Class: XI CHEMSITRY CHAPTER#02
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
1. Descending order for ionic size of given ions O-2, P-3, N-3, S-2, Cl- is:
A. P-3> S-2> Cl-> N-3> O-2 C. P-3> N-3> O-2> O-2> Cl-
-2 -3 - -2 -3
B. O < N < Cl < S < P D. P-3> S-2> N-3> O-2> Cl-
2. Which pair of the following contain isolectronic ions?
A. Mg+2, S-2 B. Na+, Cl- C. K+, P-3 D. N-3, Ca+2
3. Which electronic transition will emit infra radiations?
A. ⟶ B. ⟶ C. ⟶ D. ⟶
4. Consider the argon atom. For how many electrons does this atom have =+ ?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6
5. Value of e/m for cathode rays is highest for:
A. H2 B. He C. CH4 D. O2 E. All has same
6. The radii of first, second & third allowed Bohr’s orbits for H-atom are in the ratio of:
A. 1 : 2 : 3 C. 1 : 4 : 9 E. 1 : 2 : 6
B. 1 : ½ : 1/3 D. 1: 2/3 : 4/3
7. e/m value for protons was determined by:
A. Goldstein C. W. Crook E. Rutherford
B. J. J. Thomson D. James Chadwick
8. Which of the following statements about cathode rays is wrong?
A. Can produce a mechanical effect
B. Their e/m ratio is independent of the gas in tube
C. Their e/m ratio is smaller than for positive rays
D. Rays carry negative charge
E. None of These
9. New element isolated from mineral pitchblende by Pierie Curie & Marie Curie is:
A. Polonium C. Radium E. Uranium
B. Radon D. Francium
10. -particles do not contain:
A. 2 Electrons C. 4 Neutrons E. Both A & C
B. 2 Protons D. 2 Neutrons
11. Heaviest particle among following is:
A. -particle B. -particle C. Electron D. Proton E. Neutron
12. Positive particle with least mass is obtained from gas:
A. H2 B. He C. N2 D. O2 E. CO2
13. Which one is incorrect among following:
A. Faraday’s experiment indicates the existence of electron
B. Crooke’s experiment show the presence of electrons & protons in atom
C. Radioactivity confirms the presence of nucleus
D. Chadwick experiment shows the presence of neutron
E. None of These
14. Correct order for e/m of following particles is:
A. < < < D. < < <
B. < < < E. < < <
C. < < <
15. Incorrect equation of the following is:
A. 92u238 – 90Th234 D. 4Be9 + 6C12 + 0n1
238 234
B. 92u 90Th + E. Both A & C
C. 4Be9 + 6C13 + 0 0
16. Rutherford’s experiment was verified by;
A. Neil Bohr D. J. J. Thomson
B. Max Plank E. Moseley
C. Chadwick
17. Nature of anode rays is independent of:
A. Glass of tube D. Material of electrode
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B. Gas in tube E. All except B
C. Voltage applied
18. Bohr’s model of atom is not in agreement with:
A. Line spectrum of H-atom D. Pauli’s principle
B. Plank’s quantum theory E. Chadwick experiment
C. Heisenberg’s principle
19. Source of -radiations used in -scattering experiment is:
A. Pitchblende D. Uranium
B. Radium E. Thorium
C. Polonium
20. Incorrect statement of the following is:
A. X-rays are produced from anode of discharge tube when it is struck by fast moving
electrons
B. Radii of the orbits are proportional to the squares of first natural numbers
C. Concept of stationary orbits was given by Neil Bohr
D. Neutron is 1836 times heavier than electron
E. -rays are more penetrating than X-rays
21. Most energetic X-rays are produced by metal electrode:
A. Cu (63) B. Fe (56) C. Al (27) D. CO (59) E. Ag (108)
22. Angular momentum for an electron in second orbit in an atom will be:
A. B. C. D. E.
23. An atom with twice number of electrons as the electrons present in (O-2) oxide ion
& mass number 40 contain neutrons;
A. 8 B. 16 C. 20 D. 40 E. 60
24. If ‘Ze’ & ‘e’ be the nuclear charge & electronic charge respectively. ‘r’ be the radius
of orbit. Potential energy of electron is given by:
– – – –
A. B. C. D. E.
25. Angular momentum of an electron can’t be:
. . .
A. B. C. D. E.
rd
26. Radius for 3 orbit of H-atom is:
A. = (3) × D. = (3) × 0.529
B. = 9 × 0.529 E. All of these.
C. = 4.761 × 10
27. Which of the following has electrons the half of the number of neutrons possessed
by 19K39 :
+3 -1 -3
A. 10Ne20 B. C. D. E. All of These
28. If mass no: of an element is W and its atomic no: is N then?
A. No: of e = W – N D. No: of n = N
B. No: of p = W – N E. No: of p = W
C. No: of n = W – N
29. The deflection of -particles passing through a thin foil is caused by:
A. Electrostatic repulsion by the nucleus D. Attraction towards the nucleus
B. Collision with nucleus E. Repulsion by the electrons
C. Attraction with electrons
30. If uncertainty in position of an electron is zero. The uncertainty in its momentum
would be?
A. Zero B. Infinite C. Equal to h D. E.
31. Which statement of the following is not according to Bohr’s model?
A. Energy of electron in the orbit is quantized
B. Electron in the orbit nearest to the nucleus is in the lowest energy state
C. Electron revolve in different orbits around the nucleus
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D. Position & momentum of an electron cannot be determined simultaneously
E. Electronic transition results in the absorption or emission of energy equal to the difference
of energy between two levels
32. Bohr’s model violates the rules of classical physics because it assumes that:
A. All electrons have same charge
B. Nuclear charge is quantized
C. Electrons can revolve around the nucleus
D. A charged particle can accelerate without emitting radiant energy
E. None of These
33. Which one is not according to Rutherford’s atomic model?
A. Mass of atom is concentrated in nucleus
B. Protons are not evenly distributed in the whole atom
C. Electrons revolve around the nucleus
D. Most part of an atom is empty
E. None of These
34. Most penetrating among following is:
A. –rays B. -rays C. -rays D. -rays E. Anode rays
35. Ratio of specific charge of a proton & an alpha particle is:
A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:4 D. 1:1 E. 4:1
36. Rutherford’s experiment of scattering of -particles showed for the first that atom
has:
A. Electron B. Proton C. Nucleus D. Neutron E. Both A & B
37. In Bohr’s stationary orbits:
A. Electrons donot move
D. Angular momentum of electron is h/2
B. Electrons move emitting radiations
E. Both C & D
C. Energy of electrons remain constant
38. For the given disintegration: U− ‘X’, X is:
234 236 234 236 235
A. Th B. Th C. U D. U E. U
90 90 92 92 92
39. Which is incorrect about cathode rays?
A. e/m is independent of gas in tube & material of electrode
B. Emerge from cathode
C. Travel in straight line
D. Possess kinetic energy
E. Consists of fast moving radiations
40. Anode rays with lowest e/m value are obtained from.
A. Xe B. He C. N2 D. H2 E. O2
41. Which pair of the following contain isotones?
31 32 27 28 35 37 40 39
A. P & S B. Al & Si C. Cl & Cl D. Ca & K E. All accept C
15 16 13 14 17 17 20 19
42. Number of nucleons in an -particle is same as the number of nucleons in:
A. He B. He+ C. He+2 D. All of these E. None of these
43. Which of the following does not characterize X-rays?
A. Radiation can ionize the gas
B. Causes fluorescence effect
C. Deflected by electronic & magnetic fields
D. Have wave length shorter than ultraviolet rays
E. Less penetrating than -rays
44. Henry Mosley discovered:
A. X-rays
D. Atomic number
B. Nucleus
E. Mass number
C. Neutrons
45. Rutherford atomic model established all except:
A. Electrons revolve and spin in empty space around the nucleus
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B. Protons are not evenly distributed in the atom
C. Mass of atom is concentrated in the nucleus
D. Number of electrons around the nucleus is twice the number of protons present in nucleus
E. Radius of nucleus is negligible in comparison with the radius of atom
46. Angular momentum of electron 3h/ corresponds to energy level:
A. Second B. Third C. Fourth D. Fifth E. Sixth
47. Correct order for ionizing power is:
A. γ > > α B. α > > γ C. α > < D. α < >
48. For the given disintegrations: ⎯ X B Y; X & Y are respectively:
A. Isotope & isobar
D. Isodiaphere & isotope
B. Isobar & isotone
E. Isobar & isotope
C. Isodiaphere & isobar
49. A trivalent cation has 23 electrons & 29 neutrons hence:
A. Atomic number of element is 20
D. Number of positive charges is 20
B. Mass of element is 49
E. Atomic mass is 53
C. Number of nucleons is 55
50. Increasing order for e/m values is:
A. ,n,p,e B. n, ,p,e C. e,p, ,n D. e,p,n, E. p,n, ,e
51. Which of the following radioactive disintegrations produce an atom with same
number of nucleons:
A. Removal of one - particle
D. Removal of two & one -particle
B. Removal of one − particle
E. Removal of two & two β −particle
C. Removal of one & two - particle
52. Rutherford used _________ as an -ray emitter in his experiment of scattering of
- particles.
A. Polonium B. Radium C. Uranium D. Thorium E. Plumbum
53. Which of the following relation is incorrect?
A. E= h B. E= C. E=hc ̅ D. =c ̅ E. None of these
54. Correct statement of the following is:
A. Cathode rays are 1836 times heavier than anode rays
B. Wavelength of X- rays is inversely proportional to atomic mass of element
C. Anode rays are obtained by ionization of gas due to fast moving cathode rays
D. e/m for anode rays is greater than for cathode rays
E. Both B & C
55. Emission of gamma rays from a radioactive element:
A. Decreases atomic number
D. Decreases energy content of atom
B. Decreases atomic mass
E. All of these
C. Decreases atomic number & mass both
56. According to Bohr’s model:
A. Electron can revolve in any orbit
B. Electron farthest from nucleus is said to be in ground state
C. Electron farthest from the nucleus is said to be in stable state
D. Electronic transition is an energy change process
E. Electron is most unstable in a stationery state
57. All are correct except:
A. Light of single wavelength is called monochromatic light
B. Light with greater wavelength suffers minimum deviation through prism
C. Line spectrum act as finger prints of element
D. Element always emit the same wavelengths of radiation
E. None of these
58. An alpha particle contains:
A. Two protons C. Two electrons
E. All except C
B. Two neutrons D. Four nucleons
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59. Radius of ground state of He+ is:
A. 0.529 Ao B. 0.264 Ao C. 0.132 Ao D. 0.176 Ao E. 0.0881 Ao
60. X-rays are produced from:
A. Ionization of gas C. Anode of Croock’s tube
B. Cathode of Croock’s tube D. High energetic radioactive elements
61. Radius of fourth orbit of an atom is __ of the radius of second orbit of same atom:
A. Two times C. Eight times
E. Half times
B. Four times D. Sixteen times
62. Radioactivity:
A. Indicates the presence of electron & proton in an atom
B. Confirms the presence of electron & proton in an atom
C. Shows the presence of neutron & proton is an atom
D. Shows the presence of neutrons
E. Explains the electronic structure of atom
63. Multiple or fine structure of spectral lines in due to.
A. Presence of main energy levels C. Presence of orbitals
B. Presence of energy sub levels D. Presence of electronic configuration
64. Which of the following statement does not from part of Bohr’s model of hydrogen
atom?
A. Energy of electrons in the orbits is quantized
B. Electron in the orbit nearest to the nucleus has lowest energy
C. Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleus
D. Position & velocity of electron in the orbit cannot be determined simultaneously
E. Electron revolving in same orbit does not emit energy
65. Line spectra is a characteristic of:
A. Molecules B. Atoms C. Ions D. Radicals E. All of these
66. In any sub-shell the maximum number of electrons having same value of spin
quantum number is:
A. l(l + 1) B. l+2 C. 2l+1 D. 4l+2 E. 2l-1
67. Which of the following is the most correct expression for Heisenberg’s uncertainty
principle?
A. ∆x. ∆P = h B. ∆x. ∆P ≥ h C. ∆x. ∆P ≤ h D. ∆x. ∆V = h E. ∆x. ∆V ≥ h
68. Correct order for increasing energy of sub-shells in multi electron atoms is:
A. 6s,4f,5d,6p C. 5d,4f,6s,6p
E. 6s,6p,5d,4f
B. 4f,6s,5d,6p D. 4f,5d,6s,6p
69. Which of the following orbitals in H-atom is closer to the nucleus?
A. 5f B. 6d C. 7s D. 7p E. 6f
70. Which of the following rules could explain the presence of three unpaired electrons
in N-atom?
A. Aufbau principle
D. n + l rule
B. Hund’s rule
E. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
C. Pauli’s principle
71. d6 configuration will result in total spin of:
A. 3 2 B. 1 2 C. 3 D. 2 E. 5 2
72. The energy of an electron in 2py orbital is:
A. Greater than 2px orbital D. Same as that of
B. Less than 2pz orbital E. 2px & 2pz orbital
C. Equal to 2s orbital F. Both A & B
73. It is not possible to explain Pauli’s exclusion principle with the help of atom:
A. C B. He C. Be D. H E. B
74. Consider the argon atom. For how many electrons does this atom have m=1?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 E. 12
75. If energy of first orbit of H-atom is -1312 KJ/mole then energy of second orbit of
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He-atom is?
A. -2624 B. -1312 C. -5248 D. -328 E. -164
76. If S1 is the specific charge to mass ratio for cathode rays & S2 is for anode rays,
then:
A. S1>S2 B. S1<S2 C. S1=S2 D. S1=0, S2≠0 E. None of these
+2
77. Gaseous metal ion M has five unpaired electrons. What is its atomic number?
A. 23 B. 24 C. 25 D. 26 E. 27
78. Which one of the following sets represents isoelectronic species?
A. Mg+2, P-3, Ar B. Al+3,N-3,S-2 C. Ca+2,P-3,S-2 D. K+1 ,Cl- ,O-2 E. Na+, Al+3, CI-
79. Maximum number of electrons in phosphorus atom with l=1 & s= + is;
A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12 E. 5
80. How many electrons in an atom have n= 3, l=1, m=0?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 6
81. Number of energy sub-levels & orbitals possible for N-shell is respectively:
A. 4,16 B. 4,4 C. 16,32 D. 8,16 E. 4,8
82. Incorrect statement of the following is:
A. X-rays are less penetrating than γ − rays
B. Energy of EM radiations is independent of velocity
C. Most energetic radiations are cosmic rays
D. Removal of electron from an atom is always endothermic process
E. X-rays are more energetic than γ − rays
83. Correct order for ionic size is:
A. S-2>P-3>Al+3>Ca+2 C. S-2>P-3>Ca+2>Al+3
E. Ca+2>S-2>Al+2>P-3
B. P-3>S-2>Ca+2>Al+3 D. Al+3>Ca+2>S-2>P-3
84. Ionization energy for an atom depends upon:
A. Nature of orbital C. Nuclear charge
E. All of these
B. Atomic size D. Shielding effect
85. The electronic configuration [Ar]3d9 represents:
A. Zn+1 B. Cu C. Cu+2 D. Ni+1 E. Zn+2
86. Consider the statements given below:
i. Size of anion is inversely proportional to charge
ii. Anion is always bigger than its parent atom
iii. Addition of first electron to an atom is mostly exothermic process
iv. Maximum electron affinity is possessed by chlorine
v. Least E.N element is Cs with value of 0.7
Correct statements of the following are:
A. II,III,IV,V C. I,V
E. II,IV,V
B. II,III,V D. I,II,III
87. Which of the following configuration possess maximum value of 2nd I.P?
A. 1s2,2s2 C. 1s2,2s2,2p6
E. 1s2,2s2,2p4
B. 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s1 D. 1s2,2s2,2p1
88. Least polar bond among following is:
A. F-Cl C. F-I
E. Cl-I
B. Br-I D. Cl-Br
89. Consider the ground state configuration of these elements.
N=[He]2s2,2p3 O=[He]2s2,2p4 F=[He] 2s2,2p5 Ne=[He] 2s2, 2p6
Decreasing order of ionization potential is:
A. P>Q>R>S C. Ne>F>N>O
E. R>P>Q>S
B. Q>R>P>S D. Q>P>R>S
90. To explain the structure of atom first use of quantum theory was made by:
A. Rutherford C. Heisenberg
E. Max Plank
B. Bohr D. Einstein
91. Number of orbitals possible for a given energy level is given by:
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A. 2n2 B. n2 C. 2 (2 +1) D. n E. (2 +1)
92. How many electrons in an atom can have the following quantum numbers?
n=3, =2, m=+2, s=+ ½
A. 1 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8 E. 18
93. Which set of quantum numbers is allowed for an electron?
A. n =2, =1, m = - 2, s = 0 D. n = 2, = -1, m = 0, s = - ½
B. n = 2, = - 2,m = 1, s = + ½ E. n = 2, = 1, m = -1, s = 1
C. n = 2, =1, m = -1, s = - ½
94. Paschen series is obtained when an electron jumps in an atom from ___orbit to
_____ orbit:
A. 6,1 B. 6,2 C. 6,3 D. 6,4 E. 6,5
95. Which of the following is to be filled just after 4f?
A. 7s B. 5d C. 6p D. 6d E. 6s
96. Which of the following is isoelectronic?
A. CO2,NO2 B. NO2-1, CO2 C. CN-, CO D. SO2,CO2 E. CH4,O2
97. Following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbitals?
n = 3, l = 2 , m = +2
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
98. Four quantum numbers for the electron in valence orbital of Al are:
A. n = 3, l = 2, m = -1, s = + ½ D. n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + ½
B. n = 3, l = 3, m = 2, s = - ½ E. n = 3, l = 0, m = 1, s = + ½
C. n = 3, l=1, m - 1, s = + ½
99. Maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell with l=3 & n = 4 is:
A. 6 B. 10 C. 14 D. 18 E. 32
100. A divalent anion “X” has 18 electrons & 20 neutrons. Mass number of ion is:
A. 20 B. 38 C. 36 D. 34 E. 18
101. Size of species I,I+1, I- is in the order.
A. I > I+ > I- B. I < I+ < I- C. I+ > I > I- D. I+ < I < I- E. I+ > I < I-
102. Which of the following configurations has highest Ionization energy?
A. [Ne] 3s2,3p1 B. [Ne] 3s2, 3p2 C. [Ne] 3s2, 3p3 D. [Ne] 3s2, 3p4 E. [Ar] 4s2, 4p2
103. Highest second ionization energy is shown by configuration?
A. 1s2, 2s2, 2p4 B. 1s2,2s2, 2p6 C. 1s2, 2s2, 2p3 D. 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s E. 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2
104. Correct order of decreasing ionic size is:
A. Al+3 < Mg+2<Na+ < F- D. F- < Na+ < Mg+2 < Al+3
B. Al+3 >Mg+2 > Na+ > F- E. Na+ < Mg+2 < Al+3 < F-
- + +2 +3
C. F > Na > Mg > Al
105. The electronic configuration which shows positive value of electron affinity is:
A. 1s2, 2s2, 2p1 B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p2 C. 1s2,2s2,2p3 D. 1s2,2s2,2p4 E. 1s2,2s2, 2p5
106. The most polar bond among following is:
A. N-Cl B. O-F C. C-F D. N-N E. H-Cl
107. A trivalent cation (X+3) has 18 electrons & 23 neutrons. It mass number is;
A. 41 B. 42 C. 43 D. 44 E. 38
108. The electron identified by quantum numbers:
I) n = 4, l = 1 II) n = 4, l = 0 III) n = 3, l = 2 & IV) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed
in increasing order of energy from lowest to highest as;
A. IV <II < III< I D. III < I < IV < II
B. II < IV < I <III E. II < III < IV < I
C. I <III < II < IV
109. Correct order of electro negativity is as follows:
A. O>N > P > S C. O>N > S > P
B. O< N < P < S D. O< N > S > P
110. For a given value of azimuthal quantum number ‘ ’ the total number of values for the
magnetic quantum number is given by.
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A. +1 B. -1 C. 2(2 +1) D. 2 +1 E. 2 -1
111. The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of an atom will be?
A. 3d,4s,4p,4d,5s D. 3d, 4p,4s,4d,5s
B. 4s,3d,4p,5s,4d E. 3d,4s,4p,5s,4d
C. 4s,4p,3d,4d,5s
112. An atom with twice number of electrons as the number of neutrons in (18Ar40) has
atomic number?
A. 18 B. 36 C. 44 D. 58 E. 40
113. Which electronic configuration of following is not possible?
A. 3p5 B. 2d10 C. 4f12 D. 5s2 E. 5f7
114. Incorrect statement of following is.
A. All electrons in a valence shell are defined by same principal quantum number
B. px, py, pz orbitals having n = 3 & l = 1 are said to be degenerate orbitals
C. Electrons of highest energy are those nearest to the nucleus
D. Ze represents the charge on nucleus
E. None of these
115. An atom has 2 electrons in K-shell, 8 electrons in L-shell & 6-electrons in M-shell.
The no: of s-electrons present in the element is?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 10
116. In Rydberg equation for H - atom what is the value of n, for observations made in the
visible region?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
117. Correct order of wave number of following radiations is.
A. X-rays > U.V > I.R> visible > Radio waves
B. X-rays > U.V > visible > I.R > Radio waves
C. Radio waves > I.R > Visible > U.V > X – rays
D. X-rays > Radio waves > visible > U.V > I.R
E. Radio waves > X – rays > U.V > visible > I.R
118. Which one is least energetic light?
A. Red B. Violet C. Green D. Yellow E. Blue
119. Which one of the following can be stopped by air?
A. – ray B. – ray C. - ray D. ×- ray E. None of these
120. Canal rays are produced from:
A. Anode of Croock’s tube D. Gas in the tube
B. Glass of tube E. None of these
C. Cathode of Croock’s tube
121. Which one does not belong to cathode rays?
A. Easily deflected by electric field D. Penetrate metal foils
B. Possess kinetic energy E. None of these
C. Can be focused by using concave cathode
122. Which one is not according to Rutherford’s Atomic model?
A. Mass of atom is concentrated in its nucleus
B. Nucleus carries a positive charge + Ze
C. Greater part of atom is empty
D. Z no: of electrons revolve in empty space
E. None of these
123. Correct statement of the following is:
A. Excited state is the one in which electron is nearest to the nucleus
B. Electron nearest to the nucleus is said to be unstable
C. X-rays are highly penetrating particles
D. Process of radioactivity is independent of external changes
E. None of these
124. The relationship between energy of a photon of light & its frequency is given by:
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A. De-Broglie’s hypothesis D. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
B. Bohr’s model E. None of these
C. Planck’s Quantum theory
125. Radioactive element which was isolated from pitchblende is:
A. Thorium B. Uranium C. Radon D. Radium E. Polonium
126. Which one is incorrect?
A. X-rays are produced from cathode of discharge tube
B. Wavelength of X-rays decreases with decreasing atomic mass
C. ‘Ze represents the number of positive charges in nucleus
D. X-rays are more energetic than y-rays
E. Both B and D
127. Lightest anode rays are produced from:
A. H2 B. N2 C. O2 D. He E. CO2
128. All assumptions were stated by Bohr except:
A. Angular momentum of electron is multiple of h/2
B. Radius of an orbit is directly proportional to n2
C. Electron while revolving in an orbit does not emit energy continuously
D. Electron can revolve in any available orbit in an atom
E. Electronic transition is a energy change process
129. Highest ionizing power is possessed by:
A. -rays B. -rays C. -rays D. X-rays E. All has same
130. Electron was named so by
A. W. Crook B. J.J. Thomson C. Stoney D. Rutherford E. Faraday
131. Appropriate pressure for the production of cathode rays in discharge tube is
A. 1 cm Hg B. 1 mm Hg C. mm Hg D. cm Hg E. 0.001 mm Hg
132. Which one is not according to Rutherford’s Atomic Model of an atom?
A. Most part of an atom is empty
B. Mass of atom lies in its nucleus
C. Nucleus of atom carries positive charge
D. Protons & neutrons are present in nucleus
E. Electrons are continuously revolving in orbits or shells
133. Which one is incorrect for cathode rays?
A. They are deflected by a magnetic field D. Emerge normally from gas in the tube
B. Can exert pressure E. Carry a negative charge
C. Can penetrate small thickness of matter
134. Experiment of scattering of -particles:
A. Shows the presence of proton D. Confirms the presence of electron & proton
B. Shows the presence of electron E. All of these
C. Shows the presence of nucleus
135. Energy absorbed or emitted by an atom is:
A. In the form of radiations D. Inversely proportional to velocity
B. Directly proportional to wavelength E. Is not in specific amount
C. Inversely proportional to frequency
136. Atomic number was discovered by:
A. Henry Moseley C. Rutherford E. Plank
B. Bohr D. Roentgen
137. Line spectra given by elements shows that:
A. Electrons are arragned in certain energy levels
B. Electrons emit only certain wavelengths
C. Electron emit the difference of energy between two levels
D. Line spectra supports planck’s quantum theory
E. All of these
138. The idea of stationary orbits was first given by:
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A. Rutherford D. Max Planck
B. Niel Bohr E. Moseley
C. J.J Thomson
139. Which one of the following species has same number of electrons as an atom of
Neon?
A. O-2 B. Cl-1 C. K+1 D. Ca+2 E. Na
140. e/m ratio of electron is:
A. 1.758 ×10-8 C/kg D. 1.758 × 1011 C/g
B. 1.758 ×108 C/g E. 1.758 × 10-11 C/g
8
C. 1.758 × 10 C/kg
141. A daughter atom formed on emission of an − particle from parent atom contains:
A. 4 protons & 4 neutrons less than parent atom
B. 2 protons & 4 neutrons less than parent atom
C. 4 protons & 2 neutrons less than parent atom
D. 2 protons & 2 neutrons less than parent atom
142. Anode rays are independent of:
A. Glass of tube C. Material of electrode
B. Gas filled in tube D. Both A and C
143. The daughter atom produced from by the emission of a beta particle contains:
A. 92 protons & 146 neutrons C. 93 protons & 145 neutrons
B. 92 protons & 145 neutrons D. 93 protons & 146 neutrons
144. Positive particle with highest / value is obtained from ______ gas in Crook's tube:
A. B. C. D.
145. Which of the following equation is incorrect?
A. ℎ → + C. − → ℎ
B. + → + D. None of these
146. All electromagnetic radiations possess same:
A. Energy C. Wavelength
B. Velocity D. Frequency
147. Which metal anode produce x-rays of shortest wavelength when it is struck by fast
moving electrons:
A. B. C. D.
148. Decreasing order for penetrating power of radioactive radiations is:
A. < < B. > > C. > > D. < <
149. A radioactive atom produces isotope on emission of:
A. One −particle C. One two − particle
B. Two two − particles D. Two one − particle
150. Which one is not according to Rutherford's atomic model?
A. Mass of atom is concentrated in its nucleus C. Greater part of atom is empty
B. Nucleus carries a positive charge D. None of these
151. Correct statement of the following is:
A. Prism separates radiations according to wavelength
B. Violet colour suffers minimum deviation
C. Red colour suffers maximum deviation
D. All of these
152. Which one is monochromatic light?
A. Violet C. Green
B. Yellow D. All of these
153. If atomic mass of an element is 23 times that of the lightest element & it has 11
protons then it contains:
A. 23 electrons C. 12 neutrons
B. 23 neutrons D. 12 electrons
154. Trivalent anion of an element having 15 protons & 16 neutrons has:
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A. 12 electrons C. Atomic mass 31
B. 18 electrons D. Both B and C
155. An atom which contains protons twice as the number of neutrons in an atom of
fluorine has:
A. 20 neutrons C. 18 electrons
B. 18 protons D. 22 neutrons
156. When atoms of the gold sheet are bombarded with -particle, only a few −particles
get deflected whereas most of them went un-deflected. This is because:
A. The force of attraction on −particles by the oppositely charged electrons is not sufficient
B. The nucleus occupies much smaller volume as compared to the volume of atom
C. The force of repulsion on fast moving − particle is very small
D. The neutrons in the nucleus do not have any effect on - particles
157. Roentgen rays are:
A. Canal rays C. −
B. X-rays D. Cathode rays
158. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. / for anode rays is smaller than cathode rays
II. Isotopes have same nucleons
III. −rays are more energetic than −rays
IV. Isobars have same nucleons
A. I, II C. I, II, III
B. I, IV D. I, II, IV
159. Two nuclides X & Y are isotonic with each other with mass number 76 & 78
respectively. If the atomic number of X is 32 that of Y is?
A. 30 B. 32 C. 34 D. 36 E. 44
160. Ratio of radius of 3rd & 4th Bohr orbits in Hydrogen atom is:
A. 3:4 B. 3:8 C. 6:8 D. 8:9 E. 9:16
161. Last electron of P atom (z=15) will have quantum numbers as:
A. = 3, = 0, = 0, = +1/2 D. = 4, = 0, = 0, 5 = +1/2
B. = 3, = 1, = 2, = −1/2 E. = 4, = 1, = −1, = −1/2
C. = 3, = 1, = 1, = +1/2
162. If the atomic numbers of Ni & Cu are 28 & 29 respectively. The electronic
configuration , , , , , represents which of the following?
A. B. C. D. E.
163. Total spin resulting from configuration is;
A. 0 B. 1/2 C. 1 D. 2 E. 3/2
164. Which of the following is not electromagnetic in nature?
A. cathode rays C. -rays E. None of these
B. X-rays D. Infra red rays
165. Which of the following electronic transitions will produce lines of maximum
wavelength in H-spectrum?
A. ⟶ B. ⟶ C. ⟶ D. ⟶ E. ⟶
166. Anode of which metal will produce x-rays of maximum wavelength upon striking of
cathode rays in Crookes's tube?
A. B. C. D. E.
167. If uncertainty in position of electron is maximum then;
A. Certainty in momentum is zero D. Uncertainty in momentum is maximum
B. Certainty in momentum is infinite E. Certainty in momentum is maximum
C. Certainty in position is zero
168. Atoms always form line spectrum hence;
A. Atoms always emit certain radiations under same conditions
B. Electrons are arranged in certain energy levels
C. Radiations emitted by an atom corresponds to the difference of energy between two levels
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D. Electronic transition is an energy change process
E. All of these
169. Number of possible values of & for a given value of ′ ′ are given by;
A. , (2 + 1) B. , 2(2 + 1) C. 2 + 1, 2(2 + 1) D. , 2 E. ,
170. Correct decreasing order for first ionization potential of elements having electronic
configurations:
I) , , II) , , III) , , IV) , , is as;
A. IV > I > III > II D. IV > II > III > I
B. IV > III > I > II E. IV > II > I > III
C. IV > I > II > III
171. Correct order for polarity is as follows;
A. F-Cl > Cl-I > Br-I > Cl-Br
D. F-Cl > Br-I > Cl-Br > Cl - I
B. F-Cl > Cl-Br > Br-I > Cl-I
E. F-Cl > Cl-I > Cl-Br > Br-I
C. F-Cl > Br-I > Cl-I > Cl-Br
172. Among the statements given below;
I. Addition of second electron to an atom is always endothermic
II. Bond in HF is pure electrovalent, as E.N = 1.9
III. x-rays are more energetic than infrared rays
IV. de-Broglie's concept is applicable on micro bodies only
V. e/m ratio for electron is less than for proton
Incorrect statements are;
A. I, II, IV B. II, III, IV C. II, IV, V D. I, II, V E. II, IV, V
173. Which of the following equation is correct?
− −1 −
A. C. E.
⃗ −2 ⃗ ⃗
−1 −1
B. D.
−2 ⃗ −2 ⃗
174. Which set of the following represents isoelectronic species?
A. CO , N O, NaF D. NO , CO, F
B. CO, N , NO E. H S, F , KH
C. CH , H O , NH
175. Which of the following values of quantum numbers are not permissible for an
orbital?
A. = 4, = 3, = 0 D. = 3, = 1, = 0
B. = 6, = 0, = 0 E. = 5, = 3, = 3
C. = 2, = 1, = −2
176. Number of electrons in trivalent cation of an atom is twice the number of nucleons
in Beryllium atom & mass number is 44. Number of protons & neutrons in the ion is
respectively:
A. 18,23 B. 15,23 C. 21,23 D. 22,22 E. 22,24
177. -particle does not have?
A. Two proton D. Mass number four
B. Two neutron E. None of these
C. +2 charge
178. Uranium on emission of an − particle is converted into:
A. Radium D. Thorium
B. Protactinium E. Remain as it is
C. Polonium
179. If an electron in H-atom emits radiation of 3000Ao, its lines will be observed in:
A. Balmer series D. Pfund series
B. Lyman series E. Bracket series
C. Paschen series
180. Which one is correct for an orbital with quantum numbers? = , = , = −
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A. Has lower energy than 7s
B. Number of possible orientations is seven
C. Orbital is 6p
D. Maximum number of electron with + 1/2 spin is 5
E. None of these
181. Which value of ′ ′ is not allowed for third orbit?
A. 0 B. 1 C. −2 D. −3 E. 2
182. Energy of a photon is;
A. Directly proportional to velocity D. Directly proportional to frequency
B. Directly proportional to wavelength E. Both C and D
C. Inversely proportional to wave number
183. Total number of electrons in a sub-level ( = ) in Bromine atom ( = ) is;
A. 10 B. 11 C. 12 D. 17 E. 19
184. Which configuration violates Hund's rule?
A. [↿⇂] [↿⇂][↿⇂][↿] D. [↿][↿][↿]
B. [↿⇂] [↿][↿][⇂] E. [↿⇂] [↿⇂][↿⇂][↿⇂]
C. [↿↿] [↿⇂][↿⇂][↿]
185. Correct order for wave number of I.R, U.V, radio waves & X-rays is:
A. I.R>U.V>X-rays>Radio waves C. X-rays>U.V>I.R>Radio waves
B. U.V>X-rays>I.R>Radio waves D. X-rays>U.V>Radio waves>I.R
186. Number of unpaired electrons in the electronic configuration , , is:
A. 0 C. 2
B. 1 D. 3
187. Consider four hydrogen atoms in which electron jumps from
(I) = to = (II) = = (III) = to = (IV) = =
Which electronic transition will emit radiation of highest wavelength?
A. III B. I C. IV D. II
188. What is the correct orbital designation of an electron with the quantum numbers
= , = , =− , =+
A. 3 B. 4 C. 4 D. 6
189. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are not permissible?
A. = 2, = 1, = 0 C. = 3, = 0, = 0
B. = 2, = 2, = 1 D. = 3, = 1, = −1
190. Which one of the following sets represents isoelectronic ions?
A. , B. , C. , D. ,
191. For azimuthal quantum number = the maximum number of electrons will be:
A. 2 B. 6 C. 10 D. 14
192. Maximum number of 3d electrons having = + is:
A. 2 B. 1 C. 5 D. 10
193. An electron in H-atom emits radiation of °, its radiations will be observed in:
A. Balmer series C. Bracket series
B. Lyman series D. Paschen series
194. Total number of orbitals present in a principal quantum number is given by:
A. B. 2 C. + 2 D. 2 − 1
195. Which electronic level will allow an atom to absorb quantum but not to emit?
A. 1s B. 2s C. 2p D. 3d
196. The principal quantum number represents:
A. Distance of electron from nucleus C. Number of electrons in an orbit
B. Shape of an orbital D. Number of orbitals in an orbit
197. Total number of nucleons in is:
A. 30 B. 28 C. 65 D. 58
198. If bond length of & is . ° & 1.50 °. Bond length of will be:
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A. 1.90 ° B. 2.3 ° C. 2.2 ° D. 0.75 °
199. Consider the following statements:
I. Removal of electrons from an atom is always endothermic process
II. Generally cation is greater in size than anion of same atom
III. Mostly addition of first electron to an atom results in release of energy
IV. If the difference of electronegivity between two bonded atoms is zero, the
bond is said to be polar
V. Maximum electron affinity in periodic table is shown by fluorine
Which statements are correct?
A. II, IV,V B. I, II, V C. II, III, V D. I, III
200. The orbital diagram in which Aufbau principal is violated?
A. [↿⇂] [↿⇂][↿][ ] B. [↿] [↿⇂][↿][↿] C. [↿⇂] [↿][↿][↿] D. [↿⇂][↿⇂][↿]
201. Correct decreasing order for ionic size of the ions , , , is:
A. > > > C. > > >
B. < < < D. > > >
202. Which rule of electronic configuration is violated in the configuration 2s5?
A. Aufbau principle B. + rule C. Pauli’s principle D. All of these
203. Possible values of 'l' for principal quantum number 4 is:
A. 4 B. 16 C. 32 D. 9
204. Ratio between neutrons present in & is:
A. 3:7 B. 4:7 C. 3:4 D. 6:28
205. Total number of electrons in orbital with = , = in an atom with atomic number
15 is:
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 6
206. How many electrons in chlorine atom have the values for quantum number
= , = , = ?
A. 6 B. 1 C. 5 D. 2
207. Four quantum numbers for the outermost electron in potassium are:
A. = 4, = 1, = 0, + C. = 3, = 0, = 0, +
B. = 3, = 1, = −1, + D. = 4, = 0, = 0, +
208. Electronic configuration of is , , , , , and its atomic weight is 56.
The number of neutrons in the nucleus of M is:
A. 24 B. 26 C. 28 D. 30
209. Which of the following is not correct for = & = 3?
A. = 4 B. = + C. = 3 D. = 1
210. Atomic number of an element is always equal to:
A. Atomic weight divided by 2 C. Mass of the nucleus
B. Numbers of neutrons in the nucleus D. Electrical charge of nucleus
211. Which of the following orbital will be filled first?
A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6
212. Charge on electron was determined by;
A. Faraday C. J.J Thomson E. Rutherford
B. Millikan D. Crookes's
213. The process of radioactivity is independent of:
A. Temperature C. Chemical changes E. All of these
B. Pressure D. Physical changes
214. + → + , & are respectively;
A. , C. , E. ,
B. , D. ,
215. Which radiation of visible light has minimum wavelength & maximum frequency?
A. Green B. Yellow C. Indigo D. Orange E. Blue
216. According to Bohr's model an electron can go from ground state to excited state by;
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A. Emission of electromagnetic radiation
B. Absorption of electromagnetic radiation
C. Absorption of electromagnetic radiation of particular frequency
D. Without absorption of electromagnetic radiation of particular frequency
217. Atoms having same number of nucleons have:
A. Same atomic number D. Same number of proton
B. Same mass number E. Same number of neutron
C. Same number of electron
218. The ground state of an atom means that all the electrons are?
A. In the first orbit D. Having same energy
B. In the lowest possible energy state E. In the highest possible energy state
C. In the nucleus
219. Rutherford's experiment established all except;
A. Nucleus is small, dense, positively charged
B. Electrons surround the nucleus
C. Number of electrons in an atom is equal to the number of protons
D. Neutrons are present in nucleus along with protons
E. Most part of an atom is empty
220. Centripetal force on an electron while moving in an orbit is given by:
A. B. C. D. E.
221. Radius of third orbit of H-atom is:
A. 1.587 B. 4.761 C. 0.529 D. 2.116
222. Minimum mass is possessed by;
A. -rays B. -rays C. -rays D. protons E. neutrons
223. From the statements given below;
I. -rays are more energetic than x-rays
II. radii of orbits are proportional to the square of n
III. Electron farthest from nucleus is least energetic
IV. Atomic spectra are continuous
V. Faraday, in his experiments of electrolysis discovered electron
Incorrect statements are;
A. I, III, IV B. I, IV, V C. III, IV, V D. II, III, IV E. I, II, III
224. Rutherford's atomic model was verified by:
A. Bohr D. Roentgen
B. Henry Moseley E. W. Crookes
C. Chadwick
225. Which of the following species are isoelectronic?
A. , B. , C. , D. , E. ,
226. Number of nucleons in is;
A. 63 B. 29 C. 27 D. 61 E. 34
227. Correct statement about Rutherford atomic model is;
A. protons are not evenly distributed in the atom
B. most of -rays deflected at angle greater than 90o
C. Thickness of gold foil was about 4 cm
D. Rutherford's experiment led to the discovery of protons & electrons
E. dimensions of nucleus are comparable with that of atom
228. Correct formula for wave number of radiations emitted by any atom is;
A. = { − } C. = − E. = { − }
B. = −
D. = −
229. Which of the following transition is most energetic?
A. → B. → C. → D. → E. →
230. Decreasing order for wavelength of radiation is;
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A. X-rays > U.V > isible > I.R > Microwave
B. X-rays < U.V < Visible < I.R < Microwave
C. U.V > X-rays > Visible > I.R > Microwave
D. Microwave > I.R > Visible > X-rays > U.V
E. Microwave > I.R > Visible > U.V > X-rays
231. Electronic transition → corresponds to emission of which electromagnetic
radiations in H-atom?
A. U.V B. Visible C. I.R D. Far I.R E. Microwave
232. Ultraviolet radiations have wavelength;
A. 50-200 B. 200-400 C. 400-800 D. 200-4000 E. 2000-4000
14
233. Total number of fundamental particles in one atom of 6C is?
A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 14 E. 20
234. Ratio of e/m for cathode rays:
A. Has the smallest value when tube is filled with
B. Is constant
C. Varies with the atomic number of the gas in tube
D. Varies with the atomic number of an element forming cathode in discharge tube
E. Varies with the atomic number of the element forming anode in the discharge tube
235. e/m ratio is maximum for?
A. B. C. D. E.
236. Energy of a quantum of radiation emitted by an atom decreases with;
A. Increasing frequency D. Increasing velocity
B. Increasing wavelength E. Both B and D
C. Increasing wave number
237. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is applicable when a body:
A. Has smaller mass & moving with high velocity
B. Has greater mass & moving with high velocity
C. Has greater mass & moving with low velocity
D. Has smaller mass & moving with low velocity
238. A divalent cation has mass 70 & 28 electrons. Number of protons & neutrons are
respectively;
A. 70,28 B. 28,70 C. 30,40 D. 28,42 E. 40,28
239. An atom with atomic number 34 has ratio for number of electrons in M & N shells is;
A. 9:2 B. 3:2 C. 3:1 D. 5:2 E. 4:3
240. Possible values of 'l' for fourth orbit are;
A. 4 B. 9 C. 14 D. 16 E. 32
241. Total number of lobes for a p-sub level are;
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8 E. 6
242. Value of quantum numbers can't be:
A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Fractional E. None of these
243. For the orbitals with the quantum number:
I) = , = II) = , = III) = , = IV) = , =
Correct order of decreasing energy is as follows;
A. > > > C. > > > E. > > >
B. > > > D. > > >
244. Orbitals having quantum numbers;
I) = , = , = II) = , = , = III) = , = , =
IV) = , = , = V) = , = , =
Which pairs represent degenerate orbitals?
A. I,II C. III, V E. None of these
B. II, IV D. I, IV
245. Which orbital in an atom fills first?
A. 7s B. 6p C. 5d D. 4f E. 7p
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246. How many electrons in an atom with atomic no. 27 have quantum numbers;
= , = ?
A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 E. 12
247. Which values are not allowed for an orbital?
A. = 4, = 3, = −2 D. = 6, = 3, = −3
B. = 4, = 3, = +1 E. = 3, = 2, = −3
C. = 5, = 0, = 0
248. Possible values of 'm' for a given value of ' ' are given by;
A. 2 + 1 B. 2(2 + 1) C. D. 2 E.
249. How many electrons in an atom with atomic number 24 can have quantum
numbers? = , = , =
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 E. 10
250. Which rule of electronic configuration is violated in [↿⇂] [↿↿] [↿] [↿]
A. Aufbau principle C. + rule E. Both B and D
B. Hund's rule D. Pauli's principle
251. Number of orbitals, in an atom with atomic number 20, with + value of 4 is;
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4
252. In the discharge tube emission of cathode rays requires?
A. Low potential & low pressure D. High potential & low pressure
B. Low potential & high pressure E. No specific conditions
C. High potential & high pressure
253. Correct increasing order for ionic size is;
A. > > > D. < < <
B. > > > E. < < <
C. < < <
254. If ionic size of & is . & 1.81 respectively, size of would be most
probably:
A. 1.75 B. 1.99 C. 1.83 D. 1.60 E. 1.40
255. Which statement is incorrect?
A. Divalent anion is smaller than monovalent anion of same atom
B. Trivalent cation is smaller than its atom
C. Monovalent cation is greater than divalent cation
D. Trivalent anion is greater than monovalent anion of same atom
E. An atom is smaller than its anion
256. For the configuration given below;
I) , , II) , , , III) , , IV) , ,
Correct decreasing order for 1st I.P is;
A. III > I > II > IV C. III > I > IV > II E. III > IV > I > II
B. III > II > I > IV D. III > IV > III > I
257. Which configuration shows maximum value for second ionization energy?
A. 1 , 2 , 2 , 3 C. 1 , 2 , 2 , 3 E. 1 , 2
B. 1 , 2 , 2 D. 1 , 2 , 2
258. For which element addition of first electron is endothermic?
A. O B. F C. Cl D. Na E. Mg
259. Correct order for E.A is as;
A. F > Cl > Br > I C. Cl > F > I > Br E. F > Br > Cl > I
B. Cl > F > Br > I D. Cl > Br > F > I
260. Least polar bond among following is:
A. F - Cl B. Cl - Br C. Cl - I D. Br - I E. F - Br
261. Which pair of the following has same electronegativity?
A. C, S C. Be, Al E. None of these
B. N, Cl D. All of these
262. A daughter atom formed on emission of an − particle from parent atom contains:
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A. 4 protons & 4 neutrons less than parent atom
B. 2 protons & 4 neutrons less than parent atom
C. 4 protons & 2 neutrons less than parent atom
D. 2 protons & 2 neutrons less than parent atom
263. Anode rays are independent of:
A. Glass of tube C. Material of electrode
B. Gas filled in tube D. Both A and C
264. Which one does not belong to cathode rays?
A. Easily deflected by electric field C. Emerge normally from cathode
B. Possess kinetic energy D. None of these
265. Speed of slow neutrons is:
A. Less than 1.2MeV C. Less than 1eV
B. Less than 1MeV D. More than 1.2Mev
266. A free neutron decays into:
A. Electron, proton & neutrino C. Electron & proton
B. Electron, proton & gamma ray D. Proton & neutrino
267. Charge on one kilogram of electrons is:
A. 1.758 x 108C C. 1.758 x 1012C
11
B. 1.758 x 10 C D. 1.758x109C
268. In the given equation 29Cu + on xZn +-1eo, value of x & y for zinc is respectively:
65 1 y
A. 28,63 B. 30,65 C. 30, 66 D. 28, 65
269. 65
Number of electrons, protons & neutrons in 30 Zn is: 2
A. 30,30,35 B. 28,30,35 C. 30,28,35 D. 32,30,35
270. Which one is not characteristic of cathode rays?
A. They can cause chemical reaction C. Their e/m in independent of gas
B. They produce heat D. None of these
271. Which pair of the following is isotones?
A. 20Ca40, 19K39 B. 20Ca40, 18Ar40 C. 12Mg24, 13Al27 D. 17Cl35, 17Cl37
272. Incorrect statement about neutrons is:
A. They can knock out electrons from gas molecules
B. Slow neutrons can act as projectiles for nuclear fission reaction
C. They are highly penetrating particles
D. They are highly unstable particles outside the nucleus
273. Canal rays is another name for:
A. Cathode rays B. Positive rays C. -rays D. X-rays
274. Daughter atom ‘Y’ formed in radioactive disintegration zXA Y + + 2 is:
A. z+1YA-2 B. z+2YA C. zYA+2 D. zYA-4
275. According to Rutherford atomic model:
A. Only very small volume is occupied by nucleus
B. Electrons revolve around the nucleus
C. Number of electrons around nucleus is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus
D. All of these
276. Incorrect statement about X-rays is:
A. X-rays are more penetrating than -rays
B. Every metal emits characteristic X-rays
C. Frequency of X-rays is directly proportional to square of atomic number
D. X-rays are produced from metal anode when fast moving cathode rays eject inner shell
electrons from metals
277. Process of radioactivity is independent of:
A. Temperature C. Chemical reaction
B. Pressure D. All of these
278. Angular momentum of an electron revolving in fifth Bohr’s orbit is:
A. 5h/ B. 2.5h/ C. 2.5h/2 D. h/5
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279. Which pair of the following contains isosters?
A. O2, NO B. CO, N2 C. F2,HF D. HCl, HF
280. Radius of second excited state of Hydrogen atom is:
A. 0.529Ao B. 2.116Ao C. 4.761Ao D. 8.464Ao
281. Number of electrons in L & M shell of an atom having atomic number 26 is
respectively:
A. 8, 16 B. 8, 8 C. 8, 14 D. 8, 18
282. Which of the following configuration possess maximum ionization energy?
A. 1s2, 2s2 B. 1s2,2s2, 2p3 C. 1s2, 2s2, 2p5 D. 1s2, 2s2,2p6
283. Decreasing order for electron affinity of halogens is:
A. F>Cl>Br>I B. Cl>Br>F>I C. Cl>F>Br>I D. Cl>Br>I>F
284. Ionic species S-2, Ca+2, K+, Cl- can be arranged in decreasing order of size as:
A. Cl->S-2>Ca+2>K+ C. S-2>K+>Cl->Ca+2
B. S-2>Cl->K+>Ca+2 D. Ca+2>K+>Cl->S-2
285. Most electronegative atom among following is:
A. O B. N C. Cl D. Br
286. Cs & F represent:
A. Most electropositive & least electronegative elements
B. Most electropositive & least electropositive elements
C. Most electronegative & most electropositive elements
D. Least electronegative & most electropositive elements
287. “No two electron in an atom can have same set of all the four quantum numbers” is
known as:
A. Hund’s rule C. Uncertainty principle
B. Aufbau principle D. Pauli’s exclusion principle
288. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons?
A. Fe+2 (Z=26) C. Ni+2 (Z=28)
+2
B. Mn (Z=25) D. Cr+3 (Z=24)
289. The configuration 1s2,2s2, 2p5, 3s1 shows:
A. Ground state of fluorine C. Excited state of neon atom
B. Excited state of fluorine D. Ground state of Sodium
290. Electronic configuration of four elements are given below. Which of the
corresponding element would be most paramagnetic?
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 B. 1s2 2s2 2p5 C. 1s2 2s2 2p3 D. 1s2 2s2 2p4
2+
291. Which of the following is the electronic configuration of Cu (Z=29)?
A. [Ar]4s1 3d8 B. [Ar]4s2 3d10 4p1 C. [Ar]4s2 3d10 D. [Ar]3d9
292. Which of the following configurations is correct for iron? (Z=26)
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d7
2 2 6 2 6 2 5
B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6
293. The number of unpaired electrons in an atom of atomic number 24 (in ground state)
is:
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
294. The correct order of increasing energy of atomic orbitals is:
A. 5p<4f<6s<5d C. 5p<5d<4f<6s
B. 5p<6s<4f<5d D. None of these
295. When the value of azimuthal quantum number, =2, value of ‘n’ will be:
A. 3 C. 4
B. 5 D. Any one of these
296. Bohr’s model of atom is in conflict with:
A. Pauli’s exclusion principle C. Max Planck’s quantum theory
B. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle D. All the above three
297. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The number of its (i) sub-shells and
(ii) orbitals would be respectively:
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A. 3 and 5 B. 3 and 7 C. 3 and 9 D. 2 and 5
298. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 0.53 A°. The radius of Li2+ ion
(atomic number =3) in a similar state is:
A. 0.17 A° B. 1.06 A° C. 0.53 A° D. 0.265 A°
299. For which of the following species, Bohr’s theory is not applicable?
A. Be3+ B. He2+ C. Li2+ D. H
300. Azimuthal quantum number determines the:
A. Size C. Orientation
B. Spin D. Angular momentum of orbitals
301. Which of the following does not contain number of neutrons equal to that of Ar?
41 43 43 40
A. K B. Sc C. Sc D. Ca
19 21 21 20
302. Brackett series are produced when the electrons from the outer orbits jump to:
A. 2nd orbit B. 3rd orbit C. 4th orbit D. 5th orbit
303. Which of the following isoelectronic species has the smallest ionic radius?
A. N3- B. F- C. O2- D. Ne
304. Which of the following is not iso electronic with others?
A. B. C. D.
305. Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic. Then:
A. Their sizes are same C. Potassium ion is relatively bigger
B. Chloride ion is bigger than potassium ion D. None of these
306. In the electronic configuration given below which rule is violated:
A. Aufbau rule C. Hund’s rule
B. Pauli’s exclusion principle D. No violation of any of these rules
307. The number of d-electrons in Ni (atomic number=28) is equal to that of the:
A. d-electrons in Ni2+ C. s and p-electrons in F-
B. Total electrons in N (atomic number = 7) D. p-electrons in Ar(atomic number =18)
308. Which of the following represent electron configuration that violates the Pauli’s
exclusion principle?
(I) [Ne] 3s1 3p5 (II) [Ne] 4d12 5s2 (III) [Ar]3d10 4s2 4p2
A. Only II C. Both I and III
B. Only I D. Both II and III
309. The electronic configuration 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s1, 3p1 is correctly described by:
2 2 6
A. The excited state of Mg+ C. The excited state of Mg
B. The excited state of Na+ D. The excited state of Al
310. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s orbital is:
A. + B. Zero C. D. √
311. The quantum number ‘m’ of a free gaseous atom is associated with:
A. The effective volume of the orbital
B. The shape of the orbital
C. The spatial orientation of the orbital
D. The energy of the orbital in the absence of a magnetic filed
312. When the azimuthal quantum number has the value of 2, the number of orbital’s
possible are:
A. 0 B. 1 C. 4 D. 5
313. The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of a
hydrogen like species is:
A. -1 B. -1/2 C. +1 D. + ½
314. Each p-orbital and each d-orbital has lobes respectively as:
A. 2, 4 B. 1, 2 C. 2, 2 D. 1, 1
315. Gaseous metal ion M2+ has 5 unpaired electrons. What is its atomic number?
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A. 25 B. 27 C. 26 D. 28
316. Which of the following represents the correct set up of the four quantum numbers
of 4s electron?
A. 4, 1, 0, + ½ B. 4, 2, 1, + ½ C. 4, 1, -1, -½ D. 4, 0, 0, +½
317. The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle is violated is:
A. C. 2s 2p
2s 2p
2s 2p
B. D.
318. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wave-length is:
A. Radiowave B. X-ray C. Infrared D. Ultraviolet
319. Which order of energies of orbitals is correct in a many electron atom?
A. 3d<2s B. 2s=2p C. 4s>5s D. 3s<3p
320. Which of the following transitions will have minimum wavelength?
A. n4 → n2 B. n4 → n1 C. n4 → n3 D. n3 → n1
321. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6eV. What will be the ionization
energy of He+?
A. 13.6 eV B. 54.4 eV C. 122.4 eV D. Zero
322. The transition of electrons in H-atom that will emit maximum energy is:
A. n3 → n2 B. n4 → n3 C. n5 → n4 D. n6 → n5
323. The phenomenon of splitting of spectral lines under the influence of the electric
field is known as:
A. Photelectric effect C. Zeeman effect
B. Stark effect D. Electromagnetic effect
324. If the energy of electron in H atom is given by expression, − , then the
energy required to excite the electron form ground state to second orbit is:
A. 328 kJ B. 656 kJ C. 984 kJ D. 1312 kJ
325. In the atomic spectrum of hydrogen the spectral lines pertaining to electronic
transition of n=4 to n=2 refer to:
A. Lyman lines C. Paschen lines
B. Balmer lines D. Brackett lines
326. In an atom which has 2K, 8L, 8M and 2N electrons in the ground state, the total
number to electrons having =0 are:
A. 20 B. 8 C. 12 D. 10
327. Number of electrons in calcium (Z=20) atom with quantum numbers =0 and
s=+1/2 is:
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
328. Which d-orbital does not have four lobes?
A. dx2-y2 B. dxy C. dyz D. None of these
329. Which shape is associated with the orbital designated by n=2; =1?
A. Spherical C. Dumb-bell
B. Double dumb-bell D. Complicated shape
330. Which of the following statements about quantum numbers is wrong?
A. If the value of =0, the electron distribution is spherical
B. The shape of the orbital is given by subsidiary quantum number
C. The Zeeman’s effect is explained by magnetic quantum number
D. The spin quantum number gives the orientations of electron cloud
331. If the value of azimuthal quantum number of an electron is 2, then which of the
following values of magnetic quantum numbers is not permissible:
A. 3 B. 2 C. 0 D. 1
332. Energy of an orbital depends on:
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A. Value of n C. Value of m
B. Value of l D. Value of n and l but mainly on value of n
333. Sodium is not observed in +2 state because of:
334. According to Aufbau principle which orbital is to be filled just after 5d?
A. 6s B. 6p C. 7s D. 4f
335. Most energetic electromagnetic radiations among following are:
A. X-rays C. I.R rays
B. U.V rays D. Micro waves
336. Radius of second orbit of − ( = ) is:
A. 1.05A0 B. 2.116A0 C. 0.529A0 D. 4.7A0
337. Which of the following is a pair of isosters?
A. H2O, HF B. F2, O2 C. F2, HF D. CO2, N2O
338. Incorrect statement of the following is:
A. Removal of electron from an atom is always endothermic process
B. Addition of electron to an atom is mostly exothermic process
C. Addition of 2nd or 3rd electron to an atom is always endothermic process
D. E.N is measured in e.V/atm or K.J/mol
339. Most electronegative and least electropositive elements are respectively:
A. F, Cs B. Cs, F C. F, F D. F, Li
340. A trivalent anion of an element contains 18 electrons. Atomic number of element is:
A. 21 B. 18 C. 15 D. 9
341. Energy of second orbit of H-atom is:
A. Two times more than 1st orbit C. Four times more than 1st orbit
B. Two times less than 1st orbit D. Four times less than 1st orbit
342. According to uncertainty principle, if uncertainty in position is maximum then
certainty in momentum will be;
A. Minimum B. Maximum C. Infinite D. Zero
343. How many electrons in Ca-atom ( = ) have = , = , = + ?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8
344. Which electronic configuration of the following violates all rules of electronic
configuration?
A. ↿⇂ ↿ ↿ ⇂ B. ↿↿ ↿ ↿ ↿ C. ↿ ↿↿ ↿↿ D. ↿ ↿⇂ ↿ ↿
345. Fluorine has E.A less than chlorine because fluorine possess:
A. Smaller nuclear charge C. High electronegativity
B. Small size D. All of These
346. Maximum value for second I.P is shown by;
A. 1s2, 2s2 B. 1s2, 2s2, p6 C. 1s2, 2s1 D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
347. Maximum number of electrons possible for 3f sub-level with same spin is:
A. 0 B. 5 C. 7 D. 14
348. Number of electrons in a sub-level is given by:
A. B. ( + 2) C. 2 + 1 D. 2(2 + 1)
349. Possible values of for sub-level = ( ) are given by;
A. B. 2 + 1 C. 2(2 + 1) D. 2
350. Splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field is called as:
A. Shielding effect C. Zeeman effect
B. Screening effect D. Stark effect
351. Correct relation for Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle is:
A. ∆ . ∆ ≈ ℎ B. ∆ . ∆ ≈ C. ∆ . ∆ ≈ D. ∆ . ∆ ≈
352. Energy of orbital mainly depends upon;
A. Principal quantum number C. Magnetic quantum number
B. Azimuthal quantum number D. Spin quantum number
353. Maximum electronegativity difference is found in;
A. HF B. HI C. CsF D. HBr
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354. In any sub-shell the maximum number of electrons having same value of spin
quantum number is:
A. ( + 1) B. 2(2 + 1) C. 4 + 2 D. 2 + 1
355. Which of the following has largest de-Broglie wavelength?
A. CO2 molecule B. NH3 molecule C. Proton D. Electron
356. Spectrum formed by elements is:
A. Continuous spectrum C. Absorption spectrum
B. Line spectrum D. Band spectrum
357. does not contain:
A. 82 Protons B. 80 Electrons C. 207 Neutrons D. None of These
358. Which of the following can explain the presence of three unpaired electrons in N-
atom?
A. Pauli’s principle C. Hund’s rule
B. Uncertainty principle D. Aufbau principle
6
359. configuration will result in total spin of;
A. 2 B. C. D.
360. Millikan’s oil drop experiment determined:
A. Velocity of electron C. Charge of electron
B. Mass of electron D. e/m ratio of electron
361. Which one is not a characteristic of electron:
A. Have specific charge greater than anode rays
B. Can produce heat
C. Can ionize the gas
D. e/m depends on nature of residual gas
362. When a slow neutron hits the 29Cu65, a beta particle is emitted along with the
formation of:
65 64 66 67
A. 30Zn B. 30Zn C. 30Zn D. 30Zn
363. Which one is incorrect about neutrons?
A. Highly penetrating particles
B. Have high ionizing power
C. Unstable particle & decays into proton, electron & neutrino
D. None of these
364. Energy for the second excited state of H-atom will be:
A. -13.6 eV B. -3.4 eV C. -1.51 eV D. -0.85 eV
365. If the radius of first Bohr orbit be then the radius of second orbit of Be would be:
A. ×2 B. ×4 C. ×6 D.
366. Which of the following electronic transition would require maximum amount of
energy?
A. → B. → C. → D. →
367. Energy of first orbit of H-atom is ______ than energy of second orbit of same atom:
A. 2 times less B. 2 times more C. 4 times less D. 4 times more
368. Energy in eV required to promote an electron form first orbit to second orbit in H-
atom is:
A. 3.4 B. 10.2 C. 9.6 D. 1.9
369. Consider the statements given:
I. Energy difference between adjacent orbits go on decreasing while moving away
from nucleus
II. Distance between adjacent orbits go on increasing while moving away from
nucleus
III. Velocity of electron is minimum nearer to the nucleus
IV. Energy of electron at an infinite distance from nucleus is zero
Correct option for the given statements is:
A. TTFF B. TTFT C. TFTF D. TFFT
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370. Energy of first orbit of H-atom is:
A. -13.6 eV/atom C. -1313.35 KJ/mol
-18
B. -2.18 x 10 J/atom D. All of these
371. The ratio of the radius of the first Bohr orbit for the electron orbiting the hydrogen
nucleus to that of the electron orbiting the deuterium nucleus (mass nearly twice
that of hydrogen nucleus) is:
A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:1 D. 4:1
372. Energy of 1st orbit of H-atom is equal to energy of:
A. Second orbit of Be atom C. Second orbit of Li-atom
B. Second orbit of He atom D. First orbit of He-atom
373. Experimental evidence for the existence of atomic nucleus comes from:
A. Millikan’s oil-drop experiment C. Scattering of -particles by thin metal foil
B. Discharge tube experiment D. Chadwick experiment
374. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Planck’s Quantum theory?
A. Radiation is associated with energy
B. Energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number or multiples of quantum
C. Energy of quantum is proportional to frequency
D. Energy is absorbed or emitted in small packets called quantum
375. The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength 3000A0 & 6000A0 is:
A. 1:1 B. 1:2 C. 2:1 D. 1:4
376. Radius of Li+2 ion is:
0 0 0 0
A. 1.587 A B. 4.761 A C. 0.176 A D. 0.0587 A
14 1
377. In the equation 7N + (fast)0n → X + Y X & Y are:
15 11 16 9
A. 8O & -particle B. 5B & -particle C. 8O & -particle D. 4Be & -particle
378. Concept of stationary orbits was given by:
A. Rutherford B. Neil Bohr C. J.J Thomson D. Plank
379. If mass number of an element is 23 times that of the lightest element & it has 11
protons then it contains:
A. 11 protons, 23 neutrons, 11 electrons C. 11 protons, 12 neutrons, 11 electrons
B. 11 protons, 11 neutrons, 11 electrons D. 11 protons, 11 neutrons, 23 electrons
380. Amount of charge on one gram of electrons is:
8 11
A. 1.758 x 10 C C. 1.758 x 10 C
-8 -11
B. 1.758 x 10 C D. 1.758 x 10 C
381. Spectrum produced from sunlight is:
A. Emission line spectrum C. Absorption line spectrum
B. Emission continuous spectrum D. Hydrogen spectrum
382. e/m of cathode rays depends on:
A. Nature of gas C. Composition of glass
B. Material of electrode D. None of these
383. When electricity is passed through gases at low pressure, gas inside the tube
glows, colour of glow depends on:
A. Nature of gas C. Composition of glass
B. Material of electrode D. None of these
384. The orbital angular momentum of electron in 2p orbital is:
A. √12 B. zero C. √6 D. √2
385. ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯ Cl The number of neutrons in X would be:
A. 19 B. 20 C. 17 D. 18
386. Which of the following particles having same kinetic energy, would have the
maximum de-Broglie wave length:
A. Alpha particle B. Proton C. -particle D. Neutron
387. The atomic number is not changed by which type of radioactive decay?
A. Beta
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B. Gamma
C. Alpha
D. The atomic number is affected by all forms of radioactive decay
388. Which statement is true for all three types of radioactive emissions?
A. They are deflected by electric field
B. They ionize gases
C. They are completely absorbed by a thin aluminum sheet
D. They emit light
389. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in an atom in
which the highest principal quantum number value is 4?
A. 10 B. 18 C. 36 D. 54
390. Following radioactive disintegrations result in the formation of _______ &
– – –
________ respectively. A ⎯ B X ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Y
A. Isobar, Isotope C. Isodiapher, Isotone
B. Isotope, Isobar D. Isotone, Isodiapher
391. Brackett series are produced when the electrons form the outer orbits jump to:
nd th
A. 2 orbit C. 4 orbit
rd th
B. 3 orbit D. 5 orbit
392. In Balmer series of hydrogen atom spectrum which electronic transition causes
third line?
A. Fifth Bohr orbit to second one C. Fourth Bohr orbit to second one
B. Fifth Bohr orbit to first one D. Fourth Bohr orbit to first one
393. Maximum number of electrons in sub-shell of an atom is determined by the
following:
A. 2l+1 B. 4l−1 C. 2l2 D. 4l+2
394. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV, respectively. The
relation between their wavelength i.e and will be:
A. = B. =2 C. =4 D. =
395. According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen
atom will give rise to the least energetic photon?
A. = 6 =1 B. = 6 =5 C. = 5 =4 D. = 5 =3
396. The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 for the electron spin represent:
A. Rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise direction respectively
B. Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively
C. Magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively
D. Two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogue
397. Number of possible values of ‘ ’ for fourth energy level is:
A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32
398. The wavelength of the second line of the Balmer series for a hydrogen atom is:
A. B. C. D.
399. Number of possible values of ‘m’ for a given sub-level is given by:
( ) B. 2 + 1
A. C. D. All of these
400. If value of ‘m’ is -3, hence the possible value of ‘n’ is:
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
401. Number of orbitals in an energy level n=4 & for an energy sub-level = is
respectively:
A. 16, 7 B. 4, 4 C. 32, 16 D. 32, 14
402. Electromagnetic radiations:
I. U.V II. -rays III. Visible IV. X-rays
Can be arranged in decreasing order of energy as:
A. II>I>III>IV B. IV>II>I>III C. II>IV>I>III D. II>IV>III>I
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403. Total number of possible spectral lines observed in visible region for an electron
which jumps from 7th orbit to 2nd orbit in H-atom is:
A. 15 B. 21 C. 5 D. 12
404. Which electronic transition of the following in H-atom emits radiation of minimum
wavelength?
A. → B. → C. → D. ∝→
405. Passing an electrical charge through argon gas contained in a partially evacuated
vessel yields which of the following?
A. A line spectrum C. No visible change
B. A continuous spectrum D. White light
406. The first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series
appears at:
A. B. C. D.
407. Which of the following represents Moseley’s law?
A. = ( − ) B. √ = ( − ) C. = ( − ) D. = ( − )
408. Which statement is incorrect about X-rays?
A. X-rays are produced from metal anode
B. X-rays are more penetrating than -rays
C. X-rays produced form metal having high atomic number has high energy
D. X-rays are less energetic than -rays
409. Concept of elliptical orbits was given by:
A. Bohr B. Zeeman C. Sommerfeld D. Heisenberg
410. Number of radial nodes & nodal planes for a 3d orbital is respectively:
A. 0,2 B. 2, 0 C. 2,2 D. 1,2
411. Decreasing order for mass is:
A. e>p>n> B. >n>p>e C. n> >p>e D. >n>e>p
412. Which electronic transition of the following emits radiation of I.R region?
A. n5 → n3 B. n3 → n2 C. n6 → n2 D. n3 → n1
413. Number of electrons in trivalent cation of an element is 18. Number of neutrons in
nucleus in 23. Atomic number (Z) & mass number (A) of element is respectively:
A. 15, 38 C. 21, 39
B. 21, 44 D. 15,33
414. Energy in KJ/mol required for promotion of electron to second orbit for 1 mole of H-
atoms is:
A. 328 KJ/mol B. 1312 KJ/mol C. 984 KJ/mol D. 656 KJ/mol
415. In the formula for wave number in the Bracket series = − , value of n1
is:
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
416. Which is not according to Rutherford atomic model?
A. Large volume of atom comprises of empty space
B. Protons are not evenly distributed throughout the atom
C. Electrons revolve around the nucleus
D. Neutrons are present in nucleus
417. Which particle has zero value for charge to mass ratio?
A. Electron B. Proton C. Neutron D. -particle
418. Energy of second excited state of H-atom is:
A. -13.6 ev/atom B. -3.4 ev/atom C. -1.51 ev/atom D. -0.85 ev/atom
419. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Farady’s experiment indicates the existence of electron
B. Crooke’s experiment show the presence of electrons and protons in atoms
C. Spectroscopic experiments reveal the protonic arrangement of atoms
D. Radioactivity confirms the presence of protons & electrons
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420. Angular momentum of an electron in d-orbital is:
A. √7 ℎ/2 B. √8 ℎ/2 C. √6 ℎ/2 D. √12 ℎ/2
421. de-Broglie’s wave equation is given by;
A. = B. = C. = D. =
422. Ratio for maximum number of electrons in L & M shell of an atom is:
A. 4 : 5 B. 4 : 6 C. 4 : 9 D. 7 : 9
423. Wavelength of X-rays emitted from anode decreases with:
A. Increasing atomic mass
B. Decreasing atomic mass
C. Decreasing atomic number
D. Does not depend upon atomic number & mass number
424. Bohr’s atomic model is contradicted by:
A. Plank’s quantum theory C. de-Broglie’s Hypothesis
B. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle D. All of these
425. According to Plank’s quantum theory:
A. Energy absorbed or emitted by atoms is quantized
B. Energy of quantum is proportional to frequency
C. Quantum of visible light is called photon
D. All of these
426. Radioactivity does not depend upon:
A. Physical changes B. Chemical changes C. Both A & B D. None of these
427. Isotopes of chlorine(17Cl35) & (17Cl37) has number of neutrons respectively:
A. 17, 17 B. 35, 37 C. 18, 20 D. 18, 18
32 32
428. Isobars (16S ) & (15P ) has same number of:
A. Electrons B. Protons C. Neutrons D. Nucleons
429. An electron emits radiation having wavelength 2000A0. Its line spectrum is known
as:
A. Lyman series B. Balmer series C. Paschen series D. Brackett series
430. Correct statement of the following is:
A. Energy difference between adjacent orbits go on increasing while moving away from
nucleus
B. Distance between adjacent orbits go on decreasing while moving away from nucleus
C. Velocity of electron go on decreasing while moving away from nucleus
D. Energy of electron at infinite distance form nucleus is negative
431. Number of sub-levels with = in an energy level with = is:
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 5
432. Atomic number was discovered by:
A. Rutherford C. Henry Moseley
B. Neil Bohr D. J.J Thomson
433. Emission of −rays from atoms cause:
A. Decrease in atomic number by 2 units C. Increase in atomic number by 1 unit
B. Decrease in mass number by 4 units D. Decrease in energy contents of atom
434. Which of the following transitions will emit maximum energy in hydrogen atom?
A. 4f → 2s C. 4p →2s
B. 4d →2p D. All have same energy
435. Energy of photon is inversely proportional to:
A. Wavelength B. Wave number C. Frequency D. None of these
436. Which of the following particles moving with same velocity would be associated
with smallest de Broglie wavelength?
A. Hydrogen molecule C. Oxygen molecule
B. Helium molecule D. Nitrogen molecule
437. Wave character of electrons was experimentally verified by:
A. Einstein C. de-Broglie
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B. Max Planck D. Davisson and Germer
438. If uncertainty in the position of electron is zero, the uncertainty in its momentum
would be:
A. Zero B. < C. ≥ D. Infinite
439. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle has no significance for a moving:
A. Electron B. Proton C. Cricket ball D. Neutron
440. Rutherford’s model of the atom accounts for the:
A. Scattering of alpha particles by metal foils C. Stability of the atom
B. Stability of the electron orbits D. Line spectra of light elements
441. The discharge tube experiment in which cathode rays are emitted has shown that:
A. All nuclei contain positive charge
B. All forms of matter contain electrons
C. Protons are positively charged
D. Mass of proton and that of neutron is almost equal
442. Which of the following radiations has the highest wave number?
A. X-rays C. Microwaves
B. I.R rays D. Radiowaves
443. Bohr’s model could explain successfully:
A. The spectrum of helium
B. The spectrum of species containing only one electron
C. The spectrum of multi-electron atoms
D. The spectrum of hydrogen molecule
444. When an electron in hydrogen atom falls from 6th orbit to 3rd orbit, emitted radiation
will give rise to:
A. Lyman series C. Balmer series
B. Paschen series D. Pfund series
445. If the speed of electron in the Bohr’s first orbit of hydrogen atom be , then the
speed of the electron in the third Bohr orbit is:
A. /9 B. /3 C. 3 D. 9
446. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom:
A. Total energy of the electron is quantized
B. Angular momentum of the electron is quantized
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
447. Which of the following transitions will emit maximum energy in hydrogen atom?
A. = 4 → = 3 C. = 2 → = 1
B. = 4 → = 2 D. = 3 → = 2
448. An electron in 3d orbital is not characterized by:
A. =3 C. =-1
B. =3 D. =+1/2
449. The hydrogen atoms are excited to the stationary sate designated by the principal
quantum number, = . The spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atom is/are:
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
450. Particles in cathode rays have same charge to mass ratio as:
A. − B. − C. − D. Protons
451. Which of the following is never true for cathode rays?
A. They possess kinetic energy C. They carry charge
B. They are electromagnetic waves D. They produce mechanical pressure
452. Which of the following particles has maximum charge to mass ratio?
A. Electrons B. Protons C. − D. Neutrons
453. A nucleus represented by the symbol has:
A. Z protons and A-Z neutrons C. Z protons and Z-A neutrons
B. Z protons and A neutrons D. Z neutrons and A-Z protons
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454. The heaviest subatomic particle is:
A. Proton B. Electron C. Neutron D. Positron
455. Which of the following statement is not correct about − ?
A. They carry +2 unit charge C. They are more penetrating than gamma rays
B. Their mass is 4 amu D. They are He2+ ions
456. Neutrons were discovered quite late because:
A. Neutron is charge less particle C. Neutron in the nucleus moves very fast
B. Neutron is highly unstable particle D. All of these
457. The ion that is iso-electronic with CO is:
A. O2- B. CN- C. O2+ D. N2+
458. The maximum value of ‘m’ for an electron in fourth energy level is:
A. +4 B. +5 C. +3 D. +9
459. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in an orbital of 5f
subshell is:
A. 10 B. 6 C. 14 D. 2
460. In a multi-electron atom, energy of the electron in an orbital depends on:
A. Principal quantum number
B. Azimuthal quantum number and principal quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Spin quantum number
461. Which of the following is not true for a principal energy level having n=3?
A. There are three sub-shells C. There are a maximum of 18 electrons
B. There are nine orbitals D. There are six electrons with = 2
462. For = ,
A. The highest value of is 4
B. The total number of possible values of is 7
C. The total possible values of are 3
D. The highest value of is +3
463. In hydrogen atom the energy of an electron is determined by quantum number/s.
A. B. , C. D. , ,
464. How many electrons in an atom can have = , = and = + ?
A. 10 B. 8 C. 6 D. 2
465. The magnetic quantum number of an atom is related to the:
A. Size of the orbital C. Orbital angular momentum
B. Spin angular momentum D. Orientation of the orbital in space
466. Which of the following represents the correct set of the four quantum numbers of a
4d-electron?
A. 4, 3, 2, + B. 4, 2, 1, 0 C. 4, 3, -2, + D. 4, 2, 1, −
467. If the principal quantum number is 3, the azimuthal quantum number can have
values:
A. 1,2,3 B. 3,2,1,0,-1,-2,-3 C. 0,1,2 D. , −
468. When an atom is in a magnetic field, the possible number of orientations for an
orbital of azimuthal quantum number 3, is:
A. Three B. Five C. One D. Seven
469. The number of spherical nodes in 3p sub shell is:
A. Three B. One C. Two D. Zero
470. No two electrons in an atom can have:
A. The same principal quantum numbers C. The same magnetic quantum numbers
B. The same azimuthal quantum numbers D. An identical set of four quantum numbers
471. In magnesium atom, in ground state, the number of electron with = is:
A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8
472. In chromium atom, in ground state, the number occupied orbitals is:
A. 14 B. 7 C. 15 D. 12
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473. In Mn2+ ion, the number of unpaired electrons is:
(for Mn, z=25)
A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5
474. The principle which exludes the possibility of presence of a third electron in an
orbital is:
A. Aufbau rule B. Hund’s rule C. Pauli’s exclusion principle D. None of these
475. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired -electrons?
A. Zn2+ B. Fe2+ C. Mn2+ D. Cr2+
476. For any atom other than hydrogen the maximum number of electrons in the
innermost shell is:
A. 2 B. 8 C. 8 D. 1
477. In phosphorus atom (z=15) in ground state, the number of occupied sub-shells and
occupied orbitals are respectively:
A. 3, 3 B. 5, 5 C. 5, 9 D. 3, 9
478. According to Aufbau rule, the 19th electron in an atom goes into the:
A. 4s-orbital B. 4p-orbital C. 3d-orbital D. 3p-orbital
479. “The atomic orbitals are progressively filled in the order of increasing energy”. This
statement is known as:
A. Hund’s rule B. Exclusion principle C. Aufbau rule D. De Broglie rule
480. The correct order of increasing energy of atomic orbitals is:
A. 5p<4f<6s<5d B. 4f<5p<5d<6s C. 5p<6s<4f<5d D. 5p<5d<4f<6d
481. The correct set of the four quantum numbers of a 4d electron is:
A. 4, 2, 1, -1/2 B. 4, 3, 2, +1/2 C. 4, 2, 1, 0 D. 4, 3, -2, + ½
482. Which configuration of the following shows maximum second ionization energy?
A. 1s2 B. 1s2, 2s2 C. 1s2, 2s2, 2p1 D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
483. Correct order for decreasing ionic size for given ions is: (N , O , Na+, Cl-)
-3 -2
A. N-3>O-2>Cl->Na+ B. N-3>O-2>Na+>Cl- C. Cl->N-3>O-2>Na+ D. Cl->O-2>N-3>Na+
484. Phosphorus with chlorine can form PCl5 but with iodine cannot form PI5 because:
A. iodine is les electronegative than chlorine & can’t gain electron from phosphorus
B. Phosphorus cannot accommodate five iodine atoms due to large size of iodine
C. Phosphorus does not have enough electrons to make bonds with five iodine atoms
D. All of these
485. Electronic configuration for Cu+ (z=29) is:
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8 C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10
2 2 6 2 6 1 9
B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d10
486. The electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1, 3p1 is:
A. The excited state of Mg+ C. The excited state of Mg
+
B. The excited state of Na D. The excited state of Al
487. Principal quantum number specifies:
A. Shape of the orbital C. Orientation of orbital in space
B. Size of the orbital D. Energy of the electrons in the orbital
488. The sub-shell with = and = can accommodate a maximum of:
A. 18 electrons C. 16 electrons
B. 14 electrons D. 10 electrons
489. The value of ‘m’ for an electron is +2. It may be found in:
A. 2s-orbital C. 3p-orbital
B. 3d-orbital D. 3s-orbital
490. Which of the following quantum numbers represents an orbital of 3d sub-shell?
A. = 3, = 0, = 0 B. = 2, = 0, = 0 C. = 2, = 1, = 1 D. = 3, = 2, = 0
491. Which is not characteristic of Planck’s quantum theory of radiation?
A. Radiation is associated with energy
B. Energy is neither absorbed nor emitted in whole number or multiples of quanta
C. The magnitude of energy associated with quanta is proportional to the frequency
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D. Radiation energy is neither emitted nor absorbed continuously but in small packets called
quanta
492. Number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the element 89X231 is:
A. 89, 89, 231 B. 89, 142, 89 C. 89, 71, 89 D. 89, 89, 142
493. The hydride ion (H-) is isoelectronic with:
A. H+ B. He C. He+ D. Be
494. Which of the following is not iso electronic?
A. Na+ B. Mg2+ C. O2- D. Cl-
495. For how many orbitals, the quantum numbers n=3, l=2, m=+2 are possible?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
496. An element M has an atomic mass 19 and atomic number 9 its ion is represented by:
A. M+ B. M+2 C. M- D. M2-
497. Which of the following explains the sequence of filling electrons in different shells?
A. Hund’s rule B. Pauli’s principle C. Aufbau principle D. All of these
498. Which of the following has more unpaired d-electrons?
A. Zn+2(Z=30) B. Fe2+(Z=26) C. Ni+2(Z=28) D. Cu+(Z=29)
499. The values of quantum numbers n, l and m for the 5th electron of Boron will be:
A. n=1, l=0, m=1 B. n=2, l=2, m=-1 C. n=2, l=1, m=-1 D. n=1, l=2, m=-1
500. Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers n, l, m, s is allowed?
1 1
A. 3, 2, 1, 0 B. 2, 0, 0, − C. 3, −3, −2, + D. 1, 0, 1, +
2 2
501. The maximum number of electrons in sub shell with l=2 and n=3 is:
A. 2 B. 12 C. 6 D. 10
502. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The number of its (i) sub-shells and
(ii) orbitals would be respectively:
A. 3 and 5 B. 3 and 7 C. 3 and 9 D. 2 and 5
503. An e- has magnetic quantum number as -3, what is its principal quantum number?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
504. The electrons present in K-shell of the atom will differ in:
A. Principal quantum number C. Magnetic quantum number
B. Azimuthal quantum number D. Spin quantum number
505. The number of electrons in the M shell of the element with atomic number 24 is:
A. 24 B. 12 C. 13 D. 8
506. The Bohr orbit radius for the H-atom (z=1) is approximately 0.53A⁰. The radius for
the first excited state orbit is:
A. 0.13A⁰ B. 1.06A⁰ C. 4.77A⁰ D. 2.12A⁰
507. The energy of the first electron in helium will be:
A. -13.6 eV B. -54.4 eV C. -5.44 eV D. zero
508. Bracket series are produced when the electrons from the outer orbits jump to:
A. 2nd orbit B. 3rd orbit C. 4th orbit D. 5th orbit
509. In hydrogen spectrum which of the following lies in the wavelength range 350-
700nm?
A. Balmer series B. Brackett series C. Lyman series D. Paschen series
510. Which element possess non-spherical orbitals?
A. He B. B C. Be D. Li
511. The region of space where there is maximum probability of finding an electron at
any instant is:
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A. An orbit B. An orbital C. A stationary state D. Sub shell
512. According to Bohr’s theory the energy required for the transition of electron in H-
atom from n=6 to n=8 state is:
A. Equal to the energy required for the transition from n=5 to n=6 state
B. Larger than in (a)
C. Less than in (a)
D. Equal to the energy required for the transition from n=7 to n=9 state
513. Total number of possible spectral lines in an atom for given electronic transition
n6 → n2 is:
A. 15 B. 12 C. 10 D. 8
514. Fourth spectral line in Lyman series corresponds to electronic transition:
A. n5 → n1 B. n7 → n3 C. n6 → n2 D. n4 → n1
515. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. Cathode rays can ionize the gas
B. e/m for cathode rays is smaller than anode rays
C. ratio of mass of electron and proton is 1:1836
D. cathode rays are independent of gas present in the tube
516. An electron jumps from seventh orbit to first orbit. Possible number of spectral line
in visible region for the given transition is:
A. 21 B. 12 C. 06 D. 05
517. Which of the following configuration possess maximum value for I.P?
A. 1s2, 2s2, 2p1 B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 C. 1s2, 2s2, 2p3 D. 1s2, 2s2
2 2 6 2 6 10
518. Given electronic configuration; 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p , 3d presents:
A. Sc+3(Z = 21) C. Ni (Z = 28)
B. Zn+2(Z = 30) D. Cu+2(Z = 29)
519. Isotopes of an element possess same number of:
A. Electrons & protons C. Electrons & neutrons
B. Protons & neutrons D. None of these
520. Number of electrons in L & M shell of calcium atom (z=20) is:
A. 8, 10 B. 8, 2 C. 8, 8 D. 8, 18
521. Which particles are also called as nucleons:
A. Electrons & protons C. Protons & neutrons
B. Electrons & neutrons D. Neutrons only
522. Charge carried by nucleus & an atom is respectively:
A. +, O B. O, + C. +, - D. +, +
523. Mass number of calcium atom is equal to mass number of:
A. K B. Ar C. Cl D. Mg
524. Particles with maximum Kinetic energy are present in:
A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Same K.E in all
525. Fourth state of matter, plasma is:
A. Jelly like material
B. Semi solid material
C. Highly ionized mixture of molecules, atoms, ions & electrons
D. Mixture of ions & electrons
526. Number of electrons in valence shell of silicon (z=14) is:
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
527. Total number of electron proton & neutron in monovalent cation of potassium 19K+1
is:
A. 19, 19, 20 B. 18, 19, 20 C. 19, 18, 20 D. 18, 19, 19
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