INDIAN CONSTITUTION
1. The High Court Judges retire at the age of
a) 60 years b) 62 c) 63 years d) 65 years
2. State emergency is also called as
a) President's rule b) Prime Minister's rule c) Governor's rule d) Chief Justice's rule
3. Procedure to amend the constitution is contained in
a) Article 268 b)Article 368 c) Article 338 d) Article 238
4. Uniform Civil Code is one of the
a) Fundamental rights b) Directive principle of State Policy c) Fundamental duties d) None of these
5. The concept o fundamental duties copied from which countries constitution.
a)USSR b) USA c) Japan d) Both a and b
6. Which one of the following is not one of the three organs of the state/union government?
a) Executive b) Press c) Judiciary d) Legislature
7. Who will preside over the Joint sessions of both the houses of the parliament?
a)President b) Prime Minister c) Speaker d) Law Minister
8.What is the minimum age for becoming M.P of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?
a)18 and 25 years b) 25 and 18 ears c) 35 and 25 years d) 30 and 25 years
9. Original constitution classified fundamental rights into seven categories but now there are
a)Five Rights b) Six Rights c) Four Rights d) Eight Rights
10.The Present Speakerr of the Lok Sabha is
a)Sumitra Mahajån b) Meira Kumar c) Somnath Chatterjee d) Om Birla
11.While Proclamation of emergency is in operation, the president cannot suspend certain fundamental rights.
a) Article 14 and 16 b) Artic1930 c) Article 19 and 23 d) Article 20 and 21
12.The power to superintend, direct and control &elections is vested in the
a)Finance Commission •b) Planning Commission c) Cabinet Mission d) Election Commission
13. Respecting National Flag is a
a)Fundamental Right b) Fundamental Duties c) Directive Principles of State Policy d) None of these
14.What is the system of legislature in the state of Karnataka?
a)Unicameral b) Bicameral c) Multi cameral d) None of these
15. Who appoints vice chancellors of the state universities?
a)Chief Minister b) Education Minister c) Governor d) Chief Justice of High Court
16. Membership of Legislative Assembly can vary between
a)40-500 b) 60-500 c) 50-400 d) None of these
17. How many members retired in Legislative Council for every two years in roration ?
a) 1/4 b) 1/3 c) 1/5 d) 1/6
18. The Constituent Assembly of India started its work in 1946 and completed its work in
a) November 1949 b) Jan. 1949 c) Dec. 1948 d)1950
19. The Preamble of the Constitution of India has been amended so far
a) Four times b) Thrice c) Twice d) Once
20. Which of the following writ is issued by the Supreme Court if it sends an order to restrain a person from acting
in an office to which he is not entitled
a) Habeas corpus b) Prohibition c) Certiorari d) Quo warranto
21. Which of the following right mentioned in the Indian Constitution is absolute in nature?
a) Right to Equality b) Right to Freedom of Religion
c) Right to Constitutional Remedies d) Right to get equal pay for equal work
22. The Indian Constitution is
a) Based on Conventions c) An evolved constitution
b) A brief document d) Written and bulky document
23. The Constituent Assembly adopted the Indian Constitution on
a) August 15, 1947 b) November 26, 1949 c) January 26, 1950 d) January 26, 1948
24. The Constitution of India declares India as
a) A Unitary State b) A Federation c) A Quasi federal State d) A Union of States
25. The Constitution of India is
a) unitary in form but federal in spirit c) Is full of strong unitary features
b) unitary with strong federal bias d) Federal in form, but unitary in spirit
26. Chairman of the Drafting Committee was
a) Dr. B R Ambedkar b) Dr Rajendra Prasad c) Jagajeevan Ram d) Jawaharlal Nehru
27. What is the present number of Articles in Indian Constitution?
a) 395 b) 376 c) 445 d) 448
28.Which Amended Act added the word "Secular" in the preamble of Constitution of India?
a) 42d Amendment b) 44th Amendment c) 45th Amendment d) 46th Amendment
29. The Government of India Act 1935 provided for
a) Diarchy at the center b) establishment of federal Court c) Provincial Autonomy d) All of the above
30. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India covers the Right to Freedom?
a) Articles 19 to 22 b) Articles 29 to 30 c) Article 32 d) Articles 14 to 18
31. During National emergency which of the following provision stands suspended.
a) DPSP b) Amendment procedures c) Fundamental Rights d) Judicial Review
32. Directive Principles of State policy is borrowed from which Country.
a) Japan b) Ireland c) America d) Russia
33. In which part of the Constitution, DPSP are mentioned?
a) Part III b) Part IV c) Part VII d) Part VIII
34. Promoting Education and Economic interests of weaker sections of the society, especially the SC and ST comes under which of the following?
a) Fundamental Rights c) Fundamental Duties b) Directive Principles of State Policy d) Fifth Schedule
35. Which Fundamental Right ceased to be a Fundamental Right and became a Legal Right under the
44th Amendment of the Indian Constitution.
a) Right to Property b) Right to Primary Education c) Right to Information d) Right to Life
36. Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution have been taken from the
a) Russian Constitution b) US Constitution c) British Constitution d) Act of 1935
37. Who among the following headed the nine Judge Constitutional bench that declared the Right to
Privacy as a Fundamental Right?
a) J S Khehar b) Dipak Misra c) H.J Karia d) T.S Jhaior
38. Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides Right to
a) Work b) Privacy c) Equality d)Education
39. In the Indian Constitution as per Fundamental Rights, Abolition of Untouchability is a
a) Right to Equality b) Right to Freedom of Religion
c) Right against Exploitation d) Right to Constitutional Remedy
40. Which of the following statement is not correct about the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a) It determines to establish a "Welfare State" b) It is the duty of the Citizen to apply DPSP Principles in making laws
c) To secure Uniform Civil Code for Citizen d) To Ensure Equal pay for both Men and Women at Work.
41. Which one among of the subsequent isn't the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a) Socialistic Directives b) Gandhian Directivesc) Liberal Intellectual Directives d) Intellectual Directives
42. Who is the Present Vice President of India?
a) Droupadi Murmu b) Ramnath Kovind c) M. Venkaiah Naidu d) Jagdeep Dhankar
43. With reference to the Constitution of India, which of the following statement is not correct?
a) The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President
b) Council of Ministers are appointed by the Prime Minister
c) Council of Minister shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha
d) Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
44. The Chancellor for all the Universities in the State is
a) Chief Minister b) Education Minister c) Governor of the State d) High Court Chief Justice
45. What is the age limit to contest for Lok Sabha Elections.
a) 25 years b)26 years c) 24 years d) 30 years
46. What is the age limit for Rajya Sabha contestant?
a) 30 years b) 35 years c) 25 years d) 31 years
47. Who is the present Lok Sabha Speaker?
a) Birla b) Shri Birla c) Om Birla d) GD Birla
48. When is the Budget Session month happens in Lok Sabha?
a) July to September b) February to May c) April to May d) November to January
49. What is the minimum total Quorum to be present during the Lok Sabha Sessions?
a) 1/12 th b) 1/10 th c) 1/50 th d) 1/15 th
50. Who is the present Chief Justice of India?
a) D.Y. Chandrachud b) N.V. Ramana c) Sanjiv Khanna d) None of these
51. Karnataka has bicameral system of State Legislature. Bicameral means
a) Two Cameras b) Lok Sabfia and Rajya Sabha c) Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad d) Only Vidhan Sabha
52. The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forwarded by
a) B.G. Tilak b) M. K. Gandhi c) M. N. Roy d) Motilal Nehru
53. In Which year, did the Indian National Congress for the first time demand a Constituent Assembly ?
a) 1934 b) 1935 c) 1936 d) 1937
54. First time Constituent Assembly Constituted under the scheme formulated by the _______
a) Cabinet Mission Plan b) Mount Batten Plan c) Non-Cooperation Movement d) None of these
55. How many High courts are there in India?
a) 29 b) 25 c) 24 d) 18
56. Under a single, integrated, hierarchical Judicial system, the High Courts in the states are directly under the
a) President b) Governor of the State c) Union Parliament d) Supreme Court
57. The Supreme Court was set up
a) Pitts India Act 1942 b) Regulating Act of1773 c) Indian Council Act 1861 d) Indian Councils Act 1892
58. A Judge of the Supreme Court will be removed on the basis of violation of Constitutional
principles through
a) Impeachment b) Retirement c) Appointment d) Judgment
59. Who is the Present Governor of Karnataka?
a) Rama Devi c) Vajuhbhaiwala b) Thawar Chand Gehlot d) HR Bhardwaj
60. Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes:
a) Appeals in Civil cases b) Appeals in Criminal cases c) Interstate disputes d) All of these
61. Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed from the office by
a) Both of houses of Parliament b) Union Council of Minister c) President of India d) Both a and b option combined
32. Who among the following was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India
a) K. V. K Sundaram b) Sukumar Sen c) M. Patanjali Sastri d) S. P. Sen Verma
63. Who is the Present Chief Election Commissioner in India?
a) Sunil Arora b) Suohil Chandra c) Rajiv Kumar d) Om Prakash Rawat
64. The Emergency Provisions of Indian Constitution have been borrowed from
a) Germany b) Japan c) USSR d) USA
65. How many types of emergencies are there in Constitution of India?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
66. Provincial Constitution Committee was head by
a ) Dr. Rajendra Prasad b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar c) Sardar Vallabhai Bhai Patel d) Jawaharlal Nehru
67. The concept of A Union of States" in the Indian Constitution has been derived from
a) The American Declaration c) The British North American Act b) The Australian Constitution d) The Swiss Constitution
68. India can make its own laws because, India is
a) Independent b) Sovereign. c) Secular d) Democratic
69. Preamble is
a) Part of the Constitution b) Amendable part c) Non-Amendable d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’
70. Fundamental Rights are
a) Enforceable b) Absolute c) Extraterritorial d) None of these
71. "Rights are not only the privileges, they are the weapons in hands of citizens to control the Arbitrary Government" –
who gave this statement?
a) Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad b) S.V. Patel c) J. L. Nehru d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
72. The Preamble to the Constitution declares India as
a) Sovereign, Democratic Republic b) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
c) Socialist, Democratic Republic d) Sovereign, Democratic Republic, Secular.
73. The Preamble aims to secure
a) Fundamental Rights b) Fundamental Duties c) Dignity of the Individual d) Security of the People
74. Freedom to form an Assembly can be restricted on the ground
a) Public order b) Morality c) Health d) Wealth
75. Fundamental Rights are not applicable to
a) Foreigner b) Criminals c) Members of Armed Forces d) Both 'a' & 'c
76. For enforcement of Fundamental Rights Supreme Court can issue
a) An order b) Direction c) Writs d) All the these
77. Provisions of Art. 20 applicable only in
a) Criminal cases b) Civil cases c) Administrative cases d) Military cases
78. It is a law passed to give effect to directive principles of State Policy.
a) Equal Remuneration Act b ) Right to Information Act c) Juvenile Delinquency Act d) Passport Act
79. Fundamental Duties are
a) Enforceable b) Absolute c) Restricted d) Non enforceable
80. Free Legal Aid is applicable to
a) APL Families b) Financial Incapable Persons c) NRI Families d) CPI Families
81. It shall be duty of the every Citizen of India
a) Value our Culture b) Renounce Foreign Culture c) Impose qur Culture d) Preserve Western Culture
82. President can Proclaim a Financial Emergency under which among the following Articles?
a) Article 350 b) Article 352 c) Article 356 d) Article 360
83. Which among the following Articles gives the power to the Central Government to take Pre- emptive action to protect any
State against External aggression and Internal disturbances?
a) Article 355 b) Article 358 c) Article 356 d) Article 360
84. Enact means
a) Single chapter b) Single action c) Pass a Law d) Rectify the mistakes in the Law
85. Election Commission does not conduct Election to
a) The office of the President b) The office of the Vice-President
c) The office of the Speaker of Lok Sabha d) State Legislature and Union Territory
86. Once the Proclamation of Financial Emergency is declared or approved by the Parliament it continues for
a) Another six months b) One Year c) Two Years d) Indefinitely
87. Members of the Constituent Assembly were
a) All Elected b) All Nominated c) Partly elected and partly nominated d) Selected
88. Constituent Assembly hold its first meeting on
a) Nov. 9, 1946 b) Dec 9, 1946 c) Nov. 9, 1947 d) Dec. 9, 1947
89. When did "Objective Resolution" was adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
a) 1946 b) 1948 c) 1947 d) 1950
90. First Draft of the Constitution was published on
a) Jan. 24, 1950 b) Jan. 24, 1948 c) Aug. 15, 1947 d) Feb. 21,1948
91. Drafting Committee had ______ number of members.
a) 10 b) 15 c) 07 d) 05
92. Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are
a ) Complementary to each other c) Extension to each other b) Opposite to each other d) None of these
93. All the Executive powers of Union shall vest with
a) The Prime Minister b) The President c) The Parliament d) The people
94 . Who is Competent Authority in India to declare War?
a) Defense Minister b) Prime Minister c) Chief of the Army d) President
95. Which Constitutional Act made elementary education a Fundamental Right?
a) 86 CAA 2002 b) 87 CAA 2003 c) 91 CAA 2003 d) 100CAA2013
..
96. Who summons, prorogues and dissolves the State Legislative?
a) Chief Minister b) Speaker c) Governor of the State d) President of India.
97. Minimum and Maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly is
a) 60 and 500 b) 40 and 100 c) 70 and 700 d) 100 and 1000
98. ________ number of people represents graduate Constituency in the Vidhan Parishadh
a) 1/12th b) 2/3rd c) 1 /2 d) 1/5th
99. Union Legislature shall be
a) Bi Cameral b) Uni Cameral c) Tri Cameral d) Any Cameral
100. There shall not be more than gap between two sessions of the Parliament.
a) 6 months b) 6 weeks c) 6 days d) 6 years
101. The Prime Minister is
a) Elected b) Appointed c) Nominated d) Both (a) & (b)
102. Maximum strength of the Lok-Sabha is
a) 550 b) 550+2 c) 545 d) 600
103. Which House of the Parliament is known as House of Elders and Knowledge House?
a) Lok Sabha b) Raj-Sabha c) Both d) None of these
104. How many time. is President can return the Bill for consideration to Parliament?
a) Once b) Twice c) Thrice d) Any number of times
105. Which of the following non-member of Parliament has the right to address it?
a) Auditor General of India b) Chief Justice to India c) Attorney General of India d) Chief Election Commissioner
106. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by
a) Powers of the President b) Judicial Review c) Leader of the opposition d) Power of the Prime Minister
107. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority?
a) Ordinary Bill b) Money Bill c) Finance Bill d) Constitutional Amendment Bill
108. To be recognized as an official opposition party in the Parliament, how many seats should it have to win?
a) 1/3 of total strength b) 1/4th of total strength c) 1/10th of total strength d) 1/6th of total strength
109. This is not the Committee of the Parliament.
a) Standing Committee b) Public Account Committee c) Estimates Committee d) Welfare of Minorities
110. President's Rule can be imposed for a maximum period of
a) Within 1 month b) Within 2 month c) Within 6 month d) 3 years
111. The Constituent Assembly of India took all decisions by
a) Simple Majority b) Two-Thirds majority c) Consensus d) All of these
112. The preamble of Indian Constitution was amended.
a) Twice b) Thrice c) Once d) Not amended
113. Which amendment added the words "Secularism socialist and integrity to the preamble of the constitution"?
a) 24th Amendment b) 42nd Amendment C) 44th Amendment d) 73 rd Amendment.
114. The Constitution of India declares India as
a) A unitary state b) Federation c) A quasi-federal state d) A union of states
115. A state where 'Head of the State', is elected is called.
a) Monarchy b) Dyarchy c) Republic d) Anarchy
116. In which year, did cripps mission come to India?
a) 1935 b) 1945 c) 1949 d) 1942
117. Who acted as the chairman of the drafting committee of the constituent assembly?
a) B. R. Ambedkar b) C. Rajagopalachari c) Rajendra Prasad d) Jawaharlal Nehru
118. Which of the following is no longer a fundamental right?
a) Right to liberty b) Right to equality c) Right to freedom of religion d) Right to property.
119. The Constituent Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission plan had a strength of
a) 389 members b) 501 members c) 268 members d) 492 members.
120. Right to equality under article 14 means
a) Treating all people equally b) Equality among equals and not equality among unequals
c) Upliftment of SC's and ST's and backward Class people d) None of the above.
121. On December 11, 1946 the Constituent Assembly elected as its permanent chairman.
a)Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar d) K.M. Munshi
122. The Salary of the President and Vice President is charged
a) Contingency Fund b) P.M's Fund c) Parliament Fund d) Consolidated Fund
123. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
a) Adjournment motion b) Question hour c) Supplementary question d) All of these
124. Which among the following is the final authority to interpret the Constitution?
a) President b) Supreme Court c) Council of Minister d) Parliament
125. A Governor holds office
a) For Five years b) For a period specified by the Parliament
c ) During the pleasure of the President d) None of these
126. Chairman of Legislative Council is
a) Appointed by the Governor b) The Governor
c) Elected by the members of the Legislative Council d) Appointed by the Speaker
127. Election Commission is a
a) Elected body b) Constitutional body c) Statutory body d) None of these
128. A proclamation of National Emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval.
a) 1 month b) 2 years c) 6 month d) 3 years
129. The Drafting Committee of the Constitution, including the chairman, comprised of
a) 7 members b) 5 members c) 9 members d) 3 members
130. Right to life includes
a) Right to die b) Right purchase moveable property
c) Right to carry on any business d) Right to get education
131. The Constitution of India is
a) Rigid b) Flexible c) Very rigid d) Partly rigid and partly flexible.
132. This is not a fundamental duty
a) To defend the country b) To develop scientific temper c) To make scientific improvement d) To uphold and protect sovereignty of India.
133. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the constitution on the recommendation of
a) Karan Singh Committee b) Swaran Singh Committee
c) Charan Singh Committee d) Manmohan Singh Committee
134. This is not the function of election commission
a) Preparation of electoral b) Determines code of conduct to candidates
c) Selection of the candidate d) Allotment of symbols
135. Which of the following has the power of judicial review?
a) High Courts b) District Courts c) Supreme Court d) None of these
136. Which one of the following types of emergency has not declared, till now?
a)State emergency b) National emergency 3) Financial emergency d) None of these
137. President can proclaim an emergency on the ground of
a)War b) Armed rebellion c) External aggression d) All of these
138. Who is the Custodian of Fundamental Rights?
a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India
c) Parliament of India d) Supreme Court of India
139. What is the term of the President of India?
a) Four years b) Three years c) Five years d) Six years
140. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India?
Prime Minister of India b) Chief Justice of India c) President of India d) Law Minister of Union
141. The Constitution of India came Into force on
a) 26th January 1952 b) 10th August 1948 c) 26 January 1950 d) 26 November 1949
142. Restriction cannot be imposed on the right of freedom of speech and expression on the ground
of
a) Defamation b) Law and order problem c) Incitement of an offence d) Contempt of court
143. Which one of the following exercised the most profound influence on the Indian
Constitution?
a) The Government of India Act, 1935 b) The US Constitution c) British Constitution d) The UN
charter
144. The directive of state policy directs the state to secure to all the workers.
a) Minimal wages b) Fair wages c) Living wages d) Standard wages
145. How many schedules the Constitution of India contains now?
a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12
146. The aim of the directive principles of state policy is
a) To protect the civil rights of the citizens
b) To restrain the state from misusing its power and public money
c) To promote the general welfare of the society d) To make special rules to protect women.
147. How many parts has Indian Constitution been divided into, at the time of its
commencement?
a)23 b) 22 c) 21 d) 12
148. The number of Ministers in the Central Government is fixed
a) The President b) The Prime Minister c) The Parliament d) None f the above
149. Political parties are recognized by
a)President b) Parliament c) Supreme Court d) Election Commission
150. The Ministers of the union cabinet are answerable to
a) The Prime Minister b) The Lok Sabha
c) The president d) The Vice President
151. Rajya Sabha member has a term of
a) 5 years b) Permanent body c) 4 years d) 6 years
152. The Vice President of India is elected by the
a) Members of Lok-Sabha b)Members of Raj-Sabha
c) Elected Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha.
d) Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha and Members of all Legislative Assemblies
153. A judge of all Supreme Court may be removed on the ground of Misbehaviour
a)Delivering repeatedly wrong judgment b) Delivering judgments which impede the progress of the Nation
c) Holding linient views about anti-social elements d) violation of the Constitution
154. This is not the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
A) Original jurisdiction b) Emergency jurisdiction c) Appellate jurisdiction d) Advisory jurisdiction
155. Criminal contempt of Court means
a) An act which lowers the authority of court b) Giving false evidence before a criminal court
c) Filing a complaint in a court d) disobedience to court order
156. The Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be divided into
a) Six main categories b) Five main categories c)Four main categories d) Three main categories.
157. The Supreme Court can issue
a) Three types of writs b) Seven types of writs c) Five types of writs d) Six types of writs
158. Which of the following is the guardian of the fundamental rights of the citizens?
a) Supreme Court b) The President c) Parliament d) Lok Sabha
159) How many parts are there in Indian Constitution?
a) 25 b) 26 c) 27 d) 22
160. The Chief Justice and other Judges of High Court are appointed by
a) President b) Chief Minister c) Prime Minister d) Governor
161. When the office of the President falls vacant the same must be filled up within?
a) 4 months b) 6 months c) 12 months d) 18 months
162. Freedom of speech and expression means right to express one's own opinion only
a) Word of mouth b) Writing and printing c) Both a and b d) None of these
163. Who was the first women judge of Supreme Court?
a) Meera Kumari b) Fathima Beevi c) Seesta Sotedwad
d) No women has become judge of Supreme Court so far.
164. The cabinet mission came to Indian in
a)1944 b) 1945 c) 1946 d) l 943
165. The state Legislative assembly is prorogued by
a)The Chief Minister b) The Governor c) The speaker of assembly d) None of these
166. Who discharges the duties of the President in the event of President and Vice-President being not
available?
a) The Prime Minister b)The Chief Justice of India c) The speaker of LokaSabha d) Attorney General of India.
167. One of the salient feature of our constitution is
a) It is fully rigid b) It is fully flexible c) It is partly rigid and partly flexible d)None of these
168. How many schedules are there in Indian Constitution?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 12
169. The source of authority of the Indian Constitution is
a) The Government of India b) The people of India c) The President d) The Parliament
170. Which of the following word was added in the preamble of the constitution by 42 nd Amendment Act 1976?
a) Socialist b) Sovereign c) Democratic d) Republic
171. The preamble of the constitution has been amended so far.
a)Only once b) Twice c) Thrice d) 4 times
172. How many Anglo Indians and others can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
a) 2 and 12 b) 2 and 10 c) 12 and 2 d) 6 and 10
173. How many types of emergency have been visualized in the Indian Constitution?
a)Four b) Three c) One d) Two
174. Article 19 of Indian Constitution provides
a)Six Freedoms b) Seven Freedoms c) Eight Freedoms d) Five Freedoms
175. Tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner is
a) 6 years b) Till he/she wishes c) 5 years d) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is early.
176. On what ground a judge of high court can be removed
a)Insolvency b) Insanity c) Public demand d) Proved misbehavior or incapacity
177. Creamy layer means
a) Highly educated persons b) Persons holding high posts
c) Highly cultured persons d) Persons having higher incomes
178. Enact means
a) Single chapter b) Single action c) Pass a law d) Rectify the mistakes is the law
179. Which Constitutional Amendment has brought down the voting age to 18 years?
a) 61 st Amendment b) 73 rd Amendment c) 44th Amendment d) 42 nd Amendment
180. The Election Commission does not conduct election
a) To the Parliament b) To the office of the President
c) To the post of Prime Minister d) To the office of the Vice-president
181. maximum life of an ordinance can be
a) 6 weeks b) 6 months c) 6 months and 6 weeks d) Till the Parliament disapproves the ordinance
182. In which year did the cabinet mission come to India?
a) 1942 b) 1946 c) 1947 d) 1949
183. Who of the following acted as the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
a)Sachidananda Sinha b) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar c)Rajendra Prasad d) B.N.Rau
184. Fraternity means
a) Spirit of brotherhood b) Fatherly treatment
c) Unity & integrity d) None of these
185. Who is the Supreme Commander of Defence forces of India ?
a)Prime Minister b) The President c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court d) Parliament
186.A person arrested has to be produced before the Magistrate within
a) 12 hours b) 24 hours c) 34 hours d) 48 hours
187.Who is the final authority to interpret the constitution?
a)Parliament b) Supreme Court c) President d) Prime Minister
188.What can the maximum gap between two sessions of the parliament?
a) Four months b) Six Months c) One year d) Four years
189.Every political party has to stop the election campaign before ______ of polling.
a)12 hours b)24 hours c)36 hours d) 48 hours
190. The Election Commission of India is a multi-member body, consisting of the Chief
Election and other election commissioner.
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
191) National Emergency can be proclaimed by the President of India on the ground of
a)Internal disturbance b) Political instability c) External aggression d) None of these
192.The President of India is
a) Elected b) Selected c) Appointed d) Nominated
193.Which is the lengthiest amendment to the Constitution of India?
a) 24th b) 42nd C) 43 rd d) 44th
194. The judge of a High Court may be removed by
a) Prime Minister b) Chief Minister c) President d) process of impeachment
195. Which of this article is known as heart and soul of our constitution?
a) Article 19 b) Article 14 c) Article 21 d) Article 32
196. In case of illegal detection of a person the high court or supreme court can issue writ.
a)Mandamus b) Quo-Warranto c) Habeas corpus d) Certiorari
197.Who administers Oath of office to the governor?
a) Prime Minister b) Chief Minister c) President d) Chief justice of concerned state High Court
198. No person shall be punished for the same offence more than once.
a) Jeopardy b) Double Jeopardy c) Ex-post facto law d) Testimonial compulsion
199. The Rajya Sabha
a) Is a permanent house b) Has a life of 6 years c) Has a life of 5 years d) Has a life of 7 years
200.Who is the Ex-officio chairman of Rajya sabha?
a)President b) Vice-President c) Prime Minister d) Governor
201. Who is the ex–officio chairman of Rajya Sabha?
a) President b) Vice –President c) Prime Minister d) Governor
202. Vice-President of India is elected
a) By the people b) By the members of state legislature assembly
c) by the members of the Rajya Sabha d) by the members of both the houses of parliament at joint sitting
1. The date of commencement of the Indian constitution is
(a) 26TH Nov 1949 (b) 26TH Nov 1945 (c) 26TH Jan 1950 (d) 15TH Aug 1947.
2. The source of authority of the Indian constitution is
(a) the government (b)the people of India (c) the supreme court (d) the president
3. The word secular as used in the preamble indicates _______________
(a)treating all the languages equally (b) special treatment to Hindu religion
(c) treating all the religions equally (d) none of these.
4. The right to equality means
{a} treating all citizens equally {b) treating government servents equally
(c ) treating citizen differently (d) none of the above
5.State is authorized to make special provision for_______________
(a) women and children (b) men only (c) men and women (d) none of the above
6. State can make special provisions for the advancement of _______________
a) socially and educationally backward classes citizens(SC&ST)
(b)economically backward classes of citizens
(c) both (a) and (d) (d) none of these.
7. The freedom of speech & expression includes
(a) freedom of press (b)freedom of disturbing public peace (c)freedom to create nuisance (d)none of these
8. Right to education under article 21 (a) is now a
(a) Legal right (b) constitutional right (c) Fundamental right (d) none of these
9. Freedom of assembly means right to assemble peacefully_______________
(a) with arms (b) without harms others (c) with deadly weapons (d) none of these
10. Right to property is a
(a) ordinary right/legal right (b) fundamental right (c) moral right (d) not a right
11. The constitution guarantees fundamental rights to _______________
(a) Both citizens and non citizens (b) citizens only (c) foreigners only (d) none of these
12. Ex-post facto law means_______________
(a) law imposing penalties from a previous date (b) civil
(c) law imposing penalties from a future date (d) none of these
13. Double Jeopardy means_______________
(a) no prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once (b)double benefit
(c) there can be prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once (d) none of these
14. Self – incrimination means _______________
(a) compulsion to be a witness against himself (b) voluntary giving evidence
(c) compulsion to be a witness against others (d) none of these
15. An arrested person must be produced before magistrate within ________ hours of his arrest
(a) 12 (b) 24 c)36 (d) 48
16. Right to pollution free environment includes
(a) right to life (b) freedom of speech and expression (c)right to religion (d)abolition of untouchability
17.Right to education is a _______________
(a) fundamental right (b) ordinary legal right (c) not a right (d) both (a) and (b)
18. Children below the age of _______ years are prohibited to be employed in hazardous employment
(a) 21 years (b) 14 years (c) 18 years (d) 30 years
19. Cultural and educational rights are also known as
(a) minority rights (b) majority rights (c) both ((a) and (b) (d) none of these
20. The founding father of the Indian constitution is _______________
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Gandhiji (c) pandit Nehru (d) sardar valabhi patel
21. Habeas corpus means
(a) you may have the body (b) what is your authority (c) arrest the person (d) none of these
22. Mandamus means _______________
(a) command/order (b) request (c) permission (d) none of these
24.Writ of prohibition is issued against
(a) inferior court (b) tribunal (c) both (a) and (b) (d) superior court
25.Quo- warranto means
(a) what is your authority (b) direction (c) issuing warrant (d)none of these
26.Locus standi means
(a) right to move the supreme court/high court (b) right to be defended
(c) local authority (d) none of these
27. The number of articles in constitution presently is _______________
(a) 368 (b) 395 (c) 400 (d)447/448
28. Preamble to the Indian constitution indicates
(a) privileges given to the SCs and STs (b) the power of government to make laws
(c) the circumstances under which the constitution can be amended
(d) the source of Indian Constitution
29. The freedom of movement under Art 19(1) (d) can be restricted in the interested of
(a) women (b) law and order (c) general public (d) none of these
30. Which of the following writ is issued by the supreme court if it sends an order to restrain a person
from acting in an office to which he is not entitle.
(a) habeas corpus (b) prohibition (c) certiorari (d) quo- warranto
31. No person can become a member of parliament unless he is educated up to class
(a) seventh (b) tenth (c) fifth (d) none of the above
32. The first general elections were held in India in
(a) 1950- 51 (b) 1951-52 (c) 1949-50 (d) none of these
33. Voting age of citizens is changed from 21 to 18 years by constitutional amendment
(a) 7TH (b) 42ND (c) 61st (d) 55TH
34. Under the provision of ___ Article of the constitution, the government abolished the practice of
untochability
(a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 20 (d) 18
35. In which one of the following states, there is no reservation for the SCs for lok – sabha
(a) arunchal Pradesh (d) Meghalaya (d) Jammu and Kashmir (d) all of these
36.Which are the two states having common capital
(a) jharkhand and bihar (b) Panjab and Haryana
(c) uttaranchal and himachal (d) punjab and himachal Pradesh
37. 146. Every citizen the age of years is eligible to vote in an election
(a) 21 years (b) 16 years (c) 25 years (d) 18 years
38. Who was the first chief justice of India ?
(a) B.K. mukherjee (b) S.R. das (c) harlal J. Kania (d) Dec 1948
39. Constitutions are classified into
(a) rigid (b) Flexible
40. Magna carta is a written document of 13TH century assuring liberties awarded to
(a) Indian citizen (b) french citizen (c) British citizen (d) citizen of the world by UNO
41. The method of amending rigid constitution is by
(a) Simple majority (b)special majority (c) Cannot be amended (d) none of these
42. Procedure amend the constitution is contained in
(a) Article 268 (b) Article 368 (c ) Article 338 (d ) none of these
43. The underlying objective of the directive principles is to achieved
(a) welfare state (b) police state (c) secular state (d) none of these
44. There is right to adequate means of livelihood guaranteed to
(a) both men and women equally (b) women only (c) men only (d) either men or to women
45. Equal pay for equal work is an accompaniment of
(a) right freedom (b) right to equality (c) right to freedom of religion(d) right to constitutional
remedies
46. The directive principles of state policy & Fundamental Duties
(a) can be enforced in any court (b) can be enforced in high court
(c) cannot be enforced in any court ( d) can be enforced only in the supreme court
47. Directive principles of state policy are
(a) political rights (b) social rights (c) constitutional rights (d) legal rights
48.Uuiform civil code means
(a) uniform civil procedure code (b) civil law applicable to common man
(c) common civil law applicable to all (d) civil law applicable to hindu women & children
49.Free and compulsory education for all children is provided under Article 45 until they attain the age
of
(a) 14 years (b) 21 years (c) 18 years (d) 16 years
50. State should take steps to separate
(a) judiciary from executive (b) legislature from executive
(c) judiciary from legislature (d) all the 3 organs from each others
51. Part IV (a) consists of –------- fundamental duty
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 9
52. Part IV (a) was added to the constitution in the year______ by 42nd Amendment Act
(a) 1950 (b) 1972 (c) 1978 (d) 1976
53. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty
(a) to protect and improve natural environment (b) not to practice corruption
(c) to develop scientific temper (d) to abide by constitution
54. Fundamental duties in the constitution are addressed to the
(a) politicians (b) people (c) workers (d) students
55. The total member of ministers including the prime minister should not exceed
(a) 10 % (b) 20 % (c) 15 % (d) 30%
55. Number of method of amending the constitution
(a) one (b) three (c ) two (d ) four
56. The parliament of India has enacted for the enforcement of Article 39(d)
(a) child labour abolition act (b) equal remuneration act
(c) protection of human right act (d) none of these
57. Which among the following were given supremacy over fundamental rights
(a) Fundamental duties (b) citizenship (c) DPSP d)none of these
58. To protect and improve the natural environment and wild life is one of
(a) fundamental rights (b) notional policy (c) directive principles (d) none of the above
59. monuments and places and objects of national importance are protected because India is
country with
(a )written constitution (b) lengthiest constitution (c) rich cultural heritage (d) diverse culture
60. The fundamental rights and directive principle are
(a) conflicting with each other (b) unrelated to each other
(c) complement and supplement to each other (d) none of them
61. Fundamental duty demands
(a) to work sincerely and respect the rights of others (b) to abide by the constitution
(c) to prevent corruption (d) to abide by the ethical values
62. The directive principles under Article 46 considered__________as educationally and economically
weaker section of the society
(a) women and children (b) disabled (c) SCs and STs (d) none of these
63. Now, free legal aid and speedy trial are
(a) only directives (b) duty of the citizens (c) fundamental rights (d) none of these
64. In child labour abolition case the supreme court has held that the children below the age
of ________cannot be employed in any hazardous industry
(a) 16 years (b) 18 years (c) 21 years (d) 14 years
65. The directive principles of state policy are the obligation of
(a) central government (b) state government (c) both central & state government (c) citizen of India
66. The directive principles of state policy do not direct the state to Endeavour to protection
of
(a) forest (b) the interest of minorities
(c) the object of artistic interest of national importance (d) the environment
67. To provide justice to economically disabled citizens is the directive principles of state
policy
direct the state to provide
(a) employment in the govt. service (b) reserve seats in public educational institution
(c) proper economic and social security (d) none of the above
68. The directive principles of state policy direct the state to promote
(a) cottage industry (b)technical education
(c) women and children welfare scheme (d)protective homes for old sick and invalid
69. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty
(a) to safeguard public property (b) to render national service
(c) to uphold national sovereignty (d) to honor inter cast marriage
70. Who is know as the first citizen of India
(a) the president (b) prime minister (c) chief election commissioner (d) speaker
71.What is the term of the office of the president
(a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) 2 years
72. who is the supreme commander of the defence force of India
(a) prime minister (b) parliament (c) chief justice (d) the president
73. What is the total strength of the rajya – sabha
(a) 544 (b) 225 c)250 (d) 238
74. Who has the power to declare emergency
(a) parliament (b) president c) prime minister (d)supreme court
75. Who can supervise and control the business of the administration
(a) the prime minister (b) cabinet c) president (d) supreme court
76. Who can conduct and postpone the cabinet meetings
(a) the prime minister (b) speaker c) parliament (d) the president
77. How many houses are there in parliament
(a) five (b) two (c) three (d) house
78. What is the maximum strength of the lok sabha
(a) 552 (b) 425 (c) 545 (d) 560
79. What is the term of the lok sabha
(a) 2 years (b) 6 years (c) 4years (d) 5 years
81. How many readings a bill has to cross In house to get passed
(a) two (b) four (c) five (d) three
82. Who will present the budget in the month of march every year in the lok- sabha
(a) finance minister (b) prime minister (c) home minister (d) speaker
84. The parliament consist of
(a) two organs (b) three organs (c) four organs (d) five organs
85.Annual statement of income and expenditure of the government is known as
(a) agenda (b) catalogue
(c) calendar (d) budget
86. Out of 250 members how many members are nominated by the president to rajya sabha
(a) 50 (b) 12 (c) 2 (d) 5
87. Who will act as speaker in his absence
(a) vice president (b) defence minister (c) home minister (d) deputy speaker
88. Name the highest or apex court of India
(a) federal court (b) lok- adalath (c)supreme court (d) international court
89.How is the supremacy of the constitution safeguarded
(a) by independent and impartial judiciary (b) by the parliament (c) by the cabinet (d) by press
90. What is the total strength of the supreme court
a) 30 b) 34(1CJI+33) (c)35 (d)29
92. Who does appoint chief justice of the supreme court
(a) by the president (b) by the prime minister (c) by the cabinet (d)by the speaker of lok sabha
93. On what grounds the judges are removed
(a) failed to give effective judgment (b) proved misbehaviour, incapacity (impeachment)
(c) absconding from duty (d) none of these
94. Name the article, empowering the supreme court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental
rights
(a) 32 (b) 33 (c) 35 (d) 40
95. The governor of a state is
(a) directly elected by the people (b) elected by the state legislature
(c) appointed by the president (d) appointed by the prime minister
96. The governor power do not include
(a) legislative powers (b)military power (c) pardoning power (d) emergency power
97.The governor of a state is responsible for his actions to
(a) the state legislative assembly (b) the president
(c)the prime minister (d) the chief justice of the high court
99. This is not the power of the chief minister
(a) formation of government (b) control over minister
(c) chief advisor to the governor (d) control over state judiciary
100. The minimum for a person to be appointed as the governor of a state is
(a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 30 (d) 25
101. Who among the following, can remove a chief minister from office
(a) state legislative assembly (b)governor (c) president (d) supreme court of India
102. Election to a state legislature is conducted by the
(a) state governor (b) chief minister (c) chief secretary of the state (d) election commission
103. Members of the council of ministers are appointed by
(a)chief minister (b)governor (c)governor on the advice of the chief minister (d) state legislative
assembly
104. The authority to dissolve a state legislative assembly is vested in the
(a) chief minister of a state (b) speaker of the state assembly
(c )president of India (d) state governor
105. The total members in legislative council should not be less than
(a) 250 (b) 80 (c) 20 (d) 40
106. Number of seats to be reserved for anglo Indian community in lok sabha is
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Unlimited
107. To become a judge of high court one must be a practicing advocate of the high
court for at least
(a) 6 years (b) 10 years (c) 15 years (d) 5 years
108. Public interest litigation can be entertained by high court whenever
(a) the public are irresponsible (b) the public neglect the govt interest
(c) the public interest become personal interest (d) the public interest undermined
109. The high court has
(a) the power of superintendence over all other lower court (b) the power to create lower courts
(c ) the power to disengage the business of a lower court (d) the power to dissolve all
110. Judicial activism is
(a) for the protection of the rights of the citizens (b) for curtailment of active organization
(c) for curtailment of the power of the government (d) for follow up the court direction
111. The judges of the high court are
(a) appointment by the chief minister (b) appointment by the speaker of the vidhana
sabha
(c )appointment of president of India (d) appointment of the governor
112. Judicial review means
(a) reviewing the laws passed by the legislature (b) examining the action of the
executive
(c ) scrutinizing the lower courts order (d)supervising the implementation
of the DPSP
113. To become a chief minister of a state on must have attained the age of
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years © 35 years (d) 40 years
114. The removal of chief election commissioner may be on grounds similar to that of
(a) Judge of high court (b) judge of the supreme court (c) Attorney general of India (d)
governor of a state
115. The number of ministers including the chief minister, in a state shall not be less than
(a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 5
116. The chief minister is answerable for his acts of omission and commission to
(a) The people (b) his party (c) Legislative assembly (d) investigation
117. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the president
(a) Governor (b) election commissioner (c) Prime minister (d) speaker of lok sabha
118. Who among the following is not appointed by the governor
(a) Chief minister (b) high court judges
(c) Members of the state public service commission (d) advocate general
119. Legislative council is
(a) Dissolved after 6 years (b)Dissolved after 5 years (c) Dissolved after 3 years (d) not
Dissolved
120. The legal permissible age for marriage of a boy and girl is
(a) 21 and 18 years (b)
16 and 18 years (c) 25 and 23 years (d)none of these
121. Right to education has been guaranteed to children between the age of
(a) 6-14 years (b) 7- 12 years (c) 8-10 years (d) none of these
122.The term backward class implies backwardness
(a) Socially and educationally (b) economically (c) Culturally (d) none of these
123. Types of emergencies provided in the Indian constitution is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3
124. The power to declare emergency is vested in the
(a) Prime minister (b)president (c) Governor (d) chief minister
125. National emergency may be declared on the grounds of
(a) internal disturbance (b) Political instability (c) national calamities (d) War
126. National emergency may be declared under the following article
(a) 360 (b) 368 (c) 373 (d) 352
127. National emergency can be declared when the cabinet communicates
to the president
(a) Orally (b) in writing (c) (a) or (b) (d) none of these
128. Proclamation of emergency must be approved with in
(a) 2months (b) 1 month (c) 6 month (d) 1 year
129. A resolution approving the proclamation must be passed by
(a) Simple majority (b) special majority (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) none of these
130. Once approved, proclamation of emergency remains in force for
(a) 1 year (b) 6 months (c) 6 years (d) 3 months
131. During emergency the states can be give directions by the
(a) Supreme court (b) centre (c) Parliament (d) none of these
132. During emergency there is automatic suspension of rights guaranteed under
(a) Article 20 (b) Article 21 (c) Article 19 (d) none of these
133. So far national emergency has been declared _______
times in India
(a) Five (b) six (c) Three (d) one
134. State emergency can be declared when there is
(a) War (b) failure of constitutional machinery in a state (c) Financial crisis (d) none
of these
135. State emergency is also called as
(a) Prime Minister rule (b) Governor rule (c) President’s rule (d) Chief justice rule
136. President can impose state emergency when he receives a report from the
a) Chief minister (b) governor (c) Chief justice (d) attorney general
137.Election commissioners are appointed by the
(a) Prime minister (b) governor (c) President (d) chief justice of India
138.Financial emergency may be declared when is
(a) Financial instability in any state (b) war (c) Internal disturbance (d) none of these
139. Declaration of financial emergency is
(a) 2 months (b) 3 months (c) 6 months d)indefinite period
140. Federal constitution means a constitution in which powers are divided between the
(a) Centre and state govt. (b) state only (c) People and states (d) People and states
141. The powers to superintendent, direct and control elections is vested in the
a) Planning commission (b) election commission (c) Finance commission d) none of
these
142. election commission is member commission
(a) single (b) double (c) multi (d) four
143. The condition of the service of the election commissioners may be determined
by the
(a) Prime minister (b) governor (c) President (d) chief justice of India