35021I101-LEARNING IT ESSENTIALS BY DOING

UNIT PART QN-NO Blooms Level

Which of the following is not an input unit

1 1 1 Understand
a. mouse b. scanner c. printer d. web camera
Which of the following is the smallest memory unit
1 1 2 Understand
a. RAM b. cache memory c. Registers d. Pen drive
Which of the following is the general purpose register
1 1 3 Understand
a. program counter b. accumulator c. Memory address register d. Instruction register
Which of the following register gets instructions from memory to CPU
1 1 4 Understand
a. Instruction register b. accumulator c. Memory buffer register d. program counter
Which of the following is called resource manager
1 1 5 Understand
a. compiler b. loader c. linker d. operating system
Which of the following is an information management of an operating system
1 1 6 Analyze
a. memory management b. process management
c. file management
Which of the following carries data d.
anddevice management
addresses from one unit to another unit
1 1 7 Apply
a. key board b. bus c. hard disk d. ALU
Which of the following address is generated by the CPU
1 1 8 Understand
a. logical address b. physical address c. port address d. IP address.
Operating system is a
1 1 9 Analyze
a. Bus manager b. Resource Manager c. Application Manager d. System Manager
A Program is an execution is called
1 1 10 Analyze
a. Process b. Instruction c. Procedure d. Function
LRU page replacement policy is
1 1 11 Understand
a. LastReplaceUnit b. LastRestoreUnit c. LeastRecentlyUsed d. LeastRequired Unit
Process which is currently running can be removed from the running state is
1 1 12 Analyze
a. Preemptive b. Non-Preemptive c. postemptive d. Non-postemptive
which of the following is not a Process State
1 1 13 Understand
a. Ready b.Blocked c.Executing d.Terminated
Abbreviation of MBR is _________________
1 1 14 a. Memory Buffer Register b. Main Buffer Register Understand
c. Main Bus Register d. Memory Bus Register
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 Which of the follwing is not the cpu-scheduling algorithm.
1 1 15 Understand
a. FCFS b .SJF c. Round-Robin d. JSF
Assembly language is a __________ Programming Language
1 1 16 Remember
a. Lowlevel b. Highlevel c. Middlelevel d. InternetBased
___________ is a Conversion of high level Language to Low level Language
1 1 17 Remember
a. Assembler b. Loader c. Compiler d. Linker
Abbreviation of FCFS is_______________
1 1 18 a. Fast Come fast Serve b. Fast Come First Serve Apply
c. First Come Fast Serve d. First Come First Serve
IC chips used in computers are usually made of
1 1 19 Apply
a. Lead b. Silicon c. Chromium d. Gold
One kilobyte is equal to
1 1 20 Apply
a. 1000 bytes b. 1024 bytes c. 100 bytes d. 1023 bytes
Which of the following is not an example of Operating System?
1 1 21 Analyze
a. Windows 98 b. BSD UNIX c. Microsoft Office XP d. Red Hat Linux
Which supercomputer is developed by the Indian Scientists?
1 1 22 Analyze
a. Param b. Super 301 c. Compaq Presario d. CRAY YMP
One Gigabyte is Approximately equal is
1 1 23 a.1000,000 bytes b.1000,000,000 bytes c.1000,000,000,000 bytes Understand
d. None of these
The errors that can be pointed out by the compiler are
1 1 24 Understand
a. Syntax error b. Symantic error c. Logical error d. Internal error
What is the control unit's function in the CPU
a. To transfer data to primary storage .
1 1 25 b. TO store program instructions. Understand
c. To perform logic functions.
d. To decode program instructions
Which of the following commands is given to reboot the computer?
1 1 26 Understand
a. Ctrl + Alt + Del b. Ctrl + Alt + Tab c. Ctrl + Shift + Del d. Ctrl + Alt + shift
Select the odd one out -
1 1 27 Analyze
a. Interpreter b. Operating System c. Compiler d. Assembler
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 ROM is composed of
1 1 28 Apply
a. Magnetic cores b. Micro-processors c. Photoelectric cells d. Floppy disks
A temporary storage area, attached to the CPU, for I/O operations, is a (2)
1 1 29 Understand
a. Channel b. Buffer b. Register d. Core
In computer language, one kilobyte equals (2)
1 1 30 Apply
a. 1000 bytes b. 1024 bytes c. 100 bytes d. 8 bytes
The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor what has to be done, is
1 1 31 a. Operation code b. Address c. Locator d. Flip-Flop Analyze

Which of the following refers to the associative memory?

a. the address of the data is generated by the CPU
1 1 32 b. the address of the data is supplied by the users Analyze
c. there is no need for an address i.e. the data is used as an address
d. the data are accessed sequentially
To avoid the race condition, the number of processes that may be simultaneously inside their
1 1 33 critical section is Understand
a. 8 b. 1 c. 16 d. 0
A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a form
1 1 34 suitable for execution Remember
a. assembler b. linking loader c. cross compiler d. load and go
The Memory Buffer Register (MBR)
a. is a hardware memory device which denotes the location of the current instruction being
executed.
b. is a group of electrical circuits (hardware), that performs the intent of instructions fetched
1 1 35 Remember
from memory.
c. contains the address of the memory location that is to be read from or stored into.
d. contains a copy of the designated memory location specified by the MAR after a "read" or the
new contents of the memory prior to a "write".
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 The strategy of allowing processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended is
called
1 1 36 Understand
a. preemptive scheduling b. non preemptive scheduling
c. shortest job first d. first come first served
Which of the following systems software does the job of merging the records from two files into
one?
1 1 37 Understand
a. Security software b. Utility program c. Networking software
d. Documentation system
Thrashing
a. is a natural consequence of virtual memory systems
1 1 38 b. can always be avoided by swapping Remember
c. always occurs on large computers
d. can be caused by poor paging algorithms
Computer cannot "boot" if it does not have the
1 1 39 Analyze
a. Compiler b. Loader c. Operating system d. Assembler
Interprocess communication
1 1 40 a. is required for all processes b. is usually done via disk drives Understand
c. is never necessary, d. allows processes to synchronize activity
A system program that sets up an executable program in main memory ready for execution is
1 1 41 Apply
a. assembler b. linker c. loader d. compiler
The FIFO algorithm
a. executes first the job that last entered the queue
1 1 42 b. executes first the job that first entered the queue Understand
c. execute first the job that has been in the queue the longest
d. executes first the job with the least processor needs
Fragmentation of the file system
1 1 43 a. occurs only if the file system is used improperly b. can always be prevented Remember
c. can be temporarily removed by compaction d. is a characteristic of all file systems
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 Bug means
a. A logical error in a program
1 1 44 b. A difficult syntax error in a program Understand
c. Documenting programs using an efficient documentation tool
d. All of the above
The daily processing of corrections to customer accounts best exemplifies the processing mode
of
1 1 45 Apply
a. batch processing b. real-time processing c. time-sharing
d. off-line processing
The translator program that converts source code in high level language into machine code line
1 1 46 by line is called Analyze
a. Assembler b. Compiler c. Loader d. Interpreter
A Byte is a Collection of
1 1 47 Apply
a. 9 bits b. 12 bits c. 8 bits d. None of the Above
A cache memory is a memory placed between CPU and
1 1 48 Understand
a. virtual memory b. main memory c. volatile memory d. Non volatile memory
PC stands for
1 1 49 a. Process Counter b. Program Counter c. Program Connector Understand
d. Personal Computer.
Data can be Transferred through
1 1 50 Understand
a. Address Bus b. Data Bus c. Control Bus d. Memory Bus
Which skill is the key skill required for a software engineer as it helps to develop technical as
2 1 1 well as soft skills. Analyze
a. Technical b. Analytical c. Problem Solving d. Logical
________ is thinking in terms of cause and consequences
2 1 2 Understand
a. Technical b. Analytical c. Problem Solving d. Logical
_________ is a puzzle that requires logical thought or mathematics to solve.
2 1 3 Understand
a. Technical b. Analytical c. Problem d. Logical
Which Logic helps to make a statement about something?
2 1 4 Apply
a. Propositional b. Predicate c. Fuzzy d. Tense
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 Which logic deals with truth value of statements?
2 1 5 Understand
a. Propositional b. Predicate c. Fuzzy d. Tense
In which logic the truth value can vary in time?
2 1 6 Understand
a. Propositional b. Predicate c. Fuzzy d. Tense
Which logic truth value can be zero , one or any value in between?
2 1 7 Understand
a. Propositional b. Predicate c. Fuzzy d. Tense
Algorithm is expressed in terms of itself is called as
2 1 8 Apply
a. Recursive b.Non-recursive c. iterative d. None
_________ is a language for reasoning
2 1 9 Apply
a. Technical b. Analytical c. Problem d. Logic
Which Propositional logic is perfect for leap year condition.
Year is divisible by 4  P, Divisible by 100  Q, divisible by 400  R
2 1 10 Analyze
a. P And Q Or R b. ((P And (Not Q)) Or R )
c.P Or Q And R d. ((P Or(Not Q) )And R)
Which is the process of evolution from one state to another in accordance with some rules?
2 1 11 Analyze
a. Logical b. Technical c. Computation d. Analytical
Which problem is finding the best solution of the feasible solutions?
2 1 12 a. Decision Problem b. Searching &Sorting Problem Analyze
c. Counting Problem d. Optimization Problem
Which Problem gives the answer for every instance is either yes or no?
2 1 13 a. Decision Problem b. Searching &Sorting Problem Analyze
c. Counting Problem d. Optimization Problem
Operations are performed at different location is ________ Computational problem.
2 1 14 Analyze
a. Concurrent b. Sequential c. Distributed d. Event - Based
Operations are performed based on the input is ________ Computational problem.
2 1 15 Analyze
a. Concurrent b. Sequential c. Distributed d. Event - Based
Operations are overlap in time is __________ Computational Problem
2 1 16 Analyze
a. Concurrent b. Sequential c. Distributed d. Event - Based
Billing process at multiple Point of sales of a retail shop is example of
2 1 17 Understand
a. Concurrent b. Sequential c. Distributed d. a&c
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 Withdrawing money using ATM is example of
2 1 18 Analyze
a. Concurrent b. Sequential c. Event - Based d. a&b
Which is look like English statements and have additional qualities?
2 1 19 Apply
a. Flowchart b. Pseudo code c. Procedure d. Program
Which is a graphical representation of Computation?
2 1 20 Apply
a. Flowchart b. Pseudo code c. Procedure d. Program
Which is a step-by-step procedure to compute a function on every possible input?
2 1 21 Apply
a. Logic b. Analysis c. Algorithm d. Technical
Executes the statements in the order in which they appear in the algorithm is
2 1 22 Analyze
a. Sequential b. Selectional c. Iterational d. Recursive
Which is used when a part of algorithm is to be executed in several times?
2 1 23 Analyze
a. Sequential b. Selectional c. Iterational d. Recursive
Which controls the flow of statements execution based on some condition?
2 1 24 Analyze
a. Sequential b. Selectional c. Iterational d. Recursive
Tower of Hanoi is a classical problem of
2 1 25 Apply
a. Sequential b. Selection c. Iteration d. Recursion
Raptor tool is used for
2 1 26 Apply
a. Flowchart b. Pseudo code c. Procedure d. Program
Which knowledge is necessary for optimized handling of the organized data?
2 1 27 Apply
a. Programming b. Testing c. DataStructure d. Analysing
What should be considered for Writing an algorithm ?
2 1 28 Apply
a. Algorithm b. Datastructure c. a&b d. None
The data structure where we store similar type of data is
2 1 29 a. homogeneous b. heterogeneous c. non-homogeneous Apply
d. non-hetrogeneous

Array is a collection of _____________ data elements stored in continuous memory locations.

2 1 30 Apply
a. homogeneous b. heterogeneous c. non-homogeneous
d. non-hetrogeneous
The array elements can be accessed
2 1 31 Analyze
a. Sequential b. Random c. Sequential and Random d. Reverse
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 ________ is a collection of homogeneous data elements, not necessarily stored in continuous
2 1 32 memory locations Analyze
a. List b. Linked List c. Stack d. Queue
Elements of linked list can be accessed in __________ order
2 1 33 Analyze
a. Sequential b. Random c. Sequential and Random d. Reverse
Which represents the end of linked list?
2 1 34 Understand
a. Empty b. Null c. Pointer d. End
In linked list each node has _______ parts
2 1 35 Understand
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
Which is a collection of data of different type?
2 1 36 Apply
a. Array b. Homogeneous c. Record d. List
Which is an ordered collection of data elements, in which only one end?
2 1 37 Apply
a. Stack b. Queue c. List d. Linked List
Mini Statement from ATM machine is an example of
2 1 38 Analyze
a. Stack b. Queue c. List d. Linked List
In which the elements are remove in reverse order?
2 1 39 Analyze
a. Stack b. Queue c. List d. Linked List
Which is an ordered collection of data elements from which insertion and deletion is performed
2 1 40 from two different ends? Apply
a. Stack b. Queue c. List d. Linked List
Undo operations in a word editor which data structure should be used?
2 1 41 a. Stack b. Queue c. List d. Linked List Apply

In the printer scenario which data structure should be used?

2 1 42 Understand
a. Stack b. Queue c. List d. Linked List
In your web browser back button used to revisit the previously visited page, which data structure
2 1 43 used to store the address of these web pages? Understand
a. Stack b. Queue c. List d. Linked List
Which is the process of locating an element stored in a data structure?
2 1 44 Remember
a. Stack b. Queue c. Searching d. Sorting
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 Which search is applied on the list of items that are not arranged in any particular order?
2 1 45 Analyze
a. Binary search b. Linear Search c. Non-Linear Search d. Hashing
Which Search is applied on the array of items that are arranged in any particular order?
2 1 46 Understand
a. Binary search b. Linear Search c. Non-Linear Search d. Hashing
A Tree consist of a root node and _____ many levels of additional nodes that form a hierarchy.
2 1 47 a. One b. Two c. Seven d. Zero Understand

Which technique used to improve the searching process?

2 1 48 Understand
a. Binary search b. Linear Search c. Non-Linear Search d. Hashing
Which is a non-linear data structure and also called as network?
2 1 49 Understand
a. Tree b. Graph c. Hashing d. Binary Search
In tree nodes that have no children called as
2 1 50 Understand
a. Root b. Sibling c. leaf d. internal
A relational database is a group of ____.
3 1 1 Understand
a. common fields b. field values c. records d. tables
A table is a matrix consisting of a series of row and column ____.
3 1 2 Understand
a. links b. intersections c. systems d. models
One of the advantages of a relational database model is ____.
3 1 3 a. structural dependence b. conceptual complexity Remember
c. easier database design d. complex database design
A recursive relationship is a relationship between an entity and _______ .
3 1 4 Apply
a. itself b. a subtype entity c. an archetype entity d. an instance entity
An attribute that names or identifies entity instances is a(n):
3 1 5 Apply
a. entity. b. attribute. c. identifier d. relationship.
Multivalued dependencies should ________ be eliminated.
3 1 6 Apply
a. always b. commonly c. seldom d. never
The hierarchical database model is based on a ____.
3 1 7 Apply
a. tree structure b. lack of a parent segment c. lack of a child segment d. Matrix

3 1 8 If a table has been normalized so that all determinants are candidate keys, then that table is in: Apply
a. 1NF b. 2NF c. 3NF d. BCNF
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 A relational database model ____.
a. does not require substantial hardware and system software overhead
3 1 9 b. does not promote "islands of information" problems Apply
c. allows trained people to use a good system poorly
d. lets the user operate in a human logical environment
The OODM ____.
3 1 10 a. adds semantic content b. has standards c. has a simple navigational system Apply
d. has a low system overhead that speeds transactions
When mapping a many-to-many unary relationship into a relation which of the following is
true?
3 1 11 Apply
a. One relation is created. b. Two relations are created.
c. Three relations are created. d. Four relations are created.
A foreign key is which of the following?
a. Any attribute b. The same thing as a primary key
3 1 12 Analyze
c. An attribute that serves as the primary key of another relation
d. An attribute that serves no purpose
A relation has which of the following properties?
a. Each row is not unique.
3 1 13 b. Attributes can have the same name within a given table. Analyze
c. Each relation has a unique name.
d. Each relation has a unique name.

3 1 14 What type of join is needed when you wish to include rows that do not have matching values? Understand
a. Equi-join b. Natural join c. Outer join d. All of the above.
The RDBMS ____.
a. performs functions provided by the hierarchical and network DBMS system
3 1 15 b. does not manage data structures Understand
c. allows the user/designer to ignore the logical view of the database
d. does not manage the details of physical storage
The ____ model is the relational model’s challenge to the OODM.
3 1 16 Analyze
a. ERD b. network c. hierarchical d. KR
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 Each row in the relational table is known as an entity ____.
3 1 17 Apply
a. instance b. relationship c. attribute d. model
. In response to the increasing complexity of applications, two new data models emerged: the
3 1 18 object-oriented data model and the ____ relational data model. Apply
a. extended b. flat-file c. hierarchical d. entity
Consider two tables: Album and Song, that are related by a “1-to-Many” relationship. Given this
type of relationship, in which table should the corresponding foreign key be placed?
a. Foreign key needed only in Album table
3 1 19 b. Foreign key needed only in Song table Analyze
c. Foreign key needed in both tables
d. Composite entity must be added, and then foreign keys will be required in both the Album
and Song tables
The entity integrity rule states that:
a. no primary key attribute may be null. b. no primary key can be composite.
3 1 20 Understand
c. no primary key may be unique.
d. no primary key may be equal to a value in a foreign key.
When mapping a many-to-many unary relationship into a relation which of the following is
true?
3 1 21 Apply
a. One relation is created. b. Two relations are created.
c. Three relations are created. d. Four relations are created.
If no multivalued attributes exist and no partial dependencies exist in a relation, then the relation
is in what normal form?
3 1 22 Apply
a. First normal form b. Second normal form
c. Third normal form d. Fourth normal form
A transitive dependency is which of the following?
a. A functional dependency between two or more key attributes.
3 1 23 b. A functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes Apply
c. A relation that is in first normal form.
d. A relation that is in second normal form.
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 Needing to using more complicated SQL in database applications is a(n) ________ of
normalization.
3 1 24 Apply
a. advantage b. disadvantage
c. either an advantage or disadvantage d. neither an advantage nor disadvantage
When assessing the table structure of an acquired set of tables with data, accessing the validity
3 1 25 of possible referential integrity constraints on foreign keys is (part of) the: Apply
a. first step. b. second step. c. third step. d. fourth step
Using the SQL GROUP BY phrase with a SELECT statement can help detect which of the
following problems?
3 1 26 Apply
a. The multivalue, multicolumn problem b. The inconsistent values problem
c. The missing values problem d. The general-purpose remarks column problem
Which of the following is true concerning a procedure?
a. You do not create them with SQL
3 1 27 b. They do not need to have a unique name. Apply
c. They include procedural and SQL statements.
d. They are the same thing as a function.
Which of the following is a correlated subquery?
a. Uses the result of an inner query to determine the processing of an outer query.
3 1 28 b. Uses the result of an outer query to determine the processing of an inner query. Apply
c. Uses the result of an inner query to determine the processing of an inner query.
d. Uses the result of an outer query to determine the processing of an outer query

The following SQL is which type of join: SELECT CUSTOMER_T. CUSTOMER_ID,

3 1 29 Apply
ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, NAME, ORDER_ID FROM CUSTOMER_T,ORDER_T ;
a. Equi-join b. Natural join c. Outer join d. Cartesian join
The max length of varchar2 when used in a table is
3 1 30 Apply
a. 16k b. 32k c. 4k d. Either b or c
Any value added to NULL gives
3 1 31 Apply
a. the value itself. b.0 c. NULL d. Unpredictable
The keys that can have NULL values are
3 1 32 Apply
a. Primary Key b. Unique Key c. Foreign Key d. Both b and c
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 A Decision Support System (DSS) consists of
3 1 33 a. More DML, less DQL b. More DQL, less DML Apply
c. Half DML, half DQL d. Only DML
Rollback and Commit affect
3 1 34 a. Only DML statements b. Only DDL statements Apply
c. Both (a. and (b) d. All statements executed in SQL*PLUS
Triggers can be written for
3 1 35 Apply
a. Insert, delete, update b. Create, alter, drop c. Login, logout d. (a. , (b) and (c)
GRANT and REVOKE are
3 1 36 Apply
a. DDL statements b. DML statements c. DCL statements d. None of these
The SQL query to retrieve current time in Oracle is
a. Select SysTime from dual b. Select SysDate from dual
3 1 37 Apply
c. Select TO_CHAR (SysDate,’HH:MI:SS’) from dual
d. Select TO_CHAR (SysDate,’HH:MM:SS’) from dual
The default parameter type in stored procedures is
3 1 38 Apply
a. IN b. OUT c. INOUT d. There is no default type
In which areas of a PL/SQL block must the developer place code for user-defined exceptions?
(Choose three)
3 1 39 Apply
a. Command line PL/SQL block call b. Variable declaration section
c. Executable section d. Exception handler

UPDATE OR DELETE ON SOCCER_FAN_SNACKS. Which two of the following keywords

3 1 40 Apply
may be useful in your trigger source code to distinguish what should run, and when?
a. inserting b. updating c. deleting d. truncating
The command used to open a CURSOR FOR loop is
3 1 41 Apply
a. open b. fetch c. parse d. None, cursor for loops handle cursor opening implicitly.
You can add a row using SQL in a database with which of the following?
3 1 42 Apply
a. ADD b. CREATE c. INSERT d. MAKE
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 The SQL WHERE clause:
a. limits the column data that are returned.
3 1 43 b. limits the row data are returned. Apply
c. Both A and B are correct.
d. Neither A nor B are correct.
The command to eliminate a table from a database is:
3 1 44 a. REMOVE TABLE CUSTOMER; b. DROP TABLE CUSTOMER; Apply
c. DELETE TABLE CUSTOMER; d. UPDATE TABLE CUSTOMER;
Which of the following is the correct order of keywords for SQL SELECT statements?
3 1 45 a. SELECT, FROM, WHERE b. FROM, WHERE, SELECT Apply
c. WHERE, FROM,SELECT d. SELECT,WHERE,FROM
In an SQL SELECT statement querying a single table, according to the SQL-92 standard the
asterisk (*) means that:
a. all columns of the table are to be returned.
3 1 46 Apply
b. all records meeting the full criteria are to be returned.
c. all records with even partial criteria met are to be returned.
d. None of the above is correct
The SQL statement that queries or reads data from a table is ________ .
3 1 47 Apply
a. SELECT b. READ c. QUERY d. None of the above is correct.
Which of the following is a group of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies a row?
3 1 48 Apply
a. Key b. Determinant c. Tuple d. Relation
A functional dependency is a relationship between or among:
3 1 49 Apply
a. tables. b. rows. c. relations. d. attributes.
Table is synonymous with the term:
3 1 50 Apply
a. record. b. relation. c. column. d. field.
C++ was originally developed by
4 1 1 Apply
a. Donald E. Knuth b. Richard Hadlee c. Bjarne Stroustrup d. Clocksin and Mellish
Reusability is a desirable feature of a language as it,
4 1 2 a. decreases the testing time b. increases the maintenance cost Apply
c. reduces the compilation time d. reduces the execution time
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 Which of the following is not the type of inheritance
4 1 3 Apply
a. Single b. Derived c. Multiple d. Multilevel
Object Oriented Programming (OOP) uses which of the following approach,
4 1 4 Apply
a. Top-Down b. Derived c. Hierarchical d. Bottom-up
OOP allows us to decompose a problem into a number of entities called,
4 1 5 Apply
a. Object b. Class c. Data d. Function
The wrapping up of data & methods into a single unit is called as,
4 1 6 Apply
a. Inheritance b. Polymorphism c. Encapsulation d. Data binding
The insulation of data from direct access by the program is called as,
4 1 7 Understand
a. Encapsulation b. Data hiding c. Inheritance d. Polymorphism
The process by which object of one class acquires the properties of object of another class is
4 1 8 called as Analyze
a. Encapsulation b. Data hiding c. Inheritance d. Polymorphism
The concept of inheritance provides the idea of
4 1 9 Apply
a. Taking more than one form b. reusability c. data hiding d. Polymorphism
The derived class is known as subclass
4 1 10 Analyze
a. Super class b. Master class c. Parent class d. Sub class
The class from which the subclass derives the properties is called as
4 1 11 Analyze
a. Super class b. Sub class c. Base class d. Child class
The property or the ability to take more than one form is called as
4 1 12 Apply
a. Encapsulation b. Polymorphism c. Inheritance d. Data hiding
The process of linking of a procedure call with the code to be executed is called as Binding
4 1 13 Apply
a. Binding b. Loading c. Assembling d. Interpreting
The process in which the code to be link with the procedure call is not know till execution time
4 1 14 it is called as, Apply
a. Binding b. Early binding c. Static binding d. Dynamic binding
Java is developed by,
4 1 15 Apply
a. Microsoft b. Sun Microsystems c. IBM d. Infosys
Objects may communicate with each other through,
4 1 16 Apply
a. Methods b. Object c. Data d. Classes
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 The most striking feature of java is that it is,
4 1 17 Apply
a. Java compiler b. Java interpreter c. Platform independent d. Java applet
Java compilers converts source code into,
4 1 18 Apply
a. Unicode b. Byte code c. Pseudo code d. Executable code
Java interpreter translates byte code into
4 1 19 Apply
a. Machine code b. Byte code c. Pseudo code d. Unicode
In Java, which tool translates byte code into machine code
4 1 20 Apply
a. Java applet b. Java compiler c. Java debugger d. Java interpreter
The use of the break statement in a switch statement is
4 1 21 a. optional b. compulsory Apply
c. not allowed It gives an error message d. to check an error
To expose a data member to the program, you must declare the data member in the _____
4 1 22 section of the class Apply
a. common b. exposed c. public d. unrestricted
Variables declared outside a block are called _____
4 1 23 Apply
a. global b. universal c. stellar d. external
A fundamental type such as int or double is a _____
4 1 24 Apply
a. programmer-defined type b. complex type c. non-scalar type d. scalar type
The two statements that can be used to change the flow of control are
4 1 25 Apply
a. if and switch b. if and while c. switch and do-while d. break and continue
Which artifact is NOT an input to Analysis and Design?
4 1 26 Apply
a. use-case model b. glossary c. Supplementary specification d. vision
What are the components of a structured class?
4 1 27 a. messages, connectors, and roles b. ports, roles, and threads Apply
c. roles, ports, and connectors d. attributes, roles, and ports
Object Oriented Programming
a. makes programs more reliable. b. simulates real life.
4 1 28 Apply
c. uses a lot of intimidating vocabulary, d. is all of the above.
which is not as bad as it sounds
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 A subclass has access to the data attributes of a superclass
a. if the superclass data is declared protected
4 1 29 b. if the superclass data is declared private or protected Apply
c. in all cases due to inheritance.
d. only if the primary program class is declared public
The for loop is ideal for loop structures that
a. repeat some process a fixed number of times.
4 1 30 b. must execute some process at least one time. Apply
c. must check the loop condition before the loop body is executed
d. do all of the above.
What can UML interfaces are used for?
a. to provide concrete classes with the stereotype <<interface>>
4 1 31 b. to program in Java and C++, but not in C# Apply
c. to define executable logic that can be reused in several classes
d. to specify required services for types of objects
UML stands for
4 1 32 a. Unique modeling language. b. Unified modeling language Apply
c. Unified modern language d. Unified master language
Which diagram is NOT commonly used for illustrating use cases?
4 1 33 a. system sequence diagram b. activity diagram Apply
c. use case diagram d. collaboration diagram
Use-case analysis focuses upon:
4 1 34 Apply
a. actors b. data c. entities d. information
Abstract class cannot have ________
4 1 35 a. Zero instance. b. Multiple instance. Apply
c. Both Zero instance & Multiple instance. d. None of these options
Association in UML can be represented by:
a. Only with a double line between base class & derived classes.
4 1 36 b. A plane line with no shape on either end. Apply
c. A line with an arrow-head pointing in direction of parent or super class.
d. Diamond shape between classes.
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 A class is_____
4 1 37 Analyze
a. Data Type b. Abstract Type c. User Defined Type d. All of these options
An application uses encapsulation to achieve ________
4 1 38 a. Information hiding b. Minimizing interdependencies among modules Analyze
c. Make implementation independent d. All of these options
What is a Constructor?
a. A function called when an instance of a class is initialized
4 1 39 b. A function that is called when an instance of a class is deleted Understand
c. A special function to change the value of dynamically allocated memory.
d. A function that is called in order to change the value of a variable.
Reusability can be achieved through.
4 1 40 Analyze
a. Inheritance. b. Composition. c. Association. d. All of these options
___________is a stronger variant of the "owns a" or association relationship
4 1 41 Apply
a. Inheritance. b. Composition. c. Association d. Aggregation
___________is a weaker form of relationship which indicates that one class depends on another
4 1 42 because it uses it at some point of time Apply
a. Inheritance. b. Dependency. c. Association d. Aggregation
OMG stands for ____________
4 1 43 a. Object Management Group. b. Object Message Group. Understand
c. Object Maintenance Group d. Object Member Group
_______ provide useful conceptual framework.
4 1 44 Understand
a. Inheritance b. Polymorphism c. Encapsulation d. None of these options
The design of classes in a way that hides the details of implementation from the user is known
4 1 45 as: Analyze
a. Encapsulation b. Information Hiding c. Data abstraction d. All of these options
Which are the main three features of OOP language?
a. Data Encapsulation, Inheritance & Exception handling
4 1 46 b. Inheritance, Polymorphism & Exception handling Apply
c. Data Encapsulation, Inheritance & Polymorphism
d. Overloading, Inheritance & Polymorphism
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 What is a base class?
a. An abstract class that is at the top of the inheritance hierarchy.
4 1 47 b. A class with a pure virtual function in it. Apply
c. A class that inherits from another class
d. A class that is inherited by another class, and thus is included in that class.
A derived class
a. Inherits data members and member functions from base class.
b. Inherits constructors and destructor.
4 1 48 Analyze
c. Object can access protected members with the dot operator.
d. Inherits data members and member functions from base class as well as Inherits constructors
and destructor.
______ is the property of an object that distinguishes it from all other object.
4 1 49 Analyze
a. Identity b. State c. Behavior. d. None of these options.
An ______ denotes the essential characteristics of an object that distinguish it from all other
4 1 50 kinds of objects. Apply
a. Aggregation b. Abstraction c. Modularity d. None of these options
TCP/IP protocol suite is made of ______ layers
5 1 1 Understand
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
The first 3 layers of TCP/IP model is,
5 1 2 a. physical, data link, transport b. physical, data link, network Apply
c. physical, data link, application d. physical, ,transport, application
The fourth and fifth layers of TCP/IP model is,
5 1 3 a. transport and application b. application and network Apply
c. data link and application d. network and transport
Which layer is responsible for providing services to the user
5 1 4 Apply
a. Physical layer b. Transport layer c. Application layer d. Data link layer
Which address is used to sent a packet from one source to one destination is called,
5 1 5 Apply
a. Unicast address b. Multicast address c. Broadcast address d. Network address
Which address is used to sent a packet from one source to multiple destinations is called,
5 1 6 Apply
a. Unicast address b. Multicast address c. Broadcast address d. Network address
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 Which address is used to sent a packet from one source to all destinations is called,
5 1 7 Apply
a. Unicast address b. Multicast address c. Broadcast address d. Network address
The length of IPv4 address is
5 1 8 Apply
a. 8 bits b. 16 bits c. 32 bits d. 64 bits
Which of the following IPv4 address is valid
5 1 9 Apply
a. 171.16.02.240 b. 171.16.-2.240 c. 171.16.2.256 d. 171.16.2.240
The range (starting number) of class A address in IPv4 is
5 1 10 Apply
a. 0 – 125 b. 0 – 126 c. 0 – 127 d. 0 – 128
The range (starting number) of class B address in IPv4 is
5 1 11 Apply
a. 128 – 190 b. 128 – 191 c. 128 – 192 d. 128 – 193
The range (starting number) of class C address in IPv4 is
5 1 12 Apply
a. 0 – 127 b. 128 – 191 c. 192 – 223 d. 224 – 239
Which of the following class is used for multicasting purpose
5 1 13 Apply
a. class A b. class B c. class D d. class E
Which of the following address is used by data link layer
5 1 14 Apply
a. IP address b. physical address c. port address d. indirect address
Which of the following address is used by network layer
5 1 15 Apply
a. IP address b. indexed address c. port address d. physical address
Which of the following address is used by transport layer
5 1 16 Apply
a. IP address b. email address c. port address d. physical address
A computer that is Connected to different networks is called,
5 1 17 a. Variety homed device b. Multi homed device Apply
c. Homo homed device d. Virtual homed device
Find the class of the IP address 145.21.34.12
5 1 18 Apply
a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class D
Find the class of the IP address 67.13.34.11
5 1 19 Apply
a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class D
Find the class of the IP address 212.17.35.17
5 1 20 Apply
a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class D
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 Which of the following network addresses are called Private address,
5 1 21 a. 191.168.0 to 191.168.255 b. 192.168.0 to 192.168.255 Apply
c. 193.168.0 to 193.168.255 d. 194.168.0 to 194.168.255
The IP address with the first byte equal to 127 is used for,
5 1 22 Apply
a. Specific address b. Special address c. Public address d. Loop back address
The mask is used to find,
5 1 23 Apply
a. Network address b. Device address c. Client address d. Server address
The default mask of Class A, Class B and Class C is,
5 1 24 a. 255.0.0.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.255.0.255 b. 255.0.0.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.255.0.255 Apply
c. 255.255.0.0, 255.0.0.0, 255.255.0.0 d. 255.0.0.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.0
Every device has a dedicated point-to-point link to every other device is called,
5 1 25 Apply
a. star topology b. mesh topology c. ring topology d. bus topology
Each device has a dedicated point-to-point link only to a central controller is called,
5 1 26 Apply
a. star topology b. mesh topology c. ring topology d. bus topology
Each device has a dedicated point-to-point connection with only the two devices on either side
5 1 27 of it, is called Apply
a. star topology b. mesh topology c. ring topology d. bus topology
One long cable acts as a backbone to link all the devices in a network, is called
5 1 28 Apply
a. star topology b. mesh topology c. ring topology d. bus topology
Format of the classless addressing is,
5 1 29 Apply
a. A.B.C.D / n b. A.B.C.D - n c. A.B.C.D // n d. n / A.B.C.D
URL means
5 1 30 a. Uniform Response Locator b. Uniform Resource Locator Apply
c. Uniform Request Locator d. Uniform Random Locator
DNS means ____________
5 1 31 a. Domain Name System b. Dynamic Name Space Apply
c. Dynamic Name System d. Defense Name Space
Generic domain of .com in DNS represents
5 1 32 Apply
a. commercial b. communication c. computer d. common
Which of the following protocol is used for e-mail purpose
5 1 33 Apply
a. SMTP b. FTP c. Telnet d. TCP
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 Abbreviation of Telnet is
5 1 34 a. Telephone Network b. Terminal Network Apply
c. Topology Network d. Technical Network
Which of the following protocol is used for remote login
5 1 35 Apply
a. SMTP b. FTP c. SNMP d. Telnet
Abbreviation of email supplementary protocol MIME is,
5 1 36 a. Multi-purpose Internet Mail Extension b. Main-protocol Internet Mail Extension Apply
b. Main-purpose Internet Mail Extension d. Multi-protocol Internet Mail Extension
Which protocol used mainly to access data on the world wide web (WWW),
5 1 37 a. Hyper Text Telephone Protocol b. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Apply
c. HTML Text Transport Protocol d. HTML Text Transfer Protocol
_________ is a computer that keeps copies of responses to recent requests.
5 1 38 Apply
a. Mail server b. Web server c. Proxy server d. virtual server
Cryptography, a word with Greek origins, means,
5 1 39 Apply
a. content writing b. multimedia writing c. CD writing d. secret writing
In Cryptography, the plain message is converted before transformed, is called
5 1 40 Apply
a. cipher text b. web text c. active text d. hyper text
An organization was divided the large block of addresses into several contiguous groups and
5 1 41 assign each group to smaller networks Apply
a. virtual net b. supernet c. subnet d. hyper net
VPN means,
5 1 42 a. Virtual Private Network b. Virtual Public Network Apply
c. Virtual Packet Network d. Virtual People Network
Port address is used for
5 1 43 a. Node to Node communication b. Process to Process communication Apply
c. Network to Network communication d. device to switch communication
Domain label .org describes,
5 1 44 a. Profit organization b. Non Profit organization Apply
c. Product organization d. Pacific organization
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 A host that needs to map an address to a name or name to an address calls a DNS client called,
5 1 45 Apply
a. Resolver b. Regenerator c. Resolutor d. Recursor
Which of the following are the Private address
5 1 46 a. 8.0.0.0 – 9.255.255.255 b. 9.0.0.0 – 9.255.255.255 Apply
c. 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255 d. 11.0.0.0 – 11.255.255.255
The encapsulation of an encrypted IP datagram in a second outer datagram is called,
5 1 47 Apply
a. Resolving b. Tunneling c. Transporting d. Addressing
NAT means,
5 1 48 a. Node Address Translation b. Node Address Table Apply
c. Network Address Table d. Network Address Translation
Transformation of plain text to ciper text is called,
5 1 49 Apply
a. Key b. Encryption c. Decryption d. Shift key
Transformation of ciper text to plain text is called,
5 1 50 Apply
a. Key b. Encryption c. Decryption d. Shift key
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 VINAYAKA MISSION’S RESEARCH FOUNDATION, SALEM
(Deemed to be University)
BE DEGREE EXAMINATION – MAY- 2020
Eighth Semester
B.A. (ENGLISH)
INDUSTRY ELECTIVEDEGREE EXAMINATION
: LEARNING – MayBY
IT ESSENTIALS 2018
DOING
Time : Three Hours Maximum: 100 marks

I. Answer ALL Questions (100 x 1 = 100)

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