Network Topologies and Models
1. Which network topology offers high redundancy by connecting each device to every
other device?
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Star
d) Mesh
Answer: d) Mesh
2. In a bus topology, what happens if the central cable fails?
a) Only one node is affected.
b) The entire network goes down.
c) The network reconfigures itself.
d) Data is routed through alternative paths.
Answer: b) The entire network goes down.
3. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for the physical transmission of data bits?
a) Data Link Layer
b) Network Layer
c) Physical Layer
d) Session Layer
Answer: c) Physical Layer
4. The TCP/IP model consists of how many layers?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 7
Answer: b) 4
Network Layering Concepts and Protocols
5. Segmentation of data into packets occurs at which layer of the OSI model?
a) Physical Layer
b) Data Link Layer
c) Network Layer
d) Transport Layer
Answer: d) Transport Layer
6. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating
connections between applications?
a) Network Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Session Layer
d) Presentation Layer
Answer: c) Session Layer
7. What is the primary function of a protocol in networking?
a) To provide physical connections
b) To define rules for communication
c) To encrypt data
d) To manage network hardware
Answer: b) To define rules for communication
8. Which of the following is NOT a layer in the TCP/IP model?
a) Application
b) Transport
c) Network
d) Session
Answer: d) Session
Internet Protocol (IP) and Associated Control Protocols (like ICMP)
9. What is the typical size of an IPv4 address?
a) 16 bits
b) 32 bits
c) 64 bits
d) 128 bits
Answer: b) 32 bits
10. What is the purpose of the Time to Live (TTL) field in an IP packet header?
a) To prioritize the packet
b) To indicate the level of security
c) To prevent packets from endlessly circulating
d) To specify the destination port number
Answer: c) To prevent packets from endlessly circulating
11. Which ICMP message type is used to test the reachability of a host?
a) Echo Reply
b) Destination Unreachable
c) Time Exceeded
d) Echo Request
Answer: d) Echo Request
12. What does ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) do?
a) Resolves IP addresses to domain names
b) Resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses
c) Resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses
d) Routes packets across networks
Answer: c) Resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses
End-to-End Protocols, with a focus on TCP and UDP
13. Which of the following is a characteristic of TCP?
a) Connectionless
b) Unreliable
c) Ordered data delivery
d) Low overhead
Answer: c) Ordered data delivery
14. What is a sequence number used for in TCP?
a) To identify the destination port
b) To ensure packets are reassembled in the correct order
c) To indicate the priority of the packet
d) To encrypt the data
Answer: b) To ensure packets are reassembled in the correct order
15. Which of the following applications commonly uses UDP?
a) Email (SMTP)
b) Web browsing (HTTP)
c) Video streaming
d) File transfer (FTP)
Answer: c) Video streaming
16. What is the purpose of port numbers in TCP and UDP?
a) To identify the physical network interface
b) To identify the application or service
c) To provide logical network addressing
d) To ensure data reliability
Answer: b) To identify the application or service
Addressing schemes at various layers (physical, data link, network)
18. How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
a) 32 bits
b) 48 bits
c) 64 bits
d) 128 bits
Answer: d) 128 bits
19. What is the function of a subnet mask?
a) To encrypt network traffic
b) To divide a network into smaller subnetworks
c) To provide physical addressing
d) To route packets to the correct destination
Answer: b) To divide a network into smaller subnetworks
20. Which part of an IP address identifies the network?
a) Host portion
b) Network portion
c) Subnet portion
d) Port number
Answer: b) Network portion
21. What is the broadcast address in a network?
a) The address of the first host in the network
b) The address used to send data to all hosts in the network
c) The address of the default gateway
d) The address used for network management
Answer: b) The address used to send data to all hosts in the network
Channel Access Techniques (likely covering MAC protocols for shared media)
22. In CSMA/CA, what does a station do before transmitting?
a) It sends a jamming signal.
b) It listens for a carrier and sends a request-to-send (RTS) frame.
c) It immediately starts transmitting.
d) It checks for collisions after transmission.
Answer: b) It listens for a carrier and sends a request-to-send (RTS) frame.
23. Token passing is a channel access method used in which type of network?
a) Ethernet
b) Wi-Fi
c) Token Ring
d) Bluetooth
Answer: c) Token Ring
24. What is the main advantage of using CSMA/CD?
a) It eliminates collisions.
b) It efficiently handles high traffic loads.
c) It is simple to implement.
d) It provides guaranteed bandwidth.
Answer: c) It is simple to implement.
25. Which MAC address is used for broadcasting on a local network?
a) All zeros (00:00:00:00:00:00)
b) All ones (FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF)
c) The network’s MAC address
d) The router’s MAC address
Answer: b) All ones (FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF)
Wired and Wireless LANs
26. What is the standard data rate for Ethernet (IEEE 802.3)?
a) It varies depending on the specific standard (e.g., 10 Mbps, 100 Mbps, 1 Gbps, etc.)
b) 11 Mbps
c) 54 Mbps
d) 600 Mbps
Answer: a) It varies depending on the specific standard (e.g., 10 Mbps, 100 Mbps, 1 Gbps,
etc.)
27. What is an SSID in a wireless LAN?
a) The physical address of the access point
b) The network name that identifies the wireless network
c) The encryption key used for security
d) The channel used for communication
Answer: b) The network name that identifies the wireless network
28. Which wireless security protocol is considered the weakest and is no longer
recommended?
a) WPA3
b) WPA2
c) WPA
d) WEP
Answer: d) WEP
29. What is the function of an access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?
a) To route packets between networks
b) To provide a connection point for wireless devices to the wired network
c) To manage network security protocols
d) To amplify wireless signals
Answer: b) To provide a connection point for wireless devices to the wired network
Network Layer protocols in detail, including routing algorithms
30. What is the role of a router in a network?
a) To connect devices within the same network
b) To forward data packets between different networks
c) To provide wireless connectivity
d) To manage network security
Answer: b) To forward data packets between different networks
31. Which type of routing algorithm calculates the entire path to the destination?
a) Distance vector routing
b) Link-state routing
c) Path-vector routing
d) Broadcast routing
Answer: b) Link-state routing
32. RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is an example of a:
a) Link-state routing protocol
b) Distance vector routing protocol
c) Path-vector routing protocol
d) Hybrid routing protocol
Answer: b) Distance vector routing protocol
33.What metric does RIP use to determine the best path?
a) Bandwidth
b) Delay
c) Hop count
d) Cost
Answer: c) Hop count
Transport Layer protocols (TCP and UDP) in more depth
34. What is a three-way handshake used for in TCP?
a) To terminate a connection
b) To establish a reliable connection
c) To acknowledge received data
d) To request data retransmission
Answer: b) To establish a reliable connection
35. What is the purpose of the sliding window mechanism in TCP?
a) To encrypt data during transmission
b) To control the flow of data and prevent overwhelming the receiver
c) To ensure packets are delivered out of order
d) To prioritize different types of traffic
Answer: b) To control the flow of data and prevent overwhelming the receiver
36.Which of the following is NOT a field in a UDP header?
a) Source Port
b) Destination Port
c) Sequence Number
d) Length
Answer: c) Sequence Number
37. What happens if a UDP packet is lost during transmission?
a) The receiver requests retransmission.
b) The sender automatically retransmits the packet.
c) The loss is not detected or recovered by UDP itself.
d) The connection is terminated.
Answer: c) The loss is not detected or recovered by UDP itself.
Application Layer protocols such as HTTP, FTP, SMTP, DNS
39. Which HTTP method is used to retrieve data from a server?
a) POST
b) PUT
c) GET
d) DELETE
Answer: c) GET
40. Which FTP mode establishes a separate connection for data transfer?
a) Passive mode
b) Active mode
c) Secure mode
d) Anonymous mode
Answer: b) Active mode
41. Which protocol is used for sending email messages?
a) POP3
b) IMAP
c) SMTP
d) HTTP
Answer: c) SMTP
42. What type of DNS record maps a domain name to an IP address?
a) MX record
b) CNAME record
c) A record
d) PTR record
Answer: c) A record
Multimedia networking aspects
43. What is jitter in the context of multimedia networking?
a) The loss of data packets
b) The variation in packet arrival time
c) The maximum data rate of the network
d) The encryption strength of the connection
Answer: b) The variation in packet arrival time
44. Which protocol is often used in conjunction with RTP to provide control and session
management for multimedia streams?
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) RTCP
d) HTTP
Answer: c) RTCP
45. What is quality of service (QoS) in networking?
a) A measure of network security
b) The ability to prioritize certain types of network traffic
c) The physical infrastructure of the network
d) The number of users connected to the network
Answer: b) The ability to prioritize certain types of network traffic
46. Buffering is often used in multimedia streaming to:
a) Increase network bandwidth
b) Reduce jitter and provide smoother playback
c) Encrypt the multimedia data
d) Compress the multimedia data
Answer: b) Reduce jitter and provide smoother playback
Overview of network security concepts, including firewalls
47. What is a common type of firewall?
a) Software firewall
b) Hardware firewall
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b
48. What is the principle of “least privilege” in network security?
a) Granting all users full access to network resources.
b) Granting users only the minimum necessary rights and permissions.
c) Regularly changing all user passwords.
d) Implementing strong encryption on all network traffic.
Answer: b) Granting users only the minimum necessary rights and permissions.
49. What is a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) in network security?
a) A highly secure internal network segment.
b) A buffer zone between the internal network and the external network.
c) The part of the network directly connected to the internet.
d) A network segment used for administrative purposes only.
Answer: b) A buffer zone between the internal network and the external network.
50. What is the purpose of network segmentation?
a) To increase network speed.
b) To improve network organization and security by isolating parts of the network.
c) To reduce the number of IP addresses needed.
d) To simplify network management.
Answer: b) To improve network organization and security by isolating parts of the network.
Introduction to Symmetric and Asymmetric Cryptography and Digital Signatures
51. Which of the following is a disadvantage of symmetric cryptography?
a) It is computationally expensive.
b) Key distribution can be challenging.
c) It is less secure than asymmetric cryptography.
d) It cannot be used for encryption.
Answer: b) Key distribution can be challenging.
52. In asymmetric cryptography, which key is kept secret by the owner?
a) Public key
b) Private key
c) Session key
d) Both public and private keys
Answer: b) Private key
53. What cryptographic hash function property ensures that it’s computationally
infeasible to find two different inputs that produce the same output?
a) Preimage resistance
b) Second preimage resistance
c) Collision resistance
d) Determinism
Answer: c) Collision resistance
54. A digital signature provides which of the following security services?
a) Confidentiality and integrity
b) Integrity and authentication
c) Authentication and confidentiality
d) Non-repudiation and encryption
Answer: b) Integrity and authentication