Attempt All Question Time allotted: 2hr&30min

Maximum Marks: 160

Name ______________________ Roll No___________________

Part A: Anatomy
1. Mrs. Smith has severe itching after poison ivy on her uniting structure in a type of fibrous joint classified
shoulder. She reaches her right hand over to her left as a:
shoulder to "scratch that itch." Which movement is a. Suture b. Symphysis
occurring when she moved his arm above the c. Synchondrosis d. Syndesmosis
shoulder? e. Gomphoses
a. Circumduction b. Extension 9. A 40years young man came to emergency
c. Flexion d. Supination department after road traffic accident with fracture
e. Pronation of lower end of humerus. Which type of cartilage is
2. Tom has just received his new wheel chair. As he present at the end of long bones?
prepares to get into his chair safely, he straightens a. Calcified cartilage b. Fibrous cartilage
and braces his left arm on the left armrest of the c. Elastic cartilage d. Hyaline cartilage
chair. He bends forward to flip up the footplate of the e. Both hyaline and elastic cartilage
chair. Which movements have occurred at his 10. During a small group discussion you are asked
ELBOW and HIP joints? about functions of vitamin D. One of your friend
a. Flexion of the elbow, extension of the hip mentioned that it is synthesized in skin. Which of the
b. Abduction of the elbow, flexion of the hip following cells are responsible for its formation
c. Extension of the elbow, flexion of the hip when exposed to sunlight?
d. Abduction of the elbow, adduction of hip a. Fibroblasts in dermis
e. Flexion of the elbow, flexion of hip. b. Keratinocytes in stratum basale and spinosum
3. A 50 years old man went to MRI of his abdomen. The c. Keratinocytes in stratum granulosum
longitudinal sections were taken which divide the d. Melanocytes in epidermis
body into anterior and posterior portion. Which body e. Merkel cells in epidermis
plane result in this type of longitudinal images? 11. A 15- year- old girl presented with acne in the OPD.
a. Frontal b. Midsagittal Acne is chronic inflammation of which of the
c. Coronal d. Median following structural component of skin.
e. Transverse a. Hair follicles
4. A little girl while alone and hungry found some b. Capillary loops
snacks in her mother’s cupboard. What is the c. Sebaceous glands
movement of her ankles if she stands on her tip toes d. Stratum basale of epidermis
to get her hands on the favorite food in the e. Arrector pili muscle
cupboard? 12. A section of thick skin is examined under
a. Anterior rotation b. Dorsiflexion microscope. Multiple cell layers are seen at high
c. Extension d. Planter flexion magnification. Name that layer that rests on the
e. Planter extension basement membrane?
5. A Surgeon found a cervical rib on the X-ray of the a. stratum spinosum
patient. Considering the classification of bones, the b. stratum granulosum
cervical rib is categorized in which of the following c. stratum lucidum
types? d. stratum basale
a. Supernumerary bone b. Pneumatic bone e. stratun corneum
c. Sesamoid bone d. Heterotropic bone 13. A 50-year-old lady complains of red colored lesion
e. Irregular bone on the arm. Biopsy of skin reveals numerous
6. A teacher was delivering a lecture about general vascular channels with erythrocytes. The endothelial
anatomy of muscle. She inquired about the name of cells of vessels exhibit which of the following
muscle which is non-striated non-branching and has epithelial tissue morphology
a single nucleus. The name of muscle is: a. Pseudostratified
a. Skeletal muscle b. Smooth muscle b. Simple columnar
c. Cardiac muscle d. Intrafusal muscle c. Simple cuboidal
e. Extrafusal muscle d. Simple squamous
7. A medical student is asked to perform flexion of e. Stratified columnar
knee joint. During his flexion of the knee joint,
quadriceps muscles acts as: 14. Your instructor reminds you that within cells
a. Antagonist b. Fixator membrane channels permit ions and signal
c. Agonist d. Prime mover molecules to pass between adjacent cells. Which of
e. Synergist the following channels are present in intercellular
8. During a fall on outstretched hand, force is gap junctions?
transmitted from radius to ulna. The interosseous a. Cadherins b. Connexins
membrane between the radius and ulna is the c. Netrins d. Perforins
e. Porins
15. Histological section of skin from lateral aspect of 23. Myocardium of a woman who dies of a cardiac arrest
thigh of right leg is observed under microscope. is examined under microscope in pathology
Which of the following epithelium describes the department. What histological character
epidermis? distinguishes cardiac muscle from skeletal muscle?
a. Keratinized stratified epithelium a. Connective tissue contain rich capillary network
b. Non keratinized stratified epithelium b. Muscle fibers are made of multiple nucleated
c. Pseudostratified epithelium cells
d. Stratified cuboidal c. Muscle fibers exhibit cross striation
e. Transitional epithelium d. Sarcomere is between adjacent Z lines
16. A biopsy of lymph nodes is examined under e. Only actin filament are present.
microscope. In this silver stained section, irregular 24. A patient with a deep knife wound in the buttock
black lines are seen, they represent which of the walks with a waddling gait, in which the pelvis falls
following connective tissue component. toward one side at each step. Which of the following
a. Glycoproteins b. Proteoglycans nerve is damage?
c. Reticular fibers d. Elastic fibers a. Obturator nerve
e. Collagen fibers b. Nerve to obturator internus
17. A section of left Sartorius tendon is examined on c. Superior gluteal nerve
autopsy. This collagen rich connective tissue is d. Inferior gluteal nerve
important in transmission of force from muscle to e. Femoral nerve
bone. Which of the following best describes the type 25. A 67-year-old patient was given a course of
of connective tissue? antibiotics by gluteal intramuscular injections after a
a. Dense irregular connective tissue major abdominal surgery. To avoid damaging the
b. Loose areolar connective tissue sciatic nerve during an injection, in which of the
c. Elastic connective tissue following areas needle be inserted?
d. Adipose connective tissue a. Over the sacrospinous ligament
e. Dense regular connective tissue b. Midway between the ischial tuberosity and the
18. On examining via tongue depressor epiglottis is lesser trochanter
seen by the physician. Epiglottis of the larynx is c. Midpoint of the gemelli muscles
which type of the connective tissue d. Upper lateral quadrant of the gluteal region
a. Dense irregular connective tissue e. Lower medial quadrant of the gluteal region
b. Hyaline cartilage 26. A 62-year-old woman slips and falls on the bathroom
c. Fibrocartilage floor. As a result, she has a posterior dislocation of
d. Elastic cartilage the hip joint and a fracture of the neck of the femur
e. Adipose tissue that results in avascular necrosis of the femoral
19. In a surgical section of a cartilage, flattened nuclei of head, probably resulting from lack of blood supply
cells are seen in the outer layer of perichondrium. from which of the following arteries?
These nuclei represent which type of connective a. Obturator
tissue cell b. Superior gluteal
a. Chondroblast b. Chondrocytes c. Inferior gluteal
c. Endothelial cells d. Fibroblasts d. Medial femoral circumflex
e. Myofibroblast e. Lateral femoral circumflex
20. Which of the following cells initiate mineralization of 27. During a road traffic accident if the acetabulum is
bone matrix during growth and bone remodeling fracture at its posterosuperior margin by, dislocation
throughout life? of the hip joint, which of the following bones could
a. Fibroblasts b. Osteoprogenitor cells be involved.
c. Osteoclasts d. Osteocytes a. Pubis b. Ischium
e. Osteoblasts c. Ilium d. Sacrum
21. A section of spongy bone is examined under e. Head of the femur
microscope, which feature best describes the 28. A 45-year old woman after an accident experiences
surface that lines the bony spicules and internal weakness when abducting and medially rotating the
surface of compact bone. thigh. Which of the following muscles is most likely
a. Articular cartilage damaged?
b. Periosteum a. Piriformis
c. Endosteum b. Obturator internus
d. Perichondrium c. Quadratus femoris
e. Sharpys fibers d. Gluteus maximus
e. Gluteus minimus
22. A 30 year old man begins a vigorous program of 29. A demonstrator was teaching a batch of first year
bodybuilding. After 6 months his muscles are about gluteal region during which she asked them
prominent and strong. What microscopic change about the insertion of gluteus maximus. Which of
underlies muscle enlargement, the following option gives insertion of gluteus
a. Deposition of newly formed adipocytes maximus?
b. Increase in diameter of individual muscle fibers a. Greater trochanter
c. Increase in number of muscle fibers b. Lesser trochanter
d. Thickening of endomysium c. Linea aspra
e. Thickening of perimysium d. Symphysis pubis
 e. Intertrochanteric crest d. Vastus intermedius
30. A professor was teaching the students about the e. Tensor fasciae lata
deep group of muscles of gluteal region. Regarding 38. The woman undergoes hip surgery. If all of the
the deep group, which of the following muscle lies arteries that are part of the cruciate anastomosis of
between the gamelli? the upper thigh ligated, which of the following
a. Obturator externus arteries maintains blood flow?
b. Piriformis a. Medial femoral circumflex
c. Gluteus medius b. Lateral femoral circumflex
d. Obturator internus c. Superior gluteal
e. Quadratus femoris d. Inferior gluteal
31. A group of students were discussing about the hip e. First perforating
joint on a model of hipbone. Which part of hipbone 39. A 25-year-old gladiator sustains a penetrating injury
articulates with femur to form hip joint? that damages the superficial peroneal nerve. This
a. Acetabulum b. Ileum will most likely cause paralysis of which of the
c. Ischium d. Pubis following muscle.
e. Symphysis pubis a. Peroneus tertius
32. A demonstrator was teaching gluteal region while he b. Peroneus brevis
asked his students that which could be the c. Flexor hallucis longus
commonest site for intramuscular injection in gluteal d. Tibialis anterior
region to avoid injury to underlying neuromuscular e. Tibialis posterior
bundle. 40. During a knee surgery, a surgeon ligates arteries
a. Superior lateral quadrant participating in the anastomosis around the knee
b. Inferior lateral quadrant joint. Which of the following arteries is most likely
c. Inferior medial quadrant spared?
d. Superior medial quadrant a. Lateral superior genicular
e. Superior and inferior quadrant b. Medial inferior genicular
33. An elderly woman fell at home and fractured the c. Descending branch of the lateral femoral
greater trochanter of her femur. Which of the circumflex
following muscles would continue to function d. Descending genicular branch
normally? e. Anterior tibial recurrent
a. Piriformis 41. An injury to the leg of a golfer results in loss of the
b. Gluteus medius ability to invert the foot. Which of the following
c. Gluteus maximus muscles is most likely paralyzed?
d. Gluteus minimus a. Tibialis posterior
e. Obturator internus b. Peroneus longus
34. A 50-year-old woman came to the OPD and c. Peroneus brevis
complaint about difficulty in climbing up the stairs. d. Peroneus tertius
Which of the following muscle is damage? e. Extensor digitorum longus
a. Gluteus maximus 42. A student was searching about the terminology
b. Piriformis secondary heart. Which of the following muscle in
c. Obturator internus the leg is also known as secondary heart?
d. Gluteus medius a. Soleus
e. Gluteus minimus b. Tibialis posterior
35. A 22-year-old patient is unable to “unlock” the knee c. Popliteus
joint to permit flexion of the leg. Which of the d. Gastrocnemius
following muscles is most likely damaged? e. Tibialis posterior
a. Quadriceps femoris 43. A small muscle with a long tendon that weakly
b. Gracilis assists gastrocnemius in plantar flexing ankle and
c. Semimembranosus may be absent in 10% of people is:
d. Popliteus a. Soleus
e. Tensor fascia lata b. Popliteus
36. A 52-year-old woman fell and now complains of c. Plantaris
being unable to extend her leg at the knee joint. d. Tibialis posterior
Which of the following muscles in this accident e. Gastrocnemius
parlayed?
a. Quadriceps femoris
b. Gracilis 44. A construction worker falls feet first from a roof. He
c. Semimembranosus sustains a fracture of the groove on the
d. Popliteus undersurface of the sustentacular tali of the
e. Tensor fascia lata calcaneus bone. Which of the following muscle
37. A 20-year-old patient cannot flex and medially rotate tendons is most likely torn?
the thigh while running and climbing. Which of the a. Flexor digitorum brevis
following muscles is most likely damaged? b. Flexor digitorum longus
a. Semimembranosus c. Flexor hallucis brevis
b. Sartorius d. Flexor hallucis longus
c. Rectus femoris e. Tibialis posterior
45. A 23-year-old female fell from the roof. The medial 52. The granular cells of a developing follicle forms, one
longitudinal arch of her foot flattened from fracture of the following:
and displacement of the keystone for the arch. a. Polar body.
Which of the following bones is damage? b. Mature oocyte.
a. Calcaneus b. Cuboid bone c. Corona radiata.
c. Head of the talus d. Medial cuneiform d. Bar body
e. Navicular e. Acrosome.
46. A young boy has difficulty in dorsiflexing the foot. 53. In germ cell division, Meiosis 2 is considered as
Which of the following muscles is most likely equational division comparable to Mitosis. Which of
damaged? the following arrangement of chromosomes is
a. Tibialis posterior responsible for this feature?
b. Flexor digitorum longus a. Alignment in metaphase
c. Tibialis anterior b. Crossing over in prophase.
d. Peroneus longus c. Duplication in prometapahase.
e. Peroneus brevis d. Pulling apart in Anaphase.
47. A patient experiences paralysis of the muscle that e. Splitting in Anaphase.
originates from the femur and contributes directly to 54. Which one of the following phases of Meiosis in
the stability of the knee joint. Which of the following germ cells undergoes prolonged dormancy, before
muscles is involved? entering into cell division?
a. Vastus lateralis a. Anaphase I
b. Semimembranosus b. Anaphase II
c. Sartorius c. Metaphase I
d. Biceps femoris (long head) d. Prophase I
e. Rectus femoris e. Prophase II
48. A teacher while teaching about the gluteal region, 55. Soon, after fertilization, the endometrium is being
asked the students that which anatomical landmark eroded by the conceptus, for implantation. Which of
marks the transition from the femoral vein to the the following plays the most active role?
external iliac vein? a. Epiblast
a. Femoral triangle b. Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm
b. Anterior superior iliac spine c. Extraembryonic visceral mesoderm
c. Adductor hiatus d. Hypoblast
d. Inguinal ligament e. Syncytiotrophoblast
e. Adductor canal 56. A 35 years old female experienced polyspermy at
49. A basketball player was hit in the thigh by an the time of fertilization. Which one of the following
opponent’s knee. Which of the following arteries is reactions was compromised for this abnormality?
likely to compress and cause ischemia because of a. Acrosome reaction
the bruise and damage to the extensor muscles of b. Capacitation
the leg? c. Decidual reaction
a. Popliteal d. Gastrulation
b. Deep femoral e. Zona reaction
c. Anterior tibial 57. On ultrasound examination of a 38 years old
d. Posterior tibial primigravida (1st pregnancy), in the 8th week of
e. Peroneal gestation (conception), unusual placenta was
50. A 10-year-old boy falls from a swing and complains observed. A provisional diagnosis of molar
of pain in the area around the knee joint and ankle pregnancy was made, which is a complication of
joint. On physical examination, her physician found pregnancy characterized by the abnormal growth of
that the muscle responsible for flexing the leg at the one of the following cells:
knee joint and plantar flexing the foot is severely a. Aminioblasts
weakened. Which of the following muscles involved b. Embryoblasts
in both movements was most likely damage? c. Epiblast
a. Tibialis posterior d. Hypoblast
b. Gastrocnemius e. Trophoblasts
c. Soleus
d. Peroneus longus
e. Flexor digitorum longus
51. A group of medical students observed pairing of 58. The pluripotent Stem Cells extracted from
homologous chromosomes in an Anatomy Atlas. developing conceptus have variety of clinical
They agreed the cell to be in Meiosis and that applications. Which of the following can source
segments of DNA were to be exchanged. The group these highly specialized stem cells?
leader named the process involved, as? a. Cytotrophoblast
a. Alignment b. Decidual Cells
b. Crossing over c. Endometrial cells
c. Disjunction d. Inner cells mass
d. Nondisjunction e. Outer cells mass
e. Synapsis
59. Third week is characterized by the formation of 3 c. Stratum granulosum
germ layers. Appearance of which of the following d. Stratum lucidum
features begets the process: e. Stratum spinosum
a. Allantois 67. A full term male newborn with absence of 5th–8th
b. Buccal membrane ribs on the left side presented with transient
c. Cloacal membrane tachypnea. Diagnosis was done by clinical
d. Notochord examination and confirmed on CT scanning. Which
e. Primitive streak other structure of thoracic vertebrae should be
60. Notochord, forms the embryonal axis, forming the suspected to be abnormal in this case?
right & left halves of the conceptus. Which of the a. Arch
following is the adult derivative is contributed by b. Body
this rod shaped structure? c. Costal process
a. Intervertebral disc d. Lamina
b. Ribs e. Spinous process
c. Spinal cord 68. A newborn baby was delivered with a congenital
d. Sternum deformity diagnosed as Ectopia Cordis. Failure of
e. Vertebral column normal development of which of the following
61. The Mesoderm germ layer is the source of many anatomical structures can lead to this congenital
tissues and organs. The extraembryonic mesoderm anomaly?
forms one of the following structures: a. Clavicle
a. Amnion b. Ribs
b. Chorion c. Sternum
c. Lateral plate d. Vertebral arches
d. Notochord e. Vertebral bodies
e. Somites 69. Soon, after fertilization, the endometrium is being
62. A developing conceptus, passes through many eroded by the conceptus, for implantation. Which of
morphological changes during its developmental the following plays the most active role?
period; morula, blastula, gastrula, a disc & folded a. Epiblast
embryo. The human like features are acquired by: b. Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm
a. 2nd week c. Extraembryonic visceral mesoderm
b. 3rd week d. Hypoblast
c. 8th week e. Syncytiotrophoblast
d. 12th week 70. Number of chromosomes and amount of DNA in a
e. 20th week. gamete is represented by:
63. A home delivered new born baby is brought to a. 23 Chromosomes 1N.
pediatric OPD, with a cystic swelling at the back of b. 23 Chromosomes 2N.
the neck, about the size of a melon. MRI reveals, c. 46 Chromosomes 4N.
meninges and spinal cord protruding through d. 46 Chromosomes, 2N.
cervical vertebral defect and forming a fluid sac. e. 46 Chromosomes, IN.
Which one of the following best describes this 71. Two weeks after a missed menstrual period, a 23
condition? years old married girl performs a urine strip
a. Anencephaly pregnancy test at home. Presence of which hormone
b. Arnold cherry syndrome in maternal urine would confirm pregnancy?
c. Cranioschisis a. Estrogen.
d. Holoprosencephaly b. Follicle stimulating hormone.
e. Spina bifida c. Human chorionic gonadotrophin.
64. Spina bifida is a condition that is related to mal d. Luteinizing hormone.
union of vertebral arches. Faulty differentiation of e. Progesterone.
which of the following elements can lead to this 72. Spermiogenesis means, transformation of:
condition? a. Primary spermatocyte to secondary.
a. Dermatome b. Secondary spermtocyte to spermatid.
b. Epimere c. Secondary spermatocyte to sperm.
c. Hypomere d. Spermatid to spermatozoa.
d. Mypomere e. Spermatogonia to primary spermatocyte.
e. Scelrotome

65. Dermis of the skin is formed by: Physiology: Block I (02-05-23)

a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm Name:__________________________ Roll No:________
c. Somatic mesoderm (of lateral plate)
d. Somitic mesoderm (of the somite) 73. Which of the following is not a feature of peripheral
e. Splanchnic mesoderm (of lateral plate) proteins :
66. Melanocytes are found in which epidermal layer? a. Hormone receptors b. Structural channels
a. Stratum basale c. Present on one side d. Cell surface antigens
b. Stratum corneum e. Peripherally located
74. Which of the following cell organelles is called a b. Negatively charged carbohydrate layer on the
suicidal bag? outer cell surface
a. Lysosomes b. Golgi bodies c. The layer of anions aligned on the cytosolic
c. Cell membrane d. Mitochondria surface of the plasma membrane
e. Ribosomes d. Large glycogen stores found in fast muscles
75. Which of the following statements is true about cell e. A mechanism of cell-cell attachment
theory? 84. Pinocytosis and phagocytosis
a. The Cell theory does not apply to fungi a. Involves the recruitment of actin filaments
b. The Cell theory does not apply to virus b. Occur spontaneously and non-selectively
c. The Cell theory does not apply to algae c. Endocytotic vesicles fuse with ribosomes that
d. The Cell theory does not apply to microbes release hydrolases into the vesicles
e. The cell theory does not apply to brain cells d. Is only observed in macrophages and
76. The space between the axon terminal & the muscle neutrophils
cell membrane is? e. Does not require ATP
a. motor end-plate b. myelin sheath 85. Eukaryotic cells are distinguished from lower units
c. synaptic cleft d. motor neuron of life by
e. muscular junction a. DNA b. RNA
77. During neuromuscular transmission, the arrival of c. Membranes d. Protein
nerve AP at the synaptic knob leads to which of the e. Nucleus
following? 86. The characteristics of a biological membrane most
a. Opening of Na channels. influenced by its cholesterol content is?
b. Opening of K channels. a. Thickness b. Ion permeability
c. Opening of Ca channels. c. Fluidity d. Glycosylation
d. Closing of Ca channels. e. Hydrophobicity
e. Closing of Na channels. 87. The most abundant protein in mammalian cells is:
78. The sarcoplasmic reticulum does not: a. Actin b. Collagen
a. Surround each myofibril. c. Titin d. Dystrophin
b. Release Ca2+ in response to a muscle action e. Myosin
potential. 88. The cytoskeletal components with the least diameter
c. Has a Ca2+ "pump" in its membrane. is?
d. Make up about 85% of the contents of a muscle a. Microfilaments b. Intermediate filaments
fibre. c. Microtubules d. Cilia
e. Involved in excitation contraction coupling e. Flagella
79. What is largely responsible for the negative resting 89. Among the following, which is not a cytoplasmic
membrane potential (around -70 mV) in a neuron? organelle?
a. Axonal insulation by Schwann cells. a. Mitochondria b. Golgi apparatus
b. Voltage-gated sodium channels opening. c. Nucleolus d. Nucleus
c. The action potential. e. Ribosomes
d. Potassium leak currents. 90. Micro RNAs (miRNAs)
e. Na channels a. Are formed in the cytoplasm and repress
80. A 42-year-old man with myasthenia gravis notes translation or promote degradation of mRNA
increased muscle strength when he is treated with before it can be translated
an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor. The basis b. Are formed in the nucleus and then processed in
for his improvement is increased the cytoplasm by the dicer enzyme
a. Amount of acetylcholine (ACh) released from c. Are short double stranded RNA fragments that
motor nerves. regulate gene expression
b. Levels of ACh at the muscle end plates. d. Repress gene transcription
c. Number of ACh receptors on the muscle end e. Carry amino acids to the ribosomes
plates. 91. Which of the following is true of RNA synthesis
d. Amount of norepinephrine released from motor (transcription)?
nerves. a. RNA synthesis is always in the 5' - 3' direction.
e. Synthesis of norepinephrine in motor nerves. b. RNA polymerase needs a primer to initiate
81. In the steady state, the value of which of the transcription.
following variables is the same in ICF and ECF? c. In transcription, U is inserted opposite T.
a. pH b. osmolality d. New nucleotides are added on to the 2' OH of
c. concentration of proteins d. number of osmoles the ribose sugar
e. concentration of carbohydrates e. RNA synthesis is always at the 5’ end.
82. In a healthy adult, ECF volume constitutes what 92. The role of the sigma factor in bacterial RNA
fraction of body weight? polymerase is:
a. 10% b. 20% a. to catalyse RNA synthesis:
c. 30% d. 40% b. to position RNA polymerase correctly on the
e. 50% template DNA.
83. The term glycocalyx refers to c. to terminate RNA synthesis.
a. Negatively charged carbohydrate chain that d. to unwind the DNA template.
protrude into the cytosol from glycolipids and e. None of the above
integral glycoproteins 93. Gap junctions are made up of a protein called:
 a. Connexin 102. The membrane potential at which net flux of
b. Clathrin an ion across the membrane is zero is called:
c. Cadherin a. Resting membrane potential
d. Calcineurin b. Spike potential
e. Selectin c. Threshold potential
94. Cell volume and pressure is mainly dependent upon d. Electrotonic potential
activity of: e. Equilibrium potential of that ion
a. Na glucose co transporter 103. Plateau portion of action potential is due to:
b. Na-K pump a. Opening of voltage gated fat sodium channels
c. Glucose transporter b. Opening of sodium-potassium leak channels
d. Na-Ca exchanger c. The action of sodium potassium pump
e. Carrier proteins d. Opening of slow calcium sodium channels
95. The rate of diffusion of a substance across the cell e. Rapid opening of voltage gated K+ channels
membrane is inversely proportional to: 104. The Nernst potential also called equilibrium
a. Concentration gradient for the substance potential is positive for:
b. Diffusion coefficient a. Na and Cl
c. Surface area b. Na and K
d. Thicknesss of the membrane c. Na and Ca
e. Kinetic energy of molecules d. K and Cl
96. The term oncotic pressure is applied to osmotic e. Cl and Ca
pressure exerted by: 105. Which of the following decreases in length
a. Albumin and other plasma proteins across the during the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber?
capillary wall a. A band of the sarcomere
b. Crystalloids across the cell membrane b. I band of the sarcomere
c. Hemoglobin across the capillary wall c. Thick filaments
d. Substances like urea, glucose across the cell d. Thin filaments
membrane e. Z discs of the sarcomere
e. Water molecules across the capillary wall 106. A cross sectional view of a skeletal muscle
97. Sodium-glucose co transport in the intestine and fiber through the H zone would reveal the presence
kidney is an example of: of:
a. Primary active transport a. Actin and titin
b. Secondary active transport b. Actin only
c. facilitated diffusion c. Actin, myosin and titin
d. passive transport d. Myosin and actin
e. counter transport e. Myosin only
98. Which of the following is an example of passive 107. Tetanic contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber
transport? results from a cumulative increase in the
a. Calcium efflux by Ca pump intracellular concentration of:
b. Na-Ca exchanger a. ATP
c. K efflux through potassium leak channels b. Ca++
d. Ca sequestration in sarcoplasmic reticulum c. K+
e. Glucose and amino acids transport along with d. Na+
sodium ions e. Troponin
99. The resting potential of a myelinated nerve fiber is 108. Excitation contraction coupling in a smooth
primarily dependent on the concentration gradient muscle is initiated when calcium binds to:
of: a. Myosin light chains
a. Ca ion b. Calmodulin
b. Cl ion c. Troponin
c. HCO3 ion d. Tropomyosin
d. K ion e. Protein kinase A
e. Na ion 109. The duration of action potential in a skeletal
100. Action potential in a visceral smooth muscle: muscle fiber is typically:
a. Is also known as the slow wave a. 5 ms
b. May exhibit spike or a plateau form b. 25 ms
c. Is largely contributed by sodium channels c. 50 ms
d. Is contributed largely by the fast calcium d. 100 ms
channels e. 250 ms
e. Is similar to action potential in multi unit smooth 110. In skeletal muscle, thin filaments do not
muscle contain:
101. The duration of action potential in a nerve is a. Actin
typically closest to: b. Myosin
a. 2 ms c. Troponin
b. 20 ms d. Tropomyosin
c. 200 ms e. Calcium
d. 2000 ms 111. The cell would be most excitable when its
e. 20000 ms membrane potential:
 a. – 30 mV c. Excitation-contraction coupling
b. – 55 mV d. Unstable membrane potential
c. – 70 mV e. Muscle relaxation
d. – 90 mV
e. – 110 mV
112. Staircase phenomenon (Treppe) is due to:
a. Increased availability of intracellular calcium
b. Synthesis of stable troponin C molecules
c. Summation
d. Tetanus
e. Increased excitability
113. Excitation and contraction of skeletal muscle
are coupled by:
a. ATP
b. Myosin
c. Release of calcium into sarcoplasm
d. Calmodulin
e. Actin
114. The major source of calcium for contraction
of skeletal muscle is:
a. ECF
b. Cytosol
c. Mitochondria
d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. Golgi bodies
115. The neurotransmitters that has both
excitatory and inhibitory effects is
a. Aspartate
b. GABA
c. Glutamate
d. Glycine
e. Acetylcholine
116. Rigor mortis is due to:
a. Damage to actin and myosin
b. Rapid sequestration of Ca in ER
c. Increased myosin ATPase
d. ATP depletion
e. Acetylcholine
117. Smooth and cardiac muscles are similar in
their
a. Ability to contract in the absence of an action
potential
b. Dependence of contraction on Ca++ ions
c. Presence of a T tubule network
d. Role of myosin kinase in muscle contraction
e. Striated arrangement of the actin and myosin
filaments
118. Calmodulin is closely related to which of the
following proteins?
a. G-actin
b. Myosin light chain
c. Tropomyosin
d. Troponin C
e. F-actin
119. Smooth muscle contraction
a. Is Ca++ dependent
b. Does not require an action potential
c. Requires more energy as compared to skeletal
muscles
d. Is shorter in duration as compared to skeletal
muscles
e. Does not require Ca++ for contraction
120. The Latch mechanism in smooth muscles is
responsible for:
a. Fast muscle twitch
b. Sustained muscle contraction
C: Biochemistry: Block I (02-05-23) 129. Specialized areas of plasma membrane lipid
bilayer, enriched in cholesterol and sphingolipid,
Name:_________________________ Roll. No:___________ involved in signal transduction are called
a. G-linked receptors
121. An infant presented with severe progressive b. Adenylate cyclase
psychomotor retardation and a variety of physical c. Cadherins
signs. The pediatrician diagnosed the infant with I- d. Lipid rafts
Cell disease with very poor prognosis. This e. Integrins
condition is due to deficiency of 130. The major interaction responsible for stabilizing
components/enzymes of: plasma membrane
a. Nucleus b. Lysosomes a. Hydrophobic interactions
c. Mitochondria d. Golgi Apparatus b. Hydrophilic interactions
e. Endoplasmic Reticulum c. Covalent bonds
122. Peroxisomes are subcellular respiratory d. Disulfide bonds
organelles which have no energy-coupled electron e. Ionic bonds
transport systems and are probably formed by 131. In the plasma membrane, lipid molecules are
budding from which of the following organelles: arranged in:
a. Golgi apparatus a. Head parallel
b. Endoplasmic Reticulum b. Alternate
c. Mitochondria c. Random
d. Nucleus d. Scattered
e. Peroxisomes e. Series
123. The lipid content of membrane is responsible for 132. Ion carriers are located in:
nearly 40% of dry weight of membrane and mainly a. Plasma membranes
imparts fluidity to the cell membrane. Which of the b. Nuclear membrane
following phospholipids mainly constitute the cell c. Cellular space
membrane? d. Cell wall
a. phosphatidyl serine & phosphatidylinositol e. Nucleus
b. phosphatidylinositol & phosphatidyl glycerol 133. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell
c. phosphatidylcholine & membranes, which type of molecule spans the
phosphatidylethanolamine membrane, from its inner to outer surface?
d. phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidylserine & a. Carbohydrate
phosphatidylinositol b. Cholesterol
e. phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidylethanolamine c. Hydrocarbon tails
& phosphatidylserine d. Phospholipid
124. Enzymes catalyzing electron transport are present e. Proteins
mainly in the: 134. Peptidoglycan is a complex consisting of
a. Ribosomes b. Lysosomes a. Disaccharide and protein
c. Endoplasmic Reticulum b. Oligo-saccharide and protein
d. Inner Mitochondrial membrane c. Polysaccharide and protein
e. Outer Mitochondrial membrane d. Mono-saccharide and protein
125. The cellular organelle containing cristae in its e. Amino acid and carbohydrate
structure is: 135. What are the membrane structures that function in
a. Lysosomes b. Endoplasmic reticulum active transport?
c. Mitochondria d. Golgi Apparatus a. Peripheral proteins.
e. Peroxisomes b. Carbohydrates.
126. The Golgi complex: c. Integral proteins
a. Synthesizes proteins d. Hydrophobic molecules
b. Produces ATP e. Cholesterol
c. Processes proteins 136. GPI anchored proteins are:
d. Forms glycoproteins a. Peripheral proteins of plasma membrane
e. Provides pathway to metabolites. b. Integral proteins of plasma membrane
127. Post translational modification of proteins c. Integral proteins of mitochondrial membrane
occurs in the following cell organelle: d. Proteins which randomly bind to the lipids of
a. Golgi apparatus plasma membrane
b. Rough Endoplasmic reticulum e. Proteins which bind to ion gated channels in the
c. Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum plasma membrane
d. Mitochondria 137. A phosphodiester bond is present between:
e. Nucleus a. Amino acids in a polypeptide
128. Following is true about glycolipids in the plasma b. Fatty acids in a triglyceride
membrane: c. Nucleotides in a nucleic acid
a. Not a component of cell membrane d. Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
b. Are not related to antigenicity e. Carbohydrates and proteins in proteoglycans
c. Inner leaflet of plasma membrane 138. Nucleic acids are a polymer of nucleotide
d. Outer leaflet of plasma membrane monomeric units. Each nucleotide consists of
e. Both inner & outer leaflet of plasma membrane a. Base—phosphate
 b. Base—sugar--OH d. 4.0 amino acid residues / turn
c. Sugar--phosphate e. 3.9 amino acid residues / turn
d. Base—sugar--sulfate 152. A 67 year old man presented to the emergency
e. Base—sugar--phosphate department with 1 week history of angina and
139. ATP is a shortness of breath. He complained that his face and
a. Vitamin b. Nucleoside extremities had a “blue color.” Blood obtained for
c. Nucleotide d. Polypeptide analysis was chocolate-colored. Which one of the
e. Nucleic acid following is the most likely diagnosis?
140. The sugar molecule present in nucleotide is a. Sickle cell anemia
a. Triose b. Tetrose b. Thalassemia
c. Pentose d. Hexose c. Carboxyhemoglobinemia
e. Heptulose d. Methemoglobinemia
141. Pyrimidine found only in RNA is e. Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
a. Adenine b. Cytosine 153. Tertiary structure of a protein describes:
c. Thymine d. Guanine a. Order of amino acids
e. Uracil b. Location of disulfide bonds
142. Right handed double helix is present in c. Loop regions of proteins
a. A-DNA and Z-DNA d. Ways of protein folding
b. B-DNA and Z-DNA e. 3-D structure
c. A-DNA and B-DNA 154. The most abundant protein in bones is:
d. Z-DNA and B-DNA a. Collagen type I
e. Z-DNA and Z-DNA b. Collagen type II
143. Double helical DNA is unwound on c. Collagen type III
a. Raising the temperature d. Collagen type IV
b. Lowering the temperature e. Non-collagen proteins
c. Exposure to x-rays 155. Abnormal chain of amino acids in sickle cell
d. Exposure to gamma radiations anemia is:
e. Exposure to density gradient a. Alpha chain
144. The most important buffer system in the blood is: b. Beta chain
a. Proteinate buffer c. Gama chain
b. Acetate buffer d. Delta chain
c. Phosphate buffer e. Both alpha & beta chains
d. Bicarbonate buffer 156. Fetal hemoglobin contains:
e. Hemoglobin buffer system a. Two α and two γ chains
145. Which of these fluids has the highest viscosity? b. Two α and two β chains
a. Water b. Honey c. Two β chains and two γ chains
c. Blood d. Ethanol d. Two α , two β chains and two γ chains
e. Gastric juice e. Two γ chains
146. The rate of physical adsorption: 157. Abnormal collagen structure is NOT seen in:
a. Decreases with increase in pressure a. I-cell disease
b. Is independent at high pressure b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Is independent of temperature c. Chondrodysplasias
d. Is maximum at one atmospheric pressure d. Menke’s disease
e. Always increases with increase of pressure e. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
147. Water is a ___ 158. The pH of the extracellular fluid must be
a. universal solvent maintained between:
b. Polar solvent a. 6 to 7.4
c. Non polar solvent b. 7 to 7.2
d. Amphipathic solvent c. 7.35 to 7.45
e. Non polar uncharged solvent d. 7.5 to 8
148. The H – O – H bond angle in water molecule is: e. 8 to 8.5
a. 103.5° b. 104.0° 159. Buffering action of hemoglobin is mainly due to its
c. 104.5° d. 105.0° a. Indole residues
e. 105.5° b. Histidine residues
149. Sulphur containing amino acid is: c. Glutamine residues
a. Methionine b. Leucine d. Arginine residues
c. Valine d. Asparagine e. Lysine residues
e. Isoleucine 160. Anion gap is the difference in the plasma
150. A ketogenic amino acid is concentrations of
a. Valine b. Cysteine a. (Chloride) – (Bicarbonate)
c. Leucine d. Threonine b. (Sodium) – (Chloride)
e. Methionine c. (Potassium) – (Bicarbonate)
151. In secondary protein structure, the α helix has: d. (Sodium + Potassium) – (Chloride +
a. 3.4 amino acid residues / turn Bicarbonate)
b. 3.6 amino acid residues / turn e. (Sum of cations) – (Sum of anions)
c. 3.8 amino acid residues / turn