
hemispheres
of muscles in extremities
Atonic: abrupt loss of muscle tone for a few seconds, then confusion
(can result in falls/injury)
D E T A I L S
Absence: loss of consciousness, staring off into space
Seizure Precautions
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
Do or Don’t? Do or Don’t?
Insert a bite Stay with
block the client
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Archer Review
Treatment Notes
Anticonvulsants Q U E S T I O N S
Rapid acting - lorazepam
Long acting - phenytoin
Very important to monitor for therapeutic levels
Never stop taking suddenly (can cause a seizure)
D E T A I L S
Antianxiety Agents: Benzodiazepines
Onset: rapid
Short-Acting Midazolam Duration: 1-2 hours
Quick on / quick off
Onset: intermediate
Alprazolam Duration: 6-12 hours
Onset: rapid
Long-Acting Diazepam Duration: 20-50 hours
Quick on / long off
Anticonvulsants S U M M A R Y
Phenytoin
Gabapentin
Levetiracetam
Phenytoin
Therapeutic class: Anticonvulsant
Indication: Seizures
Action: Blocks sustained high-frequency repetitive firing of action potentials
Nursing Considerations:
Therapeutic level: 10-20 mcg/mL
Side effect: gingival hyperplasia
Regular dental check-ups
Use soft bristle toothbrush
Antacids can reduce the effect of phenytoin and should be avoided
NCLEX Question K E Y T E R M S
Seizure precautions have been ordered for a client admitted to the med-surg unit.
Which of the following nursing interventions is not appropriate when initiating
seizure precautions? Select all that apply.
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Archer Review
Answer: B, D, + F
The correct answers are B, D, and F. Padded bed rails should remain up while the
N ot es
client sleeps. Clients should be provided with a call light so that they may call for Q U E S T I O N S
help if needed. Four-point restraints are not appropriate for the seizing client and
could result in injury. It is not appropriate to ask the family to monitor the client
24/7.
Choice A is incorrect. When initiating seizure precautions, the nurse should ensure
that the side rails are padded.
Choice C is incorrect. All sharp objects should be removed from a client's bed D E T A I L S
when instituting seizure precautions.
Choice E is incorrect. Clients prone to seizures should wear a fall risk bracelet to
alert members of the health care team to the client's need for increased supervision.
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
Autonomic Dysreflexia
Syndrome characterized by:
Sudden severe hypertension
Bradycardia
Headache
Nasal stuffiness
Can occur in
Flushing
spinal cord
Sweating
injuries at or
Blurred vision
above T6
Anxiety
K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
Autonomic Dysreflexia
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
Treatment
Sit the client up to lower their BP
Antihypertensives
Hydralazine
Find the cause and treat
Full bladder? Catheterize
Constipated? Remove impaction
Pressure injury? Reposition
Painful stimuli? Remove stimuli
Cold room? Adjust temperature
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Archer Review
Stroke N ot es
(Cerebrovascular Accident) Q U E S T I O N S
What is a Stroke?
D E T A I L S
A condition impacting the blood vessels supplying the
brain, this ailment stands as a major contributor to
mortality and impairment in the United States. A
stroke transpires when a blood vessel responsible for
transporting oxygen and nutrients to the brain is
obstructed by a clot or ruptures.
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Archer Review
Assessment N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Stroke warning signs -
We need to BEFAST!
D E T A I L S
Balance
Dizziness leading to a loss
of balance S U M M A R Y
Eyes
Blurry vision
Abnormal pupil response
Hemianopia
Facial droop
Unilateral
Arms
Arm drift or weakness
Speech
Aphasia Strokes can cause unilateral facial
Dysphagia paralysis, resulting in speech and
Altered LOC/Confusion swallowing issues!
Treatment
Ischemic Hemorrhagic
K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
What is your
priority action for You finished neuro!
autonomic Keep up the great work!
dysreflexia?
86
ANSWER KEY -
NEUROLOGICAL SYSTEM
Brain and spinal cord
Page 70
Cranial and spinal nerves
Page 71 Raccoon eyes
Page 73 5 - 15
Page 74 Increases ICP
Page 77 Kernig’s sign
Standard
Droplet
Page 78
Hib vaccine
Epilepsy
Leave the client
side-lying
Page 79
Don’t!
Do!
lorazepam
Page 80
10 - 20 mcg/mL
B, D, and F
Page 81
T6
Page 82 Sudden severe hypertension
Ischemic
Page 84
Blood clot
tPA
Page 85
bleeding
Page 86 Sit the client up
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N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Anatomy + Physiology
GI Disorders + Pharmacology (Case Study)
Ulcers
Pancreatitis
Ulcerative Colitis
Hepatitis
Crohn's
Cirrhosis
Appendicitis
S U M M A R Y
Digestive Tract
K E Y T E R M S
Esophagus
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Archer Review
Stomach N ot es
Temporary storage for food Q U E S T I O N S
Mixing and breakdown of food
Acidic environment
pH of stomach acid - 1.5 to 3.5 - (rises
when food enters) Esophagus
Pyloric sphincter D E T A I L S
Closes to keep food in the stomach
Opens to send food into the small intestine
S U M M A R Y
Small Intestine
Receive digesting enzymes from the
pancreas and liver (via the pancreatic
and common bile ducts)
Churn and mix ingested food, making it
into chyme Esophagus
Absorb nutrients!!
Move the food along its entire length
(into the colon)
K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
Accessory Organs
S U M M A R Y
Gallbladder K E Y T E R M S
Stores bile
Releases bile and pancreatic
enzymes into the small intestine
Duodenum
Bile
Greenish, yellowish, or
brown substance
Very alkaline
Emulsifies lipids to allow
absorption
Secreted by liver
Stored by gallbladder
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Archer Review
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
1/3/2019
Tom Jones
138/98
99.4°F /
37.4°C 86 22 Male
5’10” 268 lbs 38.4 98% RA 7 12 81
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Archer Review
Causes
Gastric Ulcers N ot es
H. pylori Q U E S T I O N S
Overuse of NSAIDs
Symptoms
Pain 1-2 hours after meal
Abdominal pain aggravated by eating
Vomiting
Weight loss
D E T A I L S
Hematemesis (if hemorrhage occurs)
Treatments
Treat the H. pylori infection
Antibiotics
Reduce stomach acid
H2 receptor blocker
Proton pump inhibitor
Duodenal Ulcers
Causes
H. pylori
Overuse of NSAIDs
Symptoms
Pain 2-4 hours after meals
Temporary relief of pain following
food intake
Weight gain S U M M A R Y
Melena (if hemorrhage occurs)
Treatment
Treat the H. pylori infection
Antibiotics
Stomach acid reduction
H2 receptor blocker
Proton pump inhibitor
Famotidine
Therapeutic class: H2 receptor antagonist, antiulcer, antihistamine
Indication: Short-term treatment of gastric and/or duodenal ulcers, GERD,
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, hypersecretion of stomach acid conditions, chronic
NSAID/ASA use, and/or GI distress
Action: Blocks the release of histamine. Histamine is found in mast cells within
the GI mucosa and causes gastric acid and pepsin secretion when it binds with H2
receptors in the mucosal parietal cells; When blocked, acid secretion is blocked
Nursing Considerations:
Monitor CBC and kidney function
Can be given with meals
Peak absorption of famotidine is within 2-3 hours
S U M M A R Y
Famotidine is available OTC in lower strengths than prescription dosages
Teach clients only to take as directed and only for a short duration
Due to the low number of drug interactions, famotidine is a drug of choice
for clients on multiple medications (including those with therapeutic/toxic
drug level concerns, such as phenytoin and warfarin)
Omeprazole
Therapeutic class: Proton pump inhibitor, anti-ulcer agent
Indications: GERD, treatment of gastric and/or duodenal ulcers
Action: prevents the transport of H+ ions into the gastric lumen by binding to
gastric parietal cells to decrease gastric acid production
Nursing Considerations:
Administer 30-60 minutes before meal
Report black, tarry stools
Sucralfate
K E Y T E R M S
Therapeutic class: Gastrointestinal protectant, anti-ulcer agent
Indications: GERD, treatment of gastric and/or duodenal ulcers, peptic
esophagitis
Action: Provides barrier for ulcers by creating a paste when exposed to
hydrochloric acid; It binds to proteins that are excreted by damaged cells in
ulcerated tissue thereby protecting the mucosa
Nursing Considerations:
Administer sucralfate on an empty stomach, 1 hour before or 2 hours after
meals, or at bedtime (up to 4 times a day)
Avoid giving it within 30 minutes of antacids to maintain effectiveness
Sucralfate contains aluminum, and its use can lead to the accumulation of
aluminum in the body over time which can be significant for individuals
with impaired kidney function
Monitor blood sugar in diabetics using sucralfate (contains sucrose)
Separate sucralfate from warfarin, digoxin, phenytoin, levothyroxine, and
antibiotics by at least 2 hours to prevent reduced bioavailability
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Archer Review
4/3/2019
Tom Jones
98.4°F/
128/76 12 Male
36.9°C 76
5’10” 238 lbs 34.2 98% RA 7 12 81
Presents
Presentswith
to hiscontinued
PCP with Alert
Alertand
andoriented,
oriented,responding
responding toto
questions.
questions.
continuedpain.”
“stomach “stomach pain.”
Diagnosed Unlabored
Unlaboredrespirations,
respirations,clear
clear and
andequal
equal
Wasduodenal
with diagnosed with three
ulcers bilaterally.
bilaterally.NoNorespiratory
respiratorydistress
distressnoted onon
noted
duodenal
months agoulcers 3 months
and put on RA.
RA.S1S2,
S1S2,RRR.
RRR.Pulses
Pulsesare are+2+2 throughout,
throughout,<3
ago and put
sucralfate, on sucralfate,
famotidine, and second capillary
<3 second refill.refill.
capillary Distended and tender
Distended and
famotidine and
omeprazole. Reports abdomen, pain throughout
tender abdomen, abdomen,abdomen
pain throughout which
omeprazole.
medication Has not had
compliance, but client describes
described as "crampy."
as crampy. DiarrheaAccording to
with each
much improvement
states he has not hadand much the client,
meal per diarrhea occurs with each meal.
patient report.
states has continued
improvement. Denies his S U M M A R Y
medications
nausea, as instructed.
but reports he has
No nausea,
begun has started to
to experience
have diarrhea
diarrhea withmeal.
with each each
meal.
treatment as expected!
Ulcerative Colitis
Inflammation of the large intestine
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
Assessment
Rebound tenderness
Cramping
Diarrhea
Vomiting
Dehydration
Weight loss
Rectal bleeding
Bloody stools
Anemia
Fever
.
Treatment S U M M A R Y
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Archer Review
Measurement
Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
nose
NG tube insertion is
NOT fun for the client.
Warn your client that it earlobe
will be uncomfortable!!
D E T A I L S
xiphoid process
Placement Verification
Gold standard - x-ray visualization
Aspiration of gastric contents
Auscultation of air over the epigastrium
Residuals
The amount of tube feed remaining in the client's stomach at the
time of the next assessment
Typically assessed when preparing to initiate the client's next feed
S U M M A R Y
TPN is best
administered via
central line!
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
Embolism
Appendicitis
Inflammation of the appendix Healthy
Most common age = 10 years appendix
Most common abdominal surgery in
children
Perforation is more common in children
Diseased
appendix
Appendicitis Pain K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
NCLEX Question
The nurse is reassessing their client diagnosed with appendicitis. The client
expressed 8/10 pain at her last assessment, and now states they has no pain. The
Notes
nurse did not administer any pain medication. What is the critical nursing action? Q U E S T I O N S
Answer: C
C is correct. The nurse should immediately notify the primary healthcare provider
of this change in the client's status. A sudden change of 8/10 pain to no pain in the
client diagnosed with appendicitis could indicate rupture, and the primary
healthcare provider needs to be immediately notified.
A is incorrect. When a client diagnosed with appendicitis has sudden relief of pain,
it is a sign of possible rupture of the appendix. This is a surgical emergency and the
client must be taken to the operating room quickly. It is not appropriate for the
nurse to document the pain score without further intervention.
B is incorrect. It is not appropriate to simply assess the client's abdomen without
further intervention. Sudden relief of pain is concerning for rupture of the appendix
and requires another action.
D is incorrect. The client with appendicitis will likely have pain at McBurney’s point,
but this client is expressing a sudden relief of their pain. This needs to be evaluated
for possible rupture, and therefore the nurse should immediately notify the primary
healthcare provider. S U M M A R Y
Test
Taking When faced with a test question that
Tip! suggests "notify the provider," remember
that this action should be considered when
there is nothing within the nurse's scope of
practice or immediate actions that can
directly assist the client.
Treatment
Surgical intervention: appendectomy
Pre-op Post-op
Avoid heat - this can IV fluids
K E Y T E R M S
aggravate inflamed IV antibiotics
appendix and cause rupture Pain management
Position onto right side, NPO until bowel sounds return
low Fowler’s for comfort Wound care
Ondansetron
Therapeutic class: Antiemetic
Indications: Nausea/vomiting
Action: blocks effects of serotonin on vagal nerve and CNS
Nursing Considerations:
Administer slowly
Fast push can cause QT prolongation and/or ventricular tachycardia
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Pancreatitis
Notes
Inflammation of the pancreas Q U E S T I O N S
Leading cause = alcoholism
Pathophysiology
Digestive enzymes activate inside of
the pancreas, resulting in autodigestion
of the pancreas D E T A I L S
Assessment
Pain
Increases with eating due to increased enzymes
Abdominal distention
Ascites
Abdominal mass
Rigid abdomen Labs
Cullen’s sign Increased WBCs
Grey Turner’s sign Increased serum
Fever lipase and amylase
Nausea and vomiting
Jaundice
S U M M A R Y
Hypotension
Cullen’s sign
Grey Turner’s
sign
K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
Hepatitis
Inflammation of the liver
Can progress to cirrhosis
Types A, B, C, D, and E - caused by
different viral infections
Severe cases can lead to a hepatic coma
(hepatic encephalopathy) or even death
K E Y T E R M S
Contaminated food or water Vaccination, improved Supportive
(fecal-oral) hygiene and sanitation (typically self-limiting)
Acute: supportive
Contact with infected body fluids Vaccination, blood
Chronic: antiviral therapy
(ie. blood, semen, vaginal fluids) screening, improved hygiene
with/without interferon
100
Hepatic Encephalopathy
N ot es
Protein in your diet is broken down into ammonia Q U E S T I O N S
A functioning liver converts the ammonia into urea
Kidneys excrete urea
When there is inflammation of the liver due to hepatitis, the ammonia
builds up instead of being converted to urea
Increased ammonia levels can cause a hepatic coma
D E T A I L S
Treatment S U M M A R Y
Decrease ammonia
Lactulose
Bacteria in the colon digest lactulose into chemicals that bind
ammonia
The binding of ammonia prevents ammonia from moving from
the colon into the blood
Allows the ammonia to be excreted through stool
Antibiotic (neomycin or rifaximin)
Reduces bacterial production of ammonia
Decreased protein in diet
Monitor serum ammonia
Decrease fluid retention
Potassium-sparing diuretics
Avoid CNS depressants
Benzodiazepines and opioids can worsen the encephalopathy
Cirrhosis
K E Y T E R M S
A chronic disease of the liver marked by degeneration of cells, inflammation,
and fibrous thickening of tissue
Liver cells are destroyed and replaced with scar tissue
This impairs blood flow to the liver, often causing portal hypertension
Causes:
Chronic alcohol abuse
Chronic viral hepatitis
Fatty liver disease
Cirrhosis Assessment N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Treatment
Antacids Be very careful with drug doses
Vitamins The liver cannot metabolize as
Diuretics well; most doses need to be
Paracentesis decreased
Low protein, low sodium diet Especially important with:
S U M M A R Y
Strict I&Os Narcotics
Daily weights Acetaminophen (as a rule,
Bleeding precautions avoid in liver clients)
Skincare
K E Y T E R M S
102
ANSWER KEY -
GASTROINTESTINAL
Page 89 Pyloric sphincter Absorb nutrients
Page 90 Absorbs water Bile
Page 91 Regulates blood sugar
Page 92 Overuse of NSAIDs
2-3 hours tarry stools
Page 93
before 2 hours
Page 95 Inflammation Low fiber diet
Page 96 X-ray visualization 500mL 3-5 days
Hypo or hyperglycemia
Page 97 children
Sudden relief
Page 98 C heat slowly
Page 99 alcoholism Cullen’s sign
Page 100 viral
Page 101 ammonia levels lactulose depressants alcohol abuse
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Archer Review
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Ureters
Renal
pelvis Bowman’s
Calyces capsule
Ureter Renal
Renal Collecting
cortex duct
artery
To ureter
Renal Loop of
vein henle
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Archer Review
D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
Renal Pharmacology
K E Y T E R M S
Diuretics
Bumetanide
Loop Furosemide
Diuretics Torsemide
Potassium-sparing Eplerenone
Diuretics Spironolactone
Thiazide Chlorothiazide
Diuretics Hydrochlorothiazide
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Loop Diuretics N ot es
Examples: Bumetanide, furosemide, torsemide Q U E S T I O N S
Indications: Increases urinary output, used to manage edema, CHF, and/or
blood pressure management
Action: Acts on the loop of Henle to increase urine output by affecting
sodium reabsorption within the nephron; inhibits the sodium-potassium-
chloride (Na-K-2Cl) co-transporter, causing sodium to be excreted in the
urine, resulting in increased urination D E T A I L S
Nursing Considerations:
Monitor potassium levels
These are the most effective of all diuretics
Potassium-Sparing Diuretics
Examples: Spironolactone, eplerenone
Indications: Hypertension, edema, swelling, hypokalemia
Action: Inhibits the sodium and potassium exchange via sodium channels in
the distal parts of the nephron: this 'spares' potassium
Nursing Considerations:
Monitor potassium levels
These medications are not as strong as other diuretics, so potassium-
sparing diuretics are often combined with a loop or thiazide diuretic
S U M M A R Y
Thiazide Diuretics
Examples: Chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide
Indications: Hypertension, CHF
Action: Acts on the distal convoluted tubule to inhibit the sodium-chloride
(Na-Cl) co-transporter, decreasing sodium reabsorption and resulting in
increased fluid loss via urination
Nursing Considerations:
Monitor electrolyte levels
Monitor blood pressure
Epoetin Alfa
Examples: Erythropoietin
Therapeutic class: Erythropoiesis-stimulating medications
Indication: Severe anemia (including severe anemia caused by chronic renal
disease)
Action: Binds to specific receptors on the surface of its target cells to induce
erythropoiesis; induces hemoglobin formation K E Y T E R M S
Nursing Considerations:
Requires several weeks to be effective
High risk for BLOOD CLOTS
Stroke
Pulmonary Embolism
Headache
Hypertension
106
Foley Catheter
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
What is a Foley Catheter?
Catheter placed into the client's
bladder via the urethra
Foley catheters are 'indwelling'
or left for an extended period D E T A I L S
Urine drains to gravity into a
drainage bag
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Archer Review
Glomerulonephritis
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
What is
Glomerulonephritis?
An acute or chronic
D E T A I L S
inflammation of the kidney
at the level of the nephron!
Bowman’s
capsule
Pathophysiology
There is an inflammatory reaction in the
glomerulus of the kidney
Antibodies lodge in the glomerulus,
resulting in decreased filtering capability
of the kidney(s)
Usually caused by an infection
#1 cause is Streptococcus
Assessment S U M M A R Y
Sore throat
Malaise
Headache
Flank pain
Hypertension
Edema (peripheral or periorbital)
Decreased UOP
Increased urine specific gravity
Sediment in urine
Hematuria
Increased BUN and creatinine
Treatment
K E Y T E R M S
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Archer Review
NCLEX Question
The nurse is reviewing the assessment data for a client with acute
glomerulonephritis (AGN). Which of the following would be an anticipated finding?
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
a. Ketonuria
b. Hematuria
c. Polyuria
d. Glycosuria Answer: B
Choice B is correct. Clinical features of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) include D E T A I L S
proteinuria, hematuria, periorbital edema, weight gain, high blood pressure, and/or
decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Individuals with glomerulonephritis would
have oliguria, not polyuria, due to the significant amount of inflammation in the
glomerulus. Although glycosuria and ketonuria are not features of this disease,
they are traditionally seen in clients with uncontrolled blood glucose.
Additional information: AGN is a serious condition that typically occurs secondary
to an infectious process including, but not limited to, streptococcal, Staphylococcus
aureus, or hepatitis. Nursing care aims to prevent the most common complication
of fluid volume overload by enforcing the client's dietary restrictions (i.e., fluid,
sodium, and/or potassium). The nurse should closely monitor the client's intake
and output, weight, and blood pressure.
Nephrotic Syndrome S U M M A R Y
Pathophysiology
Large holes in the glomerulus form, allowing
An inflammatory response protein to leak from the blood into the urine
in the glomeruli Proteinuria K E Y T E R M S
Hypoproteinemia
THE RESULT:
RAAS kicks in to replace low
No protein in the blood? Client
blood volume
cannot keep fluid in blood vessels
Causes retention of sodium
THIRD SPACING and water
Assessment N ot es
Anasarca Q U E S T I O N S
Blood clots
High cholesterol
Proteinuria
Hypoalbuminemia
Edema D E T A I L S
Hyperlipidemia
Treatment
Diuretics
ACE inhibitors
Prednisone
Statins
Anticoagulants
Dialysis
Diet
Low protein
Low sodium
S U M M A R Y
Renal Failure
Causes
Pre-renal: Blood cannot get to the kidney(s)
Hypotension
Hypovolemia
Shock
Intra-renal: There is damage inside of the kidney(s)
Glomerulonephritis
Nephrotic syndrome
Nephrotoxic drugs
Contrast
Aminoglycosides
Post-renal: Something is blocking urine from
leaving the kidney(s)
Kidney stone K E Y T E R M S
Tumor
Urethral obstruction
Enlarged prostate
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Archer Review
Acute
Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) or Acute Renal Failure (ARF)
N ot es
Sudden Q U E S T I O N S
Happens over a few hours or a few days
Causes a build-up of waste products in the blood
D E T A I L S
Chronic
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)
Occurs slowly over a long period
Damage to the kidneys accumulates over time
Can no longer filter waste properly
Waste products build-up
BPH S U M M A R Y
Assessment
K E Y T E R M S
Types of Dialysis
A form of renal replacement therapy that removes
the body's unwanted toxins, waste products,
and excess fluids by filtering the blood.
Hemodialysis
Peritoneal Dialysis
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Hemodialysis (HD)
Performed 3-4 times per week
Clients must be anticoagulated
N ot es
Will cause rapid fluid shift (300-800 mL/min) Q U E S T I O N S
Monitor BP
Monitor electrolytes
Not all clients can tolerate
Clients must have a fistula
No BPs/IV sticks in the arm of the fistula
Palpate a thrill D E T A I L S
Auscultate a bruit
Heparin pump Dialyzer inflow
(to prevent clotting) pressure monitor
Used
dialysate
Arterial
pressure Blood
monitor pump
AV Dialyzer
fistula Venous pressure
monitor
K E Y T E R M S
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ANSWER KEY - RENAL
Page 104 Nephron
potassium levels blood pressure
Page 106
‘spares’ blood clots
inflammatory
Page 108
BUN and creatinine
B
Page 109
Inflammation
Proteinuria
Page 110 High protein
Shock
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N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
SHOCK
C A U S E S O F
M U L T I O R G A N D E T A I L S
D Y S F U N C T I O N
Shock overview
Hypovolemic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Cardiac tamponade
Distributive shock
Sepsis
What is Shock? S U M M A R Y
A state where the vital organs are not receiving adequate oxygenation
This lack of oxygenation causes organ damage and forces the cells to use
anaerobic metabolism to create energy
Produces a by-product called lactate
Cardiovascular system is composed of:
The blood
Blood Vasculature Heart
Cardiovascular system
\
is composed of
The vasculature
The heart
A disruption in any of these three components can cause a lack of oxygen
delivery to the organs, causing shock
Whichever component is ‘broken’ determines the type of shock
Types of Shock
K E Y T E R M S
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Hypovolemic Shock
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Pathophysiology
Low blood flow
There is a loss of the circulating volume
Not enough blood to enter the heart (preload),
which decreases cardiac output D E T A I L S
The body will vasoconstrict to compensate
Not enough blood gets to the tissues
Not enough oxygen gets to the tissues
Anaerobic metabolism
Shock
S U M M A R Y
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Blood Administration
Blood is administered as a medication… so follow the N ot es
same “rights”! Q U E S T I O N S
Checked by 2 RNs to ensure compatibility and
correct order
Client should have an active Type &
Screen to determine compatibility
Blood should be administered with special blood
tubing that has a filter with a larger gauge IV
Normal saline is the approved compatible IV D E T A I L S
fluid to infuse with/after blood
Ensure vital signs are taken before, during, and after
infusion per hospital policy
Baseline vitals are crucial to determine if your
client is having a reaction!!
Closely monitor client for the first 30 minutes, which
is the most likely time a reaction could occur
Cardiogenic Shock
The heart fails to pump sufficient blood out to the
organs
“Pump failure”
Something is stopping the heart itself from getting
blood out to the body
Not enough blood gets to the tissues S U M M A R Y
Not enough oxygen gets to the tissues
Anaerobic metabolism
Shock
Causes
MI
Heart failure
Myocarditis
Endocarditis
Cardiomyopathy
Drug toxicity
Obstructive
K E Y T E R M S
Cardiogenic
Shock
Examples:
Cardiac tamponade
Pulmonary embolism
There is a physical
OBSTRUCTION which causes the
heart to fail to pump sufficient
blood out to the organs
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Cardiac Tamponade
Too much fluid builds up in the pericardial space
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Leads to increased
pressure in the heart
Symptoms
Muffled heart
sounds D E T A I L S
Jugular vein
distension
Hypotension
Pericardial rub
Treatment
Pericardiocentesis
S U M M A R Y
Pericardiocentesis
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Distributive Shock
N ot es
Pathophysiology Q U E S T I O N S
S U M M A R Y
Assessment
Decreased oxygen
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Warm, flushed skin
Decreased LOC
Sepsis
A systemic inflammatory K E Y T E R M S
What is sepsis?
reaction to an infection
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Sepsis Pathophysiology
Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
Assessment
Hypotension
Febrile
Tachypneic
Tachycardic
Change in level of
consciousness (LOC)
Hypoxic
K E Y T E R M S
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ANSWER KEY - SHOCK
Page 114 lactate
Page 115 Anaerobic metabolism
2 RNs
“Pump failure”
Page 116
Drug toxicity
Cardiac tamponade
Jugular vein distension
Page 117 S3
Pericardiocentesis
peripheral vasodilation
Page 118 Septic
Warm, flushed skin
Page 119 Within 60 minutes
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N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
HbA1c
Expressed as a percentage, measures
the average blood glucose over the
previous three months
Non-diabetic 4-5.6%
Pre-diabetes 5.7-6.4%
Diabetic >6.5%
Target HbA1c <7%
for diabetics
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N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Addison’s v.s.
Cushing’s Disease
Steroids
Produced by the adrenal cortex S U M M A R Y
Glucocorticoids - cortisol
Affect mood
Cause immunosuppression
Breakdown of fats and proteins
Inhibit insulin
Mineralocorticoids - aldosterone
Retention of sodium and water
Excretion of potassium
Sex hormones - testosterone,
estrogen, and progesterone
Hormone Disease
Not enough:
Steroids:
Addison's Disease
Glucocorticoids (cortisol)
Too much:
Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
Cushing's Disease
K E Y T E R M S
Thinning hair
Hair loss
Acne
Facial flush
Moon face
Fat pads
Hyperpigmentation GI disturbances (buffalo hump)
Purple striae,
Hypotension and abdominal Easy bruising
vascular collapse stretch marks
Treatment
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
NCLEX Question
A nurse knows that in the event of an Addisonian crisis, it is most appropriate to
administer which of the following medications intravenously?
a. Insulin
b. Normal saline solution
c. Dextrose 5% in water
d. Dextrose 5% in half-normal saline solution
Answer: B
One problem of a client in the Addisonian crisis is hyponatremia. Therefore, the S U M M A R Y
nurse should anticipate administering 0.9% saline solution. Glucose, vasopressors,
and hydrocortisone are also used to treat the Addisonian crisis. It would be
inappropriate to administer insulin, dextrose 5% in water, or dextrose 5% in half-
normal saline solution for this client. The correct answer is option B, while options
A, C, and D are incorrect.
DI v.s. SIADH
Antidiuretic Hormone
Secreted from the pituitary gland
Pituitary gland is in the brain, between the eyeballs
Be on the lookout for these issues if a client has had:
Craniotomy
Head injury
Sinus surgery
Causes anti-diuresis: Holding onto WATER K E Y T E R M S
Only water is retained, no sodium!
Increased ADH Increased water
Antidiuretic hormone = ADH = Vasopressin
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Pathophysiology
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
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Treatment
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
NCLEX Question
A client suddenly develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
(SIADH) after undergoing cranial surgery. Which manifestations should the nurse
expect to see from the client?
Thyroid Disorders
K E Y T E R M S
Thyroid Hormones
Produced by the thyroid gland
There are two types: T3 and T4
Thyroid hormones = energy
Controlled by a negative feedback loop
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
controls the release of T3 and T4
Low T3 and T4 cause high TSH
High T3 and T4 cause low TSH
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Hormone Disease
Thyroid Hormones:
Not enough thyroid hormone
& too much TSH: TSH
N ot es
T3
Hypothyroidism T3/T4 Q U E S T I O N S
T4
K E Y T E R M S
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Treatment
Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Levothyroxine: Thyroid hormone Methimazole: antithyroid
medication
Take on an empty stomach Stops the thyroid from making
Take first thing in the T3 and T4
morning (take at the same Iodine compounds
time every day) Used to decrease the size and D E T A I L S
vascularity of the thyroid gland
Will take this forever Radioactive iodine therapy
Destroys thyroid cells
Can cause hypothyroidism
Thyroidectomy
Removal of all or some of the
thyroid gland
Depending on post-operative
lab values, thyroid replacement
therapy may be necessary
Parathyroid Disorders
Parathyroid Hormone
S U M M A R Y
Secreted by the
parathyroid glands
Causes calcium to be
pulled out of the bones
and into the blood
Causes an increase in
serum calcium
K E Y T E R M S
Hypoparathyroidism Hyperparathyroidism
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Diabetes Mellitus
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Insulin
Produced in the pancreas Key
point!
𝛃-islets of Langerhan Insulin acts like a key that
Acts as the ‘key’ to transport glucose unlocks the door to the
from the bloodstream to the cells cells... lets glucose in!
Allows the cells to use glucose as fuel S U M M A R Y
Door’s open,
time to go
inside!
K E Y T E R M S
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S U M M A R Y
Diabetic Ketoacidosis
There is no insulin to carry
glucose to the cells
Kussmaul respirations
Blow off CO2
High serum potassium
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D E T A I L S
Interventions
IV fluids
Restore blood volume
Replace fluid losses
D5 1/2NS once glucose down to 250 to
prevent hypoglycemia and cerebral edema S U M M A R Y
IV insulin - continuous
Potassium replacement after initial hyperkalemia is
resolved
Insulin moves potassium back into cells!
Bicarbonate for severe acidosis
Assessment K E Y T E R M S
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Chronic Complications
Cardiovascular disease
Diabetic peripheral
N ot es
neuropathy Q U E S T I O N S
Diabetic autonomic
Diabetic retinopathy neuropathy
Preventing Complications
Proper foot care and footwear Take medications as
prescribed consistently
Offload pressure points and
Smoking cessation
ensure quality wound care
Prevention
Avoid nephrotoxic
Water thermometer for medications
bathing
Diet and lifestyle changes -
Dry feet thoroughly and apply carbohydrate counting,
moisturizer (not between toes) exercise, etc.
S U M M A R Y
Treatment
Diet and Exercise Low carb, high protein and veggies
Exercise
Eat before exercising, exercise is when blood sugar is
at it’s highest
HHNS
Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS)
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HHNS Pathophysiology
Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
Extremely high blood glucose levels
D E T A I L S
Kidneys start producing more urine due to the
hyperosmolarity of blood
Acute Treatments
INSULIN IV FLUIDS ELECTROLYTES
Move that glucose Restore Replace electrolytes,
back into the cell! intravascular especially potassium
Also moves volume
potassium back High BG S U M M A R Y
into the cell caused a fluid
shift out of the
vascular space!
K E Y T E R M S
Case Study
You arrive at work, and your first client arrives. It is a 22-year-old
female who complains of severe hunger and thirst, 9/10 abdominal
pain, headache, and a recent unexplained weight loss of 10 lbs.
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D E T A I L S
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
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D E T A I L S
IV 100 ml/hr
Normal Saline
continuous S U M M A R Y
0.1U/kg/hr
Insulin Aspart continuously
via IV
K E Y T E R M S
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Insulin Storage
Keep away from heat and direct sunlight
Notes
Never freeze insulin Q U E S T I O N S
Store in the refrigerator until ready for use
When actively using, keep it at room temperature
At room temperature:
NPH: Good for one month
Glargine: Good for 28 days
Rapid and short-acting: Good for 28 days D E T A I L S
Mixing Insulin
1 Draw up air equal to the total amount of insulin needed
S U M M A R Y
Insulin Administration
Only regular insulin can be administered IV
All others given SubQ
Rotate sites
Syringes measured in units
Never use expired or cloudy insulin
NPH is the only cloudy insulin
Outer aspect of
Back
the upper arm
Peri-umbilical area
of the abdomen
Buttock
Upper outer
thigh
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Angle of Injection
Subcutaneous
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Injection
Bunched skin
Epidermis
D E T A I L S
Dermis
Stretched skin
Hypodermis
Muscle Muscle
Hypoglycemia
When there is not enough
glucose in the bloodstream Assessment
Blood glucose <70 mg/dL
Causes: Cold S U M M A R Y
Not enough food Clammy
Too much insulin Confused
Too much exercise Shaky
Nervous
45 mg/dL Nausea
Headache
Hungry
Blurry vision
Treatment
After the blood
glucose rises, eat a
snack with complex
carbs/proteins to
help maintain the
15 grams Wait 15 Still < 70? blood glucose level
of carbs (i.e., crackers with K E Y T E R M S
minutes, check Take another 15
peanut butter)
BG again grams of carbs
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S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
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ENDOCRINE
CASE STUDY ANSWERS
You arrive at work, and your first client arrives. It is a 22-year-old female who complains of
severe hunger and thirst, 9/10 abdominal pain, headache, and a recent unexplained weight
loss of 10 lbs.
Interpret each lab result. Which lab result are you most concerned about?
Explain WHY it is abnormal based on the pathophysiology of DKA.
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ENDOCRINE
CASE STUDY ANSWERS
Interpret each lab result. Which lab result are you most concerned about?
Explain WHY it is abnormal based on the pathophysiology of DKA.
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ENDOCRINE
CASE STUDY ANSWERS
Order Frequency Appropriate
Review each of these
orders. Are they Yes. Monitoring the ABG every hour to evaluate the
appropriate? Is there ABG Q1 hr metabolic acidosis is very appropriate. No
anything you need to clarification needed.
question or clarify? Are
there any additional No. A full BMP every 2 hours isn't needed. Rather,
interventions you should we need hourly monitoring of the glucose and serum
potassium. The RN might clarify if there is an
ask for an order for? BMP Q2 hrs additional reason the HCP ordered a full BMP, but it
can likely be changed to just blood glucose and
potassium hourly.
The client later tells you that her grandfather was obese and developed diabetes
in his late 70s. She tells you that her grandfather also took a pill to control his
blood sugar and asks if she could do that instead of the insulin injections.
direct sunlight
Page 135 long-acting insulin
cloudy insulin
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N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
DAY 3 SCHEDULE
9 AM - 4 PM CT
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
Part III: N ot es
Specialties Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
MATERNITY
S U P P O R T I N G W O M E N
I N P R E G N A N C Y ,
L A B O R , A N D C H I L D
B I R T H
K E Y T E R M S
“I think I’m pregnant”! “You’re probably pregnant!”
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N ot es
A positive Q U E S T I O N S
pregnancy
test is what
sign of
pregnancy?
D E T A I L S
Antepartum Testing
Routine exams done for everyone
Blood type/Rh factor
STI testing
Glucose challenge
Urinalysis
Ultrasound
Nonstress test (NST)
Group B Strep
Kick counts
K E Y T E R M S
Blood type and Rh Factor
Important to know the mother's blood type and if they are Rh positive or
negative
If the mother is Rh negative, and the baby is Rh positive, this is considered a
‘set up’ and puts the infant at risk for erythroblastosis fetalis
Further testing needed if this is the case - after the baby is born
Direct Coombs test
Performed on the newborn's blood sample
Indirect Coombs test
Performed on the mother’s blood sample
Treatment = Rhogam
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Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
Glucose Challenge
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test Three Hour Glucose Tolerance Test
Done at 28 weeks Done if the 1 hour test is failed
Mother drinks 50 grams of or there are other risk factors
glucose in an oral solution It is done fasting; mothers must
1 hour later her blood sugar not eat or drink for 8 hours
is checked prior to the test
If the BG is greater than 140 A fasting sugar is checked
mg/dL, the 3 hours glucose The mother drinks 100 grams
test is performed of oral glucose
Her BG is rechecked at 1 hour,
2 hours, and 3 hours
A sugar greater than 140
S U M M A R Y
indicates gestational diabetes
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GTPAL N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Knowledge Check!
Determine the GTPAL for each client
Answers
Question 1: G5 T2 P2 A0 L3
Question 1 **Make sure to include the current
42-year-old female in her second trimester. pregnancy under G!
She has 4 previous pregnancies. Her Question 2: G4 T0 P1 A2 L2
first two children were born at 39 and 37 **Twins only count for ONE
weeks. Her third child was born at 35 gestation, but TWO living children
weeks. Her fourth child miscarried at 22 (if they’re living!)
weeks and did not survive.
K E Y T E R M S
Question 2
A 29-year-old patient with a history of 2
miscarriages at 8 and 18 weeks, twins
born at 34 weeks that are still living, and is
currently in her 3rd trimester with a
singleton pregnancy.
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High Risk N ot es
Pregnancy Conditions Q U E S T I O N S
Hyperemesis Gravidarum
D E T A I L S
When to be
Concerned
Are they losing weight?
Are they dehydrated?
Skin turgor
Mucous membranes
HR S U M M A R Y
Electrolytes
Dehydration hypernatremia
Vomiting excessively hypokalemia, hypochloremia
Therapeutic Management
Dietary changes
Sit up after meals
Eat a few crackers before getting out
of bed
Small portions
No liquids with meals; drink in
between
Nothing spicy, too hot, or too cold….
Keep it simple
Medications
Promethazine
IVF
TPN/Intravenous lipids (IL)
K E Y T E R M S
Preeclampsia
What is Preeclampsia?
>20 weeks gestation
Blood pressure >140/90 mmHg
2 times
4 hrs apart
Increased BP Weight gain Proteinuria
Protein in the urine
Vision changes
Eclampsia - preeclampsia leads to seizures
Facial puffiness Pedal edema
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Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Therapeutic Management
Delivery
Prepare for a preterm baby
Magnesium sulfate prevent seizures in mom, fetal neuroprotection
Betamethasone help develop baby’s lungs
Antihypertensives…..
NIFEDIPINE ARBS
Gestational Diabetes
Assessment
Screen for GDM at prenatal visits
Glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks
Screen for glucose in the urine
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Therapeutic
Management N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Control with diet and
exercise
Monitor blood glucose
Mother should not
require insulin after
delivery D E T A I L S
Neonate at risk for
Macrosomia Preeclampsia Hypoglycemia
hypoglycemia (Baby) (Mother) (Baby)
S U M M A R Y
Hypoglycemia in neonates
Fetal pancreas produces its own insulin
Fetus was used to high levels of glucose in mother’s blood
After delivery, no longer has high glucose levels, but still producing high
levels of insulin
NGN Question
The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant at 35
gestational weeks
Identify the findings in the medical record that require follow up
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Ectopic Pregnancy N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
What is an Ectopic Pregnancy?
Ectopic = out of place Ectopic pregnancy symptoms
An egg is fertilized, but implants
outside of the uterine cavity
D E T A I L S
Fallopian tube
Cervix
Abdomen
Normal Ectopic
pregnancy pregnancy
Therapeutic Management
PREVENT rupture!!
Detect with ultrasound A ruptured ectopic
Surgically removed pregnancy will go
Methotrexate to the OR STAT!
Stops the embryo from being able to grow
Aborts the fetus S U M M A R Y
Rh immune globulin
Given to mom if they are Rh negative
Prevent erythroblastosis fetalis
Don’t know Rh type of fetus
Better safe than sorry!
K E Y T E R M S
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ANSWER KEY - MATERNITY
Amenorrhea
Page 143 Positive pregnancy test
HCP
Probable
5/2/2021
Page 144 Blood type/Rh factor
negative
Rhogam
28 weeks
140
Page 145
Non-reactive
Positive
morning sickness
Hypernatremia
Page 147 Sit up after meals
Promethazine
Protein in urine
Hydralazine
ARBs
Page 148
pregnancy
24-28 weeks
out of place
Page 150 Methotrexate
Moderate variability
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N ot es
LABOR AND Q U E S T I O N S
DELIVERY
B R I N G I N G L I F E
D E T A I L S
I N T O T H E W O R L D
Obstetric Pharmacology
S U M M A R Y
Tocolytic agents: slow contractions
Terbutaline
Magnesium sulfate
Oxytocic agents: stimulate contractions
Oxytocin
Misoprostol
Terbutaline
Therapeutic class: selective beta 2 adrenergic agonist
Indications: preterm labor
Action: binds to beta 2 adrenergic receptors in the respiratory system to
cause bronchodilation by inhibiting the release of hypersensitivity reaction
products from mast cells. Also works on beta 2 receptors in the uterus to
slow or stop contraction.
Nursing Considerations:
Side effects: shakiness, jitteriness, dizziness, drowsiness, sleep
disturbances, weakness, headache, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia,
hypertension, hyperglycemia. CNS overstimulation
Assess HR, BP, blood glucose K E Y T E R M S
Monitor HR of mom and baby when used in labor
Monitor fetal heart monitor strips closely
Monitor EKG
Magnesium Sulfate
Therapeutic class: electrolyte
Indications: hypomagnesemia, torsades de pointes, pre-eclampsia, preterm
labor, seizures, asthma exacerbation
Nursing Considerations:
Monitor for hypermagnesemia
Confusion, dizziness, weakness, decreased reflexes
Give IV slowly
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Oxytocin
Therapeutic class: Hormone Notes
Indications: Induction of labor; Postpartum hemorrhage Q U E S T I O N S
Action: Stimulates uterine smooth muscle causing it to contract
Nursing Considerations:
Monitor contractions
Monitor fetus
Warn mother contractions will be more painful
Monitor BP, HR, glucose, and K
D E T A I L S
Station
How far down in the birth canal the
baby is
Measured in relation to mom’s
ischial spine
Most narrow spot
Right Left At ischial spine = 0 station
S U M M A R Y
0 station
Placenta Previa
Placenta
Placenta is
covering the
cervix rather
Uterus than high in the
Cervix fundus
Placenta
Vagina
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Assessment
Major symptom is PAINLESS bright red bleeding
The fact that it is painless is very important
This sets it apart from an abruption Test-taking tip!
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
To assess the bleeding Do not do a
Pad count to determine the amount vaginal check if a
Clots client has vaginal
Color bleeding for an
Ultrasound done to confirm diagnosis unknown reason!
Ultrasound will determine type of previa
D E T A I L S
Nursing Interventions
Never ever perform a cervical exam if you suspect a placenta previa!
Would never want to irritate the placenta or uterus
Continue to monitor for blood loss
Client may have to stay on the unit to be monitored
Perform pad counts
Weigh pads
1 gram = 1 mL blood loss.
Bed rest
This may minimize blood loss
Monitor baby
If there is excessive blood loss, perfusion to the fetus can be decreased
Cesarean section indicated in most cases
Abruptio Placentae S U M M A R Y
Anatomy
Placenta
Abruptio -
placenta has
Wall of the womb
come away
from the wall
of the womb
K E Y T E R M S
Types
Causes massive amounts of painful bleeding Assessment
Two types Dark red bleeding
Incomplete Intense abdominal pain
Complete Board like abdomen (due
Incomplete is only partial separation of the to internal bleeding)
placenta Rigid uterus
Causes internal bleeding Hypotension (Think
Blood backs up behind the placenta shock due to blood loss)
Complete is when the placenta completely Maternal tachycardia
detaches Fetal bradycardia (fetal
Causes massive external bleeding distress!!)
Very painful
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Interventions N ot es
Monitor for fetal distress Q U E S T I O N S
Signs of distress? Stat c-section!
Monitor maternal bleeding
Abdominal pain
Board like abdomen
Dark red vaginal bleeding
Change in fundal height (blood in D E T A I L S
abdomen?)
Keep the BP up with IVF and/or blood
products
Prepare for delivery - most likely C-section
NCLEX Question
You are triaging a new client in the antepartum unit. They tell you that they started
bleeding this morning and were told to come in by their OB. They deny any pain or
other symptoms. Which of the following nursing interventions do you anticipate
initiating? Select all that apply.
a. Bed rest
b. Pad counts
c. Emergency vaginal delivery
d. Vaginal exam S U M M A R Y
e. Ultrasound
Answer: A, B, and E
A is correct. The nurse suspects a placenta previa based off of the clients complaint
of painless bleeding. With a placenta previa, bed rest is indicated to prevent further
bleeding. This is an appropriate nursing intervention to initiate for both the safety of
the mother and fetus and should be done right away.
B is correct. Pad counts are a way of monitoring the quantity of blood loss. Because
the nurse suspects placenta previa and the client is reporting vaginal bleeding, pad
counts are an appropriate nursing intervention to initiate. When obtaining pad
counts, they can be done in two ways. If exact quantity of blood loss is not
indicated, the nurse can just count the number of pads saturated with blood. If the
primary health care provider orders strict monitoring, the pads will be weighed to
obtain the exact number of milliliters of blood lost. When weighing pads, 1 gram is
1 milliliter of blood lost. Pad counts should be initiated for any suspected placenta
previa, so this is an appropriate nursing intervention.
E is correct. You suspect a placenta previa, and the diagnosis for this is will be
made via ultrasound, so this is an expected intervention. K E Y T E R M S
C is incorrect. An emergency vaginal delivery is contraindicated for a client with
suspected placenta previa. Because we believe that the placenta is either partially
or fully covering the cervix of this client, a cesarean section will need to be
performed. This may be distressing for some mothers, so be sure to provide
education about why this is the safest option for everyone’s health. Vaginal
deliveries with a placenta previa can cause serious harm to the mother and fetus
and are contraindicated.
D is incorrect. Vaginal exams are contraindicated for a client with a suspected
placenta previa. In this client, we suspect that the placenta is either partially or fully
covering the cervix of this client. That means that if a vaginal exam were to be
performed, the hand of the examiner would touch the placenta. We do not want to
cause this irritation and exacerbate the bleeding that is already occurring. Vaginal
exams are always contraindicated in clients with either confirmed or suspected
placenta previa.
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Assessment S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
Nursing Interventions
Elevate the presenting part of the fetus off of the prolapsed cord
Keep your hand on the baby’s head lifting it up and call for help
Positioning
Knees-to-chest position - open the pelvis
Trendelenburg - let gravity shift the baby off the cord
Administer oxygen
Wrap cord in sterile moist towel
Emergency cesarean delivery
Key NEVER attempt to push
point!
the cord back in!
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Postpartum Hemorrhage N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Assessment
Boggy uterus
This is a uterus that is not contracting to
clamp down on the blood vessels
The fundus will feel soft instead of hard as
it should S U M M A R Y
Blood loss
Pad counts - most PPH clients are
saturating pads every 15 minutes
Puddle of blood in the bed
If they try to stand up for the first time
there could be a huge gush of blood
500+ mL blood loss in 24 hours = think
post-partum hemorrhage Boggy = BAD!
Shock - if there is a large amount of blood loss
leading to hypovolemia
Decreased LOC
Pale
Diaphoretic Our client is 35 weeks
Hypotensive pregnant and reports
Tachycardic severe pain and dark
red bleeding. What
Interventions do we think is the
Fundal massage complication?
Massage the fundus - hard!
Warn the mother this will hurt, but K E Y T E R M S
you must do it to get the uterus to
contract and stop the bleeding
Every 15 minutes at a minimum What positioning can
Estimated Blood Loss (EBL) be used for a
Weigh pads to estimate the loss prolapsed cord?
1 g = 1 mL
Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit
Medications
Oxytocin
Methylergonovine
Blood products
You finished labor and delivery!
Keep up the great work!
157
ANSWER KEY -
LABOR & DELIVERY
Terbutaline
Page 152 Monitor EKG
decreased reflexes
Page 153 Postpartum hemorrhage
painless, bright red bleeding
1 gram = 1 mL of blood loss
Page 154
Incomplete
painful
Stat C-section
Page 155
A, B, and E
oxygen to the fetus
Page 156 Pulsing?
sterile moist towel
Macrosomic fetus
Boggy uterus
Fundal massage
Page 157
Abruptio placentae
Knees to chest or left sided
trendelenburg
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N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Pediatrics D E T A I L S
Newborns S U M M A R Y
APGAR Assessment
Complications
Meconium Aspiration
Meconium is the first stool of the newborn
When the meconium is passed before delivery, the fetus is at risk for
meconium aspiration
The aspiration can occur in utero, or just after delivery when the infant takes
their first breath and starts to cry
Meconium in the lungs causes very serious illness; pneumonia, pulmonary
hypertension, and sepsis are all common
These infants become critically ill very quickly
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Assessment
If meconium aspiration is suspected, pertinent assessment will include:
Respiratory status:
Notes
Q U E S T I O N S
Accessory muscle use
Breath sounds
Grunting
Nasal flaring
Interventions
Very quick action is essential to a good outcome
Suction immediately after birth - before they take their first breath
Intubation
IV antibiotics
IV fluids
Do you suction the
nose or the mouth
first?
Jaundice
S U M M A R Y
Terminology
Jaundice - elevated bilirubin level resulting in
yellowing of the sclera, skin, and mucous membranes
Bilirubin - waste product produced during breakdown
of red blood cells
Unconjugated (indirect) - The heme that is
released from hemoglobin in the process of red
blood cell breakdown is converted to
unconjugated bilirubin
Transported to the liver
Conjugated (direct) - Unconjugated bilirubin is
converted to conjugated bilirubin in the liver
Excreted in the stool
Physiological Jaundice
Jaundice that appears on day 2 or 3 of life
This is expected and not considered pathologic unless other issues arise
This is simply due to the normal transition from the placenta removing K E Y T E R M S
bilirubin to the infant's liver removing bilirubin
Followed up in outpatient setting with a pediatrician
Pathological Jaundice
Jaundice that occurs within the first 24 hours of life
Serum bilirubin will be compared to normal value based on hours of life
Jaundice appearing in the first 24 hours indicates some problem or disease
process that needs addressed
Could be an issue with the liver or an ABO incompatibility
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Kernicterus
Kernicterus is a type of brain damage that can result from high
N ot es
levels of bilirubin in the blood. Q U E S T I O N S
Complications:
Cerebral palsy
Hearing loss
Problems with vision
Problems with teeth
D E T A I L S
Intellectual disabilities
Kernicterus is completely preventable! We must monitor for
signs and symptoms of jaundice early and treat promptly.
Treatment -
Phototherapy
Helps break down bilirubin so it may be
excreted in the feces
Must ensure the eyes and genitals are
covered
Monitor the level and distance from the
light if overhead therapy being used
Double, triple, and quadruple therapy
depending on severity
S U M M A R Y
Congenital Heart
Defects
Fetal Circulation
K E Y T E R M S
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Tet Spells
Hypoxic spells that occur in TOF
Begins with irritability and tachypnea and followed by a prolonged period of
intense cyanosis leading to syncope
A drop in systemic vascular resistance increases the right to left shunt and
decreases pulmonary blood flow
More right to left shunting more deoxygenated blood out to the body
Management Interventions K E Y T E R M S
If mild - can go home and grow until ready for Comfort and calm
surgery Knee-to-chest
If critically ill with severe hypoxia - surgery is position
required in the neonatal period Supplemental oxygen
Ideally, complete repair around 6 months of age Sedation - morphine
Can be earlier depending on signs and Volume
symptoms
Surgery - “Tet repair”
BT shunt
Repair of pulmonary valve
Patch VSD
Bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis
What’s the priority
intervention in a tet spell?
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Assessment
Upper extremities Lower extremities
Bounding pulses Weak or absent pulses
Hypertensive Hypotensive
Warm Pale
Pink Cool
S U M M A R Y
Management
Critical coarctation - think shock!!
Prostaglandins
Surgical repair
Lifelong follow up
High risk for recoractation or aortic aneurysm
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Pediatrics - Respiratory N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Pediatric Specific
Considerations D E T A I L S
Airway patency
Kids have a large occiput
Shoulder roll - ‘sniffing
position’
Avoid supine position
Secretions
They can’t get their own
Big head… scrunched airway!
boogers out!
Have suction ready
Swelling can occlude airway
quickly
Tongue is bigger
Airway is smaller and less
rigid
Breathing S U M M A R Y
“Kids compensate until they fall
off a cliff”
Lower lung capacity
Trend their vital signs! If they start
to look bad…. Often, they are
about to look really bad Shoulder roll opens airway
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Overview
Most common in children under 2 years old
Seasonal illness
N ot es
Most common in winter Q U E S T I O N S
Causative agent usually viral
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
Very contagious
Worst on days 4-6
D E T A I L S
Assessment
Cough Hypoxia
Fever Circumoral cyanosis
Increased work of breathing Mottling
Retractions Delayed capillary refill
Subcostal Decreased SpO₂
Intracostal Changes in behavior
Tracheal tug Irritability
Nasal flaring Lethargy
Head bobbing Poor feeding
Tachypnea
Lung sounds
Crackles
Wheezing
Interventions
Supportive treatment S U M M A R Y
Oxygenation
Nasal cannula - high flow nasal cannula
Always humidified
Fluid & Nutrition
NGT
Enteral feedings
IVF
Antipyretics
Analgesics
Croup
What is Croup?
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
Viral respiratory tract illness
Results in inflammation and edema
of the larynx and/or trachea K E Y T E R M S
Commonly affects pediatric population
Assessment
Hoarse, “bark-like” cough
Treatment
Stridor Corticosteroids
Chest wall retractions Epinephrine via nebulizer
Runny nose, fever “Racemic epi”
Symptoms often worsen at night Keep patient calm and
decrease anxiety levels
Agitation can lead to
Describe the classic respiratory distress
"croup-like" cough!
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Epiglottitis
The 4 D’s of N ot es
epiglottitis
What is Epiglottitis? Q U E S T I O N S
NCLEX Question
The nurse is assessing a 4 year old who was sent to the ED from urgent care.
Assessment reveals tripod positioning, blue lips, mottled skin, inspiratory stridor,
and excessive drooling. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
A. Keep the child calm and call for emergency airway equipment
Vital signs B. Obtain IV access
Temp. (o) 39 C
C. Assess the throat for a cherry red epiglottis
Pulse 188 D. Place the child on high-flow nasal cannula at 100% FiO2
RR 46
SpO2 82%
Answer: A K E Y T E R M S
A is correct. Based on the presenting symptoms, the nurse suspects that this child has epiglottitis. Any
child presenting with excessive drooling, distress, and stridor is highly suspicious for this medical
emergency. In addition, this client is already showing signs of circulatory compromise including
circumoral cyanosis and mottling. The priority nursing action in this emergency is keeping the child calm
and calling for emergency airway equipment. The child is at risk of losing their airway, and airway is
always the priority!
B is incorrect. It is inappropriate to attempt to obtain IV access on a child suspected of epiglottitis before
emergency airway equipment is available. The priority action at this time is keeping the child calm and
calling for emergency airway equipment.
C is incorrect. It is inappropriate to assess the throat for a cherry red epiglottis at this time. Although
presence of a cherry red epiglottis would confirm the diagnosis of epiglottitis, this child is at risk of losing
their airway. The priority action will be to protect that airway before assessing the throat. .
D is incorrect. Placing the child on a high flow nasal cannula at 100% FiO2 is not the priority at this time.
This answer probably sounded right, because you see the O2 is 82% and they have circumoral cyanosis.
Oxygen sounds like the right answer! But this intervention addresses the ‘C’ in your ABC’s - circulation.
And the priority is always ‘A’, airway! This child is at risk of losing their airway, so all interventions need
to wait until there is emergency airway equipment close by. If anything upsets the child their airway
could spams and obstruct completely making it impossible to intubate them. That is why keeping the
child calm and calling for emergency airway equipment is the priority in epiglottitis clients. 168
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Pediatrics - Gastrointestinal N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Cleft Palate
A congenital abnormality
where there is a split, or
gap, in the hard palate
(the roof of the mouth)
Assessment
S U M M A R Y
Visible defect
Monitor respiratory status
Airway patency
Nutritional status
Weight gain
Hydration
Cleft palate patients
Management can be prone, cleft lip
Surgically corrected patients cannot be
Cleft lip first at 3-6 months of age prone!
Cleft palate second at 6-24 months of age
Pre-operative care The sutures should not
Monitor for aspiration be disrupted!
Assess airway patency frequently
Post-operative care
Positioning:
Position upright for feedings
Cleft palate - can be prone post op to help drain secretions
Cleft lip should NOT be prone as this could disturb the suture
K E Y T E R M S
line
Protect suture line
Elbow restraints to avoid toddler putting things in the mouth that
would compromise the sutures
No hard foods, straws, pacifiers, etc.
No oral or nasal suctioning
Feedings
Specialized bottle to facilitate a good suction/latch
Small, frequent feedings
Upright position
Burp frequently - will swallow a lot of air
May take longer to feed than other children
Monitor for aspiration
At risk for feeding to go out of their nose
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Pyloric Stenosis N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
What is Assessment
Pyloric Vomiting
Non-bilious
Stenosis? Projectile Treatment
Right after feeding Treat dehydration D E T A I L S
Hypertrophy of the Infant is still hungry Pyloromyotomy
circular muscle fibers Dehydration Nutrition after surgery
of the pylorus, with a Malnutrition
severe narrowing of Palpable pylorus
the lumen
Omphalocele
What is an Omphalocele?
Congenital abnormality where the abdominal
contents protrude through the umbilicus while
remaining in the peritoneal sac
Occurs during weeks 9-10 of gestation
Usually diagnosed on a prenatal ultrasound S U M M A R Y
Assessment Complications
Visible defect
Dehydration
Some infants have
only the omphalocele
Some also have
cardiac defects
Lung size can be
affected Hypothermia Sepsis
Management
Pre-op Surgical
Keep exposed intestines moist
Cover with sterile gauze soaked Repair
in saline
IV fluids
IV antibiotics K E Y T E R M S
Thermoregulation
Post-op
Parenteral feeds
Trophic feeds started enterally
very gradually
Monitor weight
Very long hospital stay
Gastroschisis vs.
Omphalocele
Gastroschisis Omphalocele
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NCLEX Question
The nurse observes a parent swaddling their infant with an unrepaired
omphalocele. Which of the following statements would be appropriate?
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
A. "Stop! You will kill your baby."
B. "That is a nice, tight swaddle. It will help soothe your new baby."
C. "May I help you? We must be careful with the baby's intestines since we do
///not want the swaddle to push them back inside."
D. "Swaddling is not allowed for these babies; please stop."
D E T A I L S
Answer: A
C is correct. This is a therapeutic statement. It educates the parent about the need to swaddle the baby
only very loosely, and avoid any pressure on the exposed intestines so that they do not get pushed back
inside of the baby. It also promotes bonding with the infant, as it encourages the parent to touch and
care for their baby.
A is incorrect. This is inappropriate to say to a parent as it would cause panic and upset them. The
nurse wants to promote the parent bonding with their infant, and phrases like this will scare the parent
and make them afraid to touch the baby, which is not therapeutic.
B is incorrect. It is not appropriate to tightly swaddle an infant with an omphalocele. This would place
pressure on their exposed intestines and could push them back inside of the baby, which we do not
want.
D is incorrect. This is not appropriate. Swaddling is not ideal for an infant with an omphalocele due to
the exposed intestines, but if it is done loosely and avoids placing pressure on the defect it can certainly
be done. Telling the parent to stop will not promote bonding and decrease their interaction with the
baby. The nurse should educate the parent on the necessary precautions when traveling and help them
develop a positive relationship with their new baby.
S U M M A R Y
Intussusception
Occurs when one
part of the
intestine slips
inside the other
intestine
“Telescoping”
Often occurs
where the small
intestine and large
intestine meet
Assessment
Red currant jelly stools
Cyclical abdominal pain
Nausea
Vomiting K E Y T E R M S
Green, bilious emesis
Sausage-shaped mass in abdomen
Treatment Management
Enema to attempt to push the Pre-op
intestine back out Monitor stool
Air enema NPO
Hydrostatic enema IV fluids
Barium enema IV antibiotics
If unsuccessful, a surgical Post-op
repair is needed Monitor bowel function
Infection is common complication
Monitor temp, WBC, CRP
Slowly advance diet
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Assessment
Delayed passage of meconium
Ribbon-like stool
Swollen belly
Vomiting, including vomiting a green or Treatment
brown substance Surgical removal of the
Constipation portion of the colon
Gas lacking innervation
Irritation Nutrition after surgery
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
infection calm
Page 168
Distress A
upper lip prone aspiration
Page 169
hard palate suctioning
narrowing 9-10 Thermoregulation
Page 170
Projectile Lung size Trophic feeds
C Sausage-shaped
Page 171
“Telescoping” Infection
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N ot es
MENTAL Q U E S T I O N S
HEALTH
N U R T U R I N G T H E
D E T A I L S
M I N D F O R A
H E A L T H Y L I F E
Anxiety
What is Anxiety?
The body’s natural response to stress
K E Y T E R M S
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Therapeutic Management
Address any physical symptoms
Ensure they are in a safe environment
N ot es
Reorient the client Q U E S T I O N S
Decrease stimuli
Calm environment
Monitor for self-harm
Therapeutic communication
Establish trust/rapport
Rationalize their thoughts - be logical D E T A I L S
Encourage expression of thoughts and help problem solve
Help restructure their thoughts
Determine what triggers the anxiety
Onset: intermediate
Alprazolam Duration: 6-12 hours
Lorazepam
Therapeutic class: Benzodiazepine
Indications: Anxiety, sedation, seizures
Action: General CNS depression
Nursing Considerations:
Avoid alcohol
Monitor for respiratory depression
Antidote - flumazenil
Depression
What is Depression? K E Y T E R M S
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Therapeutic Management
Physiological needs
Nutrition/hydration
N ot es
Sleep Q U E S T I O N S
Safe environment - assess risk for self harm
One to one observation
Remove potentially harmful items
Therapy
Express feelings
Validate their frustration and sadness D E T A I L S
Get moving!
ADLs
SSRI Adverse Effects
Antidepressants 3 S's
SSRIs
Fluoxetine
Sertraline S stomach upset
Escitalopram
TCAs
Amitriptyline
S sexual dysfunction
Nortriptyline
Protriptyline
MAOIs
S serotonin syndrome
signs & symptoms include:
Isocarboxazid hypertension, confusion, anxiety,
Phenelzine tremors, ataxia, sweating
SSRIs S U M M A R Y
Therapeutic class: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Examples: fluoxetine, sertraline, escitalopram
Indication: Depression
Action: Prevent reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing the availability of
serotonin in the body
Nursing Considerations:
Suicide precautions important for 2-3 weeks
When the client’s mood is slowly improving, they are at increased
risk for suicide
Why? They now have the energy to follow through with a plan
Monitor for serotonin syndrome
Hypertension, confusion, anxiety, tremors, ataxia, sweating
TCAs
Therapeutic class: Tricyclic antidepressant
Examples: amitriptyline, nortriptyline, protriptyline
Indication: Depression
Action: Prevents the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, thereby
increasing these neurotransmitters in the body K E Y T E R M S
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MAOIs N ot es
Therapeutic class: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors Q U E S T I O N S
Examples: isocarboxazid, phenelzine
Indication: Depression
Action: Blocks monoamine oxidase enzymes to
increase the levels of ALL neurotransmitters
(dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine, serotonin)
Nursing Considerations: D E T A I L S
Avoid foods high in tyramine
Side effect - hypertensive crisis
S U M M A R Y
Suicide Precautions
K E Y T E R M S
Case Study
The nurse cares for a 33-year-old male in the
emergency department (ED).
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Client was brought to the ED by the police after he started driving erratically
and almost collided with several vehicles. After being pulled over, the client
stated he was ‘driving into this future.’ The client was incoherent in his responses
to police officers and became angry when he was arrested. He was brought to
the emergency department for medical clearance.
D E T A I L S
On exam, the client is hyperalert/hyperaroused and has an expansive affect. He
recognizes that he is in a hospital, but when asked what year it is, he states, “we
are in the future.” He states the bright lights he sees sparkle and that it is
showing him the future. He cannot detail any of his medical history or current
medications. The client does not stay on topic during the interview and
frequently switches topics. He is pacing within the exam room and insists on
going outside to the roof to see ‘if he can fly.’ The client has impaired insight
and judgment.
His father provided collateral information
and stated that his son ran out of medication Vital Signs
several days ago. He states that four days
ago, he noticed a change in his son, becoming Oral Temperature 98 ᵒ F (36.7ᵒ C)
more talkative and staying longer at work to Pulse 83/minute
feel more productive. His father states that Respirations 15/minute
his last call with his son was two days ago, Blood pressure 134/79 mm Hg
and he noticed that his symptoms had O₂ saturation 96% on room air
worsened, and he could not go to work.
S U M M A R Y
Bipolar Disorder
K E Y T E R M S
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D E T A I L S
Lithium
Therapeutic class: Mood stabilizer
Indication: Mania
Action: Inhibits excitatory neurotransmitters such as dopamine and
glutamate, and promotes GABA-mediated neurotransmission
Nursing Considerations:
Do not administer with NSAIDs
Monitor drug levels
Therapeutic level: 0.6-1.2 mEq/L
Encourage adequate fluid intake
Side effects
Seizures, arrhythmias, fatigue, confusion, nausea, anorexia,
hypothyroidism, tremors, leukocytosis
Therapeutic Management
Physiological needs
Provide high-calorie finger food they can eat on the go
Safe environment
Calm, controlled, focused interactions
Don’t argue while in a manic state
Protect their privacy
Appropriate clothing
Therapeutic Communication
Set boundaries
Medications
Antipsychotics
Mood stabilizers 179
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Schizophrenia N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
What is Schizophrenia?
A long-term mental disorder involving a breakdown in the relation between
thought, emotion, and behavior
There is faulty perception, inappropriate actions and feelings, withdrawal
from reality and personal relationships into fantasy and delusion, and a sense D E T A I L S
of mental fragmentation
Schizophrenia Symptoms
Delusions
“False belief firmly held Symptoms can be
to be true despite classified as
rational argument” negative or positive!
Persecution
Jealousy
Grandeur
Hallucinations
“a sensory experience of
something that does not
exist outside the mind”
Auditory
Olfactory S U M M A R Y
Tactile
Visual
Gustatory-taste
K E Y T E R M S
Therapeutic Management
Provide a safe environment
Decrease stimulation
Don’t touch them when experiencing a hallucination
Auditory hallucinations
Are they telling them to do something?
Therapeutic communication
Ask about the delusion to understand what they are experiencing
Do not argue about the delusion or hallucination
Stay focused on reality
Set limits
PRN medications
Haloperidol
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Antipsychotics
Haloperidol
Quetiapine
Olanzapine
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Haloperidol
Therapeutic class: Antipsychotic
Indications: Schizophrenia, mania, aggressive behavior, agitation
Action: Inhibits the effects of dopamine D E T A I L S
Nursing Considerations:
Monitor for extrapyramidal side effects
Tardive dyskinesia
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Can prolong QT interval
Weekly EKG
Contraindicated in pregnancy
Routes: oral, IM, and IV
NCLEX Question
The nurse in the psychiatric unit notes that a client with paranoid schizophrenia is
yelling and blocking the television. Other psychiatric clients around him are getting
angry. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse?
Answer: D
D is correct. The first intervention is to approach the client calmly and attempt to
remove him from the day room. Staff members should not contact the agitated
client alone but should be accompanied by other personnel.
A is incorrect. Restraining the client should be the last approach for the nurse. The
first intervention should be to talk to the client to remove him from the day room.
B is incorrect. The nurse should not try to remove the other clients from the room.
The nurse should first remove the client from the place.
C is incorrect. An IM injection of haloperidol will take 30 minutes to become active.
The nurse needs to remove the client from the day room before the situation
escalates.
Personality Disorders
K E Y T E R M S
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Eating Disorders N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
Case Study
A 22-year-old female was admitted voluntarily to the inpatient unit following a
need to “get help with her eating habits”. Reportedly, the client admits to eating
a large amount of food and feeling “disgusted” afterward, which triggers self- D E T A I L S
induced vomiting. She has done this multiple times and reports it has “gotten
out of control”. She says she is always worried about her appearance “not being
good enough”. She denies using any laxatives or diuretics; however, her mother
reports she found two empty boxes of laxatives in her apartment.
On exam, the client is alert and completely oriented. She is cooperative during
the exam and has an anxious and worried affect. She has a slender appearance
and a current body max index (BMI) of 20. Scars were observed on both index
fingers. She says physically, her only complaint is daily heartburn and occasional
dizziness during exercise.
What eating disorder do you think our client is struggling with?
How do you know?
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Assessment
N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Therapeutic Management
S U M M A R Y
K E Y T E R M S
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N ot es
For each nursing diagnosis, specify the
appropriate nursing intervention
Answer Q U E S T I O N S
NCLEX Question
A client is scheduled for hip replacement surgery. They express anxiety to the
nurse about the upcoming surgery. Which response by the nurse is most
therapeutic?
S U M M A R Y
a. “Everyone is nervous before any surgery. What you feel is completely
normal.”
b. “Here’s what’s going to happen to you during the procedure. I will explain to
you in detail.”
c. “Can you tell me what you have been told about the surgery?”
d. “Let me tell you about the care you will receive and the pain you should
anticipate after the surgery.”
Answer: C
C is correct. Open-ended questions that facilitate further discussion is most
therapeutic in this situation. This option provides the client with an opportunity to
express their thoughts further and would give the nurse a baseline of the client's
knowledge and readiness for the surgery; thus, the correct answer. This way, the
nurse can come up with appropriate explanations around what the client already
knows and by filling in facts.
A, B, and D are incorrect. These will only increase the client's level of anxiety and
are, therefore, incorrect.
K E Y T E R M S
Read
through
Study rationales
tip! out loud to
help increase
retention!
184
ANSWER KEY -
MENTAL HEALTH
Page 174 normal
self-harm
Page 175 flumazenil
low mood
Safe environment
TCAs
Page 176
Serotonin syndrome
Depression
hypertensive crisis
Page 177
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Page 178 extreme emotions
Mania
Lithium
Page 179
NSAIDs
Finger foods
Delusions
Page 180 Hallucinations
Auditory hallucinations
Tardive dyskinesia
Page 181
D
Page 184 C
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Part III: N ot es
Wrap Up Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
TESTING
STRATEGIES
RECAP
Y O U R T E S T
T A K I N G T O O L K I T
The Method
1 2 3 4 5
Read the Rephrase the Are you looking Look through Choose the best
question question for true or false one answer answer and
answers? at a time move on!
Ask yourself:
Positive Is this a good
answer?
answers
True! YES - keep it
Rephrase in NO - eliminate it
Negative Don’t
your own If you don’t know
Look for answers overstress if
words, compare it to the
False! you weren’t K E Y T E R M S
keywords next option and
5 words or 100% sure
less eliminate one
N ot es
Don’t freak out when you get a
question on a topic you don’t
know. It’s going to happen! Q U E S T I O N S
Get to S U M M A R Y
know the
NGN!
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N ot es
Q U E S T I O N S
MOCK
NCLEX D E T A I L S
Question 1
The emergency department (ED) nurse triages a client with suspected bacterial
meningitis. The nurse plans on assessing the client for Kernig's sign. The nurse
understands that this sign is positive when the client
a. reports pain when the knee is extended and the hip flexed.
b. has a stiff neck when the neck is flexed towards the chest.
c. forearm spasms when a blood pressure cuff is inflated on the upper arm. S U M M A R Y
d. reports pain in the calf when the foot is dorsiflexed.
Question 2
Which of the following is most consistent with a client who has hypothyroidism?
a. Thin, anxious-appearing female with exophthalmos with rapid pulse and
complaints of diarrhea
b. Slightly obese, perspiring female who complains of feeling cold all the time
and frequent diarrhea
c. Thin, perspiring male with a hoarse voice, facial edema, and a thick tongue
with complaints of diarrhea
d. Slightly obese female with periorbital edema who complains of cold
intolerance, brittle hair, and dry skin
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing a client's arterial blood gas
results and notes the following: pH 7.45, PCO2 of
30 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 22 mEq/L. Which of the
following conditions do these results indicate?
a. Metabolic acidosis, compensated K E Y T E R M S
b. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated
c. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated
d. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. After the
nurse notifies the rapid response team, the nurse should perform which action?
Select all that apply.
Question 5
The nurse working in the clinic reviews laboratory data for a client prescribed
N ot es
lithium. Highlight the findings in the laboratory data that requires follow-up. Q U E S T I O N S
D E T A I L S
Question 6
The infant just finished surgery for the repair of a malfunctioning
ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which symptom would indicate to the nurse that a
problem could be arising?
a. Increased urine output
b. Depressed fontanelles
c. Decreased heart rate
d. Irritability
Question 7 S U M M A R Y
The nurse is teaching a client about newly prescribed insulin glargine. The nurse
recognizes the need for further instruction when the client makes the following
statement? Select all that apply.
a. "I will take this insulin right before my meals."
b. "I should roll this vial of insulin before removing it with the syringe."
c. "This insulin will help control my glucose for 24 hours."
d. "I can only inject this insulin into my abdomen."
e. "I'm glad to know I can mix this with my regular insulin.”
Question 8
A nurse is conducting client teaching on a client receiving a monoamine oxidase
inhibitor (MAOI) about his drug therapy. The client has demonstrated
understanding by stating, “I should avoid tyramine-containing foods, or I may go
into a hypertensive crisis.” When asked to list specific tyramine-containing foods,
the client would be correct by including which food?
a. Cream cheese
b. Swiss cheese
c. Milk
d. Ice cream
K E Y T E R M S
Question 9
The nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
Place the clients in order based on the priority that the nurse should see them.
a. A 65-year-old newly admitted client with acute coronary syndrome
(ACS) who is receiving a heparin infusion.
b. A 51-year-old client who has a discharge prescription following a heart
failure exacerbation and has questions.
c. A 46-year-old client two days post-operative from a vaginal
hysterectomy reporting burning at the indwelling catheter site.
d. A 31-year-old client three days post-operative who requires a sterile
dressing change.
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Archer Review
Question 10
The nurse in the medical-surgical unit is caring for a 59-year-old female N ot es
Nurses Note: Health History: Q U E S T I O N S
0845: Morning capillary blood glucose obtained of Diabetes mellitus, type I
189 mg/dL (10.4 mmol/L). 4 units of lispro insulin Hyperlipidemia
administered per sliding scale. Vancomycin Pericarditis
infusion started at this time in left peripheral Asthma
vascular access device that was patent with
Orders:
positive blood return. Call bell placed within reach. 0700: D E T A I L S
0950: The client alerted RN that they 'didn't feel Admit to medical/surgical
good.' The client appeared pale, diaphoretic, and for cellulitis
lethargic. The client's words became slurred, and vancomycin 1 g, IV, every
she was disoriented, asking, "where am I?" 'The 12 hours
client's breakfast tray appeared untouched. The Resume all home
client's capillary blood glucose was obtained at 41 medications
Insulin lispro, sliding scale,
mg/dL (2.2 mmol/L). Glasgow coma scale: 13. Vital before meals
signs: T 98° F (36.7° C), P 108, RR 22, BP 150/86, Consistent carbohydrate
pulse oximetry reading 95%. A rapid response was diet
called because of the client's condition change. Daily labs: complete blood
1000: Rapid response team arrived at the bedside. count and comprehensive
Report was given to the rapid response nurse. metabolic panel
Question 11
The nurse is caring for a client newly admitted to the medical-surgical unit.
Nurse’s Note Primary Healthcare Provider
2100 –A 17-year-old female was admitted with (PHCP) Prescriptions
severe dehydration. The client was at school and
- 0.9% saline at 150 mL/hr
‘blacked out.’ The client is underweight and
- Psychiatry consultation K E Y T E R M S
appears malnourished. She was diagnosed with
- Fluoxetine 40 mg PO daily
anorexia nervosa two years ago. She endorsed
- Daily weights
suicidal ideations saying, ‘She is tired of her body
- Dietician consultation
and wants to end it all.’ She reports persistent
- Supervise mealtimes
dizziness and a headache.
Select one (1) prescription and one (1) nurse’s note finding to complete the sentence.
Based on the client’s clinical data, the nurse should immediately _______________
based on the client’s _________________.
PHCP’s Prescriptions Health History Findings
Question 12
A 78-year-old man is admitted with sepsis. Which of the following should the N ot es
nurse expect the health care provider to order? Select all that apply.
Q U E S T I O N S
a. Crystalloids
b. Blood cultures
c. Abdominal x-ray
d. Antibiotics
e. Two large-bore IVs
f. Vasopressors if shock persists
D E T A I L S
Question 13
The nurse is caring for a client with the following tracing on the electrocardiogram.
When reviewing the client’s medical history, which condition could be causing this
dysrhythmia?
a. Graves' disease
b. Increased intracranial pressure
c. Severe hypothermia
d. Myxedema coma
S U M M A R Y
Question 14
The nurse is caring for a client experiencing variable decelerations. The nurse
observes the umbilical cord protruding through the vagina. Place the priority actions
in the correct order.
a. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
b. Prepare for delivery
c. Apply pressure to lift the presenting fetal part
d. Administer oxygen
e. Stay with the client and call for help
Question 15
A 3-month-old infant is in the emergency room for acute abdominal pain. The nurse
suspects intussusception. Which assessment data would further support the
nurse’s suspicion?
a. Black tarry stool
b. Ribbon-like stool
c. Red, currant jelly-like stool K E Y T E R M S
d. Frothy, foul-smelling stool
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Archer Review
1030: A 20-year-old female and her mother present to the clinic reporting a 3-
day fever and diarrhea with nausea and vomiting (N/V). She has been unable to
eat and has tolerated only sips of fluid. Because she has been unable to eat, D E T A I L S
she has not taken her insulin. Her mother stated, "I thought she was getting
better, but it happened so suddenly that she started feeling like this." Her
mother reports she recently arrived back from an international trip. On
assessment, the client is weak and has to be assisted to the examination table.
She is very lethargic and is slow to respond to any question. She has
tachypnea, and respirations are deep and rapid with an acetone-type of odor.
Lung sounds are clear bilaterally. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all quadrants,
and the client reports nausea. Skin is warm and very dry. Capillary refill > 3
seconds. Peripheral pulses are thready. The client keeps saying, "I'm thirsty: I
am thirsty." She endorses a headache 6 on a scale of 0 (no pain) to 10 (severe
pain). She reports dizziness. Vital signs: T 102° F (39° C), P 126, RR 26, BP
96/66, pulse oximetry reading 97% on room air. Capillary blood glucose was
obtained at 374 mg/dL (normal 70-110 mg/dL).
Hyperglycemia
Urine Ketones
Altered level of
consciousness
The outpatient clinic nurse gives the intensive care unit nurse a telephone handoff
report.
The client arrives at the ICU, and the ICU nurse reviews the nurses' notes, medical
history, and physician orders.
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Archer Review
5 It would be a priority for the nurse to implement which two (2) physician
orders based on the 1145 nursing note entry?
Pulse rate
Blood pressure
Capillary blood
glucose
Pain level
Reports of nausea K E Y T E R M S
Peripheral pulses
194
Mock NCLEX
Score Sheet
2 13
3 14
4 15
6 1
7 2
8 3
9 4
10 5
11 6
Total incorrect: __ Need some more work - I can get there! 0-60%
Answer 2: D
D is correct. The patient with hypothyroidism would demonstrate clinical signs and
symptoms of a low metabolic rate resulting from the depletion of circulating thyroid
hormone. S U M M A R Y
A is incorrect. Exophthalmos may occur when hyperthyroidism is present.
B is incorrect. The patient is not likely to perspire, as lower than normal body
temperature is usually present.
C is incorrect. Constipation is a likely complaint among those with hypothyroidism.
Answer 3: B
The normal pH ranges between 7.35-7.45. As seen in this case, a respiratory
condition would show an inverse relationship between the PCO2 and the pH. In a
metabolic state, the HCO3- would have direct contact with the pH. Because the pH
is at 7.45, which is within the normal range, this is an indication that compensation
has occurred. Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D
are incorrect.
Answer 4: B and D
Choice B and D are correct. The nurse needs to obtain vital signs because a client with a
suspected pulmonary embolism may experience hypoxia, tachypnea, and tachycardia.
The nurse can intervene by providing supplemental oxygen if the vital signs show
hypoxia. The client should be placed in a high Fowler's position. This allows full chest
expansion, which may optimize the client's oxygen saturation.
Choice A is incorrect. For a client with a suspected air embolism, they should be placed
in a left lateral Trendelenburg position. This position encourages the air bubble to move K E Y T E R M S
out of the right ventricular outflow tract (RVOT) and into the right atrium, where it can be
trapped and reabsorbed. If this does not work, the client may need immediate treatment
via interventional radiology. 100% oxygen administration will also help reduce the air
bubble's size and prevent organ ischemia. This client has a pulmonary embolism and
needs to be in a high Fowler's position.
Choice C is incorrect. The nurse does not need to obtain a prescription for warfarin.
Warfarin takes 3-5 days to establish efficacy. The client needs immediate treatment,
such as anticoagulants, thrombolytics, or interventional radiology. Warfarin may be used
to prevent future PE, but would not be efficacious in treating a current PE.
Choice E is incorrect. A chest radiograph is not used to diagnose a pulmonary embolism.
This test would be unable to visualize the embolism. A CT angiogram of the chest is used
to diagnose a PE.
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Archer Review
Answer 6: D
D is correct. Irritability in an infant is a sign of increased intracranial pressure.
A is incorrect. Increased urine output is not related to problems with VP shunting.
B is incorrect. Depressed fontanels are a sign that the VP shunt is draining the CSF from
the child’s cranial cavity. A bulging fontanel is a sign of a problem.
C is incorrect. Bradycardia is not an initial sign of increased ICP. Tachycardia should be
observed with increased intracranial pressure. S U M M A R Y
Answer 7: A, B, D, and E
Choices A, B, D, and E are correct. These statements are incorrect and require follow-up.
Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that has no peak effect. Thus, it is not taken with
meals. It is dosed once a day to provide glucose control for 24 hours. Insulin glargine is
not a suspension; thus, it does not need to be rolled like NPH. This insulin is not mixed
with any other insulin. Insulin glargine does not have only to be injected into the
abdomen.
Choice C is incorrect. This statement is factual and does not require additional teaching.
Insulin glargine provides basal glucose control for up to 24 hours. Combined with a
carbohydrate-controlled diet, this should decrease the client's reliance on correctional
insulin.
Answer 8: B
Fermented, aged, or smoked foods are high in tyramine and should be avoided; thus,
Swiss cheese. Cream cheese, milk, and ice cream are unfermented milk products and may
be taken by patients on MAOIs without incident. The correct answer, therefore, is option
B. Options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Answer 9: A, C, D, B
A 65-year-old newly admitted client with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) who is
receiving a heparin infusion. K E Y T E R M S
Answer 10:
Keep the client NPO
until mental status Glasgow coma scale
N ot es
improves Q U E S T I O N S
Hypoglycemia
Administer glucagon 1
Capillary blood glucose
mg IM
The client has hypoglycemia due to insulin and not eating. They need glucagon to raise D E T A I L S
their low blood sugar. The client shouldn't eat due to risk of choking from lethargy and
slurred speech. Instead, monitor their blood sugar after glucagon and check their
consciousness level, noting an initial Glasgow coma scale of 13 out of 15. Vancomycin
treatment is unrelated to the current condition, but watch for 'red man syndrome,' a
possible reaction. Diabetic ketoacidosis isn't likely because the client's sugar is low, not
high. Though symptoms resemble a stroke, the issue is hypoglycemia, not stroke or
vancomycin-related. Monitor creatinine levels during vancomycin treatment.
Answer 14: C, E, A, D, B
The priority nursing action is to apply pressure to the presenting fetal part. This will lift
the fetus off the prolapsed umbilical cord and restore blood flow to the fetus. The nurse
cannot let go until the health care provider arrives to deliver the fetus. The nurse should
stay with the client and call for help. This is a medical emergency, and the nurse must
remain with the client to ensure safety. Next, the nurse needs someone to place the client
in Trendelenburg’s position. This will assist with keeping the presenting fetal part off of
the umbilical cord, so that blood flow to the fetus continues. Next, the nurse needs
someone to administer oxygen to the mother via a simple face mask at 8-10 L/min. This
will optimize oxygenation to the fetus. Lastly, the nurse needs to prepare for the
immediate delivery of the fetus. This is the only way to resolve this medical emergency. 198
Archer Review
Answer 15: C
Choice C is correct. Red, currant jelly-like stools are characteristic of intussusception.
Choice A is incorrect. Black, tarry stools indicate upper GI bleeding in a patient. Choice B
Notes
is incorrect. Ribbon-like stools are characteristic of Hirschsprung’s disease. Choice D is Q U E S T I O N S
incorrect. Frothy, foul-smelling stools are a characteristic stool pattern for cystic fibrosis.
2 Hyperglycemic
Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Client Findings Hyperosmolar State
(DKA) S U M M A R Y
(HHS)
Hyperglycemia
Urine Ketones
Altered level of
consciousness
This client has an abrupt onset of DKA symptoms, acetone type of breath, fluid
volume deficit (tachycardia, dry skin, thready pulses), and altered level of
consciousness, which suggest and coincide with diabetic ketoacidosis.
The significant dehydration in DKA and HHS explains the altered LOC. The acidosis
in DKA causes the client to experience hyperkalemia, requiring the nurse to
implement continuous cardiac monitoring.
The condition the client is experiencing is likely because DKA occurs with type I
diabetes mellitus, whereas type II diabetes mellitus may adversely occur with HHS.
HHS has a more gradual onset of symptoms that is driven by dehydration. Ketones in
K E Y T E R M S
the blood and urine is not a finding associated with HHS.
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Archer Review
5
Answer: A & B
The nurse should immediately implement two orders: establishing the peripheral
vascular access device and administering intravenous fluids. The client's blood pressure
has declined, and the pulse has increased, which indicates that the client's clinical status
is declining. Using the airway, breathing, and circulation principle, the nurse must address
the client's circulatory decline by administering isotonic fluids. Correcting the glucose S U M M A R Y
levels via regular insulin can wait because while their glucose has increased, their decline
in blood pressure is concerning. The other orders can wait until the client's condition
stabilizes. The priority treatment in DKA is restoring fluid volume status and normalizing
blood glucose levels.
Pulse rate
Blood pressure
Capillary blood
glucose
Pain level
Reports of nausea
Peripheral pulses
K E Y T E R M S
Although the client's vital signs are not within desired limits, the two liters of isotonic
saline have improved the client's volume status.
Compared to the client's vital signs at the outpatient clinic, the pulse rate has
decreased, and the blood pressure has increased. This is an objective clinical
improvement. It would be wise for the nurse to contact the physician for further
hydration orders.
Isotonic saline rehydration also showed a minor improvement in the client's capillary
blood glucose compared to baseline.
The client's headache pain is worsening, and the report of nausea is unchanged
compared to the admission assessment.
The peripheral pulses being thready is also unchanged, further supporting the need
for the nurse to get further orders for hydration.
200
NEXT
STEPS
AFTER THE LIVE
REVIEW
Archer Review
Amazing job! Your dedication and hard work have brought you to this point in your
journey toward preparing for the NCLEX exam. Now, it's time to set your sights on
the next steps. To ensure that you're fully prepared, you have the option of choosing
between two study plans: the 6-week intensive plan and the 12-week plan designed
for individuals with full-time work or other significant time commitments.
Regardless of the plan you choose, remember that consistency is key. Each day,
make sure to include questions from all subjects and lessons. Some days might be
challenging, and that's perfectly normal. Give yourself the grace to accept those
moments when it's difficult to cover everything. Remember, the goal is to
understand the material deeply, not just to rush through it.
One crucial guideline to follow: Do not move on to the next day's material until you
have completed the day you are on. This ensures that you have a strong foundation
before progressing further.
Your journey is unique, and your progress may vary daily. The ultimate goal is to
achieve four "high" or "very high" scores consistently in your readiness
assesments. When you reach this milestone, you'll be ready to tackle the NCLEX
exam with confidence.
Stay motivated, stay focused, and never underestimate the power of persistence.
You've come this far, and you're well on your way to achieving your dream.
Good luck, and remember that your hard work and dedication will pay off. You've
got this!
202
Archer Review
All Qbank questions should be done in tutorial mode (all subjects, all lessons)
203
Archer Review
Week Pharmacology
Part II
EKG
Interpretation
Pharmacology
Part III
ABG Interpretation
& EKG Changes
with Electrolyte
Legal and Ethical
Concepts
Abnormalities
All Qbank questions should be done in tutorial mode (all subjects, all lessons)
204
Archer Review
Readiness
Assessment 55 Qbank 55 Qbank 55 Qbank Review Missed
questions questions questions Questions
Week Pediatrics
(2nd Hour)
Pediatrics
(Finish Lecture)
Fetal Heart Rate
Monitoring
& Growth and Mental health Oncology
Development Review Missed
Questions
Readiness Review Readiness CAT
65 Qbank 65 Qbank
questions questions Assessment Assessments Exam
(two lowest areas)
All Qbank questions should be done in tutorial mode (all subjects, all lessons)
205
DAILY PLANNER DATE:
S M T W T F S
REMINDER TO:
It isn’t going to be easy,
but it will be worth it.
TODAY'S STUDY
PLAN:
TIME: EVENT:
SELF CARE TOPICS TO REVIEW
TOTAL
MINUTES:
GOAL MET?
WATER INTAKE:
GOAL
COMPLETED
DREAM IT
YOU CAN
DO IT
ArcherReview
INTERACT, LEARN, AND EXCEL!