Software Engineering MCQ Practice Question
1. Which of the life cycle models covers Risk as a part
a. RAD Model b. Waterfall Model
c. Spiral Model d. Evolutionary Model
2 What is prototype?
a. Mini-model of existing system b. Mini-model of proposed system
c. Working-model of existing system d. None of these
3 Which of the following are advantages of iterative models?
a. Early Revenue Generation b. Simpler to manage
c. Early Feedback d. All the above
4 Prototyping aims at….
a. end user understanding and approval b. program logic
c. planning of data flow organization d. none of these
5 Evolutionary software process models are
a. Iterative in nature b. Can handle Risk
c. Both a and b d. None of these
6 Which of the following life cycle models can be chosen if client is not very much aware of the
requirement?
a. Spiral b. Waterfall
c. RAD d. Prototype Model
7 Which is the most important feature of Spiral model?
a. Quality Management b. Risk Management
c. Productivity Management d. Efficiency estimation
8 Which model adjusts with changing requirements?
a. Waterfall Model b. Spiral Model
c. Agile Model d. Evolutionary Model
9 Which model covers Risk analysis?
a. Evolutionary b. Spiral
c. Waterfall d. Prototype
10 Which does not come under feasibility study?
a. Social Feasibility b. Legal Feasibility
c. Technological Feasibility d. Ethical Feasibility
11 Which model is known as meta model?
a. Spiral Model b. Agile Model
c. RAD Model d. Prototype Model
12 Which of the following is not a type of SDLC Model?
a. Waterfall Model b. Prototype Model
c. Capability Maturity Model d. Spiral Model
13 Which model put much effort on Testing?
a. Spiral Model b. Waterfall Model
c. Verification and Validation Model d. None of the above
14 SDLC models can be selected based upon
a. Effort of Development team b. Development time
c. Cost d. All of these
15 The detailed study of existing system is referred to as
a. Feasibility study b. System design
c. System Analysis d. System Testing
16 Prototyping model is used for which purpose?
a. End user understanding and b. Understanding program logic
approval
c. Testing is not required d. Covering Risk analysis
17 What is SDLC?
a. Software Development Life Cycle b. System Deployment life cycle
c. Software deactivation life cycle d. None of the above
18 Which of the following life cycle models can be chosen if the development team has less
experience on similar projects?
a. Waterfall Model b. Spiral Model
c. RAD Model d. Iterative enhancement model
19 Which model is also known as Verification and validation model?
a. Waterfall model b. Big Bang model
c. V- Model d. Spiral Model
Unit 2- Software Requirement Analysis and Specification
20 What are the two issues of Requirement Analysis?
a. Performance, Design b. Stakeholder, Developer
c. Functional, Non-Functional d. None of the mentioned
21 The user system requirements are the part of which particular document
a.SDD b.SRS
c. Design Document d. Design Document
22 How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis?
a. Three b. Four
c. Five d. Six
23 Which is not a characteristic of SRS?
a. Verifiable b. Detailed View
c. Black Box View d. Traceable
24 What is noise in term of software development?
a. Giving unnecessary details in SRS b. Writing concise SRS
c. Specifying the requirement d. None of the above
25 Select the developer specific requirement
a. Portability b. Availability
c. Reliability d. None of these
26 Full form of SRS is
a. Software Requirement Specification b. Scenario Requirement Specification
c. Software Re-engineering Specification d. Software Recycle Specification
27 Which of the following is not included in SRS
a. Functional Requirement b. Non-functional Requirement
c. Goal of implementation d. User Manual
28 Who writes SRS?
a. System Developer b. System Developer
c. System Analyst d. System tester
29 What is to be avoided in an SRS?
a. Black Box View b. Writing concise SRS
c. Wishful Thinking d. Writing Complete requirement
30 Which among the following tools help to find out the path for taking right decision?
a. Decision Tree b. Decision Table
c. Both a and b d. DFD
31 Which is not a requirement gathering process?
a. Scenario analysis a. Questioner
c. Task Estimation c. Historical Analysis
Unit -3: Software Design
32 The basic tool used in structured design is
a. Structure Chart b. ERD
c. DFD d. CASE Tools
33 DFD is known as
a. Design Flow Diagram b. Data Flow Diagram
c. Data Function Diagram d. None of these
34 Level 0 DFD is also known as
a. Context Diagram b. HIPO Diagram
c. Conceptual Diagram d. Complete Diagram
35 Which DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle?
a. Transform b. Entity
c. Process c. Data Flow
36 Which symbol in DFD shows a process
a. Circle b. Rectangle
c. Arrow d. Parallel Line
37 Which Cohesion has the lowest strength?
a. Logical b. Temporal
c. Coincidental d. Sequential
38 Which of the following describes” Is-a-Relationship”?
a. Aggregation b. Generalization
c. Dependency d. Normalization
39 Which coupling has the highest degree
a. Common b. Data
c. Control d. Context
40 ERD helps to develop
a. Table structure of a system b. Cost estimation of a system
c. User interface of a system d. Logical complexity of a system
41 Which UML diagram represents use cases
a. Use case diagram b. Class diagram
c. Activity Diagram d. Sequence Diagram
42
How is generalization implemented in Object Oriented programming languages?
a. Inheritance b. Polymorphism
c. Encapsulation d. Abstract Class
43 What is a collection of operations that specify a service of a class or component?
a. Use Cases b. Actor
c. Interface d. Relationship
44 UML stands for
a. Unified Modeling Language b. Unified Management Language
c. Unique Modeling Language d. United Modeling Language
45 Cohesion measures
a. Functional Strength of two modules b. Interdependency of modules
c. Logical complexity among modules d. None of these
46 Which UML diagram gives a static view?
a. Class Diagram b. Use Case Diagram
c. Sequence Diagram d. Activity Diagram
47 Which one may be used to show relationship among different entities?
a. Entity-relation diagram b. Activity diagram
c. Use Case diagram d. Gantt Chart
48 State whether the following statements about data flow model are True or False.
i) Data flow model shows how the order for the goods moves from process to process.
ii) Data flow diagrams are good way to describe sub-system with complex interfaces.
a. True, False b. False, True
c. False, False d. True, True
49 Which diagram is useful to get an idea of user interface?
a. DFD b. ERD
c. Decision Tree d. PERT Chart
50 DFD works for which following purpose
a. Decomposition of work b. Control Flow
c. Both a and b d. None of these
51 Which following combination is a favorable combination for a software?
a. High Coupling, Low Cohesion b. Low Coupling, Low Cohesion
c. Low Coupling, High Cohesion d. High Coupling, High Cohesion
52 What type of relationship is represented by Shape class and Square?
a. Realization b. Generalization
c. Aggregation d. Dependency
53 Which is an object-oriented design?
a. UML b. DFD
c. ERD d. Structure Chart
54 Which of the following option is not considered by the Interface design?
a. the design of interfaces between software b. design of interfaces between the
components software and human producers and
consumers of information
c. the design of the interface between two d. All of these
computers
55 What encapsulates both data and data manipulating functions
a. Class b. Super Class
c. Activity d. Member Function
Unit – 4: Software Project Management
56 Size and complexity are a part of which metrics?
a. Process Metrics b. Project Metrics
c. Product Metrics d. None of these
57 Which one is not a risk management activity?
a. Risk assessment b. Risk generation
c. Risk control d. None of the mentioned
58 PERT is known as
a. Project Evaluation and Review Technique b. Project Estimation and Review
Technique
c. Project Equation and Review Technique d. None of these
59 LOC falls under which category?
a. Reliability Metrics b. Cost metrics
c. Process metrics d. Product metrics
60 Size and complexity are a part of
a. Product metrics b. Reliability Metrics
c. Cost Metrics d. None of these
61 Which is not a size metric?
a. LOC b. COCOMO
c. Function Point d. Feature Point metric
62 Which one is not a cost estimation technique?
a. Delphi cost estimation b. Empirical estimation model
c. COCOMO d. Equivalence class partitioning
63 Which one does not belong to the same category
a. Function Point b. LOC
c. COCOMO d. Feature point metrics
64 Which one is not a part of COCOMO Model
a. Early Design Model b. Post Architecture Model
c. Application Composition Model d. Progressive Model
65 Risk management is one of the most important jobs for _______-
a. Project Manager b. Developer
c. Support Team d. None of these
66 Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of
a. Product Metrics b. Process Metrics
c. Project Metrics d. All of the mentioned
67 Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project?
a. Practitioners b. Project managers
c. Senior managers d. None of the above
68 Failure of a purchased component to perform comes under _____ Risk
a. Project Risk b. Product Risk
c. Schedule Risk d. None of these
69 Function Points in software engineering were first proposed by whom?
a. Booch b. Boehm
c. Albrecht d. Jacobson
70 Function point can be calculated as
a. FP= UFP * CAF b. FP=UFP + CAF
c. FP=UFP -CAF d. None of these
71 CAF in function point can be calculated as
a. CAF= [count total * 0.65*DI] b. CAF = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 *
(DI)2
c. CAF= count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) d. CAF = [0.65 + (0.01 * DI)]
72
A 66.6% risk is considered as
a. Low b. Very Low
c. High d. Very High
73
Group A Group B
(a) DFD i. Calculate effort of a software
(b) Function point metric ii. It is a testing procedure
(c) Cyclomatic complexity iii. Used for design of a
Find the proper matching in following case
a. (a)-i,(b)-ii,(c)-iii b. (a)-iii,(b)-i,(c)-ii
c. (a)-ii,(b)-i,(c)-iii d. (a)-iii,(b)-i,(c)-ii
73 Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function points in
FPA ?
a. Number of user Input b. Number of user Inquiries
c. Number of external Interfaces d. Number of errors
74 The quantifying technique of qualitative measure of a software is known as
a. measurement b. Metric
c. Parameter d. Error removal process
75 COCOMO Model is known as
a. Constructive Cost estimation Model b. Complicated Cost estimation Model
c. Complex Cost Estimation Model d. None of these
76 Which diagram does not include requirement analysis?
a. Use Cases b. Entity Relationship Diagram
c. State Transition Diagram d. Activity Diagram
77 PERT analysis may be done based on
a. Optimistic time b. Most likely time
c. Pessimistic time d. All of the above
78 What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions?
a. Object b. Class
c. Super Class d. None of these
79 SCM is _____________
a. Software Configuration management b. Supply content management
c. Software content management d. None of the above
80 Critical task may be estimated as
a. LS-ES b. LF-EF
c. Both a and b d. LS * ES
81 Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?
a. Quality b. Complexity
c. Reliability d. All of the Mentioned
82 Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module?
a. Availability b. Debugging
c. Usability d. Flexibility
Unit 5 : Software Testing
83 Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of ____ testing
a. Acceptance Testing b. System Testing
c.Unit Testing d. Integration Testing
84 Cyclomatic Complexity is
a. Black Box Testing b. White Box Testing
c. Green Box Testing d. None of the above
85 Which of the following is a black box testing strategy?
a. All Statements Coverage b. Control Structure Coverage
c. Boundary Value Analysis d. All Paths Coverage
86 Which statement about testing is not true
a. Testing done to discover error b. Testing increases productivity
c. 100% error discovery is possible d. None of these
87 Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Maintenance b. Design
c. Code d. Requirements
88 Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of
a. Testing b. Source Code
c. Design Model d. None of these
89 The testing of software against SRS is called
a. Acceptance Testing b. Integration Testing
c. System Testing d. Regression Testing
90 Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?
a. Unit Testing b. Integration Testing
c. Acceptance Testing d. Regression Testing
91 Black box testing is also known as by which other name?
a. glass box testing b. Functional testing
c. structural testing d. none of the above
92 What will be the cyclomatic complexity for the following code
void main()
{
int a, b,c=0;
c=a+b;
printf(“result is”,c);
}
a. 1 b. 0
c. 2 d. 3
93 What is the main aim of testing?
a. To discover the undiscovered error b. To enhance overall productivity
c. Both a and b d. None of these
94 Which test refers to the retesting of a unit, integration and system after modification, in order to
ascertain that the change has not introduced new faults?
a. Regression Test b. Smoke Test
c. Alpha Test d. Beta Test
95 CFG is known as
a. Control Flow Graph b. Control Frequency Graph
c. Context Flow Graph d. Content Flow Graph
96 Which one is true about Exhaustive testing?
a. always possible b. practically possible
c. impractical but possible d. impractical and impossible
97 Test cases are designed by
a. Tester b. Developer
c. System Analyst d. Client
98 Equivalence Class Partitioning belongs to
a. Black Box testing b. White Box testing
c. Unit Testing d. Integration Testing
99 Cyclomatic Complexity of an if-else statement may be
a. 0 b. 2
c. 1 d. 3
100 Test cases should uncover errors like
a. Nonexistent loop termination b. Comparison of different data types
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
101 Which of the following is a form of Alpha and Beta Testing?
a. Acceptance Testing b. Penetration Testing
c. Smoke Testing d. Regression Testing
102 Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-
wrapped” software products are being developed?
a. Regression Testing b. Integration testing
c. Smoke testing d. Validation testing
103 Bottom Up approach comes under
a. Acceptance testing b. Integration testing
c. Unit Testing d. None of these
104 Alpha testing is done at
a. Developers end b. Clients end
c. Both a and b d. None of these
105 Testing is done on the basis of
a. Test cases b. PERT Chart
c. Use cases d. Gnatt Chart
106 White box testing can be started
a. After coding b. After Analysis
c. After Design d. After Installation
107 Each module of software tested to discover any error in the code
a. Unit Testing b. Acceptance Testing
c. Mutation Testing d. Integration Testing
108 Smoke Testing is a type of which following testing
a. Unit Testing b. Integration Testing
c. System Testing d. Acceptance Testing
109 Test suit is known as
a. Collection of test cases b. Evaluation of test cases
c. Testing tool d. Test termination condition only
110 Find the proper matching in following case
Group A Group B
(a) selenium i . Cost estimation model
(b) COCOMO ii. Testing tool
(c) MTTF iii. Reliability metric
a. (a)-i,(b)-ii,(c)-iii b. (a)-ii,(b)-iii,(c)-i
c. (a)-ii,(b)-i,(c)-iii d. (a)-iii,(b)-i,(c)-ii
112 For which of the following testing one need not to be aware of the internal working procedure?
a. Branch Coverage b. Code Coverage
c. Both a and b d. Boundary Value Analysis
113 Which one is not a testing procedure?
a. After SRS creation b. After designing
c. After programming d. After installation
114 White box testing can be started
a. after SRS creation b. after designing
c. after programming d. after installation
115 Which one is not a black box testing procedure?
a. Ad Hoc Testing b. End to End Testing
c. Regression Testing d. Integration Testing
116 Which testing is performed with planning and documentation?
a. Ad Hoc Testing b. End to End Testing
c. Regression Testing d. Integration Testing
117 Which testing can’t be performed with the first build of the software?
a. Regression Testing b. Unit Testing
c. Acceptance Testing d. Both b and c
118 Which is known as a bug in testing?
a. Error detected in a particular line of code b. An insect
c. Name of testing Process d. A virus
119 A tester is executing a test to evaluate and it complies with the user requirement for a certain field
be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values, at that time tester is performing
__________ .
a. Black Box Testing b. White Box Testing
c. Load Testing d. Regression Testing
120 When testing should be stopped
a. When managers asked to stop b. When time runs out
c. It depends upon the risk associated with the d. None of these
project
Unit 6- Software Quality and Reliability
121 MTTF and MTBF are used in
a. Process Metrics b. Project Metrics
c. Reliability Metric d. Cost Metrics
122 …………….. is a measure of the frequency of occurrence with which unexpected behavior is
likely to occur.
a. Probability of Failure on Demand (POFOD) b.Rate of Failure Occurrence (ROCOF)
c. Mean Time to Failure (MTTF) d. Rate of Failure Occurrence (ROCOF)
123 SMI stands for
a. Software Mature Indicator b. Software Maturity Index
c. Software Mature Index d. Software Maturity Indicator
124 Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a. Project manager b. Project team
c. SQA group d. All of the mentioned
125 Which one of the following states that, adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to
verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.
a. ISO 9001 b. ISO 9000-4
c. CMM d. All of the above
126 MTTF is ________
a. Maximum time to failure b. Mean time to failure
c. Minimum time to failure d. None of the mentioned
127 MTTR is
a. Mean time to repair b. Minimum Time to repair
c. Maximum time to repair d. Mid time to repair
128 MTBF measures
a. Average Time between to failure b. Minimum time required for a
failure
c. Both a and b d. None of these
129 Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance?
a. Market b. Product
c. Technology d. None of these
130 CMM stands for
a. Capability Management Module b. Conservative Maturity Model
c. Capability Maturity Model d. None of these
131 According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be
a. deleted b. eliminated
c. identified d. both a and c
132 ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records
a. collection b. maintenance
c. verification d. dis-positioning
133 Which one is not a quality standard?
a. CMM b.Six Sigma
c.CMMI d. COCOMO
134 Which of the following measures process rather than giving a certificate on product
quality?
a. CMM b. ISO 9000:2001
c. ISO 14000 d. CPI
135 How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?
a. Direct Relation b. Inverse Relation
c. No Relation d. Exponentially Increasing
Relation
Unit 7- Software Maintenance
136 Which one is not a type of maintenance?
a. Corrective b. Adaptive
c. primitive d. Perfective
137 Which maintains software configuration?
a. Software maintenance b. Configuration management
c. Software re-engineering d. Software refactoring
138 Software Maintenance includes
a. Error corrections b. Enhancements of capabilities
c. Deletion of obsolete capabilities d. All of the mentioned
139 Which type of the maintenance deals with the problem arise during use of the software?
a. corrective b. adaptive
c. preventive d. none of these
Unit 8- CASE Tool
140 Which is not a type of CASE tool
a. Lower b. Classic
c. Real d. Middle
141 What kind of support is provided by the Repository Query CASE tool?
a. Editing text and diagrams b. Display of parts of the design
texts
c. Cross referencing queries and requirements d. Display of parts of the design
tracing texts AND Cross referencing
queries and requirements tracing
142 Which one is the benefit of a CASE
a. ease the phase of SDLC b. Reduce vulnerabilities
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
143 What stores all changes and info related to the project from development through
maintenance in CASE tools?
a. Database b. Repository
c. Registers d. None of the above mentioned
Unit 9: Software Re Engineering
144 Reverse engineering of data focuses on
a. Internal data structures b. Database structures
c. All of the mentioned d. None of the mentioned
145 Which of the following is not a business goal of re-engineering ?
a. Cost reduction b. Time reduction
c. Maintainability d. None of the mentioned
146 What are the problems with re-structuring?
a. Loss of comments b. Loss of documentation
c. Heavy computational demands d. All of the mentioned
147 Reverse engineering of data focuses on
a. Internal data structures b. Database structures
c. ALL of the mentioned d. None of the mentioned
148 Which of the following is not an example of a business process?
a. designing a new product b. hiring an employee
c. purchasing services d. testing software
149 When does one decide to re-engineer a product?
a. when tools to support restructuring are disabled b. when system crashes
frequently
c. when hardware or software support becomes d. subsystems of a larger system
obsolete require few maintenance
150 Which of the following is not a business goal of re-engineering?
a. Cost reduction b. Time reduction
c. Maintainability d. None of the mentioned