Software Engineering MCQs
In this article, we are going to discuss the most commonly asked multiple-choice
questions related to Software Engineering.
The primary purpose of writing this article is to target competitive exams and
interviews. Here, we will cover all the frequently asked Software Engineering
questions with the correct choice of answer among various options.
1) What is the first step in the software development lifecycle?
a. System Design
b. Coding
c. System Testing
d. Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
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2) What does the study of an existing system refer to?
a. Details of DFD
b. Feasibility Study
c. System Analysis
d. System Planning
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3) Which of the following is involved in the system planning and designing phase of the
Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
a. Sizing
b. Parallel run
c. Specification freeze
d. All of the above
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4) What does RAD stand for?
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a. Rapid Application Document
b. Rapid Application Development
c. Relative Application Development
d. None of the above
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5) Which of the following prototypes does not associated with Prototyping Model?
a. Domain Prototype
b. Vertical Prototype
c. Horizontal Prototype
d. Diagonal Prototype
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6) The major drawback of RAD model is __________.
a. It requires highly skilled developers/designers.
b. It necessitates customer feedbacks.
c. It increases the component reusability.
d. Both (a) & (c)
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7) Which of the following does not relate to Evolutionary Process Model?
a. Incremental Model
b. Concurrent Development Model
c. WINWIN Spiral Model
d. All of the above
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8) What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?
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a. Higher amount of risk analysis
b. Doesn't work well for smaller projects
c. Additional functionalities are added later on
d. Strong approval and documentation control
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9) Model selection is based on __________.
a. Requirements
b. Development team & users
c. Project type & associated risk
d. All of the above
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10) Which of the following option is correct?
a. The prototyping model facilitates the reusability of components.
b. RAD Model facilitates reusability of components
c. Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
d. None
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11) Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the
earliest in the lifecycle?
a. RAD & Waterfall
b. Prototyping & Waterfall
c. Spiral & Prototyping
d. Spiral & RAD
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12) When the user participation isn't involved, which of the following models will not
result in the desired output?
a. Prototyping & Waterfall
b. Prototyping & RAD
c. Prototyping & Spiral
d. RAD & Spiral
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13) Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to
deploy an advanced version of the existing software in the market?
a. Spiral
b. Iterative Enhancement
c. RAD
d. Both (b) and (c)
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14) Arrange the following activities for making a software product by utilizing 4GT.
I. Design strategy
II. Transformation into product
III. Implementation
IV. Requirement gathering
a. 4, 1, 3, 2
b. 4, 3, 2, 1
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 4, 2, 3
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15) Which of the following is an example of Black Box and Functional Processing?
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a. First Generation Language
b. Second Generation Language
c. Third Generation Language
d. Fourth Generation Language
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16) __________ is identified as fourth generation language.
a. Unix shell
b. C++
c. COBOL
d. FORTRAN
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17) The productivity of a software engineer can be reduced by using a 4GT.
a. True
b. False
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18) Which of the following is the main advantage of deploying a 4GT model for
producing small-scale products, programs, and applications?
a. The productivity of software engineers is improved.
b. The time required for developing software is reduced.
c. CASE tools and code generators help the 4GT model by providing a credible
solution to their problems.
d. None of the above.
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19) Which of the following model has a major downfall to a software development life
cycle in terms of the coding phase?
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a. 4GT Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. RAD Model
d. Spiral Model
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20) Which of the following falls under the category of software products?
a. Firmware, CAD
b. Embedded, CAM
c. Customized, Generic
d. CAD, Embedded
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21) Software maintenance costs are expensive in contrast to software development.
a. True
b. False
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22) Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a
feedback report?
a. Deployment
b. Planning
c. Modeling
d. Construction
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23) Which of the following refers to internal software equality?
a. Scalability
b. Reusability
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c. Reliability
d. Usability
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24) RUP is abbreviated as __________, invented by a division of __________.
a. Rational Unified Process, IBM
b. Rational Unified Program, IBM
c. Rational Unified Process, Infosys
d. Rational Unified Program, Infosys
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25) The RUP can be defined based on three main perspectives, i.e., static, dynamic &
practice. What is the purpose of static perspective?
a. It recommends some good practices that be included while carrying out the
process.
b. It displays all the enacted process activities.
c. It portrays the phases that the model has entered over a specific time.
d. All of the above.
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26) Which one of the following activities is not recommended for software processes in
software engineering?
a. Software Evolution
b. Software Verification
c. Software Testing & Validation
d. Software designing
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27) Arrange the following activities to form a general software engineering process
model.
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I. Manufacture
II. Maintain
III. Test
IV. Install
V. Design
VI. Specification
a. 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
b. 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5
c. 6, 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
d. 1, 6, 5, 2, 3, 4
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28) The agile software development model is built based on __________.
a. Linear Development
b. Incremental Development
c. Iterative Development
d. Both Incremental and Iterative Development
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29) On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of the software
development process?
a. Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.
b. Based on the output, which is derived after negotiating in the software
development process.
c. Based on the interleaved specification, design, testing, and implementation
activities.
d. All of the above
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30) Which of the following activities is not applicable to agile software development?
a. Producing only the essential work products.
b. Utilizing the strategy of incremental product delivery.
c. Abolishing the project planning and testing.
d. All of the above
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31) Which of the following framework activities are carried out in Adaptive Software
Development (ASD)?
a. Assumption, Association, Learning
b. The investigation, Strategy, Coding
c. Requirements gathering, Adaptive cycle planning, Iterative development
d. All of the above
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32) The __________ model helps in representing the system's dynamic behavior.
a. Object Model
b. Context Model
c. Behavioral Model
d. Data Model
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33) Model-driven engineering is nothing but a theoretical concept. It can never be
transmuted into a working/executable code.
a. True
b. False
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34) The __________ and __________ are the two major dimensions encompassed in the
Spiral model.
a. Diagonal, Perpendicular
b. Perpendicular, Radial
c. Angular, diagonal
d. Radial, Angular
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35) Which of the following technique is involved in certifying the sustained development
of legacy systems?
a. Reengineering
b. Forward engineering
c. Reverse engineering
d. Reverse engineering and Reengineering
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36) An erroneous system state that results in an unexpected system behavior is
acknowledged as?
a. System failure
b. Human error or mistake
c. System error
d. System fault
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37) What is the name of the approach that follows step-by-step instructions for solving a
problem?
a. An Algorithm
b. A Plan
c. A List
d. Sequential Structure
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38) Which of the following word correctly summarized the importance of software
design?
a. Quality
b. Complexity
c. Efficiency
d. Accuracy
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39) Which of the following methodology results in SA/SD features?
a. Gane and Sarson methodology
b. DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
c. Constantine and Yourdon methodology
d. All of the above
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40) __________ is not considered as an activity of Structured Analysis (SA).
a. Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model
b. Functional decomposition
c. All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
d. d) All of the mentioned
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41) What does a directed arc or line signify?
a. Data Flow
b. Data Process
c. Data Stores
d. None of the above
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42) What does a data store symbol in the Data Flow Diagram signify?
a. Logical File
b. Physical File
c. Data Structure
d. All of the above
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43) __________ is not a direct measure of SE process.
a. Effort
b. Cost
c. Efficiency
d. All of the above
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44) What is the main task of project indicators?
a. To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks.
b. To evaluate the ongoing project's status.
c. To track potential risks.
d. None of the above
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45) What is the main intent of project metrics?
a. For strategic purposes
b. To minimize the development schedule.
c. To evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis
d. To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's
quality on a daily basis
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46) Name the graphical practice that depicts the meaningful changes that occurred in
metrics data.
a. Function point analysis
b. Control Chart
c. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
d. None of the above
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47) Which parameters are essentially used while computing the software development
cost?
a. Hardware and Software Costs
b. Effort Costs
c. Travel and Training Costs
d. All of the above
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48) Which of the following is an incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
a. Change management
b. System management
c. Internship management
d. Version management
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49) The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all-important
software functions, which is known as
a. Planning process
b. Decomposition
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c. Association
d. All of the mentioned
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50) Which of the following Is not considered as an option for achieving reliable cost and
effort estimation?
a. The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and
dollars
b. Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and
effort estimates.
c. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
d. Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
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51) Which of the following does not complement the decomposition techniques but
offers a potential estimation approach for their impersonal growth?
a. Empirical estimation models
b. Decomposition techniques
c. Automated estimation tools
d. Both empirical estimation models and automated estimation tools
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52) Which of the following is not included in the total effort cost?
a. Costs of lunch time food
b. Costs of support staff
c. Costs of networking and communications
d. Costs of air conditioning and lighting in the office space
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53) What is developed by utilizing the historical cost function?
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a. Parkinson's Law
b. Expert judgment
c. Algorithmic cost modeling
d. Estimation by analogy
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54) Which of the following model has a misconception that systems are built by utilizing
reusable components, scripts, and database programs?
a. The reuse model
b. An early designed model
c. An application-composition model
d. A post architecture model
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55) Which of the following is used to predict the effort as a function of LOC or FP?
a. COCOMO
b. FP-based estimation
c. Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation
d. Process-based estimation
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56) Once the requirements are stabilized, the basic architecture of the software can be
established. Which of the following version of the COCOMO model conforms to the
given statement?
a. Application composition model
b. Post-architecture-stage model
c. Early design stage model
d. All of the above
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57) Which of the following threatens the quality and timeliness of the produced
software?
a. Business risks
b. Potential risks
c. Technical risks
d. Known risks
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58) Which of the following refers to the systematic attempt, which is implemented to
ascertain the threats to any project plan?
a. Performance risk
b. Risk identification
c. Risk projection
d. Support risk
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59) Which of the following standards is used by the aviation industry?
a. CTRADO-172B
b. RTCADO-178B
c. RTRADO-178B
d. CTCADO-178B
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60) Third-Party Certification for software standards is based on __________.
a. Ul 1996, Second Edition
b. Ul 1998, Second Edition
c. Ul 1992, Second Edition
d. UT 1998, Second Edition
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