29-08-2024

1901CMD303021240032 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Particle A with charge q and mass mA and particle B with charge 2q and mass mB, are accelerated
from rest by a potential difference ΔV, and subsequently deflected by a uniform magnetic field into
semicircular paths. The radii of the trajectories by particle A and B are R and 2R, respectively. The
direction of the magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. What is their mass
ratio?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A rod of length and total charge 'q' which is uniformly distributed is rotating with angular velocity
ω about an axis passing through the centre of rod and perpendicular to rod. Find the magnitude of
magnetic dipole moment (in Amp. m2) of rod.
(Take: q = 4C, ω = 6 rad/s and ℓ = 2m.)

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

3) A horizontal overhead powerline is at a height of 4m from the ground and carries a current of 100
A from east to west. The magnetic field directly below it one the ground is(μ = 4π × 10−7TmA−1) (A)
C) (B) (D)

(1) 2.5 x 10−7 T southward

(2) 5 x 10−6 T northward
(3) 5 x 10−6 T southward
(4) 2.5 x 10−7 T northward

4) The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a
distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 μT. What will be its value at the centre of the loop?

(1) 250 μT
(2) 150 μT
(3) 125 μT
(4) 75 μT

5) Statement-1: Ampere law can be used to find magnetic field due to finite length of a straight
current carrying wire.
Statement-2: The magnetic field due to finite length of a straight current carrying wire is
symmetric about the wire.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

6) A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 layers of windings of 400 turns each. The diameter of
the solenoid is 1.8 cm. If the current carried is 8.0 A. estimate the magnitude of B inside the solenoid
near its centre.

(1) zero
(2) 8π x 10−3T
(3) 15π × 10−3T
(4) π x 10−3T

7) A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current i. The current is uniformly distributed

across its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic field at and 2a is :

(1)

(2) 4
(3) 1

(4)

8) Four wires carrying current I1 = 2A, I2 = 4A, I3 = 6A and I4 = 8A respectively cut the page

perpendicularly as shown in figure. The value of for the loop shown would be:-

(1) +2 μo-wb/m
(2) −2 μo-wb/m
(3) +10 μo-wb/m
(4) −10 μo-wb/m
9) An electron is moving along positive x-axis. A uniform electric field exists towards negative y-axis.
What should be the direction of magnetic field of suitable magnitude so that net force of electron is
zero

(1) positive z-axis

(2) negative z-axis
(3) positive y-axis
(4) negative y-axis

10) Two particles A and B of masses m, and m, respectively and having the same charge are moving
in a plane. A uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the particles

are vA and vB respectively and the trajectories are as shown in the figure. Then

(1) mAvA < mBvB

(2) mAvA > mBvB
(3) mA < mB and vA < vB
(4) mA = mB and vA = vB

11) A particle with charge +Q and mass m enters a magnetic field of magnitude B, existing only to
the right of the boundary YZ. The direction of the motion of the particle is perpendicular to the

direction of B. Let T = 2π . The time spent by the particle in the field will be

(1) Tθ
(2) 2Tθ

(3)

(4)

12) In given figure, X and Y are two long straight parallel conductors each carrying a current of 2 A.
The force on each conductor is F newtons. When the current in each is changed to 1 A and reversed

in direction, the force on each is now

(1) F/4 and unchanged in direction

(2) F/2 and reversed in direction
(3) F/2 and unchanged in direction
(4) F/4 and reversed in direction

13) Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the same
direction are separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate the force on a 10 cm section of wire A.

(1) 2 x 10−5 N; attractive force normal to B towards A.

(2) 2 x 10−5N; attractive force normal to A towards B.
(3) 5 x 10−5 N; attractive force normal to A towards B.
(4) 5 x 10−5 N; attractive force normal to B towards A.

14) A wire of mass 100 g carrying a current of 2A towards increasing x is in the form of y = x2(−2m
≤ x ≤ +2m). This wire is placed in a magnetic field B = −0.02 Tesla & gravity free region. The
acceleration of the wire (in m/s2) is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) A rectangular coil PQ has 2n turns, an area 2a and carries a current 2I, (refer figure). The plane
of the coil is at 60° to a horizontal uniform magnetic field of flux density B. The torque on the coil

due to magnetic force is :-

(1) BnaI sin60o

(2) 8BnaI cos60o
(3) 4naI Bsin60o
(4) none

16) The square loop ABCD, carrying a current I, is placed in a uniform magnetic field B, as shown.
The loop can rotate about the axis XX'. The plane of the loop makes an angle θ (θ < 90°) with the
direction of B. Through what angle will the loop rotate by itself before the torque on it becomes zero

(1) θ
(2) 90o − θ
(3) 90o + θ
(4) 180o − θ

17) Figure shows a square current carrying loop ABCD of side 10 cm and current i = 10A. The

magnetic moment of the loop is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A very long wire carrying current I is fixed along x-axis. Another parallel finite wire carrying a
current in the opposite direction is kept at a distanced above the wire in xy plane. The second wire is
free to move parallel to itself. The options available for its small displacements are in
(i) +ve x direction (ii) +ve y direction (iii) +ve z direction
Taking gravity in negative y direction, the nature of equilibrium of second wire is

stable for movement in x direction, unstable for movement in y direction, neutral for movement
(1)
in z direction
stable for movement in y direction, unstable for movement in z direction, neutral for movement
(2)
in x direction
stable for movement in z direction, unstable for movement in y direction, neutral for movement
(3)
in x direction
stable for movement in y direction, unstable for movement in x direction, neutral for movement
(4)
in z direction

19) A hollow cylinder having infinite length and carrying uniform current per unit length 2 along the

circumference as shown. Magnetic field inside the cylinder is :-

(1)

(2) μ0λ
(3) 2μ0λ
(4) none

20) A conducting ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The ring
carries a current i= 4A. A horizontal magnetic field B = 10T is switched on at time t = 0 as shown in

figure. The initial angular acceleration of the ring will be:-

(1) 40π rad/s2

(2) 20π rad/s2
(3) 5π rad/s2
(4) 15π rad/s2

21) An electric charge + q moves with velocity , in an electromagnetic field given by

. The y-component of the force experienced by + q is :-

(1) 2q
(2) 11q
(3) 5q
(4) 3q

22) Two identical wires A and B, each of length 'ℓ', carry the same current I. Wire A is bent into a
circle of radius R and wire B is bent to form a square of side 'a'. If BA and BB are the values of

magnetic field at the centres of the circle and square respectively, then the ratio is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in
circular orbits of radii re,rp,rα respectively in a uniform magnetic field B. The relation between
re,rp,rα is:-

(1) re < rp = rα
(2) re < rp < rα
(3) re < rα < rp
(4) re > rp = rα

24) The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a current I, is m and the magnetic field at the
centre of the loop is B1. When the dipole moment is doubled by keeping the current constant, the

magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B2. The ratio is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 2

25) A particle of mass m and charge q is in an electric and magnetic field given by

The charged particle is shifted from the origin to the point P(x = 1 ; y = 1) along a straight path. The
magnitude of the total work done is :-

(1) (0.35)q
(2) (0.15)q
(3) (2.5)q
(4) 5q

26) A rigid square loop of side 'a' and carrying current I2 is lying on a horizontal surface near a long
current I, carrying wire in the same plane as shown in figure. The net force on the loop due to wire

will be:

(1)
Attractive and equal to

(2)
Repulsive and equal to

(3)
Repulsive and equal to
(4) Zero

27) A rectangular coil (Dimension 5 cm x 2.5 cm) with 100 turns, carrying a current of 3 A in the
clock-wise direction is kept centered at the origin and in the X-Z plane. A magnetic field of 1 T is
applied along X-axis. If the coil is tilted through 45° about Z-axis, then the torque on the coil is:

(1) 0.55 Nm
(2) 0.27 Nm
(3) 0.38 Nm
(4) 0.42 Nm

28) A thin flexible wire of length L is connected to two adjacent fixed points and carries a current I
in the clockwise direction, as shown in the figure. When the system is put in a uniform magnetic
field of strength B going into the plane of the paper, the wire takes the shape of a circle. The tension

in the wire is:

(1) IBL

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A charge particle is whirled in a horizontal circle on a frictionless table by attaching it to a string
fixed at one point. If a magnetic field is switched on in vertical direction, the tension in string :-

(1) will increase

(2) will decrease
(3) will remaining same
(4) may increase or decrease.

30) An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of a current carrying long solenoid.
Which of the following is true?

(1) The electron will be accelerated along the axis.

(2) The electron path will be circular about the axis.
(3) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the axis and hence executed a helical path.
(4) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid.

31) If a charge particle goes unaccelerated in a region containing electric & magnetic fields(a) (b)
must be perpendicular to
(a) must be perpendicular to
(b) must be perpendicular to
(c) must be perpendicular to
(d) E must be equal to vB

a, b
(1)
(2) c, d
(3) a, c
(4) b, d

32) A particle of mass m and charge q moving with velocity v enters a region of uniform magnetic
field B. Then :-

(1) Its path in the region of field is always circular.

Its path in the region of field is circular if
(2)

(3) Its path in the region is helical if

(4) Time period T does not depend on the angle between and . (Provided θ ≠ 0 and 180°)

33) A long straight wire carries a current I. At the instant, when a charge +Q at point P has velocity

v as shown in figure. The direction of magnetic force on charge is :

(1) along ox
(2) along oy
(3) opposite to ox
(4) opposite to oy

34) A square loop consists of four uniform wires each of mass m. Loop is placed in a uniform
magnetic field B as shown. When a current i is set up in the loop, then it begins to rotate. Find initial

angular acceleration of the loop :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric
field and magnetic field . Its velocity at (x, −3, 0) is . The value of x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) A straight horizontal conducting rod of length 0.45 m and mass 60g is suspended by two vertical
wires at its ends. A current of 5.0 A is set up in the rod through the wires. What magnetic field
should be set up normal to the conductor in order that the tension in the wires is zero ?

(1) 1.5T
(2) 0.26T
(3) 0.8T
(4) 2.5T

2) A circular loop of radius R is bent along a diameter and given a shape as shown in the figure. One
of the semicircles (KNM) lies in the x-z plane and the other one (KLM) in the y-z plane with their
centers at the origin. Current I is flowing through each of the semicircles as shown in figure. A
particle of charge q is released at the origin with a velocity . Find the instantaneous force f

on the particle. Assume that space is gravity free.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A particle of charge +q and mass m moving under the influence of a uniform electric field E and
a magnetic field B enters in I quadrant of a coordinate system at a point (0, a) with initial velocity
v and leaves the quadrant at a point (2a, 0) with velocity . Find magnitude of electric field.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) There exists a uniform magnetic and electric field of magnitude 1 T and 1 V/m respectively along
positive y-axis. A charged particle of mass 1 kg and charge 1 C moving with velocity 1 m/sec along x-
axis is at origin at t = 0. If the coordinates of particle at time π seconds is given as (X, Y, Z) in

meter, then find the value of (XY + YZ + ZX) x .

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 7

5) A tightly-wound, long solenoid carries a current of 2.00 A. An electron is found to execute a

uniform circular motion inside the solenoid with a frequency of 1.00 × 108 rev/s. Find the number of
turns per metre in the solenoid.

(1) 500 Turns/m

(2) 1020 Turns/m
(3) 1232 Turns/m
(4) 1420 Turns/m

6) An electron having kinetic energy T is moving in a circular orbit of radius R perpendicular to a

uniform magnetic induction . If kinetic energy is doubled and magnetic induction tripled, the
radius will become

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) An electron makes 3 x 105 revolutions per second in a circle of radius 0.5 angstrom. Find the
magnetic field B at the centre of the circle.

(1) 6 x 10–10T
(2) 12 x 10–10 T
(3) 18 x 10–10 T
(4) 24 x 10–10 T

8) For a positively charged particle moving in a x − y plane initially along the x-axis, there is a
sudden change in it path due to the presence of electric and/or magnetic field beyond P. The curved
path is shown in the x − y plane and is found to be non-circular. Which one of the following

combinations is possible?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A block of mass m & charge q is released on a long smooth inclined plane magnetic field B is
constant, uniform, horizontal and parallel to surface as shown. Find the time from start when block

loses contact with the surface.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none

10) A circular loop of radius R carries a current I. Another circular loop of radius r(<<R) carries a
current i and is placed at the centre of the larger loop. The planes of the two circles are at right
angle to each other. Find the torque acting on the smaller loop.

(1) zero

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) A uniform magnetic field Tesla exist in a region of space. A semicircular wire of
radius 1 m carrying a current of 1A having its centre at (2,2,0) m is placed on the X-Y plane as

shown. The force on the semicircular wire will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A ring like metallic conductor of resistance R and radius a, caries a constant current I. The ratio
of the angular momentum L of the conduction electrons (about the axis of the ring) and the magnetic
field B at the centre of the ring satisfy [where e and m represent the magnitudes of the electronic
charge and mass]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The magnetic force between wires as shown in figure is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

14) In the figure shown a coil of single turn is wound on a sphere of radius R and mass m. The plane
of the coil is parallel to the plane and lies in the equatorial plane of the sphere. Current in the coil is

i. The value of B if the sphere is in equilibrium is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Two long current carrying thin wires, both with current I, are held by the insulating threads of
length L and are in equilibrium as shown in the figure, with threads making an angle 'θ' with the
vertical. If wires have mass λ per unit length then the value of I is :- (g = gravitational acceleration)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY
 SECTION-A

1)

What is the major product of the following E2 reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The reagent used to convert an alkyne into alkene is :

(1) Zn − Hg/HCl
(2) Pd/H2/BaSO4
(3) Zn/HCl
(4) Sn/HCl

3) Which of the alkyl chlorides listed below undergoes dehydrohalogenation in the presence of a
strong base to give 2-pentene as the only alkene product ?

(1) 1-chloropentane
(2) 2-chloropentane
(3) 3-chloropentane
(4) 1-chloro-2-methylbutane

4) When 2-butyne is treated with H2/Pd − BaSO4; the product formed is :

(1) cis-2-butene
(2) trans-2-butene
(3) 1-betene
(4) 2-hydroxy butane
5) Hoffmann product is obtained on heating :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) all of these

6) Which energy diagram best describes the electrophilic addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) What reagents can best be used to accomplish the following transformation ?

 −
(1) 1. BH3, THF 2. HO , H2O2
+
(2) H , H2O
(3) 1. Hg(OAc)2, H2O/THF 2. NaBH4
(4) 1. Hg(O2CCF3)2, CH3OH 2. NaBH4

8) Which of the following is most stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Decreasing order of heat of hydrogenation ?

(1) I > III > II

(2) II > I > III
(3) III > I > II
(4) II > III > I

10) Intermediate of hydration of alkene is :

(1) free radical

(2) carbene
(3) carbocation
(4) carbanion
11) ; Product of the reaction is :

(1) meso
(2) racemic
(3) diastereomer
(4) structural isomer

12) In the given reaction,

[P] ; Product [P] will be :

(1) meso-2, 3-dibromobutane

(2) racemic mixture of 2, 3-dibromobutane
(3) meso as well as racemic mixture
(4) 1-bromo-2-butane

13) ; Product (A) is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) Consider the following reactions :

As major products
Products [P] and [Q] respectively are :

(1) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butanol and 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol

(2) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butanol and 2,3-dimethyl-2-butanol
(3) 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol and 2,3-dimethyl-2-butanol
(4) 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol and 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol

15) ; major product of the reaction is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

16) ; [P] is :

(1)

(2)

(3) both
(4) none of these

17) Pedominantly (A) is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

18) Which of the following alkenes yield(s) 3-bromo-3-methylpentane as the major product upon

addition of HBr ?

(1) I and II only

(2) III only
(3) I, II and III only
(4) all of them

19) Which of the following is a step in the mechanism of the reaction shown ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20)
r1, r2 and r3 are respectively :

(1)

(2)

(3)

in all reaction

(4)

in all reaction

21) ?, Major product of the reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The predominant product formed when 3- methyl-2-pentene reacts with HOCl is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Which of the following species is an intermediate in the reaction shown below ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) , Major product of the reaction is :

(1) I
(2) II, V
(3) III
(4) IV

25) Major product of the reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Which reaction intermediate is formed when Br2/CCl4 reacts with cyclohexene ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Which of the following alkenes reacts with HCl at the slowest rate ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) What is the major product of the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29)
P should be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
30)
This reaction follows :

(1) SN1 pathway

(2) SN2 pathway
(3) E1 pathway
(4) E2 pathway

31)

(1) (d)-2, 3-Dibromobutane

(2) (1)-2,3-Dibromobutane
(3) (dl)-2,3-Dibromobutane
(4) meso-2,3-Dibromobutane

32) Major organic product of the reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
33) Product of the reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) (P), Principle organic product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35) Product [P] is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) Product (A) is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

2) product (A) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) major product (P) of the reaction is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which of the following structure is the most important contributor to the resonance hybrid formed
when anisole undergoes o-bromination ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)
In the above reaction, which alkyl chloride will give maximum yield ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) Give the major product of the following reaction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Product (P) is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following compound give same and product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) product (A) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) The reaction is described as :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) What is the major product of the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) What is the major product of the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) This reaction is a case of :

(1) α-elimination
(2) β-elimination
(3) γ-elimination
(4) None of these

14) In order to accomplish the following conversion, what reagent and conditions would be required

?
(1) Cold sodium hydroxide
(2) Hot conc. sodium hydroxide
(3) Potassium t-butoxide and heat
(4) Hot water

15)
P should be :

(1)

(2)

(3) a mixture of a and b

(4) none of these

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) If a length of DNA has 45,000 base pairs, how many complete turns will the DNA molecule take

(1) 4, 500
(2) 4, 5000
(3) 45
(4) 450

2) Formation of t-RNA from DNA is known as:-

(1) Replication
(2) Reverse transcription
(3) Transcription
(4) Translation

3) Nitrogen base that has additional stability to DNA over RNA is :

(1) Adenine
(2) Guanine
(3) Thymine
(4) Cytosine

4) In Meselson and stahl's experiment, bacterial cells with heavy DNA (N15/N15) is continously grown
in N14 medium for four generations. The ratio of N15/N15: N15/N14: N14/N14 containing DNA in fourth
generation would be:-

(1) 1 : 1 : 0
(2) 1 : 4 : 0
(3) 0 : 1 : 7
(4) 0 : 1 : 3

5) Which of the following is not involve in DNA replication process in the cell :-

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) DNA primer
(3) Helicase
(4) RNA polymerase

6) In Hershey and Chase experiment, DNA of T2 phage was made radioactive by using :-

(1) P32
(2) S35
(3) P35
(4) S32

7) A normal DNA moelcule is continuously replicate in N15 medium than what is the % of normal
DNA in 4th generation :-

(1) 12.5%
(2) 25%
(3) 0%
(4) 6.25%

8) Which of the following is a wrong statement?

(1) Histone proteins are rich in basic amino acids.

(2) Positively charged DNA is wrapped around negatively charged histone octamer.
(3) Chromatin fibers are further coiled & condensed at metaphase stage to form chromosome.
(4) In DNA, the distance between two consecutive base pairs in 0.34 nm.

9) The first genetic material on Earth could be :

(1) Protein
(2) Carbohydrate
(3) DNA
(4) RNA

10) Which of the following feature generates approximately uniform distance between the two
strands of DNA ?

(1) Presense of hydrogen bond

(2) Antiparallel polarity of two strands
(3) One purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine
(4) Ester bond

11) Carefully observe the diagram below and identify the items A, B, C and D

(1) A-DNA polymerase, B- ρ factor, C-RNA, D-Template strand

(2) A-σ factor, B-RNA polymerase, C-RNA, D-Template strand
(3) A-RNA polymerase, B- ρ factor, C-RNA, D-Template strand
(4) A-Primase, B-ρ factor, C-RNA, D-coding strand

12) Assertion : The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyse polymerisation only in one direction
that is 5'→3'.
Reason : On template 5'→3' DNA replicate in discontinuous manner.

(1) If both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both assertion & reason are false

13) In eukaryotes as well as prokaryotes those DNA sequences that appear in mature or processed
RNA are known as

(1) Introts
(2) Exons
(3) Recons
(4) Mutons
14) Which one of the following statement about Histone is correct ?

(1) Histones are organised to form a unit of 10 molecules

(2) The pH of histone is slightly alkaline
(3) Histone are rich in amino acids lysine and tryptophan
(4) Histones carry negative charge in the side chain

15) Radioactivity is detected in supernatant if we use -

(1) 35S
(2) 32P
(3) 32S
(4) 31P

16) Which histone is absent in octamer?

(1) H1
(2) H2A
(3) H3
(4) H4

17) Which of the following r-RNA present in both 70S and 80S ribosome.

(1) 16 S r-RNA
(2) 18 S r-RNA
(3) 5 S r-RNA
(4) 5.8 S r-RNA

18) Which of the given is not used during DNA replication on template strand with polarity 3'→5' ?
(a) Ribonucleoside triphosphate
(b) deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate.
(c) RNA primer
(d) DNA polymerase

(1) only a
(2) b
(3) only c
(4) a, b, d

19) Which of the following RNA act as a catalyst in prokaryotes :-

(1) 28s rRNA

(2) 5s rRNA
(3) 23s rRNA
(4) 18s rRNA

20) Match the column A with column B by using correct option :-

 Column A Column B

I Helicase A Joining of nucleotide

II Gyrase B Opening of DNA

Release the tension

III Primase C due to unzipping of
DNA

IV DNA polymerase III D RNA priming

(1) I – B, II – A, III – C, IV – D
(2) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
(3) I – D, II – C, III – A, IV – B
(4) I – B, II – C, III – D, IV – A

21)

x-ray diffraction data of DNA produced by

(1) Watson & Crick

(2) Wilkins & Franklin
(3) Hershy & Chase
(4) Messelson & Stahl

22) Given diagram represent a transcription unit in DNA, then which of the following is correct :-

(1) A-Coding strand, B-Template

(2) A-Template, B-Template
(3) A-Coding, B-Coding
(4) A-Template, B-Coding

23) Which of the following enzyme affect transformation :-

(1) DN ase
(2) RN ase
(3) Protease
(4) Lipase

24) Find out the correct match :-

(i) RNA polymerase-I (a) hn-RNA
(ii) RNA Polymerase-II (b) t-RNA
(iii) RNA Polymerase-III (c) 18-S rRNA

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c

(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
(3) i-a, ii-c, iii-b
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b

25) A bacterium was grown for several generations on and then transferred to .
What percentage of DNA will have heavy chains after 3 generations?

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 12.5%
(4) 6.25%

26) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below in the lists.

List-I List-II
a. Ligase Joins short fragments of DNA together.
b. DNA polymerase Cuts protein at specific sequence
Breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs during
c. Helicase
DNAreplication
(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) a and b are correct but c is false
(3) a is correct but b and c are false
(4) a and c are correct but b is false

27) Translation completely takes place in :-

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Nucleus
(3) Nucleolus
(4) Plasma membrane

28) Which is main replicating enzyme in E.Coli ?

(1) DNA polymerase-III

(2) DNA gyrase
(3) Topoisomerase
(4) Primase

29) In DNA replication leading strand replicates in:

(1) 5' → 3' direction, continuously

(2) 3' → 5' direction, continuously
(3) 3' → 5' direction, continuously
(4) 3' → 5' direction, discontinuously

30) The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of :-

(1) Hershey and Chase (1952)

(2) Frederic Griffith (1928)
(3) Watson and Crick
(4) Meselson and Stahl (1958)

31) The correct sequence of steps in Harshey and Chase's experiment that provided unequivocal
proof that DNA is the genetic material was :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Choose the correct statements from the following

I. DNA replication takes place before mitosis and meiosis
II. The template strand of the transcription unit runs from 5’ to 3’
III. Product of genes may also be rRNA or tRNA
IV. Product of hnRNA is mRNA

(1) I and II
(2) I, II, III and IV
(3) II and III
(4) I, III and IV

33) Assertion :- The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity and the process of splicing
represents the dominance of RNA world.
Reason :- The split gene arrangement represents an advanced feature of the genome.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

34) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a-promoter, b-terminator, c-template strand, d-coding strand

(2) b-promoter, a-terminator, c-template strand, d-coding strand
(3) a-promoter, b-terminator, d-template strand, c-coding strand
(4) b-promoter, a-terminator, d-template strand, c-coding strand

35) During DNA replication, RNA primer is always formed in which direction :–

(1) 3' → 5"

(2) 5' → 3"
(3) 3' → 5" or 5' → 3"
(4) None of the above

SECTION-B

1) The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into ....(Y)..... is termed
as .....(Z)...... :-

Y Z

(1) Transcription RNA

(2) RNA Transcription

(3) DNA Replication

(4) Replication DNA

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Assertion :- DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription of all the types of RNA in
bacteria.
Reason :- Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for polypeptide.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
3) From a DNA template with the sequence CTGATAGC, the mRNA sequence formed would be :

(1) GUCTUTCG
(2) GACUAUCG
(3) UACTATCU
(4) GAUTATUG

4) Assertion : Turner's syndrome generally does not occur in males.

Reason : Foetus with 44 + YO complement generally dies.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false

5) Which segments of hnRNA are removed during splicing in eukaryotes?

(1) 5´-UTR
(2) 3´-UTR
(3) Introns
(4) Poly–A–tail

6) Which enzyme remove the primer in DNA replication :-

(1) Primase
(2) DNA polymerase II
(3) DNA polymerase I
(4) Helicase

7) The process of transcription is terminated by

(1) sigma factor

(2) rho protein
(3) RNA polymerase
(4) endonuclease

8) Which is correct for Turner's syndrome ?

(1) It is a case of monosomy

(2) It causes sterility in females
(3) Absence of Barr body
(4) All of the above

9) Which option shows correctly labelled region in the given diagram of DNA replication ?
(1) Only c
(2) a, c
(3) a, b
(4) b, c

10) What is the site of transcription and splicing in eukaryotes ?

(1) Nucleus and cytoplasm respectively

(2) Nucleus
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Cytoplasm and nucleus respectively

11) The minimum weight of tomatoes obtained from a plant is 20g. The maximum wt. of tomatoes
obtained is 120g. What will be the weight of tomatoes obtained by crossing plants with genotype
AAbb × aabb

(1) 45g
(2) 70g
(3) 100g
(4) 25g

12) Number of linkage groups :-

(1) Is always equal to the number of diploid set of chromosomes

(2) Is seven for Drosophila
(3) Do not include sex chromosomes
(4) Is one more than the haploid set of chromosome in human male

13)

The distance between genes w, x, y and z on a chromosome are as follows :-

w–y = 18 units
w-x = 26 units
w-z = 40 units
x-y = 8 units
x-z = 14 units

The sequence of these genes would be :-

(1) w, x, y, z
(2) x, y, w, z
(3) w, y, x, z
(4) y, w, x, z

14) Which organism was utilised by Taylor et. al. to prove semi-conservative replication at
chromosomal level ?

(1) Ophioglossum
(2) Lathyrus adoratus
(3) Vicia faba
(4) E. Coli

15) A plant with genotype Aabb is crossed with AaBb genotypic plant. Find out percentage of
offspring, have aaBb genotype :

(1) 12.5
(2) 50
(3) 25
(4) 0

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following statement is incorrect :-

(1) Any population has built in variation in characteristics

(2) Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution
(3) The geological history of earth never correlates with the biological history of earth
(4) According to Darwin, the fitness refers ultimately and only to reproductive fitness

2) Given below are four statements (A–D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which
correctly fills up the blanks in two statements.
(A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the results of __(i)__ evolution.
(B) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and __(i)__ when exposed to electric discharge in a flask
resulted in formation of __(ii)__ .
(C) Vermiform appendix is a __(i)__ organ and an __(ii)__ evidence of evolution.
(D) According to Darwin evolution took place due to __(i)__ and __(ii)__ of the fittest.

(1) (A)-(i) convergent; (D)-(i) small variations, (ii) survival

(2) (A)-(i) convergent; (B)-(i) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides
(3) (B)-(i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids; (C)-(i) homologous, (ii) anatomical
(4) (C)-(i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical;(D)-(i) mutations, (ii) multiplication

3) Read the following statements carefully and select the correct ones.
(i) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who worked in Malay Archipelago had also come to similar
conclusions as Darwin around the same time.
(ii) August Weismann by careful experimentation demonstrated that life comes only from pre-
existing life.
(iii) The organs which have the same fundamental structure, but are different in functions are called
homologous organs.
(iv) Sweet potato and potato are examples of homology.

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

4) According to Darwin those who are better fit in environment leave more progeny then others
These, therefore will survive and hence selected by nature. He called it :-

(1) Survival of fittest

(2) Natural selection
(3) Struggle for existence
(4) Differential reproduction

5) When we describe the story of this world we describe evolution as :-

(1) Process
(2) Result of artificial selection
(3) Result of natural selection
(4) All of these

6) How many statements are incorrect :- (1) Lichen can be used as pollution indicator.
(2) Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance event in nature and chance mutation in
organism.
(3) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism. (4) Excess use of herbicides,
pesticides etc has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a much lesser time scale.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7)

Two key concept of Darwin theory are :-

(1) Gene mutation and Natural selection

(2) Branching descent and Variations
(3) Branching descent and Natural selection
(4) Saltation and Variations
8) Statement 1 : Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism. Statement 2 :
Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and progressive mutations in the
organisms.

(1) One and two both are correct

(2) Only one is correct
(3) Only two is correct
(4) Both are incorrect

9) Shelled eggs do not dry up in sun is the evolutionary feature of :-

(1) Amphibia
(2) Reptile
(3) Pisces
(4) Mammals

10)

Match the following columns and find correct combination

Column I Column II
A. Darwin p. Mutation theory
B. De Vries q. Protobiosis
C. Pasteur r. Origin of species
D. Fox s. Special creation
t. Swan Necked flask experiment

A–r B–p C–t D–q

(1)

A–p B–q C–r D–s

(2)

A–t B–r C–q D–p

(3)

A–r B–t C–p D–q

(4)

11)

Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(A) The universe is vast and earth is almost only a speck
(B) Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and dust
(C) All the existing life form share similarities and share common ancestors

(D) Different aged rock sediments contain fossils of different life-forms

(1) (1) Statements (A), (B) and (C)
(2) (2) Statements (A), (B) and (D)
(3) (3) Statements (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (4) Statements (A), (B), (C) and (D)
12) Unit of Evolution is

(1) Population
(2) Individual
(3) Species
(4) Subspecies

13) Identify the correct match from Column-I and Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

a. origin of universe (i) 4.5 bya

b. origin of earth (ii) 500 mya

c. noncellular form of life (iii) 320 mya

d. cellular form of life (iv) 20 bya

e. eukaryote cell (v) 65 mya

f. invertebate formed (vi) 350 mya

g. jawless fish (vii) 1.5 bya

h. sea weeds (viii) 2.0 bya

i. extinction of dinosaurs (ix) 3.0 bya

(1) i-v, a-iv, c-ix, e-viii, b-i, d-vii, g-iii, h-ii, f-vi
(2) c-vii, a-iv, i-v, b-i, d-ix, f-iii, e-viii, h-vi, g-ii
(3) g-i, a-iv, c-ix, b-iv, i-v, d-ii, e-viii, f-vii, h-iii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ix, d-viii, e-vii, f-ii, g-vi, h-iii, i-v

14) Appearance of Antibiotic resistant bacteria is an example of :-

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Pre existing variation in population
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Transduction

15) Which one of the following options give correct categorization of examples and the two
successive phenomena given in the columns ?

Examples Phenomenon - I Phenomenon - II

(1) Biston betularia Industrial melanism Artificial selection
(2) Australian marsupials Adaptive radiation Convergent evolution
(3) Placental mammals Convergent evolution Natural selection
(4) Darwin's finch Adaptive radiation Divergent evolution
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) The figure below show four stage (a, b, c, d) of human development. Select the option giving
correct identification together with site of occurrence ?

Developmental stage Site of occurrence

(1) (a) Fertilised egg Isthms part of fallopian tube

(2) (b) Zygote Distal part of fallopian tube

(3) (c) Morula Starting point of fallopian tube

(4) (d) Blastocyst Uterine cavity

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Maths Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

(a) Gestation period (1) Mild uterine contractions

(b) Parturition (2) Duration of pregnancy

(c) Foetal ejection reflex (3) Process of delivery of the foetus

(d) After birth (4) Placental expulsion

a b c d

(1) 2 3 1 4

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 1 2 3 4
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

18) Choose the incorrect statement :

A. Parturition is Neuroendocrine process.
B. hCG is also secreted by umblical cord
C. The first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on the head are observed during end of 1st
trimester.
D. The signal for parturition originate from fully developed foetus only.
E. Oxytocin are used to induce delivery by doctors

(1) A, B and E
(2) C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) None of the above

19) In a 28 day menstrual cycle, regeneration of endometrium during proliferative phase occurs on
approximately

(1) Day 1-5

(2) Day 16-24
(3) Day 6-14
(4) day 24-28

20) Which hormones is produced in women during pregnancy?

(1) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

(2) Relaxin
(3) Human placental lactogen (hPL)
(4) All of the above

21) Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement A : All copulations do not lead to fertilization and pregnancy.
Statement B : Fertilization is possible only if ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to
the ampullary region

(1) A is correct and B is incorrect statement

(2) Both A and B statements are correct
(3) Only B statement is correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

22) Read the statements A and B carefully and select the correct option.
Statement-A: No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because both FSH
and LH levels are low in this phase.
Statement-B: The secretions of the structure present in sperm head help it to enter into the
cytoplasm of ovum through different membranes

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

23) Identify A, B, C, D and E in the diagram showing human foetus within the uterus:–
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Statement-I : The trophoblast layer gets attached to the endometrium and the inner cell mass
gets differentiated as the embryo.
Statement-II : The morula becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

26) Assertion : The second meiotic division of the secondary oocyte completes during fertilisation.
Reason : The second meiotic division is unequal and results in the formation of a second polar body
and a diploid Ovum.

(1) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
27) A wider region, called ampulla is not a part of which of the following structures?

(1) Mammary gland

(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Testes

28) How many of following event occurs in fallopian tube?

A. Fertilisation B. Cleavage
C. Morulation D.Organogenesis

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

29) Match the development of the foetus in accordance with its correct time during pregnancy.

(1) 8 weeks - heart formation

(2) 12 weeks - limbs and digits are formed
(3) 24 weeks - eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed
(4) 24 weeks - external genital organs

30) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): During pregnancy the level of thyroxine is increased in the maternal blood.
Reason (R): Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic changes in the mother.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

31) Read following Column-I & Column-II and identify their correct match :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Non mediated IUD i. Non Hormonal pills

B. Saheli ii. Lippes loops

C. Hormonal IUD iii. LNG-20

D. MALA-N iv. Cu-T

v. Hormonal oral pills

vi. Hormonal Injection

(1) (A–i), (B–iii), (C–iv), (D–vi)
(2) (A–iii), (B–iv), (C–v), (D–i)
(3) (A–ii), (B–i), (C–iii), (D–v)
(4) (A–v), (B–ii), (C–iv), (D–ii)

32) Identify the correct set of STIs mentioned below, which are only caused due to viral pathogens.

(1) Gonorrhea, Genital warts

(2) Syphilis, Genital herpes
(3) Trichomoniasis, AIDS
(4) Genital herpes, Genital warts

33)

If frequency of a dominant allele, in a population which is in genetic equilibrium, is 0.6, then

calculate frequency of heterozygotes in that population.

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.24
(3) 0.48
(4) 0.36

34) Assertion : Amniocentesis is often misused.

Reason : Amniocentesis is meant for determining the genetic disorders in the foetus, but it is being
used to determine the sex of the foetus, to kill the normal female foetus.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

35) Assertion : Mother would be blamed for the birth of the girls in the family.
Reason : Father is not responsible for the sex of the child.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

SECTION-B

1) RCH stands for

(1) Random check-up of heart

(2) Reproductive and child health care
(3) Regional child health care
(4) Real child health care

2) Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within

(1) 72 hrs of coitus

(2) 72 hrs of ovulation
(3) 72 hrs of menstruation
(4) 72 hrs of implantation

3) Periodic abstinence is one such method in which

(1) Menstrual cycle does not occur

(2) Couples abstain from coitus during ovulation only
(3) Couples abstain from coitus from day 1 to 17 of menstrual cycle
(4) Ovulation does not occur during the period of intense lactation

4) In India, family planning programme was initiated in

(1) 1947
(2) 1951
(3) 1971
(4) 2017

5) Read the following statements. Choose the correct option.

A. Cleft palate cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis.
B. Amniocentesis procedure is a disorder determination test based on the chromosomal pattern of
the embryo's cell in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo.

(1) Both statements are are incorrect

(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both statements are correct

6) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t vasectomy.

(1) In this process, transport of sperms is blocked

(2) The two vasa deferentia are interrupted by giving cut
(3) It is the surgical sterilisation technique for males
(4) Its reversibility is not poor

7) Multiload 375 is responsible for

(1) Stimulation of ovulation

(2) Stimulation of gamete genes
(3) Suppressing the sperm motility
(4) Increasing the fertilising capacity of sperms

8) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to have many weeks of pregnancy?

(1) Eight weeks

(2) Twelve weeks
(3) Eighteen weeks
(4) Six weeks

9) If vasectomy is done, then which condition would occur in a male?

(1) Teratospermia
(2) Asthenospermia
(3) Azoospermia
(4) Both (1) & (2)

10) Progestasert makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to the sperms. It is
a :-

(1) Copper releasing IUD

(2) Hormone releasing IUD
(3) Non medicated IUD
(4) Both (b) and (c)

11) Identify the ancestor-A in the family tree of dinosaur in given figure :-

(1) Synapsids
(2) Thecodonts
(3) Therapsids
(4) Pelycosaurus

12)

Identify the geographical periods (A, B, C) in the given diagram

(1) A-Tertiary, B-Jurassic, C-Permian

(2) A-Tertiary, B-Permian, C-Jurassic
(3) A-Permian, B-Jurassic, C-Tertiary
(4) A-Jurassic, B-Tertiary, C-Permian

13) Identify the correct match from column I and column II:

Column - II Column - II

Age of
(a) Devonian period (i)
amphibians

Carboniferous Age of
(b) (ii)
period mammals

(c) Jurassic period (iii) Age of fishes

Golden age of
(d) Coenozoic era (iv)
dinosaurs
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

14) Which organisms probably evolved into first amphibians ?

(1) Synapsids
(2) Sauropsids
(3) Coelacanth
(4) Ichthyosaurs
15) Factors affecting Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium are :

(1) Gene migration

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Mutation
(4) All the above
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 1 1 2 4 2 2 3 4 4 1 4 3 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 4 3 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 1 3 4 1 3 1 3 2 1 4 1 1 1 2 4 1 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 1 3 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 1 3 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 2 4 2 2 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 3 3 2 1 3 2 4 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 3 2 3 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 1 4 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 4 3 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 2 1 3 3 2 4 3 2 1 4 3 3 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 2 1 1 3 4 2 1 4 1 4 2 4 4 1 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 1 3 3 2 2 4 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 1 3 2 4 4 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

BOTANY

108)

NCERT XII, Pg # 99; Para : 6.10.2

110)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 97, para 6

113) NCERT XII Page # 109

114)

NCERT-XII Pg#83

115)

XII-NCERT Pg.102

116)

XII-NCERT Pg.99

118)

NCERT-XII (E), Pg.106,107, PARA-6.4.2

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 101

124)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 111

130)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 101, 6.2.1

136)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 107

 137)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 93

ZOOLOGY

156)

NCERT Pg. # 132

163)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 106, 109, 110, 115, 116, 117

171)

NCERT XII, Page No.- 35

172)

NCERT Reference: Biology-XII, Page No.- 51

181)

NCERT Pg # 44-45 (E)

Pg # 49-50 (E)

183) Ncert

185)

Mother is homogametic (produce X, X) and father is heterogametic (X and Y). So, father is
responsible for the sex of the child not mother.

196)

NCERT XII Pg. # 114

199)

NCERT (XII) Pg# 138/148 (H) Para : 7.8