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Nuclear and Particle Physics Questions

The document contains multiple choice questions about nuclear physics concepts. It covers topics like the size of atomic nuclei, nuclear binding energy, radioactive decay, and nuclear models. Some key points addressed are: - The size of atomic nuclei is around 10-15 meters. - Nuclear binding energy and magnetic moments can be explained by the proton-electron hypothesis. - Numbers of protons and neutrons can confer nuclear stability, known as "magic numbers". - Semi-empirical mass formula and liquid drop model can be used to calculate binding energies and predict nuclear stability. - Positron emission, electron capture, alpha decay, and beta decay are examples of radioactive decay processes.

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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
349 views41 pages

Nuclear and Particle Physics Questions

The document contains multiple choice questions about nuclear physics concepts. It covers topics like the size of atomic nuclei, nuclear binding energy, radioactive decay, and nuclear models. Some key points addressed are: - The size of atomic nuclei is around 10-15 meters. - Nuclear binding energy and magnetic moments can be explained by the proton-electron hypothesis. - Numbers of protons and neutrons can confer nuclear stability, known as "magic numbers". - Semi-empirical mass formula and liquid drop model can be used to calculate binding energies and predict nuclear stability. - Positron emission, electron capture, alpha decay, and beta decay are examples of radioactive decay processes.

Uploaded by

Sid K
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Mod-1:

1) The size of the atomic nucleus is


a)10-15 m
b) 10-16 m
c) 10-24 m
d) 10-6 m
2) Which of the following is successfully explained by
Proton-Electron Hypothesis?
a)Binding Energy
b) Beta Particle Emission
c) Nuclear Spin
d) Nuclear Magnetic Moment
3) The "Magic Numbers" for atoms are
a)Numbers of electrons that confer atomic stability.
b) Numbers of protons and/or neutrons that
confer nuclear stability.
c) Atomic masses that confer nuclear stability.
d) Atomic masses that indicate fissile isotopes.
4) The actual mass of a 17Cl37 atom is 36.966 amu.
Calculate the mass defect (in amu) for a 17Cl37 atom.
Given masses(in amu): Proton = 1.007277; Neutron =
1.008665
a)0.623 amu
b) 0.488 amu
c) 0.263 amu
d) 0.341 amu
5) Calculate the binding energy per nucleon (in units
of MeV) for 4Be9, for which the atomic mass is 9.01219
amu. Particle masses in amu are: Proton = 1.007277;
Neutron = 1.008665.
a)9.46 MeV
b) 6.83 MeV
c) 6.23 MeV
d) 11.39 MeV
6) Which isotope below has the highest nuclear
binding energy per nucleon? No calculation is
necessary.
a)4He
b) 32S

c) 55Mn
d) 238U

7) Which of the following statements is incorrect?


(a) Mass defect is the amount of matter that
would be converted into energy if a nucleus
were formed from initially separated
protons and neutrons.
(b) Nuclear binding energy is the energy
released in the formation of an atom from
subatomic particles.
(c) Nuclei with highest Binding Energy per
nucleon are the most stable nuclei.
(d) Mass number is the sum of all protons and
electrons in an atom.
8) Mass defect of 2He4 is 0.002604 amu. Calculate its
Packing Fraction.
a)0.006559
b) 0.000737
c) 0.000651
d) 0.005599
9) Proton has a mass of
a)1637 times of an electron
b) 1737 times of an electron
c) 1837 times of an electron
d) 1937 times of an electron

10) The component of Orbital Angular Momentum (l)


in the specified direction of an applied magnetic field
is known as
a)Spin Magnetic Angular Momentum
b) Total Angular Momentum
c) Radial Angular Momentum
d) Orbital Magnetic Angular Momentum
11) The coupling in which the Orbital and Spin
Angular Momenta of individual nucleons couple
together to give a resultant angular momentum is
known as
a)Total Angular Momentum Coupling
b) L-S Coupling
c) J-J Coupling
d) Spin Coupling
12) What is the unit to measure atomic magnetic
moments?
a)Spin g-factor
b) Quadrupole Moment
c) Bohr Magnetron
d) Nuclear Magnetron
13) The phenomenon arises due to non-spherical
charge distribution in the nucleus is
a)Magnetic Dipole Moment
b) Electric Dipole Moment
c) Spin Magnetic Moment
d) Electric Quadrupole Moment
14) The wave function for which inversion of spatial
coordinates doesn’t change the wave function is
known as
a)Normalized Wave Function
b) Symmetric Wave Function
c) Anti-Symmetric Wave Function
d) Spin Wave Function
15) What will be the Parity of a wave function in
Hydrogen like system for l =1?
a)+1
b) -1
c) ±1
d) 0
16) Which of the following is incorrect for Nuclear
Forces?
a)Nuclear Forces are charge dependent
b) Nuclear Forces are short range forces
c) Nuclear Forces are Non-Central
d) Nuclear Forces are Exchange Forces
17) What type of statistics is followed by nucleons?
a)Maxwell-Boltzmann Statistics
b) Bose-Einstein Statistics
c) Fermi-Dirac Statistics
d) None of these
18) In a neutral atom, the electrons are bound to the
nucleus by
a)Magnetic force
b) Electrostatic force
c) Friction force
d) Centripetal force
19) One atomic mass unit (AMU) is equal to
a)1.66 x 10^-20 g
b) 1.66 x 10^-22 g
c) 1.66 x 10^-24 g
d) 1.66 x 10^-26 g
20) An atom with even number of protons
i. is more stable
ii. possesses higher binding energy per nucleon
iii. is fissionable with slow neutrons
Which of the following is/are true?
a)only i
b) i & ii
c) i & iii
d) All of these
21) Most stable isotope in nature is of
a)Iron-56
b) Carbon-12
c) Uranium-235
d) Uranium-238

22) Minimum energy required to pull nucleus apart is


called
a)ionization energy
b) electron affinity
c) chemical energy
d) binding energy
23) If the mass of 3Li7 is 7.01653 amu, then find out
binding energy per nucleon for 3Li7.
a)5.6 MeV
b) 39.25 MeV
c) 1 MeV
d) Zero
24) The correct expression for nuclear radii is
a)R= r0A1/3
b) R= r0 1/2A2/3
c) R= A/r0
d) R= r0t
Mod-2:
1) Assumptions of which model is used to
construct the Semi empirical Mass Formula.
a)Shell Model
b) Fermi Gas Model
c) Collective Model
d) Liquid Drop Model
2) Which of the following is predicted accurately
by Liquid Drop Model?
a)Nuclear Spin
b) Atomic masses and Binding Energy
c) Magic Numbers
d) Nuclear Magnetic Moment
3) The "Magic Numbers" for atoms are
a) Numbers of electrons that confer atomic
stability.
b) Numbers of protons and/or neutrons that
confer nuclear stability.
c) Atomic masses that confer nuclear
stability.
d) Atomic masses that indicate fissile
isotopes.
3)
4) Which of the following is a failure of Shell
Model ?
a)Extra stability of Magic Numbers.
b) Prediction of Electric Quadrupole
Moment arising from the assumption that
the nucleons move in a spherically
symmetric potential.
c) Calculation of Energy level diagram by
using shell model wave functions and two
body interaction.
d) Explanation for Nuclear Isomerism.
5) Which Nuclear Model predicts that the Proton-
Neutron potential levels (or potential wells)
have slightly different shapes because of the
Coulomb repulsion of protons?
a)Collective Model
b) Shell Model
c) Liquid Drop Mode
d) Fermi Gas Model
6) Using semi-empirical mass formula calculate the
Binding Energy of 14Si28. Given that av = 15.5
MeV; as = 16.8 MeV; ac = 0.7 MeV; aa = 23.0 MeV
and ap = +34 MeV (Even-Even Nuclei), = 0 MeV
(Odd ‘A’ Nuclei), = -34 MeV (Odd-Odd Nuclei).
a)239.9 MeV
b) 293.3 MeV
c) 393.3 MeV
d) 339.9 MeV
7) Using semi-empirical mass formula calculate the
Binding Energy of 92U235. Given that av = 15.5
MeV; as = 16.8 MeV; ac = 0.7 MeV; aa = 23.0 MeV
and ap = +34 MeV (Even-Even Nuclei), = 0 MeV
(Odd ‘A’ Nuclei), = -34 MeV (Odd-Odd Nuclei).
a)1898.5 MeV
b) 1689.8 MeV
c) 1988.9 MeV
d) 1798.5 MeV
8) Using Liquid Drop Model, Find the most stable
isobar for A = 27.
a)21
b) 12
c) 22
d) 18
9) Use liquid drop model to find the most stable
isobar for A = 64.
a)37
b) 47
c) 27
d) 17
10) Use liquid drop model to find the most stable
isobar for A = 216.
a)73
b) 63
c) 83
d) 93
11) Which isobars of A = 75 does the liquid drop
model suggest to be the most stable nucleus?
a)44
b) 55
c) 33
d) 22
12) Find the energy needed to remove a neutron
from 36Kr81. Given masses (in amu): Proton =
1.007277; Neutron = 1.008665; m(36Kr81 /
36Kr ) = 80.91661. Hints: Use the formula for
80

separation energy of Neutron.


a)8.95 MeV
b) 12.64 MeV
c) 51.12 MeV
d) 7.78 MeV
13) Use the semi empirical mass formula to
calculate the Binding Energy of 20Ca40. What is
the percentage discrepancy between this value
and the actual value? Given masses (in amu):
Proton = 1.007277; Neutron = 1.008665;
m(20Ca40) = 39.962591. Given constants : av =
15.5 MeV; as = 16.8 MeV; ac = 0.7 MeV; aa = 23.0
MeV and ap = +34 MeV (Even-Even Nuclei), = 0
MeV (Odd ‘A’ Nuclei), = -34 MeV (Odd-Odd
Nuclei).
a)399.43 MeV / 0.45%
b) 451.22 MeV / 0.7%
c) 343.59 MeV / 0.45%
d) 536.65 MeV / 0.7%
Mod-3:
1) A positron has a mass number of _____, a charge of
_____, and a mass equal to that of a(an) _____.
(a) 0, 1+, proton
(b) 0, 1+, electron
(c) 1, 2+, electron
(d) 0, 0, proton

2) Emission of which one of the following leaves both


atomic number and mass number unchanged?
(a) positron
(b) alpha particle
(c) gamma radiation
(d) beta particle
3) Which type of radiation is the least penetrating?
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Gamma
(d) X-Ray
4) When 59Cu undergoes positron emission, what is
the immediate nuclear product?
(a) 28Ni59
(b) 28Ni58
(c) 29Cu58
(d) 30Zn59
5) As a result of the process of electron capture ("K-
capture") by 85At211, the new isotope formed is:
(a) 85At210
(b) 85At212
(c) 84Po211
(d) 86Rn211
6) The International System of units (SI) of
radioactivity activity is
a)Becquerel
b) Curie
c) Fermi
d) Moles
7) Which of the following rays are emitted during
radioactivity?
a)Alpha-rays
b) Beta-rays
c) Gamma-rays
d) All of the above
8) Which of the following have the correct order of
Ionizing Energy (IAlpha/Beta/Gamma) in different
radioactive emissions?
(a) IBeta > IGamma > IAlpha
(b) IAlpha > IGamma > IBeta
(c) IGamma > IBeta > IAlpha
(d) IAlpha > IBeta > IGamma
9) What is the approximate mass of an Alpha Particle
(in amu). Given masses (in amu): Proton = 1.007277;
Neutron = 1.008665.
(a) 4.551884
(b) 3.991884
(c) 5.331884
(d) 4.031884
10) Which of the following radiation is not deflected
by electric and magnetic fields?
(a) Beta+ Radiation
(b) Beta- Radiation
(c) Gamma Radiation
(d) Alpha Radiation
11) According to Geiger-Nuttal Law, the decay
constant varies rapidly with
(a) Small changes in energy of Alpha Particles
(b) Large changes in energy of Alpha Particles
(c) No change in energy of Alpha Particles
(d) None of These
12) Which of the following option(s) is/are incorrect?
It was found that, the Range of Alpha Particles (R) is
(a) Directly varies with the initial energy of
the Alpha Particles.
(b) Directly varies with square root of the
atomic weight of the Medium.
(c) Inversely varies with Density of the
Medium.
(d) Inversely varies with the Volume of the
Medium.
13) According to assumptions of Gamow Theory of
Alpha Decay, the Alpha Particle is in constant motion
and is held in the nucleus by a/an
(a) Surface Tension
(b) Gravitational Force
(c) Potential Barrier
(d) Tidal Force
14) For a spontaneous decay, Q-value must be,
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Arbitrary
15) In Gamow Theory, the small but definite likelihood
that the alpha particle may cross the Potential Barrier
is due to
(a) High Kinetic Energy of Alpha Particles
(b) Electrostatic Repulsion
(c) Quantum Mechanical Tunneling
(d) Quantum Entanglement
16) Complete the following reaction.
zX → Z+1YA + -1e0 + _____.
A

(a) Neutrino
(b) Anti-Neutrino
(c) Muon
(d) Photon
16) Complete the following reaction.
137Ni* → 137Ni + _____.
(a) Neutrino
(b) Gamma
(c) Anti-Neutrino
(d) Alpha
17) The process in which nucleus de-excites by
ejecting an electron-positron pair in its own Coulomb
field is known as;
(a) Beta Decay
(b) Internal Pair Conversion
(c) Pair Annihilation
(d) None of These
18) Identify the daughter nucleus resulted by Decay of
an Alpha Particle in 88Ra226.
(a) 86Rn220
(b) 86Rn222
(c) 82Pb208
(d) 90Th234
19) The straggling of heavy ions at low energy is
mostly a consequence of
(a) Finite Momentum
(b) Fluctuating state of ionization
(c) Multiple Scattering
(d) Nuclear Weight
20) The emission of Neutrino and Anti-Neutrino along
with Beta Particle in Beta Decay was first predicted by
(a) P.A.M. Dirac
(b) E. Rutherford
(c) Chadwick
(d) W. Pauli

Mod-4
1) For chain reaction to continue, the multiplication
factor (K) should be
a)K˃1
b) K<1
c) K=1
d) None of these
2) Which of the following describes what occurs in the
fission process?
(a) A heavy nucleus is fragmented into lighter ones.
(b) Two light nuclei are combined into a heavier one.
(c) A proton is split into three quarks.
(d) A particle and anti-particle appear in an area of
high energy density.
3) Which of the following statements about nuclear
fission is always correct?
(a) Very little energy is released in fission processes.
(b) Nuclear fission is an energetically favorable
process for heavy atoms.
(c) Due to its instability, 56Fe readily undergoes
fission.
(d) All nuclear fission reactions are spontaneous.
4) Which one of the following would be most likely to
undergo thermonuclear fusion?
(a) 2H
(b) 4He
(c) 56Fe
(e) 235U
5) Which one of the following statements about
nuclear reactions is false?
(a) Particles within the nucleus are involved.
(b) No new elements can be produced.
(c) Rate of reaction is independent of the presence of a
catalyst.
(d) They are often accompanied by the release of
enormous amounts of energy.
6) When 235U is bombarded with one neutron, fission
occurs and the products are three neutrons, 94Kr, and
_____ .
(a) 139Ba
(b) 141Ba
(c) 139Ce
(d) 139Xe
7) The following reaction is which kind of Nuclear
Reaction.
2He + 26Fe56 → [26Fe56]* + 2He4
4

(a) Elastic Scattering


(b) Inelastic Scattering
(c) Compound Nuclear Reaction
(d) Direct Reaction
8) On bombardment of a proton on a target nucleus it
may give
(a) Neutron
(b) Alpha Particle
(c) Deuterium
(d) All of the above
9) Which of the following is not conserved in a nuclear
reaction?
(a) Charge
(b) Linear Momentum
(c) Electric Quadrupole Moment
(d) Parity
10) For an exothermic reaction, Q-value must be
(a) 0
(b) Positive
(c) Negative
(d) Arbitrary
11) In an endothermic reaction, the energy (Q) needed
to excite the compound nucleus sufficiently so that it
breaks up is known as
(a) Zero Point Energy
(b) Ionization Energy
(c) Threshold Energy
(d) Rest Mass Energy
12) Calculate the energy released in the following
nuclear reaction.
3Li + 0n1 → 2He4 + 1H3 + Q
6

Given Masses (in amu):


3Li = 6.015123
6

2He = 4.002603
4

1H = 3.016029
3
0n = 1.008665
1

(a) 4.8 MeV


(b) 5.8 MeV
(c) 6.8 MeV
(d) 7.8 MeV
13) The probability of a bombarding particle that it
will interact with a target particle in a suitable way is
known as
(a) Q-Value
(b) Nuclear Cross-Section
(c) Nuclear Reaction
(d) None of These
14) The unit used for Nuclear Cross-section is
(a) Curie
(b) Maxwell
(c) MeV
(d) Barn
15) When a particle approaches a target nucleus, the
distance from the nucleus at which the particle would
pass in the absence of the repulsive force is called
(a) Distance of closest approach
(b) Impact Parameter
(c) Coulomb Distance
(d) Q-value
Mod-5:
1) For a given charged particle, the overall form of the
energy loss (due to the term - ) in to Bohr-Bethe
expression is known as
(a) Impact Parameter
(b) Mean Energy
(c) Ionization Potential
(d) Stopping Power
2) On which of the following factors of a charged
particle the Stopping Power depends?
a)Mass
b) Charge
c) Velocity
d) None of the above
3) If a particles moves in a medium with a velocity
larger than the velocity of light in that medium, it
emits visible radiations known as
a)Gamma-Ray Interaction
b) Cerenkov Radiation
c) Synchrotron Radiation
d) All of These
4) The reciprocal of the thickness which reduce the
intensity of incident gamma-ray to 1/e of its original
value, is known as
a)Phase Coefficient
b) Attenuation coefficient
c) Ionization Coefficient
d) None of These
5) Work function of Cs is 1.9eV. If light of wavelength
2500A° falls on it. What is the maximum velocity of the
ejected photoelectrons?
a)1.04x106 m/s
b) 2x105 m/s
c) 0.05x 10-6 m/s
d) 1.04x10-5 m/s
6) UV light of intensity 2 w/m2 and wavelength 250
nm is directed at a surface coated with sodium. Give
work function of Na is 2.3 eV. What is the maximum
K.E. of the photoelectrons emitted by the surface?
a)2.66 eV
b) 1.64 eV
c) 3.06 MeV
d) 0.5 MeV
7) The threshold wavelength for photoelectric
emission in platinum is 190nm. What wavelength of
light must be used in order for electron with a
maximum KE of 1.1 eV be ejected.
a)1.626x10-7 m
b) 2.45 nm
c) 1.85x 10-4 m
d) 3x106 m
8) The work function of platinum is 64ev.when its is
exposed to light of wavelength 160 nm. The maximum
KE of ejected photoelectrons is 1.36ev.Find Planck’s
constant for this data.

Ans: 6.62x10-34 Js
9) Work function of Cs is 1.9eV. If UV light of frequency
1016 Hz falls on it, find the maximum KE of the
photoelectrons and the stopping potential.

Ans: 39.51eV, 39.51Volts

10) γ−ray of wavelength 1.87 pm (=661 KeV)


undergoes Compton scattering through 135° from a
free electron, calculate the wavelength of the
scattered γ-ray. Given h= 6.62x10-34 Js, c= 3x108 m/s
and me=9.11x10-31 kg.

Ans: 6.00pm
11) How the energy of photon related to its
wavelength?
a)E α λ
b) E α λ2
c) E α 1/λ
d) E α 1/λ2

MOD-6
1) Why Gas Detectors are used?
a)To detect Harmful Gas
b) To detect Paranormal Anomaly
c) To detect the presence of α- particles, β-
particles or photons
d) To detect Exotic Matter

2) What do you mean by Townsend Avalanche?


a)Due to higher K.E of electrons causes ionization of
gas molecules.
b) Due to higher K.E of electrons causes β
particle emission.
c) Due to higher K.E of electrons breaks stability of
atom.
d) Due to higher K.E of electrons induces current.
3) Ionization Chamber is generally
a)A plasma chamber
b) A gas filled radiation detector
c) A liquid filled radiation detector
d) An accelerator
4) Which one of the following have higher specific
ionization?
a)α-particle
b) β- particle
c) mesons
d) ϒ- rays
5) Which particle can be easily detected by ionization
chamber?
a)β-particle
b) Mesons
c) α-particle
d) Quarks
6) G.M Counter’s Full abbreviation is known as
a)Green which Mean Counter
b) Geiger- Mandela Counter
c) Geiger- Miller Counter
d) Geiger – Muller Counter
7) Which of the radiation detector is best for detecting
β- rays and have higher sensitivity?
a)G.M counter
b) Ionization chamber
c) Linear Accelerator
d) None of the Above
8) Which Scintillation Detector works best in moisture
medium?
a)Thallium Activated Sodium Iodide
b) Cesium Iodide
c) Zinc Sulphide
d) Plastic Scintillators

9) Why positive ion have slower drift velocity?


a)Due to frequent collision with atoms of the gas
b) Due to charge imbalance
c) Due to low impedance
d) Due to loss of momentum
10) The time when G .M counter remain insensitive is
known as
a)Dead time
b) End Time
c) Skull Time
d) Quick Time
11) Efficiency of counting is (N0 = counts observed per
unit time)
a)ɳ = N/N0
b) ɳ = N0/N
c) ɳ = 1 – N0(T/Tx)
d) ɳ =(1- N0T)/2
12) To reduce the Gamma background radiation or
have low sensitivity to gamma background radiation
which detector is used?
a)G.M counter
b) Semi conductor detector
c) Scintillator detector
d) Gamma – detector
13) Which Scientist was first to use Crystal Detector to
detect radio waves?
a)G. Marconi
b) J.C Bose
c) Nikola Tesla
d) S.N Bose
14) Which Detector is best to detect Thermal Neutrons?
a)3He – Gas Neutron Detector
b) Uranium-235 Neutron Detector
c) Au- Crystal Detector
d) None of these
15) The most commonly used photon detectors are
a)Photo cells
b) Photo capacitors
c) Photo tubes
d) Photo resistors

16) A Geiger-Muller tube is a _____ .


(a) gas ionization detector
(b) cloud chamber
(c) fluorescence detector
(d) spectrophotometer
(e) photographic detector
17) A Geiger counter registered 1000 counts/second
from a sample that contained a radioactive isotope of
polonium. After 5.0 minutes, the counter registered
281counts/second. What is the half-life of this isotope
in seconds?
(a) 87
(b) 110
(c) 164
(d) 2.18
Mod-7
1) Which one of these was the first accelerator?
a)Van de Graff Generator
b) Electrostatic Accelerator
c) Cyclotron
d) Linear Accelerator
2) Who developed synchrocyclotron?
a)R.J Van de Graff.
b) J D Croft
c) Sloan K Lawrence
d) Miller & Veksler
3) Van de Graff generator mainly used to produce
a)Current
b) Magnetic field
c) High Voltage
d) Energy
4) Belt in Van de Graff generator made up
of______________________?
a)Conducting Material
b) Insulating Material
c) Super Conducting Material
d) None of These

5) How can the voltage of a Van de Graff generator be


increased?
Ans: Continuous cycling of belt between roller and
brush.

6) The effectiveness of nuclear accelerator is


characterized by its
a)Kinetic Energy
b) Potential Energy
c) Rest Mass Energy
d) All of These

7) Which accelerator is used to accelerate electrons?


a)Cyclotron
b) Van de Graff Generator
c) Betatron
d) All of These
8) Calculate the magnetic flux density which is used to
accelerate protons in a cyclotron of radius of the Dees
60 cm and frequency is 1 MHz.

Ans: 0.0655 Tesla

9) Cyclotrons are the best source of


a)High Energy Beam
b) Low Energy Beam
c) Pulse Beam
d) None of These

10) The difference between Cyclotron and


Synchrotron is
a)Magnetic field is variable
b) Magnetic field is constant
c) Magnetic field is constant and variable
respectively.
d) No difference
11) Synchrotron is a powerful source of which of the
following ray?
a)γ-ray
b) β-ray
c) α-ray
d) X-ray
12) Which of the following are Leptons?
a)Neutrons
b) Protons
c) Photons
d) Electrons
13) Which interaction is responsible for Beta decay?
a)Strong Nuclear force
b) Weak Nuclear force
c) Electrostatics force
d) Gravitational force
14) If charge of Up Quark (U) is +2/3 and Down Quark
(D) is -1/3, then how many Up and Down Quark
constituent a neutron?
a)UDD
b) UDU
c) DDD
d) UUU

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