Microbiology

1- Which of the following cause latency in monocyte after primary infection?

A) HSV2
B) CMV ***
C) HHH-8
D) EBV
E) VZV

2- In viral infections, type one interferon and/or cell mediated immunity are responsible for
some responses. Which of the following is not explained with this?
A) Influenza A
B) Measles
C) Parvovirus B19
D) Rubella

Infectious Diseases
3- Which of followings is wrong about urinary tract infection (UTI)?
A) Infection in men occurs less frequently until the age of 50, then incidence in men and
women is similar.
B) Infection of gram-negative bacteria (adını hatırlamadım) hematogenous routetan
bulaşır.
C) Uncomplicated UTI ve complicated UTI tanımları vardı ?
D) Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated.

4- Which of the following is not a criteria for minor diagnostic infective endocarditis?
A) IV drug abuse
B) Janeway lesion
C) Fever>39
D) Glomerulonephritis
E) Increased CRP level ***

5- Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?

A) Influenza
B) Tetanus
C) Oral polio ***
D) Hepatitis B
E) Covid 19
Radiology
6- Which of the following joint is the most effected in Gout disease?
A) 1st metatarsophalangeal joint ***

7- Which one of the followings is not acute feature of spondylarthritis on MRI?

A) Osteitis
B) Synovitis
C) Enthesitis
D) Capsulitis
E) Syndesmophytes ***

Pharmacology
8- It is important to calculate drug dose in pediatric patients because?
A) Mother cannot calculate dose
B) Children want to have their medicine by themselves
C) Pharmacokinetics profile can be changed
D) It is easy to mix with juice
E) It is easy add to child’s food

9- In Graves’ disease, the cause of the hyperthyroidism is the production of an antibody

that does which of the following?
A) Activates the pituitary thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) receptor and stimulates
TSH release
B) Activates the thyroid gland TSH receptor and stimulates thyroid hormone synthesis
and release ***
C) Activates thyroid hormone receptors in peripheral tissues
D) Binds to thyroid gland thyroglobulin and accelerates its proteolysis and the release of
its supply of T4 and T3
E) Binds to thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) and displaces bound T4 and T3

10- Which one is not the NSAID dose related feature?

A) Nearly all of them undergo enterohepatic circulation
B) All of them have nephrotoxic effect
C) All of them can be in synovial fluid
11- Which one of the following is wrong about COX?
A) NSAIDs inhibit COX2.

12- A 9-year-old child is having learning difficulties at school. He has brief lapses of
awareness with eyelid fluttering that occur every 5–10 min. Electroencephalogram
(EEG) studies reveal brief 3-Hz spike and wave discharges appearing synchronously in
all leads. Which drug would be effective in this child without the disadvantages of
excessive sedation or tolerance development?
A) Clonazepam
B) Diazepam
C) Ethosuximide ***
D) Gabapentin
E) Phenobarbital

13- Which of the following sentences is correct regarding the use of lithium to treat bipolar
affective disorder?
A) The elimination rate of lithium is the same as creatinine
B) Since lithium doesn’t cross the placental barrier, it is safe to use in pregnancy
C) Lithium alleviates a manic attack within 12 hours.
D) Dosage needs to be decreased for patients who take thiazides ***
E) Ingestion of foods with high salt content enhances the toxicity of lithium

14- Which of the fallowing is wrong about drugs used in acid-peptic disease?
A) Bismuth salicylate has antibacterial effect.
B) In gastroesophageal reflux H2 receptor antagonists are more effective than proton
pump inhibitors. ***
C) To treat mild gastroesophageal reflux in pregnancy antacid and sucralfate first line
therapy.
D) Misoprostol is a synthetic analog of PGE1 and is used to prevent NSAID induced
mucosal inflammation high risk potential.
E) Pirenzepine is antimuscarinic and rarely used to reduce acid production.

15- Which one is the antidote for iron overdose?

A) Protamine
B) Deferoxamine ***
C) Vitamin K
D) Fresh frozen plasma
E) Charcoal
16- Which of the following immediate treatment is necessary if your patient accidentally
ingest iron supplements more than she need?
A) Parenteral dantrolene
B) Activated charcoal
C) Oral deferasirox
D) Parenteral epinephrine
E) Parenteral deferoxamine ***

17- A 67-year-old man with chronic kidney disease was found to have an elevated serum
PTH concentration and a low serum concentration of 25- hydroxyvitamin D. Although
the drug therapy was effective at lowering serum PTH concentrations, the patient
experienced several episodes of hypercalcemia. He was switched to a vitamin D analog
that suppresses PTH with less risk hypercalcemia. Which drug was the patient switched
to?
A) Calcitriol
B) Cholecalciferol
C) Furosemide
D) Paricalcitol ***
E) Risedronate

18- Most fluroquinolones are used in urinary tract infections by many organisms. Which of
the following is a fluoroquinolone?
A) Erythromycin
B) Sulfamethoxazole
C) Ciprofloxacin ***
D) Metronidazole
E) Cefixime

19- A 29-year-old woman in her 41st week of gestation had been in labor for 12 hours.
Although her uterine contractions had been strong and regular initially, they had
diminished in force during the past hour. Which of the following agents would be used
to facilitate this woman’s labor and delivery?
A) Dopamine
B) Leuprolide
C) Oxytocin ***
D) Prolactin
E) Vasopressin
20- Which of the following drugs is taken during the first part of a meal for the purpose of
delaying the absorption of dietary carbohydrates?
A) Acarbose ***
B) Exenatide
C) Glipizide
D) Pioglitazone
E) Repaglinide

21- In a heterotrophic pregnancy case, if the continuation of intrauterine pregnancy is

desired, which one is not among the appropriate treatment options?
A) Local potassium chloride
B) Local hyperosmolar glucose
C) Methotrexate ***
D) Selective embryo reduction
E) Salpingectomy

22- An 18-month-old boy presented in a semiconscious state with profound hypotension

and bradycardia after ingesting a number of his grandmother’s metoprolol tablets. In
this case, the most appropriate antidote is
A) Atropine
B) Esmolol
C) Glucagon ***
D) Naloxone
E) Neostigmine

23- Which of the following drug can cause adverse effect when using in combination with
astemizole?
A) Voriconazole
B) Terbinafine
C) Amphotericin B
D) Griseofulvin
E) Ketoconazole ***
24- 32-year-old male patient has moderately severe new onset asthma, and you prescribe a
highly selective β2 agonist inhaler to be used when needed. In considering the possible
drug effects in this patient, you would note that β2 stimulants frequently cause:
A) Vasodilation in the skin
B) Itching due to increased cGMP (cyclic guanine monophosphate) in mast cells
C) Direct stimulation of renin release
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Skeletal muscle tremor ***

25- Which of the following drug is useful in preventing high-altitude sickness?

A) Demeclocycline
B) Desmopressin
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Acetazolamide ***
E) Amiloride

26- H1 antihistamines not use for which of the following?

A) Urticaria
B) Atopic dermatitis
C) Allergic rhinitis
D) Motion Sickness
E) Asthma

27- Which one of the following is not an effect of the cholinomimetics?

A) Contracting radial muscle
B) Contracting bronchial muscle ***
C) Decreasing bronchial gland secretion
D) Increasing gastrointestinal motility
E) Contracting detrusor

28- 54 years old man has hypertension and enlarged prostate which biopsy shows to be
benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following drug would be most appropriate
initial therapy?
A) Timolol
B) Tamsulosin ***
C) Atenolol
D) Metoprolol
E) Albuterol
29- A patient diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome is prescribed clopidogrel. What is
the mechanism of action of this agent?
A) It vasodilates coronary arteries.
B) It irreversibly blocks ADP receptors. ***
C) It blocks thrombin receptors on platelets.
D) It inhibits thrombin.

30- A significant number of patients started on ACE inhibitor therapy for hypertension are
intolerant and must be switched to a different class of drug. What is the most common
manifestation of this intolerance?
A) Angioedema
B) Glaucoma
C) Headache
D) Incessant cough ***
E) Ventricular arrhythmias

31- The acetylcholine vesicle release process is blocked by ......... through the enzymatic
removal of two amino acid from one or more the fusion proteins?
A) Botulinum Toxin ***
B) Vesamicol
C) Reserpine
D) Cocaine
E) Guanethidine

32- … may be used for its smooth muscle relaxation effected maintain ductus arteriosus
patent some neonate awaiting cardiac surgery.
A) TXA2
B) LTD4
C) PGE1 ***
D) PGI2
E) PGF2alfa

33- Which of the following may not be clinical importance of therapeutic drug monitoring?
A) Maximizing potentization ***
B) Facilitating adjustment of dosage
C) Avoiding toxicity
D) Maximizing efficacy
E) Identifying therapeutic failure
34- Which of the following most accurately describes the mechanism of action of
clopidogrel?
A) The active metabolite of clopidogrel binds to and inhibits the platelet ADP receptors
***
B) The active metabolite of clopidogrel binds to and inhibits the platelet glycoprotein
IIb/IIIa receptors
C) Clopidogrel irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase
D) Clopidogrel directly binds to the platelet ADP receptors
E) Clopidogrel facilitates the action of antithrombin III

35- After several cycles of chemotherapy, you found your patient had a high resting pulse
rate. A noninvasive radionuclide scan revealed evidence of cardiomyopathy. Which of
the following drug that is most likely responsible for that advertising effect?
A) Methotrexate
B) Tamoxifen
C) Fluorouracil
D) Cyclophosphamide
E) Doxorubicin ***

36- You are discussing the risks and benefits of anticoagulation therapy with your patient,
including the option of using direct thrombin inhibitors. Which of the following
anticoagulant is a direct inhibitor of thrombin?
A) Warfarin
B) Rivaroxaban
C) Dabigatran ***
D) Heparin
E) Abciximab

37- A patient kidney transplant present with cough, dyspnea, fever and chest pain. Chest x
ray shows non calcified nodule and pulmonary infiltration. Biopsy shows a fungal agent
which has a thick capsule stained with mucicarmine. Diagnosis?
A) Cryptococcus neoformans ***
B) Histoplasmosis
C) C albicans
D) Aspergillus fami…
E) E mucor
38- Which of the following is a non-dose-dependent effect of X rays?
A) Early deterministic effect
B) Late deterministic effect
C) Stochastic effect ***
D) Hematopoietic system effects
E) Gastrointestinal system effects

Hematology
39- Causes of the microcytic red cells include which of the following?
A) Alcohol
B) Renal disease
C) Iron Deficiency ***
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Vitamin B12 Deficiency

40- Which of the following below is a cause of microcytic anemia?

A) Lead poisoning ***
B) Acute Bleeding
C) Hemolytic Anemia
D) Aplastic Anemia
E) Hypothyroidism

41- Which of the following is the precursor of the platelet?

A) Megablast
B) Megakaryocyte ***
C) Myeloblast
D) Lymphoblast
E) Plasmablast

42- Which Disease can be diagnosed by hemoglobin electrophoresis?

Medical Genetics
43- A five-year-old male patient is admitted because of weakness of walking. In his exam it
was found that he had proximal muscle weakness, Gowers' sign and high CK. Which
gene should be examined first for diagnosis?
A) BMD
B) DMD ***
C) CK
D) DMPK
E) SMA

44- In Which of the followings allele frequency is constant?

A) New mutation
B) Selection
C) Migration
D) Genetic drift
E) Random mating ***

45- Single primary birth defect during early morphogenesis lead to other secondary finding
and causes multiple anomalies due to morphological or mechanical reasons?
A) Disruptions
B) Sequence
C) Association
D) Syndrome
E) Deformation

46- Which of the following abnormalities responsible from down syndrome?

Pathology
47- In which one of the following osteoclastic activity is not increased?
A) Osteopetrosis ***
B) Postmenopausal osteoporosis
C) Paget Disease
D) Hyperparathyroidism
E) High-turnover osteodystrophy
48- Which one is wrong for sarcomas ?
A) It's located subcutaneously ***

49- Which of the following do not occur in rheumatic arthritis?

A) Scattered Aschoff bodies within interstitial connective tissue in myocardium
B) Fibrinoid exudate in pericardium
C) Fibrinoid necrosis and fibrin deposition along the lines of closure of valves
D) Fibrous necrotizing and fusion of chorda tendinea
E) Bicuspid aortic valve ***

50- It is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in areas of world where iodine levels
are sufficient and characterized by gradual thyroid failure secondary to autoimmune
destruction of the thyroid gland. Histologically, progressive depletion of thyroid
epithelial cells and replacement of thyrocytes by mononuclear cell infiltration and
fibrosis are seen. Which of the following disease is described?
A) Granulomatous thyroiditis
B) Graves disease
C) Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis ***
D) Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis
E) Multinodular goiter

51- Which of the followings not seen in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A) Granulomatous inflammation
B) Extrahepatic large duct stricture ***
C) Portal inflammation
D) Scar formation and bile duct loss
E) Feathery degeneration marked by bile-stained hepatocytes

52- 76 years old woman suffers a massive myocardial infarct and dies in cardiogenic shock
16 hours after its onset. Microscopic examination of her infarcted would be expected to
demonstrate which of the following?
A) Abundant neutrophil and myocytes
B) Coagulative necrosis with few neutrophil ***
C) Fibrosis and collagen deposition
D) Monocytes and neovascularization
E) Plasma cells and caseous necrosis
53- Which of the following is the pathologic feature of aids?
A) Melanoma
B) Ewing sarcoma
C) Kaposi sarcoma ***
D) Brenner tumor
E) Dermatofibrosarcoma

54- It is an acute, febrile, usually self-limited illness of infancy and childhood. An arteritis of
mainly large to medium-sized vessels. Its clinical significance stems from coronary
arteritis, which can cause aneurysms that rupture or thrombose, resulting in MI. A dense
transmural inflammatory infiltrate like PAN. The acute vasculitis typically subsides
spontaneously or in response to treatment Typically manifests with conjunctival and
oral erythema and blistering, edema of the hands and feet, erythema of the palms and
soles, a desquamative rash, and cervical lymph node enlargement.
A) Wegener granulomatosis
B) Takayasu Arteritis
C) Churg-Strauss Syndrome
D) Buerger’s Disease
E) Kawasaki Disease ***

55- Not pathophysiology changes of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease?

A) Excessive mucus secretion
B) Disruption in gas exchange
C) Ciliary(?)Dysfunction
D) Reversible airflow limitation
E) Pulmonary hyperinflammation

56- Which of the following is WRONG about tumor immunology?

A) NK cells are lymphocytes that are capable of destroying tumor cells with previous
sensitization ***
B) IFN-γ is a potent activator of macrophages
C) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and α-fetoprotein can be used as cancer markers.
D) MUC-1 is an integral membrane protein which becomes antigenic in breast carcinoma.
E) Differentiation antigens of tumor cells can be used to reveal cell of origin.
57- Which of the following protooncogenes does not encode growth regulators?
A) KRAS
B) ERBB2
C) EGRF
D) KIT
E) RET

58- Which one of the following is not a precursor/preneoplastic lesion?

A) Intestinal Metaplasia
B) Pituitary adenoma ***
C) Leukoplakia
D) Villous adenoma
E) Endometrial dysplasia

59- Which of the following neoplasm-genetic alteration couple represents the formation of
a fusion gene encoding a chimeric transcription factor?
A) TMPRSS-ERG, Prostate Cancer
B) BCR-ABL, Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia ***
C) t(14;18), Follicular Lymphoma
D) t(8;14), Burkitt's Lymphoma
E) Rb, Retinoblastoma

60- Which of the following is one of the significant criteria for tumor invasion?
A) Anaplasia
B) Desmoplasia ***
C) Carcinoma-in situ
D) Differentiation
E) Dysplasia

61- Which of the following is a feature of follicular lymphoma that is used in differential
diagnosis of follicular hyperplasia vs follicular lymphoma?
A) Preservation of lymph node architecture
B) Low mitotic rate in germinal center ***
C) Activation of b cell follicles and create follicular reaction
D) Presence of a mixture of germinal center
E) Prominent phagocytic and apoptotic activity in germinal center
Pulmonary Diseases
62- Which of the following disease vibration thoracis increase?
A) Pleural fluid
B) Pneumonia
C) Pneumothorax
D) Complete Bronchial obstruction
E) Laryngeal disease

63- Which of the following is not pathophysiology of COPD?

A) Excess mucus secretion
B) Submucosal glands hyperplasia
C) Thickening basement membrane
D) Reversible impaired gas exchange
E) Chest muscle weakness

64- Wrong for suppurative lung disease

A) Empyema pleural fluid glucose increase protein decrease
B) Lung abscess show consolidation in X-ray
C) Aspiration is most common cause of lung abscess
D) Pleural empyema LDH>1000

65- What is correct about pulmonary system physiology

A) Chemoreceptors are only sensitive to levels of po2 in the blood
B) In pulmonary embolism there’s decreased V/Q ratio
C) Contraction of the diaphragm is the most important process for expiration
D) Surfactant increases surface tension to prevent collapse of the alveoli

66- COPD patogenezinde yoktur ?

Cardiology
67- Which of the following is not a mechanism that determine blood pressure?
A) Peripheral vascular resistance
B) Heartbeat volume
C) Parasympathetic system and nerve vagus activation ***
D) Elasticity of the arterial wall
E) Heart rate
Gastroenterology
68- 50 years old male patient admits into emergency department with nausea and vomiting.
Lab results: ALT:1230 AST:1210 GGT:160 bilurubin:1.5 Which one is not a possible
diagnosis?
A) Acute hepatitis b infection
B) Alcoholic hepatitis
C) Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis
D) Ischemic hepatitis
E) Mushroom poisoning

69- Which of the following lab/finding is not compatible with cirrhosis?

A) Increased liver size ***
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Hypoalbuminemia
D) Increased INR
E) Hyperbilirubinemia

Nephrology
70- Hangisi Calcium ölçümü hakkında yanlıştır ?
A) İyonize Calciumu ölçmek bağlı olan calciumu ölçmekten daha zordur.
B) Calcium ölçümü albumin ölçümlerine göre düzeltilmelidir.

71- Which of the following statements about clinical use of albumin is wrong?
A) Its level increases in advanced liver disease and nephrotic syndrome

Gynecology
72- In which pelvic infection is the vaginal pH level normal?
A) Vaginal candidiasis
B) Bacterial vaginalis
C) T. Vaginalis
D) N. gonorrhoeae
E) Chlamydia
Endocrinology
73- Which of the following is incorrect for diabetes screening?
A) Gestational diabetes can be done in pregnant patients with single 75g OGTT
B) It should be done in patients over 45 years old
C) Type 1 diabetes performance can be tested with anti-islet and anti-glutamate
dehydrogenase (anti-GBD) antibodies in patients with diabetes history in the family
D) Standard 100 g OGTT can be performed in most of the population

74- Which of the following is wrong?

A) If gonadotrophs are deficient clinical findings are similar to primary hypogonadism.
B) In pituitary stalk excision: GH, ACTH, TSH, FSH and LH deficiency can develop.
C) In pituitary stalk excision, ADH and Oxytocin secretions are not impaired.
D) Hyponatremia with increased sodium excretion is related with syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone production.
E) Antipsychotics and antidepressants can cause hyperprolactinemia.

75- Hangisi HDL arttıran faktörlerden biri değildir ?

A) Obezite
B) Spor
C) Kilo vermek
D) N ile başkayan bir ilacın kullanımı Nistatin Niacin olabilir

Neurology
76- 72 years old hypertensive was admitted to the clinic due to right sided weakness.
Intracranial hemorrhage was detected in the left temporoparietal region on CT. Nine and
three years ago, reported left sided weakness developed due to intracranial
hemorrhage. After the second event, complaints of forgetfulness, especially the recent
events. This complaint progressed, was able to walk with support and continued his
daily activities. What is the diagnosis?
A) Cavernous angioma
B) Bleeding due to tumor
C) Cerebral amyloid angiopathy
D) Ruptured saccular aneurysm
E) Arteriovenous malformation
77- Which of the following is wrong with intracranial pressure increase syndrome?
A) The most common type of herniation is subfalcine herniation.
B) CSF can be drained by lumbar puncture. ***
C) CSF can be evacuated by performing ventriculostomy.
D) Anisocoria can be seen
E) May lead to bradycardia, hypertension.

78- A 78-year-old male got was admitted to the neurologic ward. On neurological
examination; dysmetria, ataxia, intentional tremor was present. Which of the
neurological syndrome would you think of?
A) Basal ganglia lesion
B) Cerebellar lesion ***
C) Corticospinal tract involvement
D) CN lesion
E) Pontine lesion

79- Which of the followings is the most common cause of dementia?

A) Head trauma
B) Epilepsy
C) Parkinson’s disease
D) Alzheimer's disease ***
E) Cerebrovascular diseases

80- Which of the following is wrong about tremor? (Two answers)

A) The contraction of antagonist muscle groups. ***
B) Intentional tremor occurs in cerebellar diseases.
C) Resting tremor occurs in Parkinson’s disease.
D) Postural tremor occurs in Thyrotoxicosis.
E) Postural and actional tremors are essential tremor. ***

81- Which is not an effect of lower motor lesion?

A) Babinski sign ***
B) Decreased muscle tone
C) Decreased reflex strength
D) Muscular atrophy
82- Which part of the brain is responsible for reasoning, planning, speech, movement,
emotions and problem-solving?
A) Brainstem
B) Frontal Lobe ***
C) Occipital lobe
D) Spinal cord
E) Parietal lobe

83- Which condition a ''pinpoint'' pupil is expected in comatose patient?

A) Tectal lesion
B) Diencephalic lesion
C) Medulla lesion
D) Mesencephalon lesion
E) Pons lesion ***

84- Which of the following is not one of the demyelinating diseases of the Central Nervous
System?
A) Adrenoleukodystrophies
B) Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis
C) Neuromyelitis Optica
D) Multiple Sclerosis ***
E) Acute Necrotizing Hemorrhagic Encephalomyelitis

85- Which of the following area injury’s causes to Wernicke Aphasia?

A) Damage to Arcuate fasciculus
B) Damage to Pons
C) Damage to Angular gyrus
D) Damage to Brodmann area 22
E) Damage to Brodmann area 44. ***
Psychiatry
86- Which of the following types of delusions describe the patient have in the psychotic
examination, who has thoughts such as they poison my food, they want to kill me?
A) Persecutory delusions ***
B) Erotomanic delusions
C) Somatic delusions
D) Grandiose delusions
E) Reference delusions

87- Which of the symptoms below can not be associated with manic episode?
A) Expansive or irritable mood
B) Decreased need for sleep
C) More talkative than usual
D) Increase in goal directed activity
E) Hypersomnia ***

88- Which of the following is wrong about etiology of depression?

A) There is a decrease in noradrenaline activity.
B) There is a decrease in serotonin activity.
C) There is a decrease in nocturnal release of melatonin.
D) There is an increase in cortisol activity.

Public Health
89- Which of the following is NOT true for a good health financing system?
A) There is not a single approach that will be most efficient for all nations
B) There is no need to monitor how much countries spend on health with a good health
financing system ***
C) Reduces the likelihood of impoverishment, as an individual or household has to pay for
health care
D) The purpose of health financing is to ensure that adequate funding is available
E) There are three vital and interrelated functions of health system financing: Revenue
collection, Pooling and Purchasing
90- Which of the following is not considered to be a behavioral risk factor of non-
communicable diseases?
A) Tobacco use
B) Physical inactivity
C) Unhealthy diet
D) The harmful use of alcohol
E) Water pollution ***

91- Which of the following is not one of the basic steps of healthy adult assessment?
A) Risk assessment
B) Immunization
C) Chemotherapy ***
D) Screening test
E) Education

92- Within scope of disaster which of the following should be implemented during/after
disaster?
A) Triage
B) Indoor precaution

93- Which one of the following is a period for Turkey Health Transformation Program?
A) 2002 – 2010
B) 2003 – 2011 ***
C) 2000 – 2008
D) 2004 – 2012
E) 2001 – 2009
Make-up Exam 21-22
1- A 67-year-old man with chronic kidney disease was found to have an elevated serum
PTH concentration and a low serum concentration of 25- hydroxyvitamin D. Although
the drug therapy was effective at lowering serum PTH concentrations, the patient
experienced several episodes of hypercalcemia. He was switched to a vitamin D analog
that suppresses PTH with less risk hypercalcemia. Which drug was the patient switched
to?
A) Calcitriol
B) Cholecalciferol
C) Furosemide
D) Paricalcitol ***
E) Risedronate

2- A 29-year-old woman in her 41st week of gestation had been in labor for 12 hours.
Although her uterine contractions had been strong and regular initially, they had
diminished in force during the past hour. Which of the following agents would be used
to facilitate this woman’s labor and delivery?
A) Dopamine
B) Leuprolide
C) Oxytocin ***
D) Prolactin
E) Vasopressin

3- Which of the following is wrong with intracranial pressure increase syndrome?

A) The most common type of herniation is subfalcine herniation.
B) CSF can be drained by lumbar puncture. ***
C) CSF can be evacuated by performing ventriculostomy.
D) Anisocoria can be seen
E) May lead to bradycardia, hypertension.

4- A 78-year-old male got was admitted to the neurologic ward. On neurological

examination; dysmetria, ataxia, intentional tremor was present. Which of the
neurological syndrome would you think of?
A) Basal ganglia lesion
B) Cerebellar lesion ***
C) Corticospinal tract involvement
D) CN lesion
E) Pontine lesion
5- Which of the followings is the most common cause of dementia?
A) Head trauma
B) Epilepsy
C) Parkinson’s disease
D) Alzheimer's disease ***
E) Cerebrovascular diseases

6- Which of the following is wrong about tremor?

A) The contraction of antagonist muscle groups. ***
B) Intentional tremor occurs in cerebellar diseases.
C) Resting tremor occurs in Parkinson’s disease.
D) Postural tremor occurs in Thyrotoxicosis.
E) Postural and actional tremors are essential tremor. ***

7- Which of the following below is a cause of microcytic anemia?

A) Lead poisoning ***
B) Acute Bleeding
C) Hemolytic Anemia
D) Aplastic Anemia
E) Hypothyroidism

8- Which one of the following is not a precursor/preneoplastic lesion?

A) Intestinal Metaplasia
B) Pituitary adenoma ***
C) Leukoplakia
D) Villous adenoma
E) Endometrial dysplasia

9- You are discussing the risks and benefits of anticoagulation therapy with your patient,
including the option of using direct thrombin inhibitors. Which of the following
anticoagulant is a direct inhibitor of thrombin?
A) Warfarin
B) Rivaroxaban
C) Dabigatran ***
D) Heparin
E) Abciximab
10- 54 years old man has hypertension and enlarged prostate which biopsy shows to be
benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following drug would be most appropriate
initial therapy?
A) Timolol
B) Tamsulosin ***
C) Atenolol
D) Metoprolol
E) Albuterol

11- 32-year-old male patient has moderately severe new onset asthma, and you prescribe a
highly selective β2 agonist inhaler to be used when needed. In considering the possible
drug effects in this patient, you would note that β2 stimulants frequently cause:
A) Vasodilation in the skin
B) Itching due to increased cGMP (cyclic guanine monophosphate) in mast cells
C) Direct stimulation of renin release
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Skeletal muscle tremor ***

12- 76 years old woman suffers a massive myocardial infarct and dies in cardiogenic shock
16 hours after its onset. Microscopic examination of her infarcted would be expected to
demonstrate which of the following?
A) Abundant neutrophil and myocytes
B) Coagulative necrosis with few neutrophil ***
C) Fibrosis and collagen deposition
D) Monocytes and neovascularization
E) Plasma cells and caseous necrosis

13- Which of the following drug is useful in preventing high-altitude sickness?

A) Demeclocycline
B) Desmopressin
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Acetazolamide ***
E) Amiloride