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in

Summary which are attached to the placenta. There are

Reproduction is one of the attributes of six major types of ovules. The development
living things. Lower plants, microbes and of megaspore from megaspore mother cell
animals reproduce by different methods is called megasporogenesis. A monosporic
(fragmentation, gemma, binary fission, embryo sac (Polygonum type) possesses three
budding, regeneration). Organisms reproduce antipodals in chalazal end, Three cells in the
through asexual and sexual methods. Asexual micropylar end constituting egg apparatus(1
methods in angiosperms occur through natural egg and 2 Synergids) and two polar nucleus
or artificial methods. The natural methods fused to form secondary nucleus. Thus, a
take place through vegetative propagules or 7 celled 8 nucleated Embryo sac is present.
diaspores. Artificial method of reproduction The transfer of pollen grains to the
involves cutting, layering and grafting. stigma of a flower is called pollination. Self-
Micropropagation is a modern method used pollination and cross-pollination are two
to raise new plants. types of pollination. Double fertilization
Sexual reproduction includes and triple fusion are characteristic features
gametogenesis and fertilization. External of angiosperms. After fertilization the ovary
fertilization occurs in lower plants like algae transforms into a fruit and the ovule becomes
but in higher plants internal fertilization a seed. Endosperm is triploid in angiosperms
takes place. A flower is a modified shoot and is of three types – Nuclear, cellular, helobial.
meant for reproduction. Stamen is the male Reproduction which doesn’t involve meiosis
reproductive part and produces pollen grains. and syngamy is called apomixis. Occurrence
The development of microspore is called of more than one embryo in a seed is called
microsporogenesis. The microspore mother polyembryony. Formation of fruit without the
cell undergoes meiotic division to produce act of fertilization is called parthenocarpy.
four haploid microspores. In majority of
Angiosperms the anther is dithecous and
Evaluation
are tetrasporangiate. It possesses epidermis, 1. Choose the correct
endothecium, middle layers and tapetum. statement from the
The hygroscopic nature of endothecial cell following
along with thin walled stomium helps in the a) Gametes are
dehiscence of anther. Tapetum nourishes the involved in asexual
microspores and also contributes to the wall reproduction
materials of the pollen grain. Pollen grain is b) Bacteria reproduce asexually by
derived from the microspore and possesses budding
thin inner intine and thick outer exine. c) Conidia formation is a method of
Sporopollenin is present in exine and is resistant sexual reproduction
to physiological and biological decomposition. d) Yeast reproduce by budding
Microspore is the first cell of male gametophyte. 2. An eminent Indian embryologist is
The nucleus of the microspore divides to form a) S.R.Kashyap b) P.Maheswari
a vegetative nucleus and a generative nucleus. c) M.S. Swaminathan d) K.C.Mehta
The generative nucleus divides to form 3. Identify the correctly matched pair
two male nuclei. Gynoecium is the female a) Tuber - Allium cepa
reproductive part of a flower and it represents b) Sucker - Pistia
one or more pistils. The ovary bears ovules c) Rhizome - Musa
d) Stolon - Zingiber
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4. Size of pollen grain in Myosotis 10. Choose the correct statement(s) about
a) 10 micrometer b) 20 micrometer tenuinucellate ovule
c) 200 micrometer d) 2000 micrometer a) Sporogenous cell is hypodermal
b) Ovules have fairly large nucellus
5. First cell of male gametophyte in
c) sporogenous cell is epidermal
angiosperm is
d) ovules have single layer of nucellus tissue
a) Microspore b) megaspore
c) Nucleus d) Primary Endosperm Nucleus 11. The correct order of haploid, diploid and
triploid structure in fertilized embryo sac is
6. Match the following a) synergid, zygote and PEN
I) External fertilization i) pollen grain b) synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
II) Androecium ii)anther wall c) antipodal, synergid and PEN
III) Male gametophyte iii)algae d) synergid, polar nuclei and zygote
IV) Primary parietal layer iv)stamens
12. Which of the following represent
a)I-iv;II-i;III-ii;IV-iii
megagametophyte
b)I-iii;II-iv;III-i;IV-ii
c)I-iii;II-iv;III-ii,IV-i a) Ovule b)Embryo sac
d)I-iii;II-i;III-iv;IV-ii c)Nucellus d)Endosperm
7. Arrange the layers of anther wall from
13. In Haplopappus gracilis, number of
locus to periphery
chromosomes in cells of nucellus is 4.
a) Epidermis,middle layers, tapetum,
What will be the chromosome number in
endothecium
Primary endosperm cell?
b) Tapetum, middle layers, epidermis,
endothecium a)8 b)12 c)6 d)2
c) Endothecium, epidermis, middle 14. Transmitting tissue is found in
layers, tapetum
a) Micropylar region of ovule
d) Tapetum, middle layers endothecium
b) Pollen tube wall
epidermis
c) Stylar region of gynoecium
8. Identify the incorrect pair
d) Integument
a) sporopollenin - exine of pollen grain
b) tapetum – nutritive tissue for 15. The scar left by funiculus in the seed is
developing microspores
a)tegmen b)radicle
c) Nucellus – nutritive tissue for
developing embryo c)epicotyl d)hilum
d) obturator – directs the pollen tube into
16. A
 Plant called X possesses small flower with
micropyle
reduced perianth and versatile anther. The
9. Assertion : Sporopollenin preserves
probable agent for pollination would be
pollen in fossil deposits
Reason : Sporopollenin is resistant a)water b)air
to physical and biological c)butterflies d)beetles
decomposition
a) assertion is true; reason is false 17. Consider the following statement(s)
b) assertion is false; reason is true i) In Protandrous flowers pistil matures earlier
c) Both Assertion and reason are not true ii) In Protogynous flowers pistil matures
d) Both Assertion and reason are true. earlier

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iii) Herkogamy is noticed in unisexual flowers 37. List any two strategy adopted by bisexual
iv) Distyly is present in Primula flowers to prevent self-pollination.
a) i and ii are correct 38. What is endothelium.
b) ii and iv are correct 39. Name the cell which divides to form male
c) ii and iii are correct nuclei.
d) i and iv are correct 40. ‘The endosperm of angiosperm is different
18. Ruminate endosperm is found in from gymnosperm’. Do you agree. Justify
a) Cocos b) Areca your answer.
c) Vallisneria d) Arachis 41. Define the term Diplospory.
42. What is polyembryony. How it can
19. Coelorhiza is found in
commercially exploited.
a) Paddy b) Bean
c) Pea d) Tridax 43. Do you think parthenocarpy and apomixis
are different process. Justify?
20. Caruncle develops from 44. Why does the zygote divides only after the
a) funicle b) nucellus division of Primary endosperm cell.
c) integument d) embryo sac 45. What is Mellitophily?
21. Parthenocarpic fruits lack 46. Give examples for Helobial endosperm.
a) Endocarp b) Epicarp 47. ‘Endothecium is associated with dehiscence of
c) Mesocarp d) seed anther’ Justify the statement.
22. In majority of plants pollen is liberated at 48. List out the functions of tapetum.
a) 1 celled stage b) 2 celled stage 49. Write short note on Pollen kitt.
c) 3 celled stage d) 4 celled stage
50. Distinguish tenuinucellate and crassinucellate
23. What is reproduction? ovules.
24. List out two sub-aerial stem modifications
51. Give short notes on types of ovules.
with example.
52. ‘Pollination in Gymnosperms is different
25. What is layering?
from Angiosperms’ – Give reasons.
26. What are clones?
53. Write short note on Heterostyly.
27. How do Dioscorea reproduce vegetatively?
28. A detached leaf of Bryophyllum produces new 54. Enumerate the characteristic features of
plants. How? Entomophilous flowers
29. Differentiate Grafting and Layering. 55. Explain the pollination mechanism in Salvia.
30. Write short notes on approach grafting. 56. Discuss the steps involved in
31. “Tissue culture is the best method for Microsporogenesis.
propagating rare and endangered plant 57. With a suitable diagram explain the structure
species”- Discuss. of an ovule.
32. Distinguish mound layering and air layering. 58. Give a concise account on steps involved in
33. List down the advantages of conventional fertilization of an angiosperm plant.
methods. 59. What is endosperm. Explain the types.
34. Explain the conventional methods adopted in 60. Explain the development of a Dicot embryo
vegetative propagation of higher plants. 61. Differentiate the structure of Dicot and
35. Differentiate Secretary and invasive tapetum. Monocot seed.
62. Give a detailed account on parthenocarpy.
36. What is Cantharophily.
Add a note on its significance.

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Evaluation 6. Test cross involves

1. Extra nuclear inheritance is a) Crossing between two genotypes with
a consequence of presence of recessive trait
genes in b) Crossing between two F1 hybrids
a) Mitochondria and c) Crossing the F1 hybrid with a double
chloroplasts recessive genotype
b) Endoplasmic reticulum and d) Crossing between two genotypes with
mitochondria dominant trait
c) Ribosomes and chloroplast
7. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant
d) Lysososmes and ribosomes
to green. If a heterozygous yellow seed
2. In order to find out the different types of pant is crossed with a green seeded plant,
gametes produced by a pea plant having what ratio of yellow and green seeded
the genotype AaBb, it should be crossed plants would you expect in F1 generation?
to a plant with the genotype
a) 9:1 b) 1:3
a) aaBB b) AaBB
b) 3:1 d) 50:50
c) AABB d) aabb
8. Select the correct statement from the ones
3. How many different kinds of gametes given below with respect to dihydrid cross
will be produced by a plant having the
a) Tightly linked genes on the same
genotype AABbCC?
chromosomes show very few
a) Three b) Four combinations
c) Nine d) Two b) Tightly linked genes on the
4. Which one of the following is an example same chromosomes show higher
of polygenic inheritance? combinations
a) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa c) Genes far apart on the same chromosomes
show very few recombinations
b) Production of male honey bee
d) Genes loosely linked on the
c) Pod shape in garden pea
same chromosomes show similar
d) Skin Colour in humans recombinations as the tightly linked
5. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, ones
round seed shape (RR) was dominant over 9. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a
wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon cross in which the F1 generation resembles
(YY) was dominant over green cotyledon both the parents
(yy). What are the expected phenotypes a) Incomplete dominance
in the F2 generation of the cross RRYY x b) Law of dominance
rryy? c) Inheritance of one gene
a) Only round seeds with green cotyledons d) Co-dominance
b) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow 10. Fruit colour in squash is an example of
cotyledons a) Recessive epistatsis
c) 
Only wrinkled seeds with green
b) Dominant epistasis
cotyledons
d) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons c) Complementary genes
and wrinkled seeds with yellow d) Inhibitory genes
cotyledons

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11. In his classic experiments on Pea plants, 16. “Gametes are never hybrid”. This is a
Mendel did not use statement of
a)Flowering position b) Seed colour a) Law of dominance
c) Pod length d) Seed shape b) Law of independent assortment
12. The epistatic effect, in which the dihybrid c) Law of segregation
cross 9:3:3:1 between AaBb X AaBb is d) Law of random fertilization
modified as 17. Gene which suppresses other genes
a) Dominance of one allele on another activity but does not lie on the same locus
allele of both loci is called as
b) 
Interaction between two alleles of a) Epistatic b) Supplement only
different loci c) Hypostatic d) Codominant
c) 
Dominance of one allele to another 18. Pure tall plants are crossed with pure
alleles of same loci dwarf plants. In the F1 generation, all
d) Interaction between two alleles of same plants were tall. These tall plants of F1
loci generation were selfed and the ratio of
13. In a test cross involving F1 dihybrid, more tall to dwarf plants obtained was 3:1. This
parental type offspring were produced is called
than the recombination type offspring. a) Dominance b) Inheritance
This indicates c) Codominance d) Heredity
19. The dominant epistatis ratio is
a) Th
 e two genes are located on two
different chromosomes a) 9:3:3:1 b) 12:3:1
c) 9:3:4 d) 9:6:1
b) C
 hromosomes failed to separate during
20. Select the period for Mendel’s
meiosis
hybridization experiments
c) Th
 e two genes are linked and present a) 1856 - 1863 b) 1850 - 1870
on the same chromosome c) 1857 - 1869 d) 1870 - 1877
d) B
 oth of the characters are controlled by 21. Among the following characters which
more than one gene one was not considered by Mendel in his
14. The genes controlling the seven pea experimentation pea?
characters studied by Mendel are known a) Stem – Tall or dwarf
to be located on how many different b) Trichomal glandular or non-glandular
chromosomes? c) Seed – Green or yellow
a) Seven b) Six d) Pod – Inflated or constricted
c) Five d) Four 22. Name the seven contrasting traits of
15. Which of the following explains how Mendel.
progeny can posses the combinations of 23. What is meant by true breeding or pure
traits that none of the parent possessed? breeding lines / strain?
a) Law of segregation 24. Give the names of the scientists who
b) Chromosome theory rediscovered Mendelism.

c) Law of independent assortment 25. What is back cross?

d) Polygenic inheritance 26. Define Genetics.

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27. What are multiple alleles Genetic Code: The set of 64 triplets of bases
28. What are the reasons for Mendel’s success (codons) corresponding to the twenty amino
in his breeding experiment? acids in proteins and the signals for initiation
and termination of polypeptide synthesis.
29. Explain the law of dominance in
monohybrid cross. Genotype: The types of alleles in a single
30. Differentiate incomplete dominance and individual is called genotype
codominance.
Genome: The total complement of genes
31. What is meant by cytoplasmic inheritance contained in a cell.
32. Describe dominant epistasis with an
example. Heterozygous: Diploid organisms that have
two different allels at a specific gene locus are
33. Explain polygenic inheritance with an
said to be heterozygous.
example.
34. Differentiate continuous variation with Homozygous: A diploid organism in which
discontinuous variation. both alleles are the same at a given gene locus is
said to be homozygous.
35. Explain with an example how single
gene affect multiple traits and alters the Hybrid Vigour or Heterosis: The superiority of
phenotype of an organism. hybrid over either of its parents in one or more
36. Bring out the inheritance of chloroplast traits.
gene with an example.
Locus: The site or position of a particular gene
Glossary on a chromosome.
Alleles: Alternative forms of a gene.
Phenotype: The physical expression of an
Back Cross: Crosses between F1 off-springs with individuals gene. The physical observable
either of the two parents (hybrid) are known as characteristics of an organism.
back cross
Punnett Square / Checkerboard: A sort
F1 / First Filial Generation: The second stage
of cross-multiplication matrix used in the
of Mendel’s experiment is called F1 generation
prediction of the outcome of a genetic cross,
Gene: The determinant of a characteristic of an in which male and female gametes and their
organism (Mendelian factor). Gene symbols are frequencies are arranged along the edges.
underlined or italicized.

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Evaluation a) A to T, T to A, C to G and G to C
1. An allohexaploidy contains b) A to G, C to T, C to G and T to A
c) C to G, A to G, T to A and G to A
a) Six different genomes
d) G to C, A to T, T to A and C to G
b) Six copies of three different
genomes 6. 
If haploid number in a cell is 18. The double
c) Two copies of three different genomes monosomic and trisomic number will be
d) Six copies of one genome a) 34 and 37 b) 34 and 35
2. Match list I with list II c) 37 and 35 d) 17 and 19
7. C
 hanging the codon AGC to AGA represents
List I List II
a) missense mutation b) nonsense mutation
A. A pair of i) monosomy
chromosomes extra c) frameshift mutation d) deletion mutation
with diploid Assertion (A): Gamma rays are generally
8. 
B. One chromosome ii) tetrasomy use to induce mutation in wheat varieties.
extra to the diploid
Reason (R): Because they carry lower
C. One chromosome iii) trisomy
loses from diploid energy to non-ionize electrons from atom
D. Two individual iv) double a) A and R are correct
chromosomes lose monosomy b) A is correct. R is wrong
from diploid c) A is wrong. R is correct
d) A and R are wrong
a) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i 9. Which one of the following pairs of codons
c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv d) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv is correctly matched with their function or
the signal for the particular amino acid?
3. 
Which of the following sentences are correct?
a) UUA, UCA - Leucine
1. The offspring exhibit only parental b) GUU, GCU - Alanine
combinations due to incomplete linkage c) UAG, UGA - Stop
2. The linked genes exhibit some crossing d) AUG, ACG – Start / Methionine
over in complete linkage 10. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a
3. The separation of two linked genes are defined order during transcription is called
possible in incomplete linkage a) Splicing b) Looping
4. Crossing over is absent in complete linkage c) Inducing d) Slicing
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
11. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous
c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4
base sequence as ATCTG, what would be
4. Due to incomplete linkage in maize, the the complementary RNA strand sequence?
ratio of parental and recombinants are a) ATCGU b) TTAGU
c) UAGAC d) AACTG
a) 50:50 b) 7:1:1:7 c) 96.4: 3.6 d) 1:7:7:1
12. Removal of RNA polymerase III nucleoplasm
5. The point mutation sequence for transition, will affect the synthesis of
transition, transversion and transversion in a) rRNA b) tRNA
DNA are c) hnRNA d) mRNA

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13. DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes 20. During translation the codon in mRNA is
transcription on one strand of the DNA actually “read” by
which is called the a) The A site in the ribosomes
a) Alpha strand b) Anti strand b) The P site in the ribosomes
c) Template strand d) Coding strand c) The anticodon in a tRNA
14. Which of the following correctly represents d) The anticodon is an amino acid
the flow of genetic information? 21. A complex of ribosome attached to a single
a) DNA  RNA  Protein strand of RNA is known as
b) RNA  DNA  Protein a) Polysome b) Polymer
c) RNA  Protein  DNA c) Polypeptide d) Okazaki fragment
d) Protein  RNA  DNA 22. Which of the following is the start codon
15. Initiation codon is a) AUG b) UGA
a) UUU b) UGA d) UAA d) UAG
c) AUG d) UAG 23. What is true about tRNA?
16. A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base a) It binds with an amino acid at its 3’ end
sequences which of these plays an important
b) It has 5 double stranded regions
role in protein synthesis?
a) Introns b) Exons c) It has a codon at one end which recognizes
c) Both a and b d) None of the above the anticodon of mRNA

17. Codon – anticodon interactions occur by d) It looks like clover leaf in the three D
a) Covalent bond structure
b) Electrostatic interactions 24. 
Which one of the following hydrolysis
c) Hydrogen bonds internal phosphodiester bonds in a
d) Hydrophobic interaction polynucleotide chain?
18. Which of the following RNA polymerases is a) Lipase b) Exonuclease
responsible for the transcription of protein c) Endonuclease d) Protease
coding genes in eukaryotes? 25. DNA element with ability to change position
a) RNA Pol I b) RNA Poly II is called
c) RNA Pol III d) RNA Pol IV a) Cistron b) Transposon
19. How are RNA molecules transported out of c) Intron d) Recon
the nucleus 26. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of
a) Passive diffusion through the membrane a) Plants b) Fungi
b) Through membrane pores in an energy c) Animals d) Bacteria
independent process
27. During DNA replication Okazaki fragments
c) Through membrane pores in an energy
are used to elongate
dependent process
a) The leading strand towards replication
d) Through a channel in the membrane that
fork
leads to the endoplastic reticulation
b) The lagging strand towards replication
fork

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c) The leading strand away from replication 42. What is alternative splicing?
fork 43. What is coding strand?
d) The lagging strand away from replication
44. What are the enzymes involved in DNA
fork
replication in eukaryotes?
28. When two different genes came from same
parent they tend to remain together. 45. Differentiate coding and non coding strand.
46. What are splicesomes?
i) What is the name of this phenomenon?
ii) Draw the cross with suitable example. 47. What is meant by capping and tailing?
iii) Write the observed phenotypic ratio. 48. What is RNA editing?
29. What is the difference between missense 49. Explain the DNA replication in eukaryotes.
and nonsense mutation? 50. With reference to the given diagram correctly
30.  A B C
C B
D E F G H I match the following pairs.
&

From the above figure identify the type of '

([RQ ,QWURQ ([RQ ,QWURQ ([RQ ,QWURQ ([RQ

mutation and explain it.

$ %

31. Write the salient features of Sutton and (

Boveri concept.
Column I Column II
32. Explain the mechanism of crossing over.
A Transcribed region
33. How is Nicotiana exhibit self-
B Regulation of initiation of
incompatibility. Explain its mechanism.
transcription
34. How sex is determined in monoecious
C Protein-encoding sequence
plants. write their genes involved in it.
D Termination of transcription
35. What is gene mapping? Write its uses.
E Gene
36. Draw the diagram of different types of
51. What attributes make Arabidopsis a suitable
aneuploidy.
model plant for molecular genetic research?
37. Mention the name of man-made cereal.
52. Describe the molecular mechanism of RNA
How it is formed?
modification.
38. What is DNA repair?
53. Explain ribosomal translocation in protein
39. What is replication fork? synthesis.
40. 
Write about the energetics of DNA 54. Describe transposons.
replication.
55. Describe RNA editing in plants.
41. What is TATA box?

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genetically modified crops are herbicide tolerant – of enzymes called nucleases.

Basta, Dhara mustard, insects resistance – Bt crops, Choose the correct option regarding above
flavrSavr – Tomato, Golden rice. Biopolymers statements
are polyhydroxybutyrate (PHB), polylactic acid a. I & II b. I & III
(PLA) and green fluorescent protein (GFP) is c. II & III d. I,II & III
used to make biosensors. Other applications are 6. 
The process of recombinant DNA
biopharming, bioprospecting, biomedication and technology has the following steps
biofuel, etc.
I. amplication of the gene
Evaluation II. Insertion of recombinant DNA into
1. Restriction enzymes are the host cells
a. Not always required in III. Cutting of DNA at specific location
genetic engineering using restriction enzyme .
b. Essential tools in IV. Isolation of genetic material (DNA)
genetic engineering Pick out the correct sequence of step
c. 
Nucleases that cleave for recombinant DNA technology.
DNA at specific sites a. II, III, IV, I b. IV, II, III, I
d. both b and c c. I, II, III, IV d. IV, III, I, II

2. Plasmids are 7. Which one of the following palindromic

a. circular protein molecules base sequence in DNA can be easily cut
b. required by bacteria at about the middle by some particular
c. tiny bacteria restriction enzymes?
d. confer resistance to antibiotics a. 5 CGTTCG 3 3 ATCGTA 5
b. 5 GATATG 3 3 CTACTA 5
3. EcoRI cleaves DNA at
c. 5 GAATTC 3 3 CTTAAG 5
a. AGGGTT b. GTATATC
d. 5 CACGTA 3 3 CTCAGT 5
c. GAATTC d. TATAGC
8. pBR 322, BR stands for
4. Genetic engineering is
a. Plasmid Bacterial Recombination
a. making artificial genes.
b. Plasmid Bacterial Replication
b. hybridization of DNA of one organism
c. Plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez
to that of the others.
d. Plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez
c. 
production of alcohol by using micro
organisms. 9. Match the following :
d. making artificial limbs, diagnostic Column A Column B
instruments such as ECG, EEG etc., 1 Exonuclease a. add or remove phosphate
2 Endonuclease b. binding the DNA
5. Consider the following statements:
fragments
I.  Recombinant DNA technology is
popularly known as genetic engineering 3 Alkaline c. cut the DNA at terminus
Phosphatase
is a stream of biotechnology which
deals with the manipulation of genetic 4 Ligase d. cut the DNA at middle
materials by man invitro 1 2 3 4
II. pBR322 is the first artificial cloning A) a b c d
vector developed in 1977 by Boliver B) c d b a
and Rodriguez from E.coli plasmid C) a c b d
III. Restriction enzymes belongs to a class D) c d a b

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10. In which techniques Ethidium Bromide is 15. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are
used? a) Long fibre and resistant to aphids
a. Southern Blotting techniques b) Medium yield, long fibre and resistant
b. Western Blotting techniques to beetle pests
c. Polymerase Chain Reaction c) high yield and production of toxic protein
d. Agrose Gel Electroporosis crystals which kill dipteran pests.
11. Assertion : Agrobacterium tumifaciens d) High yield and resistant to ball worms
is popular in genetic engineering because 16. 
How do you use the biotechnology in
this bacteriumis associated with the root modern practice?
nodules of all cereals and pulse crops 17. 
What are the materials used to grow
Reason: A gene incorporated in the
 microorganism like Spirulina?
bacterial chromosomal genome gets 18. You are working in a biotechnology lab
atomatically transferred to the cross with with a becterium namely E.coli. How will
which bacterium is associated. you cut the nucleotide sequence? explain it.
a) Both assertion and reason are true. But 19. What are the enzymes you can used to
reason is correct explanation of assertion. cut terminal end and internal phospho di
b) B oth assertion and reason are true. But ester bond of nucleotide sequence?
reason is not correct explanation of
20. Name the chemicals used in gene transfer.
assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. 21. 
What do you know about the word
d) Assertion is false, but reason is true. pBR332?
e) Both assertion and reason are false. 22. Mention the application of Biotechnology.
12. Which one of the following is not correct 23. 
What are restriction enzyme. Mention
statement. their type with role in Biotechnology.
a) Ti plasmid causes the bunchy top disease 24. 
Is their any possibilities to transfer a
b) Multiple cloning site is known as suitable desirable gene to host plant
Polylinker without vector? Justify your answer.
c) 
Non viral method transfection of 25. How will you identify a vectors?
Nucleic acid in cell 26. 
Compare the various types of Blotting
d) Polylactic acid is a kind of biodegradable techniques.
and bioactive thermoplastic.
27. Write the advantages of herbicide tolerant
13. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the
crops.
southern hybridisation technique does not use
28. Write the advantages and disadvantages of
a) Electrophoresis
Bt cotton.
b) Blotting
c) Autoradiography 29. 
What is bioremediation? give some
d) Polymerase Chain Reaction examples of bioremediation.
30. Write the benefits and risk of Genetically
14. An antibiotic gene in a vector usually helps
Modified Foods.
in the selection of
a) Competent cells b) Transformed cells
c) Recombinant cells d) None of the above

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of the Human Genome Project. The mission of the hence he was regarded as father of Tissue
ELSI program was to identify and address issues culture. Tissue culture mainly based on
raised by genomic research that would affect the concepts totipotency, differentiation,
individuals, families, and society. A percentage of redifferentiation and dedifferentiation. Plant
the Human Genome Project budget at the National tissue culture technique involves selection
Institutes of Health and the U.S. Department of of explants, sterilization, media preparation,
Energy was devoted to ELSI research. maintaining culture condition, callus formation,
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee embryogenesis or organgenesis and hardening.
(GEAC) Based on the explants chosen the types of tissue
GEAC is an apex body under Ministry of culture are organ culture, meristem culture,
Environment, Forests and Climate change protoplast culture and cell suspension culture.
for regulating manufacturing, use, import, From the explants, plants can be regenerated
export and storage of hazardous microbes or by somatic embryogenesis or organgenesis is
genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and said to be plant regeneration pathway. Some
cells in the country. It was established as an apex of the main applications of tissue culture are
body to accord approval of activities involving production of somatic hybrids, artificial seeds,
large scale use of hazardous microorganisms disease resistant and stress resistant plants,
and recombinants in research and industrial germplasm conservation, micropropagation
production. The GEAC is also responsible for and production of secondary metabolites.
approval of proposals relating to release of Intellectual Property Right (IPR) is primarily
genetically engineered organisms and products aimed at patents, copyrights, trade secret and
into the environment including experimental trademark given to the discoverer / inventor
field trials. for the commercial production of transformed
micro organisms or plants. Biosafety is the
5.7 Future of Biotechnology
prevention mechanism to protect harmful
Biotechnology has become a comprehensive
incidents due to biohazards or pathogens.
scientific venture from the point of academic
Bioethics dealt with ethical issue emerging from
and commercial angles, within a short time with
biotechnological advancement. ELSI program
the sequencing of human genome and genome
addresses issues related to genenomic research.
of some important organisms. The future
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
developments in biotechnology will be exciting.
Committee) is a regulatory authority for release
Thus the development in biotechnology will lead
of genetically modified products or organisms
to a new scientific revolution that would change
into the environment.
the lives and future of people. Like industrial
and computer revolution, biotechnological Evaluation
revolution will also promise major changes in Choose the correct answer from the given
many aspects of modern life. option:
1. Totipotency refers to
Summary a) capacity to generate genetically identical
Tissue culture is the in vitro asceptic culture of plants.
cells, tissues or organs into whole plants under b) capacity to generate a whole plant from
controlled nutritional and environmental any plant cell / explant.
conditions. A German physiologist Gotllieb c) capacity to generate hybrid protoplasts.
Haberlant in 1902 for the first time attempted d) recovery of healthy plants from diseased
to culture plant cells in artificial medium, plants.

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2. Micro propagation involves 6. Select the incorrect

a) 
vegetative multiplication of plants by statement from given
using micro-organisms. statement
b) 
vegetative multiplication of plants by a) A tonic used for cardiac
arrest is obtained from
using small explants.
Digitalis purpuria
c) 
vegetative multiplication of plants by b) Medicine used to treat
using microspores. Rheumatic pain is extracted from
d) Non-vegetative multiplication of plants Capsicum annum
by using microspores and megaspores. c) An anti malarial drug is isolated from
Cinchona officinalis.
3. Match the following :
d) Anti-cancinogenic property is not seen in
Column A Column B
Catharanthus roseus.
1) Totipotency A) Reversion of mature
cells into meristerm 7. Virus free plants are developed from
2) Dedifferentiation B) Biochemical and a) Organ culture
structural changes of b) Meristem culture
cells c) Protoplast culture
3) Explant C) Properties of
d) Cell suspension culture
living cells develops
into entire plant 8. The prevention of large scale loss of
4) Differentiation D) Selected plant biological interity
tissue transferred to a) Biopatent b) Bioethics
culture medium c) Biosafety d) Biofuel
1 2 3 4
9. Cryopreservation means it is a process to
a) C A D B
preserve plant cells, tissues or organs
b) A C B D a) at very low temperature by using ether.
c) B A D C b) at very high temperature by using liquid
d) D B C A nitrogen
c) at very low temperature of -196 by using
4. The time duration for sterilization process liquid nitrogen
by using autoclave is ______ minutes and d) at very low temperature by using liquid
the temperature is _______ nitrogen
a) 10 to 30 minutes and 125° C 10. Solidifying agent used in plant tissue
b) 15 to 30 minutes and 121° C culture is
c) 15 to 20 minutes and 125° C a) Nicotinic acid b) Cobaltous chloride
d) 10 to 20 minutes and 121° C c) EDTA d) Agar

5. Which of the following statement is correct 11. What is the name of the process given
below? Write its 4 types.
a) Agar is not extracted from marine algae
such as seaweeds. 8QGLIIHUHQWLDWHG
%XG &DOOXVIRUPHG
/HDI 7LVVXHVDPSOH
b) Callus undergoes differentiation and
6WHP
produces somatic embryoids.
c) Surface sterilization of explants is done 5RRW
&DOOXV

&DOOXVVHSDUDWHG
by using mercuric bromide DQGVLQJOHFHOO
FXOWXUHG
)XUWKHUFXOWXULQJ
UHJHQHUDWHGQHZ

d) PH of the culture medium is 5.0 to 6.0 SODQWOHW

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12. How will you avoid the growing of Glossary

microbes in nutrient medium during
Aseptic condition: Preparation of materials
culture process? What are the techniques
free from microbes in in vitro cultures.
used to remove the microbes?
13. Write the various steps involved in cell Cell Culture: Growing of cells in vitro, including
suspension culture. the culture of single cells or small aggregates of
14. What do you mean Embryoids? Write its cells in a liquid medium.
application.
Chemically defined medium: A nutritive
15. Give the examples for micro propagation
medium used for culturing cells or tissue; each
performed plants .
chemical of this medium is known and defined;
16. Explain the basic concepts involved in
plant tissue culture. Cybrid: Cytoplasmic hybrid obtained by
17. Based on the material used, how will you the fusion of cytoplasm of cells of different
classify the culture technology? Explain it. parental sources; a term applied to the fusion of
18. Give an account on Cryopreservation. cytoplasms of two different protoplasts;
19. What do you know about Germplasm Organogenesis: The process of initiation and
conservation. Describe it. development of shoot or root though in vitro
20. Write the protocol for artificial seed culture particularly from callus
preparation.

APPENDIX

Composition of MS(Murashige and Skoog) Medium

Macronutrients: Iron stock

Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) 1650.0 mg/l Na EDTA 37.25 mg/l
Potassium nitrate (KNO3) 1900.0 mg/l Ferrous Sulphate (FeSO4 7H2O) 27.85 mg/l
Calcium chloride (CaCl2 2H2O) 440.0 mg/l
Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4 6H2O) 370.0 mg/l
Vitamins
Potassium dihydrogen phosphate
Glycine 2.0 mg/l
(KH2PO4) 170.0 mg/l
Nicotinic acid 0.5 mg/l
Pyridoxin HCl 0.5 mg/l
Micronutrients: Thaiamine HCl 0.1 mg/l
Manganese sulphate (MnSO4 4H2O) 22.3 mg/l
Zinc sulphate (ZnSO4 4H2O) 8.6 mg/l Growth Hormones
Boric acid (H3BO3)  6.2 mg/l IAA 1.30 mg/l
Potassium iodide (KI) 0.83 mg/l Kinetin 0.4–10.0 mg/l
Myo-inositol 100.0 mg/l
Minor nutrient: Sucrose 30.0 g/l
Sodium molybdate (Na2 MO4 2H2O)0.250 mg/l
Cupric sulphate (CuSO4 5H2O) 0.025 mg/l
Solidifying Agent
Cobaltous chloride (CoCl2 6H2O) 0.025 mg/l
Agar 8.0 g/l

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3) Mesophytes 4) Epiphytes and 5) Halophytes. a) i, ii, and iii only b) ii, iii and iv
The dissemination of seeds and fruits to various c) ii and iii only d) i and ii only
distances from the parent plant is called seed 5. Which of the given plant produces cardiac
and fruit dispersal. It takes place with the help glycosides?
of ecological factors such as wind, water and a) Calotropis b) Acacia
animals.
c) Nepenthes d) Utricularia
Evaluation 6. Read the given statements and select the
1. 
Arrange the correct correct option.
sequence of ecological i) Loamy soil is best suited for plant growth as
hierarchy starting from it contains a mixture of silt, sand and clay.
lower to higher level. ii) The process of humification is slow in
a) Individual organism → case of organic remains containing a
Population Landscape large amount of lignin and cellulose.
→ Ecosystem iii) 
Capillary water is the only water
b) Landscape → Ecosystem → Biome → available to plant roots as it is present
Biosphere inside the micropores.
c) community → Ecosystem → Landscape → iv) Leaves of shade plant have more total
Biome chlorophyll per reaction centre, low
d) Population → organism → Biome → ratio of chl a and chl b are usually
Landscape thinner leaves.
2. Ecology is the study of an individual species a) i, ii and iii only b) ii, iii and iv only
is called c) i, ii and iv only d) ii and iii only
i) Community ecology ii) Autecology 7. Read the given statements and select the
iii) Species ecology iv) Synecology correct option.
a) i only b) ii only Statement A : Cattle do not graze on weeds
c) i and iv only d) ii and iii only of Calotropis.

3. A specific place in an ecosystem, where an Statement B : Calotropis have thorns and

organism lives and performs its functions is spines, as defense against herbivores.
a) habitat b) niche a) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
c) landscape d) biome b) Statement A is correct but statement B is
incorrect.
4. Read the given statements and select the c) Both statements A and B are correct but
correct option. statement B is not the correct explanation
i)  Hydrophytes possess aerenchyma to of statement A.
support themselves in water. d) Both statements A and B are correct and
ii) Seeds of Viscum are positively statement B is the correct explanation of
photoblastic as they germinate only in statement A.
presence of light.
iii) Hygroscopic water is the only soil water 8. In soil water available for plants is
available to roots of plant growing in soil a) gravitational water
as it is present inside the micropores. b) chemically bound water
iv) High temperature reduces use of water c) capillary water
and solute absorption by roots. d) hygroscopic water

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9. Read the following statements and fill up A B C D

the blanks with correct option. a) (+) Parasitism (-) Amensalism
 i) Total soil water content in soil is called b) (-) Mutalism (+) Competition
_________________
c) (+) Competition (0) Mutalism
ii) Soil water not available to plants is called d) (0) Amensalism (+) Parasitism
_________________
iii) Soil water available to plants is called 13. Ophrys an orchid resembling the female of
_________________ an insect so as to able to get pollinated is
(i) (ii) (iii) due to phenomenon of
(a) Holard Echard Chresard a) Myrmecophily
(b) Echard Holard Chresard
b) Ecological equivalents
(c) Chresard Echard Holard
(d) Holard Chresard Echard c) Mimicry
d) None of these
10. 
Column I represent the size of the soil
particles and Column II represents type of 14. A free living nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium
soil components. Which of the following which can also form symbiotic association
is correct match for the Column I and with the water fern Azolla
Column IL
a) Nostoc b) Anabaena
Column - I Column - II
c) chlorella d) Rhizobium
I). 0.2 to 2.00 mm i) Slit soil
II) Less than 0.002 mm ii) Clayey soil
15. Pedogenesis refers to
III) 0.002 to 0.02 mm iii) Sandy soil
a) Fossils b) Water c) Population d) Soil
IV) 0.002 to 0.2 mm iv) Loamy soil
I II III IV 16. Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by
a) ii iii iv i a) Serving as a plant growth regulators
b) iv i iii ii
b) Absorbing inorganic ions from soil
c) iii ii i iv
d) None of the above c) Helping the plant in utilizing atmospheric
nitrogen
11. The plant of this group are adapted to live
partly in water and partly above substratum d) Protecting the plant from infection
and free from water
a) Xerophytes b) Mesophytes 17. In a fresh water environment like pond,
c) Hydrophytes d) Halophytes rooted autotrophs are
a) Nymphaea and typha
12 . Identify the A, B, C and D in the given table
Effects on Effects on b) Ceratophyllum and Utricularia
Interaction
species X species Y c) Wolffia and pistia
Mutualism A (+)
d) Azolla and lemna
B (+) (-)
Competition (-) C
D (-) 0

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18. Match the following and choose the correct from agricultural soils because tilling, e.g.,
combination from the options given below: plowing, buries organic matter. Why is an
Column I Column II organic horizon generally absent in desert
(Interaction) (Examples) soils ?
I. Mutualism i). T
 richoderma and 29. Soil formation can be initiated by biological
Penicillium organisms. Explain how?
II. Commensalism ii). B
 alanophora,
30. Sandy soil is not suitable for cultivation.
Orobanche
Explain why?
III. Parasitism iii). Orchids and Ferns
IV. Predation iv). L ichen and 31. Describe the mutual relationship between
Mycorrhiza the fig and wasp and comment on
V. Amensalism v). N epenthes and the phenomenon that operates in this
Diaonaea relationship.

I II III IV V 32. Lichen is considered as a good example of

a) i ii iii iv v obligate mutualism. Explain.
b) ii iii iv v i 33. 
What is mutualism? Mention any two
c) iii iv v i ii example where the organisms involved
d) iv iii ii v i are commercially exploited in modern
agriculture.
19. Sticky glands of Boerhaavia and Cleome
34. List any two adaptive features evolved in
support
parasites enabling them to live successfully
a) Anemochory b) Zoochory
on their host?
c) Autochory d) Hydrochory
35. 
Mention any two significant roles of
20. Define ecology. predation plays in nature.
21. 
What is ecological hierarchy? Name the 36. 
How does an orchid ophrys ensures its
levels of ecological hierarchy. pollination by bees ?
22. What are ecological equivalents? Give one 37. Water is very essential for life. Write any
example . three features for plants which enable them
23. Distinguish habitat and niche to survive in water scarce environment.

24. 
Why are some organisms called as 38. 
Why do submerged plants receive weak
eurythermals and some others as illumination than exposed floating plants
stenohaline ? in a lake?

25. ‘Green algae are not likely to be found in the 39. 

What is vivipary? Name a plant group
deepest strata of the ocean’. Give at least one which exhibits vivipary.
reason.
40. 
What is thermal stratification? Mention
26. What is Phytoremediation ? their types.

27. What is Albedo effect and write their effects? 41. 

How is rhytidome act as the structural
defence by plants against fire?
28. 
The organic horizon is generally absent

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42. What is myrmecophily? Hekistotherms: (Temperature less than 7°C)

Where very low temperature prevails and the
43. What is seed ball?
dominant vegetation is alpine vegetation.
44. How is anemochory differ from zoochory?
Landscape: The visible features of an area of
45. What is co evolution? land.

46. 
Explain Raunkiaer classification in the Lianes: Twining vines with woody stems,
world’s vegetation based on the temperature. common in forest of warm climate.

47. List out the effects of fire to plants. Megatherms: (Temperature more than 24°C)
Where high temperature prevails throughout
48. What is soil profile? Explain the characters
the year and the dominant vegetation is tropical
of different soil horizons.
rain forest.
49. 
Give an account of various types of
Mesotherms: (Temperature ranges between
parasitism with examples.
17°C and 24°C) Where high temperature
50. Explain different types of hydrophytes with alternates with low temperature and the
examples. dominant vegetation is tropical deciduous
forest.
51. Enumerate the anatomical adaptations of
xerophytes. Microtherms: (Temperature ranges between
7°C and 17°C) Where low temperature
52. List out any five morphological adaptations prevails and the dominant vegetation is mixed
of halophytes. coniferous forest.
53. What are the advantages of seed dispersal? Population: A group of individuals of a single
54. 
Describe dispersal of fruit and seeds by species.
animals. Scotoactive type of stomata: Stomata opens
Glossary during night in succulent plants and closes
during the day.
Antibiosis: An association of two organisms
which is harmful to one of them. Vivipary: When seeds or embryos begin to
develop before they detach from the parent.
Biome: A major regional community of
plants and animals with similar life forms and
environmental conditions.

Biosphere: The envelope containing all living

organisms on earth.

Community: A group of organism living in the

same place.

Flora: The kinds of plants in region

Frugivores: Fruit eating organisms

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Summary vegetation, Riparian vegetation, Aquatic

The interaction between biotic and abiotic and semi aquatic vegetation). According to
components in an environment is called Champion and Seth (1968), forest vegetation
ecosystem. Autotrophs and heterotrophs are of India and Tamil Nadu has been classified in
the producers and consumers respectively. to 16 and 9 types respectively.
The function of ecosystem refers to creation of Evaluation
energy, flow of energy and cycling of nutrients. I Choose the most suitable
The amount of light available for photosynthesis answer from the given
is called Photo synthetically Active Radiation . four alternatives and write
It is essential for increase in the productivity the option code and the
of ecosystem. The rate of biomass production corresponding answer.
per unit area /time is called productivity. It is 1. 
Which of the following is not a abiotic
classified as primary productivity, secondary component of the ecosystem?
productivity and community productivity. a) Bacteria
The transfer of energy in an ecosystem can be b) Humus
termed as energy flow. It is explained through c) Organic compounds
the food chain, food web , ecological pyramids d) Inorganic compounds
( pyramid of number, biomass and energy )
and biogeochemical cycle. Cycling of nutrients 2. Which of the following is / are not a natural
between abiotic and biotic components is ecosystem?
evident in the pond ecosystem, making itself a) Forest ecosystem
self sufficient and self regulating Ecosystem b) Rice field
protected for the welfare of posterity is called c) Grassland ecosystem
ecosystem management. d) Desert ecosystem

Successive replacement of one type of plant 3. Pond is a type of

community by the other of the same area/ a) forest ecosystem
place is known as plant succession. The first b) grassland ecosystem
invaded plants in a barren (nude) area are called c) marine ecosystem
pioneers (pioneers communities). On the other d) fresh water ecosystem
hand, a series of transitional developments 4. Pond ecosystem is
of plant communities one after another in a) not self sufficient and self regulating
a given area are called seral communities. b) partially self sufficient and self regulating
Succession is classified as primary succession, c) self sufficient and not self regulating
secondary succession, allogeneic succession d) self sufficient and self regulating
and autotrophic succession. Plant succession 5. 
Profundal zone is predominated by
is classified in to hydrosere (Initiating on a heterotrophs in a pond ecosystem, because of
water bodies) ,Mesosere and xerosere. Further a) with effective light penetration
xerosere is subdivided in to Lithosere ( Initiating b) no effective light penetration
on a barren rock), Halosere and Pasmmosere. c) complete absence of light
Vegetation refers to the plant cover of d) a and b
an area. Geographically, India and Tamil 6. 
Solar energy used by green plants for
Nadu show tropical climate. Hence it has photosynthesis is only
rich vegetation (Forest vegetation, Grassland
a) 2 – 8% b) 2 – 10%

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c) 3 – 10% d) 2 – 9% d) pyramid of biomass in a pond ecosystem

7. Which of the following ecosystem has the 12. Which of the following is / are not the
highest primary productivity? mechanism of decomposition
a) Pond ecosystem a) Eluviation b) Catabolism
b) Lake ecosystem c) Anabolism d) Fragmentation
c) Grassland ecosystem
13. Which of the following is not a
d) Forest ecosystem
sedimentary cycle
8. Ecosystem consists of a) Nitrogen cycle b) Phosphorous cycle
a) decomposers b) producers c) Sulphur cycle d) Calcium cycle
c) consumers d) all of the above 14. Which of the following are not regulating
9. Which one is in descending order of a food services of ecosystem services
chain i) Genetic resources
a) Producers  Secondary consumers ii) Recreation and aesthetic values
 Primary consumers  Tertiary iii) Invasion resistance
consumers iv) Climatic regulation
b) Tertiary consumers  Primary a) i and iii b) ii and iv
consumers  Secondary consumers  c) i and ii d) i and iv
Producers 15. Productivity of profundal zone will be low.
c) Tertiary consumers  Secondary Why?
consumers  Primary consumers  16. Discuss the gross primary productivity is
Producers more efficient than net primary productivity.
d) Tertiary consumers  Producers  17. Pyramid of energy is always upright. Give
Primary consumers  Secondary reasons
consumers
18. Write some plants are found in sub alpine
10. Significance of food web is / are forest.
a) it does not maintain stability in nature 19. What will happen if all producers are
b) it shows patterns of energy transfer removed from ecosystem?
c) it explains species interaction
20. Construct the food chain with the following
d) b and c
data.
11. The following diagram represents Hawk, plants, frog, snake, grasshopper.
T4
21. Name of the food chain which is generally
present in all type of ecosystem. Explain and
T3
write their significance.
T2 22. Shape of pyramid in a particular ecosystem
is always different in shape. Explain with
example.
T1
23. Generally human activities are against to the
a) pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem, where as you a student how will
ecosystem you help to protect ecosystem?
b) pyramid of number in a pond ecosystem 24. Generally in summer the forest are affected
c) pyramid of number in a forest ecosystem by natural fire. Over a period of time it

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recovers itself by the process of successions . Food web: Interlocking pattern of food chain
Find out the types of succession and explain.
Pyramid of number: Refers number of
25. Draw a pyramid from following details and organisms in a successive trophic level
explain in brief.
Quantities of organisms are given-Hawks-50, Pyramid of biomass: Refers to quantitative
plants-1000.rabbit and mouse-250 +250, relationship of the standing crops
pythons and lizard- 100 + 50 respectively. Pyramid of energy: Refers transformation of
26. Various stages of succession are given bellow. energy at successive trophic levels
From that rearrange them accordingly. Find
Ten per cent law: refers only 10 per cent of
out the type of succession and explain in
energy is stored in each successive trophic levels
detail.

Reed-swamp stage, phytoplankton stage, Bio geo chemical cycle: Exchange of nutrients
shrub stage, submerged plant stage, forest between organisms and environments
stage, submerged free floating stage, marsh
Carbon cycle: Circulation of carbon among
medow stage.
organisms and environments
Glossary Guano: It is a accumulated excrement of sea
Ecosystem: Study of interaction between living birds and bats.
and non-living components
Phosphorus cycle: Circulation of Phosphorus
Standing quality: Total inorganic substances among organisms and environments
presents in any ecosystem at a given time and
Succession: Successive replacement of one type
given area
of plant communities by other on barren or
Standing crops: Amount of living material disturbed area.
present in a population at any time.
Pioneers: Invaded plants on barren area
Biomass: Can be measured as fresh weight or
Primary succession: Plants colonising on
dry weight of organisms
barren area
Benthic: Bottom zone of the pond
Secondary succession: Plants colonising on
Trophic: Refers to the position of organisms in disturbed area.
food chain
Climax communities: Final establishment of
Omnivores: Those eats both plants and animals plant communities which are not replaced by
others.
Food chain: Refers movement of energy from
producers up to top carnivores

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Evaluation a) N2O and CO2 b) CFCs and N2O

1. Which of the following c) CH4 and CO2 d) CH4 and CFCS
would most likely help to 6. One of the chief reasons among the following
slow down the greenhouse for the depletion in the number of species
effect. making endangered is
a) Converting tropical a) over hunting and poaching
forests into grazing land for cattle. b) green house effect
b) Ensuring that all excess paper packaging c) competition and predation
is buried to ashes. d) habitat destruction
c) 
Redesigning landfill dumps to allow 7. Deforestation means
methane to be collected. a) growing plants and trees in an area where
d) Promoting the use of private rather than there is no forest
public transport. b) growing plants and trees in an area where
2. With respect to Eichhornia the forest is removed
Statement A: It drains off oxygen from water c) growing plants and trees in a pond
and is seen growing in standing water. d) removal of plants and trees
Statement B: It is an indigenous species of 8. Deforestation does not lead to
our country. a) Quick nutrient cycling
a) Statement A is correct and Statement B is b) soil erosion
wrong. c) alternation of local weather conditions
b) Both Statements A and B are correct. d) Destruction of natural habitat weather
c) Statement A is correct and Statement B is conditions
wrong.
d) Both statements A and B are wrong. 9. The unit for measuring ozone thickness
a) Joule b) Kilos
3. Find the wrongly matched pair. c) Dobson d) Watt
a) Endemism - Species confined to a
10. The lake which was built in British era and is
region and not found
near the Indian Army Base
anywhere else.
a) Veeranam lake
b) Hotspots - Western ghats
b) Maduranthagam lake
c) Ex-situ
c) Sholavaram lake
Conservation - Zoological parks
d) Chembrambakkam lake
d) Sacred groves - Saintri hills of Rajasthan
11. 
People’s movement for the protection of
e) Alien sp.
environment in Sirsi of Karnataka is
Of India - Water hyacinth
a) Chipko movement
4. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere b) Amirtha Devi Bishwas movement
can lead to an increased incidence of skin c) Appiko movement
cancer? d) None of the above
a) Ammonia b) Methane 12. 
The invasive species introduced in India
c) Nitrous oxide d) Ozone from South America
5. One green house gas contributes 20% of total a) Lantana b) Prosopis
global warming and another contributes c) Parthenium d) Kappaphycus
60%. These are respectively identified as

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13. The plants which are grown in silivpasture Glossary

system are
Algae Blooms: Sudden sprout of algae growth,
a) Sesbania and Acacia
which can affect the water quality adversely and
b) Solanum and Crotalaria indicate potentially hazardous changes in local
c) Clitoria and Begonia water chemistry.
d) Teak and sandal
Atmosphere: A major regional community of
14. 
IUCN red list categories has developed plants and animals with similar life forms and
criteria for threatened species. The criteria environmental conditions.
‘C’ refers to
Biodegradable waste: Organic waste, typically
a) Geographic range
coming from a plant or animal sources, which
b) Quantitiative analysis
other living organisms can break done.
c) Small population size and decline
d) population reduction Biosphere: The portion of earth and its
atmosphere that can support life.
15. What is ozone hole?
Effluent: Liquid waste such as sewage and
16. Give four examples of plants cultivated in liquid waste from industries.
commercial agroforestry.
Landfill: A site that is specially designed to
17. What are agrochemicals? dispose of waste and operates with a license
18. Expand CCS. granted by the Environmental Protection
Agency (EPA).
19. How do forests help in maintaining the
climate? Oil spill: The harmful release of oil into the
environment, usually through water, which is
20. 
How do sacred groves help in the
very difficult to clean up and often kills, birds,
conservation of biodiversity? fish and other wildlife.
21. Which one gas is most abundant out of Radiation: A form of energy that is transmitted
the four commonest greenhouse gases? in waves, rays or particles from a natural source
Discuss the effect of this gas on the growth such as the sun and the ground or an artificial
of plants? source such as an X-ray machine.
22. 
Distinguish between endangered, Radioactive: A materials is said to be radioactive
vulnerable and rare species. if it emits radiation.
23. 
Suggest a solution to water crisis and Recycle:To break waste items done into their
explain its advantages. raw materials, which are then used to remake
24. Explain afforestation with case studies. the original item or to make new items.

25. What are the effects of deforestation and Sewage: Liquid waste from communities which
benefits of agroforesty? may be a mixture of domestic effluent from
homes, and liquid waste from industries.
Sustainable development: Development using
hand of energy sources in a way that meets the
needs of people today without reducing the
ability in future generation to meet their own
needs.

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Environmental Issues

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9.9.3. Seed Certification in concrete / cement silos or metal or plastic

Seed certification is a legally sanctioned system drums. In modern methods of storage we have
for quality control of seed multiplication and cryo preservation, gene bank and Svalbard
production. The purpose of this certification is seed bank for long time seed storage.
to maintain the seeds and make them available
to the public. Through certification, high quality Evaluation
seeds and propagating materials of notified kind
and variety are grown and distributed to ensure 1. Assertion: Genetic
genetic identity and purity. variation provides the
raw material for selection
Summary Reason: Genetic
Economic Botany deals with the variations are differences
relationship between people and economically in genotypes of the individuals.
important plants to fulfill the three basic a) Assertion is right and reason is wrong.
needs of life such as food, clothing and b) Assertion is wrong and reason is right.
shelter. Domestication, a term often used for c) Both reason and assertion is right.
a more intricate process, involves the genetic d) Both reason and assertion is wrong.
alteration of plants which did not appear at
2. While studying the history of
once, but rather over a substantial period of
domestication of various cultivated plants
time, perhaps hundreds of years for some
_______ were recognized earlier
species. In the history of agriculture Vavilov
has given the eight main centres of origin of a) Centres of origin
plants were now divided into 12 centres of b) Centres of domestication
origin. In Organic agriculture biofertilizers c) Centres of hybrid
are microbial inoculants which all ecofriendly, d) Centres of variation
more effective even though cost effective than 3. Pick out the odd pair.
chemical fertilizers. Rhizobium, Azolla, VAM a) Mass selection - Morphological
and sea weeds are used as fertilizers which characters
increase the crop yield many fold.
b) Purline selection - Repeated self
Plant breeding is a purposeful pollination
manipulation of plant species in order to c) Clonal selection - Sexually propagated
create desirable genotype and phenotype for d) Natural selection - Involves nature
the benefit of mankind. Plant introduction,
selection, hybridization, heterosis, mutation 4. Match Column I with Column II
breeding, polyploidy breeding and green Column I Column II
revolution are the different methods of i) William S. Gaud I) Heterosis
conventional breeding.
ii) Shull II) Mutation breeding
Seed is an important part of the plant as iii) Cotton Mather III) Green revolution
it gives the food for future generation, so it
iv) Muller and Stadler IV) Natural
should be carefully protected and stored. Seed
hybridization
hardening, seed treatment, seed pelleting,
seed coating and bio priming of seeds are the a) i – I, ii – II, iii – III, iv – IV
modern methods of seed protection. Seeds are b) i – III, ii – I, iii – IV, iv – II
stored in bamboo structure, mud or earthen
c) i – IV, ii – II, iii – I, iv – IV
structure in conventional method of storage.
In villages, the farmers store the entire seeds d) i – II, ii – IV, iii – III, iv – I

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5. The quickest method of plant breeding is 14. Match column I (crop) with column II
a) Introduction b) Selection (Corresponding disease resistant variety)
c) Hybridization d) Mutation breeding and select the correct option from the
given codes.
6. Desired improved variety of economically
Column I Column II
useful crops are raised by
I) Cowpea i) Himgiri
a) Natural Selection b) hybridization
II) Wheat ii) Pusa komal
c) mutation d) biofertilisers
III) Chilli iii) Pusa Sadabahar
7. Plants having similar genotypes produced IV) Brassica iv) Pusa Swarnim
by plant breeding are called
I II III IV
a) clone b) haploid
a) iv iii ii i
c) autopolyploid d) genome
b) ii i iii iv
8. Importing better varieties and plants from c) ii iv i iii
outside and acclimatising them to local d) i iii iv ii
environment is called
15. A wheat variety, Atlas 66 which has been
a) cloning b) heterosis
used as a donor for improving cultivated
c) selection d) introduction
wheat, which is rich in
9. Dwarfing gene of wheat is a) iron b) carbohydrates
a) pal 1 b) Atomita 1 c) proteins d) vitamins
c) Norin 10 d) pelita 2
16. Which one of the following crop varieties
10. Crosses between the plants of the same correct matches with its resistance to a
variety are called disease?
a) interspecific b) inter varietal
Variety Resistance to disease
c) intra varietal d) inter generic
a) Pusa Komal Bacterial blight
11. Progeny obtained as a result of repeat self b) Pusa Sadabahar White rust
pollination a cross pollinated crop to called
c) Pusa Shubhra Chilli mosaic virus
a) pure line b) pedigree line
d) Brassica Pusa swarnim
c) inbreed line d) heterosis
17. Which of the following is incorrectly
12. Jaya and Ratna are the semi dwarf varieties of paired?
a) wheat b) rice a) Wheat - Himgiri
c) cowpea d) mustard b) Milch breed - Sahiwal
13. Which one of the following are the species c) Rice - Ratna
that are crossed to give sugarcane varieties d) Pusa Komal - Brassica
with high sugar, high yield, thick stems
18. Match list I with list II
and ability to grow in the sugarcane belt of
North India? List I List II
a) Saccharum robustum and Saccharum Biofertilizer Organisms
officinarum i) Free living N2 a) Aspergillus
b) Saccharum barberi and Saccharum ii) Symbiotic N2 b) Amanita
officinarum iii) P Solubilizing c) Anabaena azollae
c) S accharum sinense and Saccharum iv) P Mobilizing d) Azotobactor
officinarum
d) Saccharum barberi and Saccharum a. ic, iia, iiib, ivd b. id, iic, iiia, ivb.
robustum c. ia, iic, iiib, ivd c. ib, iia, iiid, ivc.

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19. List the ways by which seeds can be stored a changed environment over a number of
for longer duration. generations.
20. Differentiate primary introduction from Agronomy : Science of farming
secondary introduction.
21. How are microbial innoculants used to Certified seed : Seed produced from the
increase the soil fertility? foundation or certified seed under the regulation
of a legally constituted agency.
22. Discuss the importance of neem in seed
storage? Germplasm Collection : The entire collection
23. What are the different types of (of plants / seeds) having all the diverse alleles
hybridization? for all genes in a given crop is called germplasm
collection.
24. Explain the best suited type followed by
plant breeders at present? Non recurrent parent : The parent of a hybrid
25. Write a note on heterosis. that is not again used as a parent in backcrossing
26. List out the new breeding techniques Pure-Line: Progeny of a single self-fertilised
involved in developing new traits in plant homozygous individual.
breeding.
Quarantine : Strict isolation imposed to prevent
Glossary the spread of disease
Acclimatization : The adaptation of an Strain : A group of similar individuals from a
individual to a changed climate or the common origin.
adjustment of a species or a population to

APPENDIX

Vavilov’s Centre of Crop Origin Crops domesticated

1 China Foxtail millet, soybean, bamboo, onion, crucifers.

2 India Rice, sugarcane, mango, orange, eggplant, sesame.

2a South East Asia Rice, banana, coconut, clove , hemp.

3 Central East Wheat, pea, hemp, cotton etc.

4 The Near East Wheat, rye, many subtropical and tropical fruits.

5 Mediterranean Olive, vegetables, oil yielding plants, wheats

6 Ethiopia (Abyssinian) Wheat, barley, sesame, castor, coffee.

7 Mesoamerica (South Mexican & Maize, bean, sweet potato, papaya, guava, tobacco.
Central American Centre)
8 South America Tomato, pine-apple

8a The Chiloe Centre Potato

8b The Brazilian –Paraguayan Centre Groundnut, cashew nut, pine apple, peppers, rubber.

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filling fibres. Cotton, Jute and Coconut are Evaluation

fibre yielding plants. Teak, Rosewood, and 1. 
Consider the following
Ebony are woods used for making furniture. statements and choose
Rubber is produced from the latex of Hevea the right option.
brasiliensis. Paper production is a Chinese
i) Cereals are members of
invention. Dyes have been used since ancient
grass family.
times. Indigo was extracted from the leaves
ii) 
Most of the food grains come from
of Indigofera. The orange dye henna is from
monocotyledon.
the leaves of Lawsonia. Cosmetics have a high
a) (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong
commercial value and have become chemical
b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
based industrial products. Perfumes are
c) (i) is wrong and (ii) is correct
volatile and aromatic in nature, manufactured
d) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
from essential oils which are found at different
parts of the plant. Medicinal plants serve 2. Assertion: Vegetables are important part of
as therapeutic agents. Medicinally useful healthy eating.
molecules obtained from these plants are Reason: Vegetables are succulent structures
marketed as drugs are called Biomedicines. of plants with pleasant aroma and flavours.
Whereas phytochemicals from some of the a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
plants which alter an individual’s perceptions
b) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
of mind by producing hallucination are
known as psychoactive drugs. Thus plantsplay c) Both are correct and reason is the correct
a vital role in the lives of people throughout explanation for assertion.
the world. d) Both are correct and reason is not the
Entrepreneurial Botany is the study of how new correct explanation for assertion.
businesses are created using plant resources
3. Groundnut is native of _____________
as well as the actual process of starting a new
a) Philippines b) India
business. Mushrooms are the fruiting body of
edible fungi and is the most priced commodity c) North America d) Brazil
among vegetables.
4. Statement A: Coffee contains caffeine
Single-cell proteins are the dried cells
Statement B: Drinking coffee enhances cancer
of microorganism, which are used as protein
supplement in human foods or animal feeds. a) A is correct, B is wrong
Microorganisms like algae, fungi, yeast and b) A and B – Both are correct
bacteria are used for this purpose. c) A is wrong, B is correct
A terrarium is a collection of small plants d) A and B – Both are wrong
growing in a transparent, sealed container.
Bonsai is the art and science of dwarfing and 5. This is an example of brush fibre yielding plant
shaping of a tree. Specialty materials like a) Cyperus b) Neem
essential oils and pharmaceuticals, are obtained c) Cotton d) Palm
from plants. Many species of medicinal and
6. Tectona grandis is coming under family
aromatic plants (MAPs) are cultivated for such
a) Lamiaceae b) Fabaceae
industrial uses, but most are still wild collected.
c) Dipterocaipaceae e) Ebenaceae

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7. Tamarindus indica is indigenous to Statement I: The drug sources of Siddha

a) Tropical African region include plants, animal parts, ores and
minerals.
b) South India, Sri Lanka Statement II: Minerals are used for
c) South America, Greece preparing drugs with long shelf-life.
d) India alone a) Statement I is correct
b) Statement II is correct
8. New world species of cotton
c) Both statements are correct
a) Gossipium arboretum
d) Both statements are wrong
b) G.herbaceum
c) Both a and b 14. Select the mismatch.
d) G.barbadense a) Andrographis – hepato protective
b) Adhatada – broncho dialator
9. Assertion: Turmeric fights various kinds
c) Phyllanthus – anti-diabetic
of cancer
d) Curcumin – anti-oxidant
Reason: Curcumin is an anti-oxidant
present in turmeric 15. 
The active principle trans-tetra hydro
a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong canabial is present in
b) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct a) Opium b) Curcuma
c) Both are correct c) Marijuana d) Andrographis
d) Both are wrong 16. 
Which one of the following matches is
10. Find out the correctly matched pair. correct?
a) Rubber Shorea robusta a) Palmyra - Native of Brazil
b) Dye Indigofera annecta b) Saccharum - Abundant in Kanyakumari
c) Timber Cyperus papyrus c) Steveocide - Natural sweetener
d) Pulp Hevea brasiliensis d) Palmyra sap - Fermented to give ethanol

11. Find out the wrongly paired one 17. 

The only cereal that has originated and
a) Burma teak Tectona grandis domesticated from the New world.
b) Rosewood Dalbergia sp. a) Oryza sativa b)Triticum asetumn
c) Ebony Diaspyros eberum c) Triticum duram d) Zea mays
d) Henna Shorea robusta
18. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
12. Observe the following statements and pick correct?
out the right option from the following: i. Mushrooms are the fruiting body of edible
Statement I – Perfumes are manufactured fungi.
from essential oils. ii. Single-cell proteins are the dried cells of
Statement II – Essential oils are formed at macro organism.
different parts of the plants. iii. Regular use of liquid seaweed
a) Statement I is correct fertilizer will help plants to withstand
b) Statement II is correct environmental stress.
c) Both statements are correct iv. SCP can completely replace the
d) Both statements are wrong conventional protein sources.
13. Observe the following statements and pick A. (i) and (ii), B. (i) and (iii),
out the right option from the following: C. (i) and (iv), D. (i) alone

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19. Select the incorrect pair/pairs of statements 28. N

 ame the humors that are responsible for
about single cell protein the health of human beings.
i. Chemical pesticides - Safe for human and 29. Give definitions for organic farming?
the environment 30. Define bonsai?
ii. Mushrooms - White vegetable
31. What is terrarium?
iii. Zarrouk medium- Culture medium
32. W
 hich is called as the “King of Bitters”?
iv. Seaweed - Rich in potassium
Mention their medicinal importance.
A. (i) and (ii), B. (i) and (iv),
C. (i) and (iii), D. (i) alone 33. D
 ifferentiate bio-medicines and botanical
medicines.
20. Match the following pairs about mushroom 34. W
 rite the origin and area of cultivation of
cultivation. green gram and red gram.
A. Straw size (i) 75-85% 35. W
 hat are millets? What are its types? Give
B. Distant between blocks (ii) 20 cm example for each type.
C. Cap size at harvesting (iii) 2-4 inch 36. W
 rite the economic importance of
D. Relative humidity (iv) 10-12 cm Lycopersicon esculentum.
A. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) 37. I f a person drinks a cup of coffee daily it
B. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) will help him for his health. Is this correct?
C. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) If it is correct, list out the benefits.
D. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) 38. Enumerate the uses of turmeric.

21. Assertion: In Spirulina culture, half of the 39. W

 hat is TSM? How does it classified and
required nutrie nts added first and the rest what does it focuses on?
in later. 40. What are the advantages of cultivation of
aromatic plants?
Reason: If all the nutrients are added first, it
will affect the culture growth. 41. How will you make a Bonsai tree
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the 42. What is NMPB?
correct explanation of A. 43. Write the uses of nuts you have studied.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the 44. G
 ive an account on the role of Jasminum
correct explanation of A. and Rosa in perfuming.
(c) A is true but R is false.
45. G
 ive an account of active principle and
(d) Both A and R are false.
medicinal values of any two plants you
22. Write the cosmetic uses of Aloe. have studied.
23. What is pseudo cereal? Give an example. 46. Write the economic importance of rice.
24. W
 hat are cucurbits? Why it is considered 47. W
 hich TSM is widely practiced and
as an important summer vegetable? culturally accepted in Tamil Nadu? -
25. W
 hich fruit is rich in potassium? Mention explain.
its economic importance. 48. W
 hat are psychoactive drugs? Add a note
26. D
 iscuss which wood is better for making Marijuana and Opium
furniture. 49. D
 escribe the types of fibres.
27. A
 person got irritation while applying 50. W
 hat are the King and Queen of spices?
chemical dye. What would be your Explain about them and their uses.
suggestion for alternative?

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51. H
 ow will you prepare an organic pesticide Aromatic crops: Plants that produce
for your home garden with the vegetables aromatic oils.
available from your kitchen?
Perfumery: The art or process of making
52. W
 hat will you do if you want to make a perfume
portable indoor greenery?
53. G
 ive an account on cultivation of Gloriosa Cosmetics: substances or products used foe
superba / Cymbopogon citrates personal grooming.

confectionary: a place where confections/

sweets are kept or made
Glossary
Anti-inflammatory: the property of a substance
Term: Description
or treatment that reduces swelling.
Lubricant: Oily substance reduces friction.
Alzheimer’s disease: A type of dementia that
Odour: Smell (pleasant or unpleasant). causes problems with memory, thinking and
behavior
Diuretic: Substance that promote urine
production Ethnobiology: Ethnobiology is the study of
relationships between peoples and plants.
Cirrhosis: A chronic liver disease typically
caused by alcoholism or hepatitis. Pharmacopoeia: Is a book containing directions
for the identification of compound medicines,
Antioxidant: A substance that scavenges free
and published by the authority of a government
radicals.
or a medical or pharmaceutical society.
Carminative: A drug causing expulsion of gas
Fixative: A substance used to reduce the
from the stomach or bowel.
evaporation rate and improve stability when
Malnutrition: Deficiencies, excesses or added to more volatile components.
imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and /
Antiperspirant: Products whose primary
or nutrients
function is to inhibit perspiration / sweat
Spawn: Mycelium especially prepared for
Seasoning: The processing of food with spices
propagating mushrooms
and condiments to enhance the flavour.

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Competitive Examination Questions

UNIT I – Diversity of Living World 10. Select the mismatch (NEET – 2017)
a. Pinus — Dioecious
1. Which of the following are found in extreme saline b. Cycas — Dioecious
conditions? (NEET-2017) c. Salvinia — Heterosporous
a. Archaebacteria b. Eubacteria d. Equisetum — Homosporous
c. Cyanobacteria d. Mycobacteria 11. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively
2. Select the mismatch (NEET – 2017) are (NEET – 2017)
a. Frankia Alnus a. Haplontic, Diplontic
b. Rhodospirillum Mycorrhiza b. Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
c. Anabaena Nitrogen fixer c. Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
d. Rhizobium Alfalfa d. Haplodiplontic, Halplontic
3. Which among the following are the smallest 12. Zygote meiosis is characterisitic of (NEET – 2017)
living cells, known without a definite cell wall, a. Marchantia b. Fucus
pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can c. Funaria d. Chlamydomonas
survive without oxygen? (NEET – 2017) 13. Which of the following is correctly matched for
a. Bacillus b. Pseudomonas the product produced by them? (NEET – 2017)
c. Mycoplasma d. Nostoc a. Acetobacter acetic : Antibiotics
4. Read the following statements ( A to E ) and select b. Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
the option with all correct statements (AIPMT – c. Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
2015) d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
A. Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to 14. Which of the following components provides
colonise a bare rock. sticky character to the bacterial cell? (NEET –
B. Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte. 2017)
C. Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM. a. Cell wall b. Nuclear membrane
D. Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, c. Plasma membrane d. Glycocalyx
whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic. 15. Which of the following statements is wrong for
E. In gymnosperms, male and female viroids? (NEET – 2016)
gametophytes are present within sporangia a. They lack a protein coat
located on sporophyte. b. They are smaller than viruses
a. B, C and E b. A, C and D c. They causes infections
c. B, C and D d. A, D and E d. Their RNA is a high molecular weight
5. An example of colonial alga is (NEET – 2017) 16. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of
a. Chlorella b. Volvox male gametes require (NEET – 2016)
c. Ulothrix d. Spirogyra a. Wind b. Insects c. Birds d. Water
6. Five kingdom system of classification 17. How many organisms in the list below are
suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on autotrophs? (AIPMT Mains 2012)
(AIPMT – 2014) Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas,
a. Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces,
b. Mode of reproduction Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolffia
c. Mode of nutrition a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Three
d. Complexity of body organisation 18. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer
7. Mycorrhizae are the example of (NEET – 2017) organisms on bare rocks? (NEET – 2016)
` a. Fungitasis c. Amensalism a. Lichens b. Liverworts
b. Antibiosis d. Mutualism c. Mosses d. Green algae
8. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand 19. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of
and capsomeres? (AIPMT – 2014) (NEET-2013)
a. Polio virus b. Tobacco mosaic virus a. Stamen and carpel on the same plant
c. Measles virus d. Retrovirus b. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on
9. Viroids differ from viruses in having : (NEET – 2017) the same plant
a. DNA molecules with protein coat c. Upper oogonium and lower antheridium
b. DNA molecules without protein coat on the same plant
c. RNA molecules with protein coat d. Antheridiophore and archegonio-phore on
d. RNA molecules without protein coat the same plant

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20. Read the following five statement (A-E) and answer 29. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the
as asked next to them (AIPMT Prelims – 2012) production of biogas from the dung of ruminant
a. In Equisetum, the female gametophyte animals, include the (NEET – 2016)
is retained on the parent sporophyte a. Halophiles b. Thermoacidophiles
b. In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not c. Methanogens d. Eubacteria
independent
UNIT II – Plant Morphology and Taxonomy of Angiosperm
c. The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed
than that in Polytrichum
1. Leaves become modified into spines in
d. Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous [AIPMT-2015]
e. The spores of slime moulds lack cell walls a. Silk Cotton b. Opuntia c. Pea d. Onion
How many of the above statement are correct? 2. Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of
(AIPMT Prelims – 2012) [AIPMT-2015]
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. One a. Tomato b. Tulip c. Indigofera d. Aloe
21 One of the major components of cell wall of most 3. Perigynous flowers are found in [AIPMT-2015]
fungi is (NEET – 2016)
a. Rose b. Guava c. Cucumber d. China rose
a. Chitin b. Peptidoglycan
4. Which one of the following statements is correct
c. Cellulose d. Hemicellulose [AIPMT-2014]
22. Which one of the following statements is wrong? a. The seed in grasses is not endospermic
(NEET – 2016)
b. Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
a. Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green
algae c. A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in
maize grain
b. Golden algae are also called desmids
d. A sterile pistil is called a staminode
c. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
5. An example of edible underground stem is
d. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi [AIPMT-2014]
23. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the a. Carrot b. Groundnut c. Sweet potato d. Potato
three of which one of the following sets?
(AIPMT Prelims – 2007 6. P
 lacenta and pericarp are both edible portions in
[AIPMT-2014]
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
a. Apple b. Banana c. Tomato d. Potato
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
7. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla one another without any particular direction, the
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis condition is termed as [AIPMT-2014]
24. Ectophloic siphonostele is found in (AIPMT a. Vexillary b. Imbricate c. Twisted d. Valvate
Prelims – 2005) 8. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from
a. Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae [AIPMT-2014]
b. Osmunda and Equisetum a. Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
c. Marsilea and Botrychium b. Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium
d. Dicksonia and maiden hair fern c. Complete inflorescence
25. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by d. Multicarpellary superior ovary
Meloidogyne incognita? (NEET – 2016) 9. Non-albuminous seed is produced in
a. Flower b. Leaf c. Stem d. Root [AIPMT-2014]
26. Select the correct statement (NEET – 2016) a. Maize b. Castor c. Wheat d. Pea
a. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and 10. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in [NEET-2013]
heterosporous a. Coconut b. Groundnut c. Gram d. Maize
b Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are 11. In china rose the flower are [NEET-2013]
gymnosperms a. Actinomorphic. Epigynous with valvate
c. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees aestivation
d. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well b.Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate
adapted to extremes of climate aestivation
27. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering c. Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted
plants involves the process of (NEET – 2016) aestivation
a. Sporulation b. Budding d. Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted
c. Somatic hybridization d. Apomixis aestivation
28. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and 12. Placentation in tomato and lemon is [AIPMT
Slime moulds are included in the kingdom Prelims-2012]
(NEET – 2016) a. Marginal b. Axile c. Parietal d. Free central
a. Animalia b, Monera c. Protista d. Fungi
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13. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family a. Virchow b. Hooke

[AIPMT Prelims-2012] c. Leeuwenhoek d. Robert Brown
a. Solanaceae b. Brassicaceae 4. 
Which of the following is responsible for the
c. Fabaceae d. Asteraceae mechanical support, protein synthesis and enzyme
14. Phyllode is present in [AIPMT Prelims-2012] transport (2007 AIIMS)
a. Australian Acacia b. Opuntia a. cell membrane
c. Asparagus d. Euphorbia b. mitochondria
15. How many plants in the list given below c. dictyosomes
have composite fruits that develop from an d. endoplasmic reticulum
inflorescence? Walnut, poppy, radish, pineapple, 5. Genes present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells
apple, tomato. [AIPMT Prelims-2012] are found in (2006 AIIMS)
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five a. mitochondria and inherited via egg cytoplasm
16. Cymose inflorescence is present in [AIPMT b. lysosomes and peroxisomes
Prelims-2012] c. Golgi bodies and smooth endoplasmic reticulum
a. Trifolium b. Brassica c. Solanum d. Sesbania d. Plastids inherited via male gametes
17. Which one of the following organism is correctly 6. In which one the following would you expect
matched with its three characteristics? [AIPMT to find glyoxysomes(2005 AIIMS)
Mains -2012] a. Endosperm of wheat
a. Pea : C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary b. endosperm of castor
aestivation c. Palisade cells in leaf
b. Tomato : Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, d. Root hairs
Berry
7. A quantosome is present in (JIPMER 2012)
c. Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile
a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplast
placentation
c. Golgi bodies d. ER
d. Maize : C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles,
scutellum 8. 
In mitochondria the enzyme cytochrome
oxidase is present in (2012 JIPMER)
18. How many plants in the list given below have
marginal placentation? a. Outer mitochondrial membrane
Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, sun
 b. inner mitochondrial membrane
hemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea, c. Stroma d. Grana
Tobacco, Lupin [AIPMT Mains -2012] 9. Which organelle is present in higher number
a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Three in secretory cell (2008 JIPMER)
19. The Eyes of the potato tuber are a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplast
[AIPMT Prelims-2011] c. Nucleus d. Dictyosomes
a. Axillary buds b. Root buds 10. Major site for the synthesis of lipids (2013
c. Flower buds d. Shoot buds NEET)
20. Which one of the following statements is correct? a. Rough ER b. smooth ER
[AIPMT Prelims-2011] c. Centriole d. Lysosome
a. Flower of tulip is a modified shoot 11. Golgi complex plays a major role in. (2013
b. In tomato, fruit is a capsule NEET)
c. Seeds of orchids have oil – rich endosperm a. post translational modification of proteins
d. Placentation in primrose is basal and glycosidation of lipids
21. A drup develops in [AIPMT Prelims-2011] b. translation of proteins
a. Tomato b. Mango c. Wheat d. Pea c. Transcription of proteins
d. Synthesis of lipid
UNIT III – Cell biology and Biomolecules 12. Main arena of various types of activities of a cell is
(2010 AIPMT)
1. 
Who invented electron microscope? (2010 a. Nucleus b. Mitochondria
AIIMS, 2008 JIPMER) c. Cytoplasm d. Chloroplast
a. Janssen b. Edison 13. The thylakoids in chloroplast are arranged in
c. Knoll and Ruska d. Landsteiner (2005 JIPMER)
2. Specific proteins responsible for the flow of a. regular rings b. linear array
materials and information into the cell are called c. diagonal direction d. stacked discs
(2009 AIIMS) 14. Sequences of which of the following is used
a. Membrane receptors b. carrier proteins to know the phylogeny (2002 JIPMER)
c. integeral proteins d. none of these a. mRNA b. rRNA c. tRNA d. Hn RNA
3. Omnis-cellula-e-cellula was given by (2007 AIIMS)

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15. Structures between two adjacent cells which is a. the presence of rays and fibres
an effective transport pathway- (2010 AIPMT) b. the absence of vessels and parenchyma
a. Plasmodesmata c. having dead and non-conducting elements
b. Middle lamella d. being susceptible to hosts and pathogens
c. Secondary wall layer 6. The annular and spirally thickened conducting
d. Primary wall layer elements generally develop in the protoxylem when
16. In active transport carrier proteins are used, the root or stem is (CBSE -AIPMT 2009)
which use energy in the form of ATP to a. maturing b. elongating
a. transport molecules against concentration gradient c. widening d. differentiating
of cell wall 7. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is
b. transport molecules along concentration gradient distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by
of cell membrane the (CBSE- AIPMT 2009)
c. transport molecules against concentration a. absence of secondary xylem
gradient of cell membrane b. absence of secondary phloem
d. transport molecules along concentration gradient c. presence of cortex
of cell wall d. position of protoxylem
17. The main organelle involved in modification 8. In barley stem, vascular bundles are (CBSE
and routing of newly synthesised protein to -AIPMT 2009)
their destinations is (AIPMT 2005) a. open and scattered
a. Mitochondria b. Glyoxysomes b. closed and scattered
c. Spherosomes d. Endoplasmic reticulum c. open and in a ring
18. A
 lgae have cell wall made up of (AIPMT 2010) d. closed and radial
a. Cellulose, galactans and mannans 9. Palisade parenchyma is absent in the leaves of
b. Cellulose, chitin and glucan (CBSE- AIPMT 2009)
c. Cellulose, Mannan and peptidoglycan a. sorghum b. mustard
d. Muramic acid and galactans c. soyabean d. gram
UNIT IV – Plant Anatomy 10. Sugarcane plant has (AIIMS 2009)
a. reticulate venation
1. The balloon – shaped structures called tyloses b. capsular fruits
(NEET II – 2016 ) c. pentamerous flowers
a. originate in the lumen of vessels d. dump-bell shaped guard cells
b. characterise the sap wood 11. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from
c. are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells (CBSE- AIPMT 2008 & JIPMER 2012)
into vessels a. phellogen b. plerome
d. are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem c. periblem d. dermatogen
vessels 12. The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane
2. Cortex is the region found between (NEET II – 2016) is variable because of (CBSE -AIPMT 2008)
a. epidermis and stele a. short apical meristem
b. pericycle and endodermis b. position of axillary buds
c. endodermis and pith c. size of leaf lamina at the node below each
d. endodermis and vascular bundle internode
3. Read I – IV and find the correct order of components d. intercalary meristems
from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stem 13. Passage cells are thin-walled cells found in (CBSE
(CBSE -AIPMT – 2015) -AIPMT 2007)
(I) secondary Cortex (II) wood a.  endodermis of roots facilitating rapid
(III) secondary phloem (IV) phellem transport of water from cortex to pericycle
a. III, IV, II and I b. I, II, IV and III b. phloem elements that serve as entry points for
c. IV, I, III and II d. IV, III, I and II substances for transport to other plant parts
4. You are given a fairly old piece of a dicot stem and c. testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing
a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical embryonic axis during seed germination
structures will you use to distinguish between the d. central region of style through which the
two? (CBSE -AIPMT 2014) pollen tube grows towards the ovary
a. secondary xylem b. secondary phloem 14. Which one of the following is not a lateral
c. protoxylem d. cortical cells meristem (CBSE -AIPMT 2010)
5. Heart wood differs from sapwood in (CBSE a. interfascicular cambium
-AIPMT 2010)
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b. phellogen Ans: a.
c. intercalary meristem 22. Duramen is present in (JIPMER 2016)
d. intrafascicular cambium a. the inner region of secondary wood
15. A common feature of vessel elements and sieve b. a part of sap wood
tube elements is (CBSE- AIPMT 2007) c. the outer region of secondary wood
a. enucleate condition d. region of pericycle
b. presence of P. Protein 23. The interxylary phloem is found in the stem of
c. thick secondary wall (JIPMER 2013)
d. pores on lateral walls a. Cucurbita b. Salvia
16. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting c. Calotropis d. none of these
from the tip upward, the four zones occur in 24. Wound healing is due to (JIPMER 2013)
the following order (CBSE -AIPMT 2004) a. ventral meristem
a. root cap, cell division, cell enlargement, b. secondary meristem
cell maturation c. primary meristem
b. root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell d. all of these
enlargement 25. Which of the following tissues consists of living
c.  cell division, cell enlargement, cell cells (JIPMER 2012)
maturation, root cap a. vessels b. tracheids
d.  cell division, cell maturation, cell c. companion cell d. sclerenchyma
enlargement, root cap
26. The Quiescent centre in root meristem serves as
17. The cells of the quiescent centre are characterized a (JIPMER 2011)
by (CBSE -AIPMT 2003)
a. 
site for storage of food, which is utilized
a. having dense cytoplasm and prominent during maturation
nucleus
b. reservoir of growth hormones
b. having light cytoplasm and small nucleus
c. reserve for replenishment of damaged cells
c. dividing regularly to add to the corpus of the meristem
d. dividing regularly to add to tunica d. region for absorption of water
18. P. Protein is found in (CBSE- AIPMT 2000) 27. In the sieve elements, which one of the following
a. parenchyma b. collenchyma is the most likely function of P.Proteins?
c. sieve tube d. xylem (JIPMER 2011)
19. Specialized epidermal cells surrounding the a) Deposition of callose on sieve plates
guard cells are called (NEET (I) 2016) b. Providing energy for active translocation
a. bulliform cells c. Autolytic enzymes
b. lenticels d. Sealing-off mechanism on wounding
c. complementary cells 28 .Which of the following is made up of dead cells?
d. subsidiary cells (NEET 2017)
Directions: a. Xylem parenchyma b. Collenchyma
The following questions 20 & 21 consist of c. Phellem d. Phloem
two statements, one labelled Assertion and 29. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to
the another labelled Reason. Select the correct (NEET 2017)
answer from the codes given below: a. phelloderm b.primary phloem
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason c. secondary xylem d. periderm
is the correct explanation of assertion
30. Which of the following plants shows multiple
b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason epidermis? (Manipal 2012)
is not the correct explanation of assertion
a. Croton b. Allium c. Nerium d. Cucurbita
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion and reason are false UNIT V – Plant Physiology
20. Assertion: Conducting tissues, especially
xylem show greatest reduction in submerged 1. The water potential of pure water is (NEET 2017)
hydrophytes. a. Less than zero
Reason: Hydrophytes live in water. So no need b. More than zero but less than one
of tissues. (AIIMS – 2010) Ans: c. c. More than one d. Zero
21. Assertion: Long distance flow of photo 2. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to
assimilates in plants occurs through sieve tubes. rise in plants by (NEET 2015)
Reason: Mature sieve tubes have partial cytoplasm a. pulling it upward
and perforated sieve plates (AIIMS – 2012) b. pulling and pushing it, respectively

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c. pushing it upward b. Efflux of potassium ions

d. pushing and pulling it, respectively c. Influx of hydrogen ions
3. Movement of ions or molecules in a direction d. Influx of calcium ions
opposite to that of prevailing electro-chemical 13. Potometer works on the principle of (CBSE 2000)
gradient is known as (C.B.S.E. 2000) a. Osmotic pressure
a. Active transport b. Pinocytosis b.  Amount of water absorbed equals the
c. Brownian movement d. Diffusion amount transpired
4. Correct sequence of events in wilting? (P.M.T. c. Potential difference between the tip of the
Kerala 2001) tube and then of the plant
a. Exosmosis-deplasmolysis-temporary and d. Root pressure
permanent wilting 14. Most suitable theory for ascent of sap is
b. Exosmosis-plasmolysis-temporary and (CBSE 1991, CPMT-UP 1995)
permanent wilting a. Transpirational pull and cohesion theory
c. Endosmosis-plasmolysis-temporary and of Dixon and Jolly
permanent wilting b. Pulsation theory of J.C. Bose
d. Endosmosis-deplasmolysis - temporary and c. Relay pump theory of Godlewski
permanent wilting d. None of these
e. Exosmosis-deplasmolysis-plasmolysis - 15. If a cell kept in a solution of unknown
temporary and permanent wilting concentration gets deplasmolysed, the solution
5. What will be the direction of net osmotic is, (CPMT-UP 1996)
movement of water if a solution 'A', enclosed in a. Detonic b. Hypertonic
a semi permeable membrane, having an osmotic c. Isotonic d. Hypotonic
potential of '- 30' bars and turgor pressure of '5' 16. Which is essential for the growth of root tip ?
bars is submerged in a solution 'B' with an osmotic (NEET PHASE II 2016)
potential of '- 10' bars and '0' turgor pressure ? a. Zn b. Fe c. Ca d. Mn
(C.E.T. Karnataka 2002) 17. On the basis of symptoms of chlorosis in leaves,
a. Equal movement in both directions a student inferred that this was due to deficiency
b. 'B' to 'A' of nitrogen. The inference could be correct only
c. No movement if we assume that yellowing of leaves appeared
first in (AIIMS 2007)
d. 'A' to 'B'
a. old leaves b. young leaves
6. The pressure exerted by a swollen vacuole on the c. young leaves followed by mature leaves
cell wall is (C.M.C. Vellore 2002) d. mature leaves followed by young leaves.
a. OP b. WP c. TP d. DPD 18. Cytochrome oxidase contains (UP CPMT 2006)
7. Who said that ‘transpiration is a necessary evil’? a. Iron b. Magnesium c. Zinc d. Copper
(JIPMER-2006) 19. Which is correct to saprophytic angiosperms?
a. Curtis b. Steward c. Anderson d. J.C.Bose (UP CPMT 2006)
8. Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation a. They secrete enzyme outside the body and
for stomatal movements? (NEET 2015) absorb
a. Transpiration b. They have mycorrhizae fungi
b. Potassium influx and efflux c. They take food and then digest it
c. Starch hydrolysis d. They are photosynthetic
d. Guard cell photosynthesis 20. The ability of the venus fly trap to capture insects
is due to (JIPMER 2008)
9. Carrier proteins are involved in (PMT-UP-1998)
a. chemical stimulation by the prey
a. Active transport of ions b. a passive process requiring no special ability
b. Passive transport of ions on the part of the plant.
c. Water transport c. Specialized muscle like cells
d. Water evaporation d. rapid turgor pressure changes
10. Active transport of ions in the cell requires (PMT 21. Boron in green plants assists in (RPMT 2007)
MP 2002) a. photosynthesis
a. High temperature b. ATP b. Sugar transport
c. Alkaline pH d. Salts c. activation of enzyme
11. Guttated liquid is (AFMC 2002) d. acting as enzyme cofactor
a. Pure water b. Water plus minerals 22. Which of the following elements is very essential
c. Water plus enzymes d. All of these for the uptake of Ca2+ and membrane function?
12. Stomata of a plant open due to (CBSE 2003) (Kerala CEE 2007)
a. Influx of potassium ions a. phosphorus b. molybdenum

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c. manganese d. boron photosynthesis, which of the following statements

23. Sulphur is not a constituent of (AMU 2011) is not correct? (NEET 2017)
a. cysteine b. methionine a light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10 %
c. ferredoxin d. pyridoxine of full sunlight
24. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium b. increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up
are visible first in _____ (AIPMT 2014) to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
a. senescent leaves b. young leaves c. C3 plants respond to higher temperature with
c. roots d. buds enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants
25. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric have much lower temperature optimum.
nitrogen in leguminous plants is _____ (AIPMT d. tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be
2013) grown in CO2 enriched atmosphere for higher
a. NO-3 b. glutamate c. NO-2 d. ammonia yield
26. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis 36. A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory
than C3 plants due to (AIPMT 2010) losses, has improved water use efficiency,
a. presence of thin cuticle shows high rates of photosynthesis at high
b. lower rate of photorespiration temperatures and has improved efficiency of
c. higher leaf area nitrogen utilization. In which of the following
d. presence of larger number of chloroplast in the physiological groups would you assign this plant?
leaf cells. (NEET PHASE I 2016)
27. Chlorophyll b is (JIPMER 1980) a. C4 b. CAM c. Nitrogen fixer d. C3
a. C54H70 O6 N4 Mg b. C55H70 O6 N4 Mg 37. Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop
c. C55H72 O5 N4 Mg d. C45H72 O5 N4 Mg have been instrumental in the discovery of
28. Synthesis of ADP + Pi → ATP in grana is (NEET PHASE I 2016)
(AIIMS 1993) a. two photosystems operating simultaneously
a. phosphorylation b. photophosphorylation b.  photophosphorylation and cyclic electron
c. oxidative phosphorylation d. photolysis transport
29. In chloroplast, chlorophyll is present in the c. oxidative phosphorylation
(AIPMT 2004) d.  photophosphorylation and non-cyclic
a. stroma b. outer membrane electron transport
c. inner membrane d. thylakoids 38. The process which makes major difference between
30. Electrons from the excited chlorophyll molecule C3 and C4 plants is (NEET PHASE II 2016)
of photosystem II are accepted first by a. glycolysis b. calvin cycle
(AIPMT 2008) c. photorespiration d. respiration
a. quinone b. ferredoxin 39. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons
c. cytochrome-b d. cytochrome-f are found in (NEET PHASE I 2016)
31. Read the following four statements A,B,C and D. a. lumen of thylakoids
Select the right option (AIPMT 2010) b. inter membrane space
A. Z scheme of light reaction takes place in the c. antennae complex
presence of PS I only d. stroma
B. only PS I is functional in cyclic 40. Oxidative phosphorylation is (NEET 2016)
photophosphorylation a. formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate
C. cyclic photophosphorylation results into group from a substrate to ADP
synthesis of ATP and NADPH2 b. oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
D. stroma lamellae lack PS II as well as NADP c. Aaddition of phosphate group to ATP
a. A and B b. B and C c. C and D d. B and D d. formation of ATP by energy released from
32. Photolysis of each water molecule in light reaction electrons during substrate oxidation.
will yield ___ (Kerala CEE 2007) 41. Which of the biomolecules is common to
a. 2 electrons and 4 protons respiration-mediated breakdown of fats,
b. 4 electrons and 4 protons carbohydrates and proteins? (NEET 2013, 2016)
c. 4 electrons and 3 protons a. glucose-6-phosphate
d. 2 electrons and 2 protons b. fructose1,6-bisphosphate
33. Photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) has the c. pyruvic acid
following range of wavelength (AIPMT 2005) d. acetyl CoA
a. 400-700 nm b. 450-920 nm 42 Which statement is wrong for Krebs cycle?
c. 340-450 nm d. 500-600 nm (NEET 2017)
34. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 a. there is one point in the cycle where FAD is
acceptor in __ (NEET 2017) reduced to FADH2
a. C3 plants b. C4 plants b. during conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic
c. C2 plants d. C3 and C4 plants acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised.
35. With reference to factors affecting the rate of c. the cycle starts with condensation of acetyl
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group a.cetyl CoA. with pyruvic acid to yield 52. Banana is seedless because (JIPMER 2004)
citric acid a. it produces asexually
d. there are three points in the cycle where NAD+ b. auxin is sprayed
is reduced to NADH+H+ c. both A and B
43. The three boxes in this diagram represents the d. none of the above
three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic 53. Pruning of plants promotes branching due to
respiration and arrows represent net reacts or sensation of axillary buds by (AIIMS 2004)
products. (NEET 2013) a. Ethylene b. Gibberellin
c. IAA d. Cytokinin
54 Avena curvature test is bioassay for activity of
(AIIMS 2006) (NEET 2016)
a. Auxin b. Ethylene
Arrows numbered 4, 8 and 12 can be c. Cytokinin d. Gibberellin
a. ATP b. H2O 55. One of the synthetic auxin is (AIPMT 2009)
c. FAD or FADH2 d. NADH a. IBA b. NAA c. IAA d. GA
44. The energy released metabolic process in which 56 Which one of the following acids is derivative of
substrate is oxidised without an external electron carotenoids (AIPMT 2009)
acceptor is called (AIPMT 2010) a. Abscisic acid
a. glycolysis b. fermentation b. Indole butyric acid
c. aerobic respiration d. photorespiration c. Indole – 3 acetic
45. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon d. Gibberellic acid
compound by a reaction between ( C P M T 57. Photoperiodism was first characterized in
1980) (AIPMT 2010)
a. malic acid and acetyl coenzyme a. Cotton b. Tobacco c. Potato d. Tomato
b. oxaloacetic acid and acetyl coenzyme 58. One of the commonly used plant growth
c. succinic acid and pyruvic acid hormone in tea plantations is (AIPMT 2010)
d. fumaric acid and pyruvic acid a. Abscisic acid b. Zeatin
46. Respiration is a process in which (CPMT 1980) c. Indole – 3 – acetic acid d. Ethylene
a. energy is used up 59. Root development is promoted by (AIPMT 2010)
b. energy is stored in the form of ADP a. Auxin b. Gibberellin
c. energy is released and stored in the form of c. Ethylene d. Abscisic acid
ATP 60. Senscence as an active developmental cellular
d. energy is not released at all process in the growth and functioning of a
47. The common phase between aerobic and anaerobic flowering plant is indicated in (AIPMT 2008)
respiration is called (CPMT 1984) a. Annual plants
a. glycolysis b. Floral plants
b. krebs cycle c. Vessels and Tracheid differentiation
c. tricarboxylic acid cycle d. Leaf abscission
d. oxidative phosphorylation 61. You are given a tissue with its potential for
48. ATP synthesis occurs on/in the (AIIMS 1984) differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of
a. matrix the following pairs of hormones would you add
b. outer membrane of mitochondrion to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?
c. innermembrane of mitochondrion (NEET 2016)
d. none of the above a. Gibberellin and abscissic acid
49. Which 5-carbon organic acid of the Krebs cycle b. IAA and gibberellins
is a key compound in the N2 metabolism of a cell c. Auxin and cytokinin
(AIIMS 1989) d. Auxin and abscisic acid
a. citric acid 62. Phytochrome is a (NEET 2016)
b. fumaric acid a. Chromo protein b.Flavo protein
c. oxalosuccinic acid c. Glyco protein d. Lipo protein
d. α-Ketoglutaric acid 63. Typical growth curve in plants is
50. Which one of the following acts as a hormone (NEET 2016)
involved in ripening of fruits (CBSE PMT 2000) a. Linear b.Stair – steps shaped
a. naphthalene acetic acid c. Parabolic d. Sigmoid
b. ethylene
c. indole acetic acid
d. zeatin
51. Coconut milk factor is (PMT 2003)
a. auxin b. gibberellin
c. abscisic acid d. cytokinin
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1. Which of the following plant reproduces by 7. 

Functional megaspore in angiosperm
leaf (DPMT 2003) develops into an (NEET 2017)
UNIT VI – Reproduction in plants a) endosperm b) Embryo sac
c) embryo d) ovule
a) Agave b) Bryophyllum 8. 
Which of the statement is not true.
c) Gladiolus d) Potato  (NEET 2016)
2. Advantage of cleistogamy (NEET 2013) a) Pollen grain of many species cause severe
a) Higher genetic variability allergies
b) More vigorous offspring b) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be
c) No dependence on pollinators used in crop breeding programmes
d) Vivipary c) T
 apetum helps in the dehiscence of
anther
3. An example for edible underground stem is
d) Exine of pollen grains is made up of
(NEET 2014)
sporopollenin
a) Carrot b) Groundnut
c) Sweet potato d) Potato 9) 
When a diploid female plant is crossed
with a tetraploid male, the ploidy of
4. Pollen tablets are available in the market for
endosperm cells in the resulting seed is
(NEET 2014)
 (AIPMT 2004)
a) invitro fertilization
a) pentaploidy b) diploidy
b) Breeding programmes
c) triploidy d) tetraploidy
c) supplementing food
d) ex situ conservation 10) 
Which one of the following pairs of
5. Geitonogamy involves (NEET 2014) plant structures has haploid number of
a) F ertilization of a flower by pollen from chromosomes? (AIPMT 2008)
another flower of a same plant a) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
b) Fertilization of a flower by pollen of the b) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
same flower c) Egg cell and and antipodal cells
c) Fertilization of a flower by pollen from d) Nucellus and antipodal cells
a flower of another plant in a same 11) 
The arrangement of nuclei in a normal
population embryo sac in the dicot plant is
d) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen  (AIPMT 2006)
from a flower of another plant belongs to a) 2 + 4 + 2 b) 3 + 2 + 3
distant population. c) 2 + 3 + 3 d) 3 + 3 + 2
6. Which one of the following generates new
12) Wind pollinated flowers are
genetic combinations leading to variations?
 (AIPMT PRE 2010)
 (NEET 2016)
a) Small, producing nectar and dry pollen
a) vegetative reproduction
b) small, brightly colored, producing large
b) parthenogenesis
number of pollen grains
c) Sexual reproduction
c) s mall, producing large number of
d) Nucellar polyembryony
pollen grains
d) large, producing abundant nectar and
pollen

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13) Function of filiform apparatus is to 20) An ovule which becomes curved so that the
 (AIPMT 2014) nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles
a) recognize the suitable pollen at stigma to the funicle is (AIPMT 2004)
b) stimulate division of generative cell a) camylotropous b) anatropous
c) produce nectar c) orthotropous d) hemianatropous
d) guide the entry of pollen tube
21) Endosperm is formed during the double
14) 
The coconut water from tender coconut fertilization by (AIPMT 2000)
represents (NEET 2016) a) t wo polar nuclei and one male gamete
a) endocarp b) one polar nuclei and one male gamete
b) fleshy mesocarp c) ovum and male gametes
c) free nuclear proembryo d) two polar nuclei and two male gametes
d) free nuclear endosperm UNIT VII – Genetics

15) Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily

is brought about by the agency of 1. 
Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility
in plants are generally located in
 (NEET 2016)
 (AIPMT 2005)
a) insects or wind b) birds
a) M itrochondrial genome b) Cytosol
c) bats d) water
c) Chloroplast genome d) Nuclear genome
16) Perisperm differs from endosperm in 2. In which mode of inheritance do you expect
 (NEET 2013) more maternal influence among the off
a) being haploid tissue spring (AIPMT 2006)
b) having no reserve food a) Autosomal b) Cytoplasmic
c) being a diploid tissue c) Y-linked d) X-linked
d) 
its formation by fusion of secondary
3. 
Which one of the following cannot be
nucleus with several sperms
explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of
17) Male gametes in angiosperms are formed Dominance? (AIPMT 2010)
by the division of (AIPMT 2007) a) Factors occur in pairs
a) microspore mother cell b) microspore b) The discrete unit controlling a particular
c) generative cell d) vegetative cell character is called a factor
c) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant
18) In a type of apomixes known as adventive
and the other is recessive
polyembryony,embryo develop directly
d) Alleles does not show any blending and
from the (AIPMT 2005)
both the characters recover as such in
a) synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac
F2 generation
b) nucellus or integuments
c) zygote 4. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross shows
d) accessory embryo sac in the ovule that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios
are same as 1:2:1. It represents a case of
19) In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of the
 (AIPMT 2012)
embryo is represented by (AIPMT 2006)
a) Monohybrid crosses with incomplete
a) coleorhizae b) scutellum
dominance
c) prophyll d) coleoptiles
b) Co-dominance c) Dihybrid cross
d) Monohybrid cross with complete
dominance
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5. A Pleiotropic gene a) 2:1 b) 1:2:1 c) 3:1 d) 1:1:1:1

 (AIPMT 2015 – Re-exam)
12. Pure line breed refers to
a) Controls multiple traits in an individual
b) Is expressed only in primitive plants  (AIIMS 2002, AIIMS 2007)
c) Is a gene evolved during Pliocene a) Heterozygosity only
d) Controls a trait only in combination with b) Heterozygosity and linkage
another L gene c) Homozygosity only
d) Homozygosity and self assortment
6. A true breeding plant is
13. How many different types of gametes can
 (NEET Phase II 2016)
be formed by F1 progeny, resulting from the
a) Near homozygous and produces
following cross AABBCC x aabbcc
offspring of its own kind
b) Always homozygous recessive in its  (AIIMS 2004)
genetic construction a) 3 b) 8 c) 27 d) 64
c) One that is able to breed on its own
14. 
Which of the following conditions
d) Produced due to cross pollination among
represents a case of co-dominant genes?
unrelated plants
 (AIIMS 2009)
7. Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due a) A gene expresses itself, suppressing the
to the deposition of sugars instead of starch. phenotypic effect of its alleles
It was due to which enzyme? b) Genes that are similar in phenotypic
 (AIPMT 2001) effect when present separately, but when
a) Amylase b) Invertase c) Diastase together interact to produce a different
d) Absence of starch branching enzyme trait
c) Alleles both of which interact to produce
8. Ratio of complementary gene is a trait which may or may not resemble
 (AIPMT 2001) either of the parental type
a) 9:3:4 b) 12:3:1 c) 9:3:3:4 d) 9:7 d) Alleles, each of which produces an
independent effect in a heterozygous
9. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes
condition.
for a protein with 333 amino acid and the
base at position 901 is deleted such that the 15. If ‘A’ represents the dominant gene and ‘a’
length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how represents its recessive allele, which of the
many codons will be altered? following would be most likely result in
 (NEET 2017) the first generation off spring when Aa is
a) 1 b) 11 c) 33 d) 333 crossed with aa? (AIIMS 2016)
a) All will exhibit dominant phenotype
10. 
If a homozygous red flowered plant is b) All will exhibit recessive phenotype
crossed with a homozygous white flowered c) D
 ominant and recessive phenotypes
plant, then the off-springs will be will be 50% each
 (AIIMS 1999, 2002, 2007) d) Dominant phenotype will be 75%
a) Half-white flowered b) Half-red flowered 16. In Pisum Sativum, there are 14 chromosomes.
c) All white flowered d) All red flowered How many types of homologous pairs can
be prepared? (JIPMER 2010)
11. The ratio in a dihyrbid test cross between
two individuals is given by (AIIMS 2001) a) 14 b) 7 c) 214 d) 210

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17. The year 1900 AD is highly significant for 25. 

When a cluster of genes show linkage
geneticists due to (JIPMER 2013) behaviour they (AIPMT 2003)
a) Discovery of genes a) do not show a chromosome map
b) Principle of linkage b) show recombination during meiosis
c) Chromosomal theory of heredity c) do not show independent assortment
d) Rediscovery of Mendelism d) induce cell division
18. The phenotypic ratio of trihybrid cross in F2 26. Genetic map is one that (AIPMT 2003)
generation is  (JIPMER 2016) a) E
 stablish sites of the genes on a
a) 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1 b) 9:3:3:1 chromosome
c) 1:4:6:4:1 d) 27:9:3:3:9:1:2:1 b) 
Establishes the various stages in gene
19. 
In a mutational event when adenine is evolution
replaced by guanine, it is the case of c) Shows the stages during the cell division
 (AIPMT 2004) d) Shows the distribution of various species
a) Frameshift mutatin b) Transcription in a region
c) Transition d) Transversion 27. After a mutation at a genetic locus of the
20. Mutations can be induced with character of an organism changes due to the
change in  (AIPMT 2004)
 (AIPMT 2011)
a) DNA replication
a) Gamma radiations b) Infrared radiations
b) Protein synthesis pattern
c) IAA d) Ethylene
c) RNA transcription pattern
21. The mechanism that causes a gene to move d) Protein structure
from one linkage group to another is called
28. In a hexaploidy wheat, the haploid (n) and
 (AIPMT 2015, NEET (Phase – II) 2016)
basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are
a) Translocation b) Crossing over
 (AIPMT 2007)
c) Inversion d) Duplication
a) n =21 and x =7 b) n =7 and x =21
22. 
A point mutation comprising the c) n =21 and x =21 d) n =21 and x =14
substitution of a purine by pyrimidine is
29. Point mutation involves (AIPMT 2009)
called  (AIIMS 2002)
a) Deletion b) Insertion
a) Transition b) Translocation
c) Change in single base pair
c) Deletion d) Transversion
d) duplication
23. Frameshift mutation occurs when
 (AIPMT 2008) 30. 
Which one of the following is a wrong
a) Base is substituted statement regarding mutations?
b) base is deleted or added  (AIPMT 2012)
c) Anticodons are absent a) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens
d) None of these b) C hange in a single base pair of DNA
24. 
The distance between two genes in a does not cause mutation
chromosome is measured in cross-over c) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause
units which represent (AIIMS 2008) frame shift mutations.
a) Ratio of crossing over between them d) Cancer cells commonly show
b) Percentage of crossing over between them chromosomal aberrations.
c) Number of crossing over between them
d) None of these

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31. Which of the following statement is not true 36. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in
of two genes that show 50% recombination  (AIPMT 2011)
frequency? (NEET 2013) a) Ribosomes b) Chloroplast
a) 
The genes may be on different c) Mitrochondria d) Chloroplast
chromosomes
b) The genes are tightly linked 37. During protein synthesis in a organism at
c) The genes show independent assortment one point the process comes to a halt. Select
d) 
If the genes are present on the same the group of the three codons from the
chromosome, they undergo more than following from which any one of the three
one crossover in every meiosis. could bring about this halt. (AIIMS 2006)
a) UUU, UCC, UAU b) UUUC, UUA, UAC
32. Haploids are more suitable for mutation
c) UAG, UGA, UAA d) UUG, UCA, UCG
studies than the diploids. This is because
 (AIPMT 2008) 38. The binding site of tRNA with mRNA and
a) A
 ll mutations, whether dominant or amino acids respectively are (AIIMS 2009)
recessive are expressed in haploids a) mRNA with DHU loop and amino acid
b) Haploids are reproductively more stable with CCA end
than diploids b) mRNA with CCA end and amino acid
c) 
Mutagens penetrate in haploids more with anticodon loop
effectively than diploids c) mRNA with anticodon loop and amino
d) Haploids are more abundant in nature acid with DHU loop
than diploids d) m RNA with anticodon loop and amino
acid with CCA end
33. 
Crossing over that results in genetic
recombination in higher organisms occurs 39. Which of the following is correct regarding
between  (AIPMT 2004) genetic code? (AIIMS 2010)
a) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent a) UUU is the initiation codon which also
b) Two daughter nuclei codes for phenylalanine
c) Two different bivalents b) Th
 ere are 64 triplet codons and only 20
d) Sister chromatids of bivalents amino acids
c) Three random nitrogen bases specify the
34. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a placement of one amino acid
defined order in a transcription unit is called d) UAA is the nonsense codon which also
 (AIPMT 2009, AIPMT Pre 2012) codes for methionine
a) Tailing b) Transformation
c) Capping d) Splicing 40. Which of the following set of options is
used in translation? (AIIMS 2015)
35. Selection the correct option a) hnRNA, tRNA, rRNA
 (AIPMT 2014)\ b) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
Direction of Direction of reading of c) mRNA, tRNA, hnRNA
RNA synthesis the template DNA strand d) hnRNA, rRNA, lRNA
a) 5’ – 3’ 3’ – 5’ 41. Sequence of DNA (non-coding) is known
b) 3’ – 5’ 5’ – 3’
as (JIPMER 2006)
c) 5’ – 3’ 5’ – 3’
d) 3’ – 5’ 3 ‘ – 5’ a) exon b) intron
b) cistron d) none of these

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42. 
During transcription holoenzyme RNA a) 
The direction of DNA replication in
polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and strand (i)
the DNA assumes a saddle like structure at b) 
The direction of DNA replication in
that point. What is that sequence called strand (ii)
 (JIPMER 2007) c) Discontinuous replication of strand (i)
a) CAAT box b) GGTT box d) Discontinuous replication of strand (ii)
c) AAAT box d) TATA box 48. DNA multiplication is called
43. 
The successive nucleotides of RNA are  (JIPMER 2009)
covalently linked through (JIPMER 2001) a) Translation b) Replication
a) Hydrogen bonds c) Transduction d) Transcription
b) Phosphodiester bonds 49. The complete set of chromosome inherited
c) Glycosidic bonds d) None of these as a single unit from one parent is known as
44. 
The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain  (AIIMS 1994)
growth a) Genome b) Linkage
 (AIPMT 2007, JIPMER 2004) c) Gene pool d) Genotype
a) Polymerize in the 3’ - to 5’ direction and 50. The mobile genetic element is
forms replication fork  (JIPMER 2014)
b) Prove semi conservative nature of DNA a) Transposon b) Mutation
replication c) Endonuclease d) Variation
c) P
 olymerize in the 5’ to 3’ direction and
explains 3’ – to – 5’ DNA replication UNIT VIII – Biotechnology
d) Result in transcription
1. What is the criterion for DNA fragments
45. Taylor conducted the experiment to prove
movement on agarose gel during gel
semiconservative mode of chromosome
electrophoresis? (NEET 2017)
replication on (NEET (Phase II) 2016)
a) Th
 e smaller the fragment size, the
a) Drosophila melanogaster b) e-coli
farther it moves.
c) Vinca rosea d) vicia faba
b) 
Positively charged fragments move to
46. The new strand synthesized in small pieces farther end.
and then joined together during DNA c) 
Negatively charged fragments do not
replication is called (AIIMS 1994) move.
a) Dead strand b) Lagging strand d) The larger the fragment size, the farther
c) Leading strand d) All of these it moves.
47. What is incorrect about the following figure 2. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed
representing DNA replication for (NEET – II 2016)
 (AIIMS 2009) a) Purification of product.
5’ 3’ b) Addition of preservatives to the product
c) Availability of oxygen throughout the
process
Strand (i) Strands (ii)
d) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the
culture vessel.
3’ 5’

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3. Which of the following is not a component 9. For transformation, micro-particles coated

of downstream processing? (NEET-II 2016) with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun
a) Separation b) Purification are made up of  (AIPMT 2012)
c) Preservation d) Expression a) Silver or platinum b) Platinum or zinc
c) Silicon or platinum d) Gold or tungsten.
4. Which of the following is not a feature of
the plasmids? (NEET-I 2016) 10. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
a) Transferable b) Single-stranded  (AIPMT Mains 2012)
c) Independent replication a) disarming pathogen vectors
d) Circular structure b) transformation of plant cells
c) 
constructing recombinant DNA by
5. Which of the following is not required for
joining with vectors
nay of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting
d) DNA fingerprinting.
available at present? (NEET-I 2016)
a) Restriction enzymes 11. Genetic engineering is possible because
b) DNA-DNA hybridization  (CBSE 1998)
c) Polymerase chain reaction a) phenomenon of transduction in bacteria
d) Zinc finger analysis understood
b) we can see DNA by electron microscope
6. 
Which vector can clone only a small
c) 
we can cut DNA at specific sites by
fragment of DNA?  (AIPMT 2014)
endonuclease like DNAase I
a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
d) restriction endonuclease purified from
b) Yeast artificial chromosome
bacteria can be used invitro
c) Plasmid d) Cosmid
12. Genetic Engineering is (BHU 2003)
7. 
The colonies of recombinant bacteria
a) Making artificial genes
appear white in contrast to blue colonies
b) H
 ybridisation of DNA of one organism
of non-recombinant bacteria because of
to that of the others
 (NEET 2013)
c) 
Production of alcohol by using
a) Insertional inactivation of alpha
microorganisms
galactosidase in recombinant bacteria.
d) 
Making artificial limbs, diagnostic
b) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in
instruments such as ECG, EFG, etc.
recombinant bacteria.
c) Non-recombinant bacteria containing 13. Ligase is used for  (AMU 2006)
beta galactosidase. a) Joining of two DNA fragments
d) Insertional inactivation of alpha b) Separating DNA
galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria. c) DNA polymerase reaction
d) All of these
8. During the process of isolation of DNA,
chilled ethanol is added to 14. In genetic engineering, gene of interest is
 (Karnataka NEET 2013) transferred to the host cell through a vector.
a) Precipitate DNA Consider the following four agents (1-4)
b) Break open the cell to release DNA in this regard and select the correct option
c) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes about which one or more of these can be
d) Remove proteins such as histones. used as vectors
1. A bacterium 2. Plasmid
3. Plasmodium 4. Bacteriophage

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 (AIPMT Main 2010) 19. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using

a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 and 4 only the southern hybridisation technique does
c) 1 only d) 1 and 3 only not use (AIPMT 2014)
15. Given below is a sample of a portion of a) Electrophoresis
DNA strand giving the base sequence on b) Blotting
the opposite strands. What is so special c) Autoradiography
shown in it? (AIPMT 2014) d) PCR
5’---GAATTC---3’ 3’---CTTAAG---5’ 20. 
The colonies of recombinant bacteria
a) Palindromic sequence of base pairs appear white in contrast to blue colonies of
b) Replication completed non- recombinant bacteria because of
c) Deletion mutation (NEET 2013)
d) Start codon at the 5’end a) Non-recombinant bacteria containing
16. There is a restriction endonuclease called beta galactosidase
EcoRI. What does “co” part in it stand for ? b) Insertional inactivation of a-galactosidase
(AIPMT 2011) in non-recombinant bacteria
a) Coelom b) Colon c) I nsertional inactivation of
b-galactosidase in recombinant
c) Coli d) Coenzyme bacteria
17. 
The figure below is the diagrammatic d) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in
representation of the vector pBR322. Which recombinant bacteria
one of the given options correctly identifies 21. Which one of the following palindromic
its certain components? (AIPMT 2012) base sequence in DNA can be easily cut
at about the middle by some particular
restriction enzyme? (AIPMT 2010)
a) 5’CGTTCG3’ 3’ATCGTA 5’
b) 5’ GATATG 3’ 3’ CTACTA 5’
c) 5’ GAATTC 3’ 3’ CTTAAG 5’
d) 5’ CACGTA 3’ 3’ CTCAGT 5’

a) Ori-original restriction enzyme 22. 

Silencing of mRNA has been used in
b) rop-reduced osmotic pressure producing transgenic plants resistant to
c) Hind III, EcoRI – selectable markers (AIPMT, 2011)
d) ampR, tetR – antibiotic resistance genes a) Boll worms b) Nematodes
c) White rusts d) Bacterial blights
18. 
A mixture containing DNA fragments
23. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are
a,b,c,d with molecular weights of a+b=c,
(AIPMT,2010)
a>b and d>c, was subjected to agarose
a) Long fibre and resistant to aphids
gel electrophoresis. The position of these
b) Medium yield, long fibre and resistant to
fragmets from cathode to anode sides of the
beetle pests
gel would be (DPMT 2010)
a) b,a,c,d b) a,b,c,d c) 
High yield and production of toxic
c) c,b,a,d d) b,a,d,c protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
d) High yield and resistant to boll worms

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24. An improved variety of transgenic basmati 30. 

Tissue culture technique can produce
rice (AIPMT,2010) infinite number of new plants from a small
a) Does not require chemical fertilisers and parental tissue. The economic importance
growth hormones of the technique is raising. (Karnataka
b) G ives high yield and is rich in NEET 2013)
vitamin A a) g enetically uniform population
c) Is completely resistant to all insect pests identical to the original parent.
and diseases of paddy b) homozygous diploid plants
d) Gives high yield but no characteristic c) new species
aroma d) variants through picking up somaclonal
25) Consumption of which one of the following variations
foods prevent the kind of blindness 31. 
Which of the following statements is
associated with vitamin A deficiency? not true about somatic embryogenesis?
(AIPMT 2012) (Karnataka NEET 2013).
a) Flavr Savr b) Canola a. The pattern of development of a somatic
c) Golden rice d) Bt brinjal embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic
26. A protoplast is a cell (NEET 2016) embryo.
a) undergoing division b) S omatic embryos can develop from
b)without cell wall microspores.
c) Somatic embryo is induced usually by an
c) without plasma membrane
auxin such as 2, 4-D.
d) without nucleus.
d) A somatic embryo develops from a
27. A technique of micropropagation is (NEET somatic cell.
2015) 32. Which one of the following is a case of
a) Protoplast fusion wrong matching? (AIPMT 2012)
b) embryo rescue a) Somatic - Fusion of
c) somatic hybridization two diverse hybridization cells
d) somatic embryogenesis b) Vector DNA - Site for tRNA
28. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a synthesis
diseased one by tissue culture technique, c) Micropropagation - in vitro
which part/parts of the diseased plant will production of plants in large numbers
be taken? (AIPMT 2014) d) Callus - Unorg an is e d
a) Apical meristem only mass of cells produced in tissue culture.
b) Palisade parenchyma 33. Polyethylene glycol method is used for
c) Both apical and axillary meristems (AIPMT 2010)
d) Epidermis only. a) biodiesel production
29. Cellular totipotency was demonstrated by b) seedless fruit production
(AIPMT 1991) c) energy production from sewage
a) Theodore Schwann d) gene transfer without a vector.
b) A.V. Leeuwenhoek 34. Somaclones are obtained by (AIPMT 2009)
c) F.C. Steward a) Plant breeding
d) Robert Hooke b) Irradiation
c) genetic engineering
d) tissue culture.

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35. The technique of obtaining large number of 5. An association of individuals of different
plantlets by tissue culture method is called species living in the same habitat and
a) Plantlet culture ( AIPMT 2005) having functional interactions is
b) Organ culture
 (Re-AIPMT 2015)
c) Micropropagation
a) Population b) Ecological niche
d) Macropropagation
c) Biotic community d) Ecosystem
36. Coconut milk is used in tissue culture in
which present ( AIPMT 2000) 6. Roots play in significant role in absorption
a) cytokinin b) auxin of water in (Re-AIPMT 2015)
c) gibberellins d) ethylene. a) Wheat b) Sunflower
c) Pistia d) Pea
37. 
Haploid plants can be obtained by
culturing. ( AIPMT 1994) 7. If we uncover half of the forest covering the
a) pollen grains b) root tips earth, what crisis will be produced at most
c) young leaves d) endosperm. and the first? (AIPMT 1996)
a. Some species will be extinct
UNIT IX - Plant Ecology
b. Population and ecological imbalance will
1. 
Plants which produce characteristic rise up
pneumatophores and show vivipary belong c. Energy crisis will occur
to  (NEET 2017) d. 
Rest half forests will maintain this
a) Halophytes b) psammophytes imbalance.
c) hydrophytes d) mesophytes 8. Most animals are tree dwellers in a
2. Mycorrhizae are the example of  (AIPMT 2015)
(NEET I 2017) a) Tropical rain forest
a) amensalism b) antibiosis b)Coniferous forest
c) mutualism d) fungistatis c) Thorn woodland
d) Temperate deciduous fo
3. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction,
‘-’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral Cuscuta is an example of
9. 
interaction, then the population interaction  (AIPMT Mains 2012)
represented by ‘+’ ‘-’ refers to (NEET 2016) a) Ectoparasitism b) Brood parasitism
a) mutualism b) amensalism c) Predation d) Endoparasitism
c) commensalism d) parasitism 10. 
Large woody vines are more commonly
4. W
 hich of the following is correctly found in (AIPMT Prelims 2011)
matched? (NEET Phase 2 – 2016) a) Alphine forests
a) Aerenchyma - Opuntia b) Temperate forests
b) Age pyramid - Biome c) Mangroves
c) P
 arthenium - Threat to d) Tropical rain forests
hysterophorus biodiversity 11. Niche overlap indicates
d) Stratification - Population  (AIPMT Prelims 2006)
a) Active co-operation between two species

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b) Two different parasites on the same host c) bare rock d) degraded forest
c) S
 haring of one or more resources 17. In an ecosystem the rate of production of
between the two species organic matter during photosynthesis is
d) Mutualism between two species termed as (NEET 2015 cancelled)
a) Secondary productivity
12. 
Which one of the following pairs is
b) net productivity
mismatched? (AIPMT Prelims 2005) c) Net primary productivity
a) Savanna – Acacia trees d) gross primary productivity
b) Prairie – Epiphytes
18. Natural reservoir of phosphorous is
c) Tundra – Permafrost (NEET 2013)
d) Coniferous forest – Evergreen trees a) rock b) fossils
13. 
Which ecosystem has the maximum c) sea water d) animal bones
biomass? (NEET 2017) 19. Secondary productivity is rate of formation
a) Grassland ecosystem of new organic matter by (NEET 2013)
b) Pond ecosystem a) consumers b) decomposers
c) Lake ecosystem c) producers d) parasites
d) Forest ecosystem 20. Which one of the following processes during
14. Which of the following would appear as the decomposition is correctly described?
pioneer organisms on bare rocks?  (NEET 2013)
(NEET 2016) a) Catabolism – Last step in the decomposition
under fully anaerobic condition
a) Mosses b) Green algae
b) Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutrient
c) Lichens d) Liverworts rise to the top layers of soil
15. In which of the following both pairs have c)  Fragmentation – Carried out by organisms
correct combination? (NEET 2015) such as earthworms.
Gaseous nutrient Nitrogen and d) Humification – Leads to the accumulative
cycle Sulphur of a dark coloured substance humus which
a)
Sedimentary Carbon and
nutrient cycle Phosphorous undergoes microbial action in a very fast
Gaseous nutrient Sulphur and rate.
cycle Phosphorous 21. 
Which one of the following is not a
b)
Sedimentary Carbon and
nutrient cycle Nitrogen functional unit of an ecosystem?
Gaseous Carbon and  (AIPMT 2012)
nutrient cycle Nitrogen a) Energy flow b) decomposition
c)
Sedimentary Sulphur and c) Productivity d) stratification
nutrient cycle Phosphorous
Gaseous nutrient Carbon and 22. The upright pyramid of number is absent in
cycle Sulphur  (AIPMT 2012)
d)
Sedimentary Nitrogen and a) Pond b) forest
nutrient cycle Phosphorous c) lake d) grassland
16. Secondary succession takes place on / in 23. The rate of formation of new organic matter
 (NEET 2015 cancelled) by rabbit in a grassland is called
a) newly created pond b) newly cooled lava

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 (Mains 2012) Column I Column II

a) net productivity (I) Earthworm (i) pioneer species
b) secondary productivity (II) Succession (ii) Detritivore
c) net primary productivity (III) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality
d) gross primary productivity (IV) Population growth (iv) Pollination
24. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied I II III IV
by plants like (Mains 2012) a) i ii iii iv
a) Azolla b) Typha b) iv i iii ii
c) Salix d) Vallisneria c) iii ii iv i
d) ii i iv iii
25. Which one of the following is a characteristic
feature of cropland ecosystem? 30. 
Given below is a simplified model of
(NEET 2016) phosphorous cycling in a terrestrial
a) Ecological succession ecosystem with four blanks (A – D. Identify
b) Absence of soil organisms the blanks. (AIPMT 2014)
c) Least genetic diversity
Consumers C
d) Absence of weeds
26. 
Most animals that live in deep oceanic
waters are (Re-AIPMT 2015) D
A
a) Detritivores
b) Primary consumers
c) Secondary consumers Uptake
Soil Solution
d) Tertiary consumers Run off
27. During ecological succession
 (Re-AIPMT 2015) B
a) The changes lead to a community that is
in near equilibrium with the environment
A B C D
and is called pioneer community.
Rock
b) Th
 e gradual and predictable change in a) Detritus Litter fall Producers
minerals
species composition occurs in a given Rock
area. b) Litter fall Producers Detritus
minerals
c) The establishment of a new biotic community Rock
c) Detritus Producers Litter fall
is very fast in its primary phase. minerals
d) The number and types of animals remain Rock
d) Producers Litter fall Detritus
constant. minerals

28. The mass of living material at a trophic level 31. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level,
at a particular time is called (AIPMT 2015) then how much energy will be available to
a) Standing crop peacock as food in the following chain?
b) Gross primary productivity (AIPMT 2014)
c) Standing state Plant → Mice → Snake → Peacock
d) Net primary productivity a) 0.02 J b) 0.002 J
29.Match the following and select the correct c) 0.2 J d) 0.0002 J
option (AIPMT 2014)

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32. 
Given below is an imaginary pyramid a) More than 80% b) About 70%
of numbers. What could be one of the c) About 60% d) Less than 50%
possibilities about certain organisms at
37. 
The breakdown of detritus into smaller
some of the different levels ?
particles by earthworm is a process called
 (AIPMT Prelims 2012) (AIPMT Mains 2011)
TC 10 a) Mineralisation b) Catabolism
SC 50 c) Humification d) Fragmentation
38. 
The biomass available for consumption
PC 500 by the herbivores and the decomposers is
PP 1 called (AIPMT Prelims 2010)
a) Gross primary productivity
a) Level one PP is ‘pipal trees’ and the level
SC is ‘sheep’. b) Net primary productivity
b) Level PC is ‘rats’ and level SC is ‘cats’ c) Secondary productivity
c) Level PC is ‘insects’ and level SC is d) Standing crop
‘small insectivorous birds’ 39. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere
d) Level PP is ‘phytoplanktons’ in sea and is (AIPMT Prelims 2009)
‘whale’ on top level TC a) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus
33. Which one of the following statements for → Lantana → Oak
pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the b) Pistia→Volvox→Scirpus→Hydrilla→Oak
remaining three are correct? (AIPMT → Lantana
Prelims 2011)
c) Oak→Lantana→Volvox→Hydrilla→Pistia
a) It is upright in shape
→Scirpus
b) Its base is broad
d) Oak→Lantana→Scirpus→Pistia→Hydrilla
c) 
It shows energy content of different
→Volvox
trophic level organisms
d) It is inverted in shape 40. About 70% of the total global carbon is
found in (AIPMT Prelims 2008)
34. Which one of the following animals may
a) Forests b) Grasslands
occupy more than one trophic levels in the
same ecosystem at the same time? c) Agro ecosystems d) Oceans
(AIPMT Mains 2011) 41. 
Consider the following statements
a) Goat b) Frog concerning food chains
c) Sparrow d) Lion i) 
Removal of 80% tigers from an area
35. Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead resulted in greatly increased growth of
to (AIPMT Mains 2011) vegetation.
a) Highly dry conditions ii) 
Removal of most of the carnivores
b) Excessive wet conditions resulted in an increased population of
deers.
c) Medium water conditions
d) Xeric conditions iii) The length of food chains is generally
limited to 3 – 4 trophic levels due to
36. Of the total incident solar radiation the energy loss.
proportion of PAR is  (AIPMT Prelims 2011)

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iv) The length of food chains may vary from 47. The ozone of atmosphere in which the ozone
2 to 8 trophic levels. layer is present is called
Which two of the above statements are (AIPMT 2014)
correct? (AIPMT Prelims 2008) a. ionosphere b. mesosphere
a) i and ii b) ii and iii c. stratosphere d. troposphere
c) iii and iv d) i and iv 48. 
Which one of the following is a wrong
42. Which one of the following is not used for statement? (AIPMT 2012)
construction of ecological pyramids? a. 
Most of the forests have been lost in
tropical areas.
(AIPMT Prelims 2006)
b. Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is
a) Dry weight harmful to animals.
2) Number of individuals c.
Greenhouse effect is a natural
c) Rate of energy flow phenomenon.
4) Fresh weight d.Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon
43. The UN Conference of Parties on climate in freshwater bodies.
change in the year 2012 was held at (NEET 49. Good ozone is found in the (Mains 2011)
2015) a. mesosphere b.troposphere
a. Lima b. Warsaw c. stratosphere d. ionosphere
c. Durban d. Doha.
50. 
Chipko movement was launched for the
44. Which of the following are most suitable protection of (AIPMT 2009)
indicators of SO2 pollution in the a. forests b. livestock
environment? ( NEET 2015) c.wetlands d.grasslands
a. Algae b. Fungi
51. Identify the correctly matched pair.
c. Lichens d. Conifers
(AIPMT 2005)
45. Which of the following is not one of the a. Basal convention -Biodiversity
prime health risks associated with greater conservation
UV radiations through the atmosphere due b.Kyoto protocol -Climatic change
to depletion of stratospheric ozone? (NEET c. Montreal protocol -Global warming
2015) d. Ramsar convention -Ground water
a. Damage to eyes pollution
b. Increased liver cancer
c. Increased skin cancer d. 52. 
Common indicator organism of water
d. Reduced Immune system pollution is (AIPMT 2004)
a. Lemna pancicostata
46. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens b. Eichhornia crassipes
on the trees indicates that the c. Escherichia coli
(AIPMT 2014) d. Entamoeba histolytica
a. trees are very healthy
53. Which country has the greatest contribution
b. trees are heavily infested for the hole formation in ozone layer?
c. location is highly polluted (AIPMT 1996)
d. location is not polluted. a. Russia b. Japan
c. USA d Germany

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UNIT X - Economic Botany 9. In plant breeding programmes, the entire

collection (of plants / seeds) having all the
1. The name of Dr. Norman Borlaug is diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is
associated with (JIPMER 2007) called (NEET 2013)
a) cross hybridization among the selected
a) Green revolution parents
b) Yellow revolution b) evaluation is selection of parents
c) White revolution c) germplasm collection
d) Blue revolution d) selection of superior recombinants
2. Which of the following is generally used for 10. An example for semi dwarf variety of wheat
induced mutageneis in crop plants is (HPPMT 2012)
(JIPMER 2007) a) IR 8 b) Sonalika
a) Alpha b) X-ray c) Triticum d) Saccharum
c) UV ray d) Gamma ray 11. 
Himgiri developed by hybridization is
3. A man-made allopolyploid cereal crop is selection for disease resistance against rust
(OJEE 2010) pathogen is a variety of  (AIPMT 2011)
a) Hordeum vulgare b) Triticale a) Chilli b) Maize
c) Raphanus brassica d) Zee mays c) Sugarcane d) Wheat
4. 
Objective of plant breeding is 12. 
Breeding of crops with high levels of
(MP PMT 2001)
minerals, vitamins and proteins is called
a) better yield (CBSE AIPMT 2010)
b) better quality a) somatic hybridization
c) disease / stress resistance b) biofortification
d) All of the above c) bio magnification
5. Selection is a method of (MP Pmet 2001) d) micro propagation
a) cytology b) plant phycology
13. 
The reason for vegetatively reproducing
c) plant breeding d) genetics
crop plants to suit for maintaining hybrid
6. Green revolution in India occurred during vigour is that (AIPMT 1998)
 ( AIPMT 2012) a) they are more resistant to disease
a) 1960’s b) 1970’s b) o
 nce a desired hybrid produced, no
c) 1980’s d) 1950’s chances of losing it
7. 
Jaya and ratna developed for green c) they can be easily propagated
revolution in India are the varieties of d) they have a longer life span.
(AIPMT 2011) 14. 
Wonder wheat is a new wheat variety
a) maize b) rice developed by (AIIMS 2009)
c) sugarcane d) wheat. a) M
 exico’s International Wheat and
8. First man-made cereal triticale is Maize improvement centre
(HPMT 2008) b) 
Indian National Botanical Research
a) Octaploid b) hexaploid Institute
c) Both a & b d) diploid c) Australian crop Improvement centre
d) African Crop Improvement centre

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