Section – 1

Direction for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions independently.

1. A tennis marker is trying to put together a team of four players for a tennis tournament. He has
seven players for a tennis tournament. The seven players are: males – A, B and C; females – M, N,
O and P. All players are of equal ability and there must be at least two males in the team. The team
has to be selected under the following restrictions.
B will not play with M.
C will not play with P.
M will not play with O.
Which of the following statements must be false?
I. B and P cannot be selected together.
II. C and O cannot be selected together.
III. C and N cannot be selected together.
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. All of these

2. A furniture shop has six identical steel cabinets of brand A and four identical steel cabinets of brand
B. Three customers buy one cabinet each. Then the probability that two or more cabinets of brand
A have been sold is
1
a. b. 2 c. 1 d. 3
3 3 2 4

3. The rectangle of maximum perimeter that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 2 is

a. a square with side 2 2 b. a square with side 3
c. a rectangle with sides 3 and 2 d. None of these

4. The difference between the largest four-digit hexadecimal number and the smallest four-digit
hexadecimal number is
a. FFFE b. FFFF c. EFFF d. None of these

5. The maximum number of days possible in five consecutive calendar years is

a. 1,827 b. 1,828 c. 1,825 d. 1,826

Direction for questions 6 to 8: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A pack of 52 cards is cut into three separate piles. In the first pile, there are three times as many blacks
as reds. In the second pile, there are three times as many reds as blacks. In the third pile, there are twice
as many blacks as reds. (There are equal number of black and red cards in the pack and no card is of any
other colour.)

6. How many red cards are there in the first pile?

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. Data insufficient

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 1

7. What is the total number of red cards in the second and the third piles together?
a. 22 b. 28 c. 26 d. Data insufficient

8. How many black cards are there in the third pile?

a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. Data insufficient

Direction for question 9: Answer the question independently.

9. What is the next number in the series 1000, 996, 980, 916, 660, ___?
a. –346 b. –738 c. –364 d. –675

Direction for questions 10 and 11: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A circus company has sent a caravan consisting of four cars A, B, C and D (not necessarily in this order)
— each of a different colour — to their local representative in Delhi. There are four animals — a lion, a tiger,
an elephant and a bear — one in each of the cars. Since all the cars were of the same size and enclosed,
the local representative was not able to know anything regarding the identity of the animals in each car. The
markings A, B, C and D on the cars have got erased. He was told of the following.
I. The lion has only one neighbour that is the bear, but the bear is not in a blue car.
II. Car D is grey and there are two other cars between this and the red car.
III. Green car is between the blue and the red cars.
IV. The elephant is next to the blue car and neither of the two is A or C.

10. Which of the following is the bear’s car?

a. A b. B c. C d. Data insufficient

11. Which of the following is the lion’s car?

a. C b. B c. A d. Data insufficient

Direction for questions 12 to 15: Answer the questions independently.

12. Any side of an n-sided regular polygon makes an angle θ at the centre of the polygon. If θ is an
integral multiple of degree, then how many values of θ are possible? (n ≠ ∞)
a. 24 b. 21 c. 22 d. 23

13. In how many ways can two Xs be marked in the boxes such that both of them are in the same row?

a. 30 b. 32 c. 34 d. None of these

14. If we put the first 59 natural numbers side by side, we get a number 1234567891011 . . . 5859. What
is the remainder when this number is divided by 9?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. None of these

Page 2 Mock CAT Test – 4

15. The equation x2 + y2 + 8x – 4y + 20 = 0 represents
a. a circle b. a parabola c. a hyperbola d. a point

Direction for questions 16 and 17: Answer the questions based on the following information.

An empty tank is being filled through two pipelines simultaneously with pure water and a constant
concentration of an acid solution. When filled, the tank has a 5% acid solution. If, when the tank was half
full, the water supply was cut off, the full tank would have a 10% acid solution.

16. What is the concentration of acid solution coming through the pipeline?
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 17.5%

17. How long will the water pipeline take to fill the tank completely on its own?
a. 2 hr b. 3 hr c. 4 hr d. Data insufficient

Direction for questions 18 and 19: Answer the questions based on the following information.

To a vessel containing pure water are added 6 L of a solution containing 64% (by volume) alcohol. The
solution is thoroughly mixed and an equal quantity (6 L) of the solution is drawn off. After performing this
operation three times, the vessel contained a solution with 37% (by volume) concentration of alcohol.

18. How much water was there originally in the vessel?

a. 18 L b. 12 L c. 20 L d. 15 L

19. How much of acid was drawn off during the entire operation?
a. 4.86 L b. 6.66 L c. 4.68 L d. 6.84 L

Direction for questions 20 and 21: Answer the questions independently.

20. Four persons A1, A2, A3 and A4 are seated symmetrically around a revolving circular table in clockwise
order. They were served apple juice, orange juice, grape juice and apple juice respectively. Before
they started drinking, A1 had little fun by giving one-quarter rotation to the table in clockwise direction.
A2 followed it by giving a half rotation in the same direction and A3 then gave a three-quarter rotation
in clockwise direction. What will then be the drinks that appear in front of A1, A2, A3 and A4 respectively?
a. Orange, apple, apple and grape b. Grape, apple, apple and orange
c. Apple, apple, orange and grape d. Apple, orange, grape and apple

1
21. a1 and a2 are prime numbers below 15. N = is a non-terminating decimal. How many distinct
a1a 2
Ns are possible?
a. 6 b. 14 c. 16 d. 15

Direction for questions 22 and 23: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The tank at a water supply station is filled with water by several pumps. At first, three pumps of the same
capacity are turned on; 2.5 hr later, two more pumps of a different capacity (both having the same capacity)
are set into operation. After 1 hr, the additional pumps were set into operation; the tank was almost filled to

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 3

its capacity (15 m3 were still lacking); in another hour the tank was full. One of the two additional pumps
could have filled the tank in 40 hr.

22. What is the volume of the tank?

a. 60 m3 b. 80 m3 c. 75 m3 d. 90 m3

23. How much water does one of the first three pumps emit in an hour?
a. 5 m3 b. 4 m3 c. 3 m3 d. 2 m3

Direction for questions 24 to 36: Answer the questions independently.

24. If x is real and |x3 – 1| > 1 – x, then which of the following can be said about x?
I. x < –1
II. 0 < x < 1
III. x > 1
a. III only b. II and III c. I and II d. All of the above

25. What is the coefficient of x2 in (3x + 4)3 × (x + 4)5?

a. 612800 b. 335872 c. 619600 d. None of these

26. Two sides of a triangle are 15 cm and 75 cm. If the length of the third side is an integral multiple of
‘a’ cm, what is the probability that its numerical value is a prime number?
5 5 8 7
a. b. c. d.
63 84 29 29

27. a1, a2, a3, ..., an are all real numbers. |a1| + |a2| + |a3| + |a4| + ... + |an-1| + |an| = 0.
What is the value of a1 + 2a2 + 3a3 + ... + nan?
a. n b. n – 2 c. n + 1 d. None of these

28. There is a circular race course and two horses are running with same speed on it. The distance
1
between the horses is of the circumference of the race course. If both the horses decide to cross
4
the course along the diameter, then what distance will each of them travel before meeting?
(Circumference of the course is α units.)
α α α
a. b. c. d. Cannot be determined
2π π 2

29. f(a) = a + 53, and f(a) and a are both natural numbers less than 100. Then how many values are
possible for a?
a. 45 b. 46 c. 47 d. 48

30. A four-digit number is to be formed with digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (without repetition). What is the
probability that this number will leave a remainder 1, being divided by 9?
9 6 1 3
a. b. c. d.
25 25 5 25

Page 4 Mock CAT Test – 4

31. All five faces of a regular pyramid with a square base are found to be of the same area. The height
of the pyramid is 3 cm. The total area of all its surfaces is
a. 10 cm2 b. 12 cm2 c. 15 cm2 d. 20 cm2

32. The area of an isosceles triangle with length of the base (the unequal side) and height, both integral
multiple of ‘a’ cm, is 3.5 cm2. Find the perimeter of the triangle.
a. 197 + 1 cm b. 53 + 7 cm c. Either (a) or (b) d. Neither (a) nor (b)

p q r
33. p, q and r are three distinct natural numbers such that + + = 0 . Then which of the
q−r r −p p − q
following statements is/are true?
p q r
I. + + =0
(q − r )
2
(r − p)2
(p − q)2
p 2 + q2 + r 2
II. = p + q +1
(q − r )(r − p)(p − q)

III. p2 + q2 + r2 + 2p2 q +2q2 r + 2r2p = 0

a. I only b. I and II c. All of these d. None of these

34. In an examination, there are n subjects. When the result was declared, it was observed that 2n-p
students have failed in at least p subjects, where p is a natural number less than or equal to n. If the
total number of failures is 63, what is the number of subjects in the examination?
a. 4 b. 6 c. 10 d. 15

35. What is the number of distinct solutions of the system of equations given below?
x 2 + 2 y 2 + 4 z 2 + 3(xy + yz + zx ) = 16
y 2 + 2z 2 + 4 x 2 + 3(xy + yz + zx ) = 16
z 2 + 2 x 2 + 4 y 2 + 3(xy + yz + zx ) = 16
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8

36. The number of real roots of the equation x 6 + 4 x 2 − 30 = 0 is

a. 0 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6

Direction for questions 37 and 38: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A sequence of terms is defined such that 2an = an+1 + an–1; a0 = 1, a1 = 3.

37. What is the value of a100?

a. 99 b. 101 c. 199 d. 201

38. What is the sum of the sequence a0 + a1 + a2 + a3 + ... + a50 ?

a. 2551 b. 2753 c. 2601 d. 2451

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 5

Direction for questions 39 and 40: Answer the questions based on the following information.
f(x, y) = x2 + y2 + 2xy
g(x, y) = x2 + y2 – 2xy
h(x, y) = x + y

39. Which of the following statements is true?

a. f(x, y) + g(x, y) ≥ 2h(x, y) for all x ∈ R, y ∈ R
b. f(x, y) + g(x, y) ≤ 2h(x, y) for all x ≤ 1, y ≤ 1
c. f(x, y) + g(x, y) ≤ 2h(x, y) for all 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, 0 ≤ y ≤ 1
d. f(x, y) + g(x, y) ≤ 2h(x, y) for all 0 ≤ |x| ≤ 1, 0 ≤ |y| ≤ 1

40. Which of the following is not true?

a. g(x, y) = f(–x, y) for all x ∈ [3, –2]
b. f(x, y) = g(–x, y) for all x ∈ [3, –2]
c. f(x, y) ≤ g(x, y) for all x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
d. None of these

Direction for questions 41 and 42: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A takes 10 days, B takes 20 days and C takes 25 days to complete a job.

41. Find the time taken to complete the job if A, B and C working simultaneously at 70%, 80% and 75%
of their normal rates respectively?
1 3
a. 5 5 days b. 7 days c. 7 days d. 7 5 days
19 7 7 19

42. What is the minimum time taken to finish the job if not more than two of them work simultaneously
on any single day? [No two consecutive days have the same pair of people working.]
13 13 13
a. 3 days b. 3 days c. 6 days d. None of these
29 15 15

Direction for questions 43 to 47: Answer the questions independently.

43. Solve for y if 2|x| + 3|y| = 10; |x| – [x] = 8,

where |x| denotes the absolute value of x, and [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal
to x.
2 2
a. y = b. y = − c. Either (a) or (b) d. None of these
3 3

x
44. If |x|2 + 4 |xy| + 4 |y|2 = 4, how many real values of y are possible? (x, y are integers)

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Page 6 Mock CAT Test – 4

45. A, B and C are three poles forming an equilateral triangle. It is surrounded by a lawn. The boundaries
of the lawn are more than ‘5a’ m away from any point of the triangle. A goat is tied to a pole at A with
a rope ‘3a’ m long. What is the maximum area of the lawn that the goat can graze? (There is no
grass in the triangle enclosed by the poles.)
A
‘a ’
m
‘a ’

B ‘a’ m C

 3 2
a.  9π −  a sq. m b. 9π a2 sq. m c. 15.5 π a2 sq. m d. None of these
 4 

46. Forty identical items have to be distributed among four children such that each one gets a non-
zero multiple of 4 as the number of items. In how many ways can these 40 items be distributed?
a. 43C3 b. 13C3 c. 9C3 d. 10P4

47. In ∆ ABC, BP : PA = 1 : 2; BQ : QR : RT : TC = 1 : 1 : 2 : 1; CS : AS = 2 : 1.
Find the ratio of the areas of ∆ APR and ∆ ASR respectively.
a. 2 : 3 b. 1 : 3 c. 4 : 3 d. 3 : 4

Direction for questions 48 to 50: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Two groups G1 and G2 start from Madhubani towards Patna via Muzaffarpur which lies exactly mid-way
between the two cities. G1 starts at 20 km/hr on a bus, reaches Muzaffarpur and then proceeds towards
Patna in a boat. G2 starts in a boat that is faster than the boat used by G1 by 1 km/hr. G2 travels in the boat
for 1 hr, reaches at a point beyond Muzaffarpur, then takes a bus of speed 30 km/hr and reaches Patna 7
min earlier than G1. G1 reaches Muzaffarpur 35 min before G2.
t1 B1 t2
G1 20 km p h B oat
bus
M ad M uz P at
B1 + 1 30 km p h
G2
boa t bus
t 1 + 35 t2 – 7

48. What is the distance between Madhubani and Patna?

a. 10 km b. 13.5 km c. 15 km d. 18 km

49. What is the speed of the boat in which G2 travelled?

a. 2 km/hr b. 4 km/hr c. 6 km/hr d. 8 km/hr

50. What is the time taken by G2 to reach Patna?

1
a. 1 hr and 8 min b. 1 hr and 15 min c. 1 hr and 13 min d. Cannot be determined
2

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 7

 Section – 1I

Direction for questions 51 to 55: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined.
Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best
alternative among the four.

51. Undergoing an extraordinary rebirth in the past two decades, today Eastern Europe’s fine horses
are much sought after by collectors and breeders all over the world.
a. Undergoing an extraordinary rebirth in the past two decades, today Eastern Europe’s fine horses
are much sought after by
b. Undergoing an extraordinary rebirth over the past two decades, today Eastern Europe’s fine
horses are much sought after by
c. Having undergone an extraordinary rebirth in the past two decades, today Eastern Europe’s fine
horses are much sought after for
d. Having undergone an extraordinary rebirth in the past two decades, today Eastern Europe’s fine
horses are much sought after by

52. Show business, as anybody will tell you is all about relationships, but when relationships and
business are intertwined, the relationships become subservient for the business.
a. but when relationships and business are intertwined, the relationships become subservient for
b. but when relationships and business is intertwined, the relationships become subservient to
c. but when relationships and business are intertwined, the relationships become subservient to
d. but when relationships and businesses are intertwined, the relationships become subservient for

53. Most philosophers believe that each one of us is responsible to choose one course of action over
another, and the choice we make will always have a great effect on our life.
a. each one of us is responsible to choose one course of action over another
b. each one of us is responsible for choosing one course of action over another
c. each one of us is responsible for choosing one course of action over the other one
d. each one of us responsibly chooses one course of action over another

54. The result of these delays, even though it was due to factors beyond our control, were several
people calling up to complain and asking for a refund of their money.
a. it was due to factors beyond our control, were several people calling up to complain and asking
for a refund of
b. it was due to factors beyond our control, were several people calling up to complain and asking
for refunding of
c. they were due to factors beyond our control, was several people calling up to complain and
asking for refunding
d. they were due to factors beyond our control, was several people calling up to complain and to ask
for a refund of

Page 8 Mock CAT Test – 4

55. After the heavy downpour it was obvious that there would be markedly less people and vehicles on
the roads than usual.
a. there would be markedly less people and vehicles on the roads than
b. there would be markedly less people on vehicles on the roads than
c. there would be markedly few people and vehicles on the roads than
d. there would be markedly fewer people and vehicles on the roads than

Direction for questions 56 to 60: In each of the following sentences, part/parts of the sentence is/are left
blank. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the
best alternative from among the four.

56. During the 1960s, assessments of the family shifted remarkably, from general endorsement of it as
a worthwhile, stable institution to widespread ___ it as an oppressive and bankrupt one whose ___
was both imminent and welcome.
a. flight from ... restitution b. fascination with ... corruption
c. rejection of ... vogue d. censure of ... dissolution

57. But even Mr Mehta, one of the most ___ public servants of our time, is at a loss to convey in words
the size, the imaginative ___ that built this contribution to the welfare of family and industry.
a. public spirited ... skill b. dedicated ... cogitated
c. unappreciated ... technique d. articulate ... ingenuity

58. For those Puritans who believed that ____ obligations were imposed by divine will, the correct
course of action was not withdrawal from the world but conscientious ____ of the duties of business.
a. practical ... mystification b. inherent ... manipulation
c. secular ... discharge d. earthly ... disavowal

59. A ___ of recent cases of scientific fraud in which gross errors of fact and logic have slipped past
the review panels that scrutinize submissions to journals, suggests that the review system is
seriously ___.
a. plethora ... intended b. lack ... strained
c. dearth ... compromised d. spate ... taxed

60. Surprisingly to those who view the ocean floor as a uniformly ___ waste, each vent in the floor,
where sea water is heated by the earth’s interior magma, has been found to be an island-like ___
with its own distinctive fauna.
a. teeming ... habitat b. lifeless ... enclave
c. barren ... oasis d. sunken ... grotto

Direction for questions 61 to 68: Choose the most logical order of the sentences A, B, C and D that
makes it a coherent paragraph.

61. A. She was French, dressed exquisitely, spoke five languages, and, to my mind, was astonishingly
sophisticated.
B. As a 21-year-old journalist in Mexico, I met a most fascinating woman.

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 9

 C. Christian Amanpour became my guide, my teacher, and my inspiraton for everything to do with
journalism.
D. She was a journalist and had logged in over 20 years covering guerrilla warfare, the Tiananmen
Square massacre, and various military conflicts around the world.
a. DBCA b. CDAB c. BADC d. ABDC

62. A. So, Ramakrishna Movement is not the history of a particular person or persons.
B. Despite completing a 100 years, the movement has still a youthful image, a contemporaneous
trend.
C. Further ahead is a long road to traverse, ‘at least 15 more centuries’ as prophesied by Swami
Vivekananda, before it can rest on its laurels.
D. The pageant of Ramakrishna Movement reflects not only the modes and manners of contemporary
times but also a saga of a bygone era.
a. DBCA b. CBDA c. BCAD d. DACB

63. A. The liver is your body’s very own powerhouse.

B. It provides your entire body with energy to function normally.
C. The single biggest cause for liver damage is alcohol.
D. Therefore, any damage to the liver can shortcircuit your body functions.
a. ABDC b. BCDA c. CABD d. DACB

64. A. Especially, when we feel there’s a gap between how we are spending our time and what we feel
is deeply important in our lives.
B. We’re also living with the consequences of those choices.
C. We’re constantly making choices about the way we spend our time, from the major seasons to
the individual moments in our lives.
D. And many of us don’t like those consequences.
a. DABC b. ACDB c. CBDA d. BDCA

65. A. While just three decades ago, there were fewer than a dozen significant books on the subject.
B. It reflects something of a ‘popcorn phenomenon’, with the increasing heat and pressure of the
culture creating a rapidly exploding body of literature and tools.
C. Our most recent survey led us through well over a 100 books, and a wide variety of calendars,
planners, software, and other time management tools.
D. In our effort to close the gap between the clock and the compass in our lives, many of us turn to
the field of ‘time management’.
a. ABCD b. BACD c. CADB d. DACB

66. A. In one way or another, almost all of the literature says, ‘time is life’, but like most of the ‘success’
literature of the past 70 years, the time management literature essentially truncates what we do
from what we are.
B. But personal effectiveness is a function of both competence and character.
C. The idea is that if you can develop certain competencies, you’ll be able to create quality of life
results.
D. Time management is essentially a set of competencies.
a. CADB b. DCBA c. ACBD d. BACD

Page 10 Mock CAT Test – 4

67. A. If these basic needs aren’t met, we feel empty, incomplete.
B. We may try to fill the void through urgency addiction.
C. As a result, we may become complacent, temporarily satisfied with partial fulfilment.
D. There are certain things that are fundamental to human fulfilment.
a. DABC b. BCAD c. CABD d. BDAC

68. A. If the liquidation value of the assets of a business is low, it is economically optimal for the firm to
remain in the business even if the expected discounted future cash flows are low.
B. If the assets are durable, the book value may greatly exceed the liquidation.
C. It is possible for a firm to earn a book loss but it is economically appropriate to remain in the
business because the discounted cash flows exceed the opportunity cost of capital on the
investment that could be released if the business were divested.
D. Divesting the business in any situation in which the book value exceeds the liquidation value also
leads to a write-off, which has some deterring effect on exit.
a. DABC b. ABCD c. BDCA d. CDBA

Direction for questions 69 to 76: Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence
between sentences 1 and 6.

69. 1. Asian Paints, with its huge distribution network of 15,000 dealers, is the envy of the other players
in the industry.
A. It also has manufacturing facilities located in West Asia, South-east Asia and Europe.
B. The company has four plants at Bhandup (Mumbai), Ankleshwar (Gujarat), Patancheru (Andhra
Pradesh), and Kasna (Uttar Pradesh).
C. Its collaboration with Nippon Paint and PPG Industries gives it the technological edge.
D. In the industrial paint segment, it has a presence in automotive paints, powder coatings, coil
coatings, marine coatings and hi-tech resins.
6. Its state-of-the-art research facility at Bhandup has enabled Asian Paints to continuously introduce
new products at regular intervals.
a. BACD b. DABC c. ABCD d. ACBD

70. 1. Companies spend huge sums on technology, infrastructure and so on, but want to cut down
manpower costs.
A. Recruiting the very best is a tight-rope walk, where caution is your best friend.
B. This seemingly harmless priority often compromises manpower quality.
C. Many managers attempt to create a first-class company with second-grade employees.
D. The future may not permit such risks.
6. It’s wise not to do certain things to achieve the desired results.
a. DCAB b. ABCD c. BCDA d. CBAD

71. 1. Entering the Indian market in 1959, Surf enjoyed the first mover advantage in the 1960s and the
1970s.
A. Analysts aver that it persisted with the ‘Lalitaji’ campaign for a bit too long.
B. The Lever brand had a taste of competition in the 1980s when Nirma entered the market and
pitched a major price deal.

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 11

 C. That was perhaps when Surf lost ground, as it concentrated all its energy on countering
Nirma, but thereby vacating the top end of the market.
D. With the 1990s came Ariel, which went the little-but-powerful route.
6. So, when competition at the top end of the market came, Surf was caught unawares.
a. ABCD b. BDCA c. BCAD d. CDBA

72. 1. A few months ago, a friend of mine bought shoes at a medium-sized outlet of a reputed national
brand, during a sale.
A. This from a national brand, the advertising of which stressed the enduring quality of its footwear.
B. But three months down the line, the heel of one shoe began to split into two, rendering the
shoe unfit for use.
C. At the time of purchase, she was informed of a one-year warranty period for the product.
D. The prices at this sale were quite attractive.
6. My friend went to return the shoe and was told that though the store provided free repair during
the warranty period, her shoe was damaged beyond repair and nothing could be done.
a. ABCD b. CBAD c. DCBA d. ACBD

73. 1. Andromeda, the chained or girdled lady, is a large and important constellation.
A. Andromeda is seen in the sky with her arms stretched out in supplication.
B. It is located between Cassiopeia and Pisces.
C. At northern latitudes, she rises late in the evening in the summer, and is almost overhead at
9 p.m. by mid-November.
D. She lies on her side with her head at the upper left corner of the Great Square of Pegasus and
her feet near Perseus.
6. The most striking feature of Andromeda is that the largest and nearest spiral galaxy is located in
the northern part of the figure.
a. BADC b. DACB c. ABCD d. CABD

74. 1. Rain flooded the streets of Cherry Hill, NJ, one day in August.
A. They were away, and he had promised to keep an eye on the place, he crossed the street to
check.
B. She found an extension cord plugged into a kitchen outlet and leading down the basement
stairs.
C. By 5 p.m., Norman E. Toothman was worrying about his neighbours’ basement.
D. An hour later, when he had failed to return home, his wife went to the neighbours’ looking for
him.
6. There, lying in an inch of water on the floor beside a sump pump, was her husband — dead,
electrocuted, the coroner later said, when with wet hands he plugged the cord into the pump.
a. CADB b. DABC c. BADC d. ABCD

75. 1. How do GFIs work?

A. The amount that goes through you depends on how much contact you make.
B. When you plug-in an appliance and turn it on, the current flows in and out of the appliance over
two wires, one ‘hot’, the other ‘grounded’ or neutral.

Page 12 Mock CAT Test – 4

 C. If you touch the hot wire, or if it is in contact with the metal frame of the appliance, electricity
will try to leak off through you to the ground.
D. It may be only a slight shock if you are dry-handed or standing on a dry rug, for dry skin has
high electrical resistance.
6. But if your skin is wet, or if you are standing on a damp floor or touching a gas pipe or something
in contact with the ground, the current will flash through your body and into the ground — and
you may be electrocuted.
a. BACD b. ABCD c. DABC d. BCAD

76. 1. The case of Susie G. is typical.

A. But when Susie was only 21-month-old, her mother left her in the kitchen ‘for just a minute’ to
hang up washing outdoors.
B. Before she was born, her mother pored over booklets about baby care.
C. Later, her mother conscientiously brought her to my office for inoculations and followed my
feeding instructions regularly.
D. During the ‘minute’, the little tyke climbed on a chair and started a handkerchief through the
electric wringer.
6. The result: three fingers badly crushed, one broken and a hand in splints for weeks.
a. BACD b. ABCD c. DABC d. BCAD

Direction for question 77: The sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicates that something
has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are four sets of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best
fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

77. After listening to the pleas for ___, the judge was ___ and gave the convicted man the maximum
punishment allowed by law.
a. activity ... abrasive b. clemency ... unmoved
c. fortitude ... formidable d. multiplicity ... noisome

Direction for questions 78 to 86: Read each of the arguments given below and answer the questions that
follow it.

78. Subjecting unborn babies to radiation during medical X-rays or intercontinental flights may increase
their risks of developing mental illness. Infants exposed to low degree of radiation in the womb
undergo changes in a part of the brain called hippocampus. This has been proved by a study on
mice.
The above research is based on which of the following assumptions?
a. The manner in which a mouse brain and a human brain respond to chemical radiations are
very similar.
b. The brain of an infant is highly vulnerable to the ill-effects of chemical radiations.
c. Hippocampus is that part of the brain that controls a man’s mental balance.
d. A large number of women who travelled extensively by air during pregnancy, reported giving birth
to mentally challenged children.

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 13

79. People are so foolish in living a fractional life, when it could easily be complete. The mistake is in
allowing thought and activity to focus inwardly, thereby becoming abnormally conscious of ourselves
to the end that we develop envy, greed, touchiness, self-pride — all misery-making characteristics.
Which statement below is an assumption that justifies the argument presented above?
a. Self-consciousness prevents a human being from doing any social good.
b. Misery-making characteristics prevent one from leading an effective and satisfying life.
c. Many people feel satisfied and at peace if they have made other people’s lives miserable.
d. Inward focus of thoughts can be prevented if one maintains an open approach to external stimuli.

80. Networking is not a technique, ‘it is an attitude’. Building a good rapport with peers and associates
is essential for anyone who wants success. You can get valuable insights and first-hand accounts
of organizational working.
The basic assumption upon which the validity of the above argument may be said to be based on
is
a. no school can teach an individual, ways to establish a strong network.
b. familiarity with the culture of an organization is helpful for success in it.
c. those who wish to succeed in an organization must be pushy with their skills.
d. networking is often the stepping-stone to success in any organization.

81. Experts say that it is easy to design basic accommodation in space. Zero gravity allows you to
build a space station in any direction. The Japanese company, Shimizu, plans to open a 64-room
hotel in space by 2020 where tourists can enjoy a spectacular view.
What is the basic assumption that Shimizu will have drawn before it embarks on its project?
a. The view from the space station will be spectacular and dazzling.
b. The Japanese company will be able to attract tourists from all over the world.
c. Of the six billion people in the world, only 64 will be interested in touring space.
d. Quite a few people have a desire to see and experience the space system.

82. In five years, all companies will be Internet companies or they will not be companies at all.
More than 90 per cent of the managers of 500 large companies across the globe believe that the
Internet will have a big impact on the global marketplace by 2001.
Which of the statements below, if true, would most weaken the belief of these managers?
a. Today 95 per cent of the companies are not Internet companies.
b. The sample of the survey which guided the managers was not representative.
c. The Internet has affected the business of the large companies only.
d. Some companies that get affected by the Internet will still not be Internet companies.

83. For science and technology to be used constructively and to the best effect in the development of
the country, a better management of resources is called for. However, the results of such efforts are
often mitigated, due to vastness of area and differences in geographical features.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the strength of the argument above?
a. Japan, the nation with very less resources, is one of the most technologically developed nation.
b. Big countries like Brazil, China and India are not able to effectively use their resources.
c. Russia, the biggest country landwise with one of the most diverse geographies utilizes its resources
to the maximum.
d. The most geographically diverse region has the vastest natural resources.

Page 14 Mock CAT Test – 4

84. Punishment is a very ineffective way of disciplining. For punishment, strangely enough, often has
the effect of teaching the child to behave in exactly the opposite way from the way we want him to
behave. Many parents use punishment simply because, no one has ever taught them better ways
of disciplining their children.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s stand that punishment is ineffective?
a. Bill’s parents punished him for bullying his younger brother. Next day, Bill beat up his classmates
at school.
b. Maria was sent to the detention room twice for scoring poorly in mathematics. On the next test,
Maria scored 75 per cent.
c. Parents who were never punished by their parents for any wrongdoing place greater reliance on
punishment.
d. Pupils graduating out of strict military schools, known for harsh punishment, are often the most
disciplined adults.

85. ‘The more the merrier’ maybe true in some situations. But as far as the greater number of laws and
enactments is concerned, thieves, robbers and other anti-social elements stand to gain.
Which one of the following statements decreases the conviction of the author?
a. Maximum convictions have been reported for tax violation even though the tax laws are very
sparse.
b. ‘The more the merrier’ is not true in any case.
c. The country with the most stringent laws has the least violence.
d. Most enactments cover up all possible loopholes through which the convicts can escape
punishment.

86. The secretary of finance has announced that there will be a cut in the subsidy on cereals. This will,
however, not affect the poor because the retail price of processed cereal products would be brought
down.
Which of the following, if true, would undermine the secretary’s position?
a. Poor people eat only subsidized food products.
b. The poor do not buy processed cereal products.
c. Only those who are poor eat subsidized food grain or cereals.
d. The rich and the middle class eat processed cereals, which is not subsidized.

Direction for questions 87 to 91: The following questions contain six statements followed by four choices.
Choose the choice that lists the order of the sentences such that they are in a logical sequence.

87. A. All Brahtu are tasty. B. All Brahtu are durable.

C. All Brahtu are Prahtu. D. All Brahtu need Mrahtu.
E. All Prahtu need Mrahtu. F. All Mrahtu need Prahtu
a. ACE b. ADC c. AED d. CED

88. A. Maruti 800 is efficient. B. Some cars are efficient.

C. All that is efficient is good. D. All cars are efficient.
E. Maruti 800 is good. F. Maruti 800 is a car.
a. BAD b. DCA c. CAE d. ADE

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 15

89. A. Some Internet terminals are well maintained.
B. Some well-maintained things are Internet terminals.
C. Some well-maintained things are functional.
D. Some functional things are well maintained.
E. All well-maintained things are functional.
F. Some Internet terminals are functional.
a. AEF b. BDC c. EFA d. FDC

90. A. Some naval vessels are aircraft ready.

B. All aircraft ready naval vessels are missile equipped.
C. Vikrant is a naval vessel.
D. Vikrant is an aircraft ready naval vessel.
E. Vikrant is missile equipped.
F. All naval vessels are missile equipped.
a. DBA b. DBE c. CFA d. CED

91. A. Some of those not in trouble are insane.

B. All miscreants are in trouble.
C. Some of those in trouble are innocent.
D. Some in trouble might be miscreants.
E. Some of those in trouble are not miscreants.
F. Some miscreants are innocent.
a. FAB b. DCF c. ABE d. BFC

Direction for questions 92 to 95: Each sentence below has been split into four parts sequentially (a, b,
c and d). Choose that part which contains a mistake.

92. a. A feasibility survey has now b. been completed in India to establish

c. a network to felicitate contacts d. between small and medium enterprises.

93. a. Privatization generally represents b. an ideological response

c. to perceived problem d. in the public sector.

94. a. The Indian Government’s choice

b. of the EEC as a partner
c. stem from the fact
d. that the community is the most important market for India.

95. a. A person who earns a b. few thousand rupees

c. and decides to save d. many of it must be a miser.

Page 16 Mock CAT Test – 4

 Section – III

Direction for questions 96 to 135: Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content.
Answer the questions based on what is stated or implied in the passage.

Passage – 1

It’s a market waiting to be tapped — five lakh villages, over a 100 million households, and a growth rate
estimated to be five times greater than that of urban India. Little wonder, that companies have started
making serious forays into the rural market. Korean electronics company LG keeps aside 10 per cent of its
advertising budget for efforts aimed at increasing awareness about its brand in Indian villages. And Hindustan
Lever has plans of reaching out to 22 million new households in villages by the end of this year, through its
‘Operation Bharat’ project.

While Arvind Mills relies on its distribution network, LG is depending on its advertising agency Lintas to
‘provide IT support in its rural endeavours’, and on a battery of 18,00,000 cars (eight owned by the company)
which crisscross six states. HLL is adopting a different approach — it is using the expertise of Ogilvy Rural
Communications Network, the first independent division, looking after rural marketing, in any advertising
agency in India. Ogilvy Rural was set up as a separate division of Ogilvy & Mather (the first for the advertising
agency anywhere in the world) in January this year.

This, however, is not the first year in which HLL will be using Ogilvy’s expertise. The company was the first
to make use of the ‘limited projects’ that the agency started undertaking as a part of its media network in
1994. To begin with, Ogilvy Rural helped market three brands for HLL in rural areas: Taaza and A1 teas, and
Breeze Bahar soap. “The turning point came in 1998, when we were given an Agency of Record Business
certificate for handling non-measured media, by Hindustan Lever,” says D. K. Bose, president of Ogilvy
Rural. Ten-year-old Thomson Social, which Bose helped set up before he moved to Ogilvy two years ago,
is a specialized division of HTA, but deals only with the advertising and marketing of socially relevant
projects for NGOs. Other agencies provide rural marketing support as a part of their media planning.

With the HLL business in hand, the reach of the rural wing of the agency was extended to cover 14 states
— up from seven in which it had started operations. It also opened four offices in Mumbai, Delhi, Bangalore
and Kolkata (its Chennai office opens next month), and placed its own people in either state capitals or
their strategic towns in 10 other states. “It’s not easy to fathom this market. The market is what you make,
and what you make depends on the network that you have,” says Bose. In keeping with this thinking, O &
M Rural, which started with one employee supported by the head of the media division in 1994, today
employs 45 people drawn from institutes like IRMA. Additionally, it also has a team of 1,000 supervisors
and uses the expertise of 5,000 other people on a projectwise basis.

According to Bose, selling in rural India is no longer restricted to using mobile vans fitted with television
sets screening Hindi film songs, interspersed with messages about a product. New avenues include melas
with games (with the product being given as a prize), door-to-door sales, folk dances, wall paintings, and
even putting up shoe racks in temples and gurdwaras. Implementing the media plans worked out by its
creative team, however, is not something that Ogilvy Rural wants to specialize in. “Ogilvy Rural is no longer

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 17

just an implementation agency,” says Bose, who believes that, with business picking up, outsourcing all
implementation work is the only practical solution.

One major reason why Ogilvy Rural wants to phase itself out of implementation is that, implementing the
nitty-gritty of a marketing exercise requires a lot of manpower. In fact, this is a lesson that RC & M, which
was set up as an implementation agency for the rural marketing of Madhyam Advertising (today they are
separate companies) 10 years ago, learnt the hard way. In the first year, the company registered a growth
of 20 per cent, but since then, the profits have been on a downswing, primarily because of the heavy costs
involved.

Rajesh Monga, managing director of RC & M, says, “If a television set breaks down in, say, Haldipur, we
have no option but to send another television set from here. Often, the van breaks down, and since it
happens in remote areas, not only does the marketing effort get delayed, but we also have to spend twice
as much money.” In fact, it is for this reason that Monga has been looking at diversification for the last two
years. LG’s vice president (marketing), Rajiv Karwal, concurs, “Implementation is an expensive proposition,”
he says, “but the results are well worth the effort”.

According to Bose, another problem area is distribution. “This is the biggest bottleneck that we face. We
manage to create awareness about, and even a market for, a product, but this is not backed by its easy
availability.” Bose also hints that distribution is an area into which Ogilvy Rural is planning to make an entry
in the immediate future. “It’s a vast and deep market, and we have a number of plans. What we have done
so far is only experimental. We are still in the process of learning.”

96. Which agency was looking after rural marketing in India?

a. Ogilvy & Mather
b. Ogilvy Rural Communication Network
c. Thomson Social
d. None of these

97. O & M Rural is doing all the following except

a. implementation.
b. reorganization.
c. distribution.
d. None of these

98. O & M Rural helped to market the following brands except

a. Breeze Bahar. b. Taaza. c. A1. d. Lux.

99. The ‘Operation Bharat’ project was pioneered by

a. Arvind Mills. b. LG.
c. HLL. d. None of these

100. Thomson Social deals with which of the following projects?

a. NGO projects b. Projects for socially ostracized people
c. Electronic items only d. None of these

Page 18 Mock CAT Test – 4

101. From which of the following institutes has O & M Rural recruited for its branches.
a. IIMs b. IRMA c. TISS d. (b) and (c)

102. Which of the following is the most problematic area ‘according to Bose’ of rural marketing?
a. Distribution b. Product awareness
c. Breakdown of a van d. Heavy marketing expenses

Passage – 2

Education is the passport to modern life, and a precondition of national prosperity. But more than a quarter
of the world’s adults — 900 million — cannot read or write, and more than 100 million young children are
deprived of even primary school education. In most developing countries, even after decades of educational
expansion, spending on learning is going down. The illiterates are virtually helpless in a world ruled by the
written word, where notices and official papers can seem a mass of meaningless hieroglyphics. People
who cannot decipher them are at the mercy of those who can; many, as a result, have been cheated of their
rights or of their land.

Studies show that people with even a basic education are healthier and eat better. They are more likely to
plan their families, and their children are more likely to survive. According to the World Bank, just four
years of primary education enable farmers to increase productivity by 10 per cent — often the difference
between hunger and sufficiency. National economic returns from education outstrip those from most other
forms of investment.

As they became independent, most developing countries enthusiastically embraced education. Two decades
of astonishing expansion followed. Between 1960 and 1981, the world’s 32 poorest countries (excluding
India and China, which have long had good records) increased the proportion of their children enrolled in
primary school from 38 to 72 per cent. The 38 next poorest achieved almost universal primary school
enrolment by 1980, up from about two-thirds in 1960. It seemed as if it would not be long before every child
alive could be sure of going to school.

By the end of the 1980s, that dream had turned to bitter disillusion. The decade brought economic disaster
to developing countries. They slumped when rich nations went into recession at the beginning of the
1980s; the subsequent recovery passed them by, and they were hit again by the renewed recession in the
late 1980s and early 1990s. The educational expansion of the 1960s and 1970s first halted, then went into
reverse. By 1989, enrolment rates had dropped in one out of every five developing countries. In some
African countries, the number of children in primary schools declined by a third between 1980 and 1985.
Tanzania’s universal primary school enrolment fell to less than 75 per cent. UNESCO’s Director General,
Federico Mayour, warns that this threatens to ‘set back the countries of the South by a whole generation
or even more’.

The proportion of national expenditure going to education declined in more than half of the developing
countries over the 1980s. In the world’s 37 poorest countries, the average expenditure per head on education
dropped by a quarter. In Africa, as a whole, according to the World Bank, only $0.60 a year is spent on
educational material for each student, whilst it estimates ‘minimum requirements’ at $5.

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In industrialized countries, absolute illiteracy was largely eradicated half a century ago; they contain only
two per cent of the world’s illiterate. ‘Functional illiteracy’, however, remains: in Canada, the literacy of a
quarter of all adults is seriously inadequate amongst the poorest members of its society.

Generally speaking, the poorer a country, the higher the number of illiterates; two-thirds of adults in the
very poorest countries cannot read or write. Furthermore, the poorest individuals suffer the most. The
poorer a child’s family, the less likely he (or, particularly, she) is to start school, and the more likely it is
that those who do start will drop out.

More people in the Third World live in the countryside, where schools and teachers are always scarce. But
even in the cities, the poor miss out. In Kolkata, over 60 per cent of children do not attend school because
they have to work to help keep the family going, or look after younger siblings to enable their mothers to
work. Two-thirds of the children who either never start school, or drop out early, are girls. Two-thirds of the
world’s illiterate are women. Yet, women’s education is particularly important. The World Bank identifies it
as ‘perhaps the single most important determinant of family health and nutrition’, and its research shows
that infant mortality rates fall steadily, and dramatically, for every year women spend at school. But tradition,
prejudices, and the burden of work to be done at home ensure that daughters are pulled out of school first.
In the first grade of Kampala’s primary schools, the sexes are evenly balanced; by the seventh grade, there
are more than twice as many boys as there are girls.

Every dollar invested in primary school education, according to another World Bank’s study, is 50 per cent
more productive than one invested in secondary schooling, and gives twice as much as one spends on
universities. Yet, throughout the Third World, these spending priorities are reversed.

A few countries have started to change their priorities, emphasizing primary education. Zimbabwe doubled
its number of primary schools in its first five years of independence; the proportion of its budget spent on
education is the fifth highest in the world, and the curriculum has been reoriented to meet the local needs.
Bangladesh has opened more than 2,500 basic village primary schools, with appropriate syllabuses since
1985, at an annual cost of just $15 per pupil. Only 1.5 per cent of the children drop out, compared to 60 per
cent of their peers in the ordinary primary schools. Moreover, 95 per cent of pupils, the majority of which
consists of girls, continue their education, after leaving.

Nonetheless, all these countries are under harsh economic pressure. There is little hope for the children of
the Third World countries, even if their governments do change their priorities, unless these countries are
enabled to develop.

103. What are the most important benefits of education given by the writer of the education gap?
I. Passport to modern life
II. Pre-condition of national prosperity
III. Spending on learning
IV. The percentage of world illiteracy goes down.
a. I only b. I and II c. III and IV d. IV only

Page 20 Mock CAT Test – 4

104. The main purpose of the passage is
a. to promote the development of primary education.
b. to promote the development of tertiary education.
c. to illustrate the need for emphasis on education as a precursor for growth.
d. to highlight the problems of rural areas.

105. Basic education for women

a. can determine the health and nutrition of the family.
b. makes the difference between hunger and sufficiency.
c. only lasts for four years.
d. increases productivity by 10 per cent.

106. Illiteracy has been almost completely eradicated

a. from the developed world.
b. everywhere, except in the US, Canada and France.
c. in absolute terms in industrialized countries.
d. in functional terms in industrialized countries.

107. Girls very often fail to complete their schooling because

a. they have to go out to work.
b. there are twice as many boys as there are girls.
c. of burden of work, and prejudice.
d. of family health and nutrition.

108. Spending on tertiary education is

a. twice as productive as spending on secondary education.
b. only half as productive as spending on primary education.
c. 50 per cent as productive as spending on secondary schooling.
d. 25 per cent less productive than is spending on primary schooling.

109. Primary education has been given more importance

a. in Kolkata.
b. in some parts of Africa and Asia.
c. in the last five years.
d. by reorienting the curriculum.

Passage – 3

I like historians who are either very simple or outstanding. The simple, who have not the wherewithal to mix
in anything of their own, and who bring to it only the care and diligence to collect all that comes to their
attention, and to record everything faithfully without choice or discrimination, leave our judgement intact to
discern the truth. Such, for example, among others, is the good Froissart, who has gone along in his
undertaking with such frank simplicity, that having made a mistake, he is not at all afraid to recognize it and
correct it on the spot, where he has been made aware of it; and who presents to us even the diversity of the
rumours that were current, and the different reports that were made to him. This is the material of history,
naked and unformed; each man can make his profit from it according to his understanding.

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 21

The really outstanding ones have the capacity to choose what is worth knowing; they can pick out of two
reports the one that is more likely. From the nature and humour of princes, they infer their intentions and
attribute appropriate words to them. They are right to assume the authority to regulate our belief by their
own; but certainly this privilege belongs to very few people.

Those in-between (which are the commonest sort) spoil everything for us. They want to chew our morsels
for us; they give themselves the right to judge, and consequently to slant history to their fancy; for once,
the judgement leans to one side, one cannot help turning and twisting the narrative to that bias. They
undertake to choose the things worth knowing, and often conceal from us a given word, a given private
action, that would instruct us better; they omit as incredible the things they do not understand, and
perhaps also some things because they do not know how to say them in good Latin or French. Let them
boldly display their eloquence and their reasoning, let them judge all they like; but let them also leave us
the wherewithal to judge after them, and not alter or arrange by their abridgements and selection, anything
of the substance of the matter; but pass it on to us, pure and entire, in all its dimensions.

Most of the time, especially these days, people are selected for their work from among the common herd
for the sole consideration of knowing how to speak well; as if, here, we were trying to learn grammar! And
having been hired only for that, and having put on sale only their babble, they are right accordingly to care
chiefly only about that part. Thus, with many fine words, they go and cook up a fine concoction of the
rumours they pick up in the city squares.

The only good histories are those that have been written by the very men who were in command of the
affairs, or who were the participants in the conduct of them, or who at least have had the fortune to conduct
others of the same sort. Such are almost all the Greek and Roman histories. For, when several eyewitnesses
have written about the same subject (as it happened in those days that greatness and learning usually
met), if there is a mistake, it must be very slight, and on a very doubtful incident. What can you expect of
a doctor discussing war, or a schoolboy discussing the intentions of princes? If we want to note the
scruples the Romans had in this, we need only this example. Asinius Pollio found even in the history of
Caesar, some mistakes into which he had fallen through not having been able to keep his eyes on every
part of his army, and through having believed individuals who often reported to him things insufficiently
verified; or else through not having been carefully enough informed by his lieutenants about what they had
done in his absence. We can see by this example whether this quest of truth is delicate, when we cannot
trust the commander’s knowledge of a battle his soldiers have fought, or the soldiers’ knowledge of what
happened near them, unless, in the manner of a judicial inquiry, we confront the witnesses and hear the
objection about the evidence in the slightest details of each incident. Truly, the knowledge we have of our
own affairs is much looser. But this has been sufficiently treated by Bodin, and according to my way of
thinking.

To compensate a little for the treachery and weakness of my memory, so extreme that it has happened to
me more than once to pick up again, as recent and unknown to me, books which I had read carefully a few
years before and scribbled over with my notes, I have adopted the habit for some time now of adding at the
end of each book (I mean of those that I intend to use only once), the time I finished reading it and the
judgement I have derived of it as a whole, so that this may represent to me at least the sense and general
idea I had conceived of the author while reading it. I want to transcribe here some of these annotations.

Page 22 Mock CAT Test – 4

Here is what I put some 10 years ago in my Guicciardini (for whatever language the books speak, I speak
to them in my own): “He is a diligent historiographer, from whom, in my opinion, one can learn the truth
about the affairs of his time as exactly as from any other: and indeed in most of them, he is an actor
himself, and of honorable rank. There is no appearance that through hatred, favour or vanity, he disguised
things; which is attested by the free judgements he gives of the great, and especially of those by whom he
had been advanced and employed in responsibilities, like Pope Clement VII. As for the part, he seems to
want to make most of, which are his digressions and discourses, there are some good ones and enriched
with fine traits, but he is too fond of them. For, by not wanting to leave anything unsaid, having a subject so
full and ample and almost infinite, he becomes diffuse and makes a bit of scholastic prattle. I have also
noted this, that of so many souls and actions that he judges, so many motives and plans, he never refers
a single one to virtue, religion, and conscience, as if these qualities were totally extinct in the world; and of
all actions; however fair in appearance they may be of themselves, he throws the cause back on to some
vicious motive or some profit. It is impossible to imagine that among the infinite number of actions that he
judges, there was not a single one produced by way of reason. No corruption can have seized men so
universally that someone would not escape the contagion. This makes me fear that his taste was a bit
corrupted; and it may have happened that he judged others by himself.”

In my Philippe de Commines, there is this: “Here you will find the language pleasant and agreeable, of a
natural simplicity; the narrative pure, and the author’s good faith showing through it clearly, free from vanity
in speaking of himself, and of partiality or envy in speaking of others; his ideas and exhortations accompanied
more by good zeal and truth than by any exquisite capacity; and, throughout, authority and gravity,
representing the man of good background and brought up in great affairs.”

On the Memoirs of Monsieur du Belay: “It is always a pleasure to see things written by people who have
experienced how they should be conducted; but it cannot be denied that there is clearly revealed in these
two lords, a great falling off from the frankness and freedom of writing that shine forth in the ancients of their
class, such as the Sire de Joinville, intimate friend of Saint Louis; Eginhard, Chancellor of Charlemagne,
and, of more recent memory, Phillippe de Commines. This is rather a plea, for King Francis against the
Emperor Charles V, than a history. I will not believe that they have changed anything in the main facts; but
as for turning the judgement of events to our advantage, often contrary to reason, and omitting everything
that is ticklish in the life of their master, they make a practice of it: witness the disgrace of Messieurs de
Montmorency and de Brion, which are forgotten; indeed the very name of Madame d’Etampes is not to be
found. One may cover up secret actions; but to be silent about what all the world knows, and about things
that have led to public results of such consequence, is an inexcusable defect. In short, to get a complete
knowledge of King Francis and the events of his time, a person should turn elsewhere, if he takes my
advice. The profit one can make here is from the detailed narrative of the battles and exploits of war at
which these gentlemen were present; some private words and actions of certain princes of their time; and
the dealings and negotiations carried on by the Seigneur de Langey, in which there are plenty of things
worth knowing, and ideas above the ordinary.”

110. In this passage the author is basically talking about

a. his preference of historians.
b. the patent constituents of a historian’s work.
c. his inference from history books about world psyche.
d. the role of history as a subject in the institutions.

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 23

111. The author is least likely to agree with the statement that
a. Froissart was a lucid and straightforward historian.
b. partial presentation of past facts debase the subject.
c. grammar is an integral part of history.
d. there are very few uncomplicated historians.

112. The author finds it manipulative that

a. the factual authenticity of a fact is engineered according to certain people.
b. steering the consequence of a chronicle is done.
c. the purity of the facts is substantiated by their articulation.
d. French and Latin words are omitted.

113. The tone of the passage is

a. satirical. b. analytical
c. reverberating. d. critical.

114. The author wishes to drive home the point that

a. formulating a summary of a book is most profitable.
b. the truly intellectual and worldly-wise individuals are historians.
c. articulate words in a refined presentation state the facts.
d. None of the above

115. What according to the author is the difference between an outstanding and a simple historian?
a. The former is brilliant but not factual and the latter is factual.
b. The former has power and the latter is non-discriminating.
c. The former is sincerely forthright and the latter is eloquent and premeditated.
d. None of the above.

116. From the passage we can draw the conclusion that

a. Greek and Roman historians are outstanding historians.
b. Asinius Pollio deduced mistakes of Caesar’s lieutenants.
c. Bodin and the author think alike.
d. None of the above.

117. Good historical accounts are obtained from

a. people good at oratorial skills.
b. people good at communications skills.
c. people who were only observers of the affairs.
d. people who were in charge of the affairs.

Passage – 4

The term Buddhism is now used to denote the teaching of the Buddha, a historical person who flourished
some 25 centuries ago on the Indian subcontinent. This teaching has been described variously as a

Page 24 Mock CAT Test – 4

religion, a philosophy, a psychological system, an ethic-moral code, a socio-economic blueprint, and so
on. No doubt, all these aspects could be discerned in different parts of the Buddha’s teaching, but the
teaching is itself something more than all these combined. The term which Buddhists use to designate the
teaching is Dhamma or Dharma. This term comes from a root term meaning, ‘to uphold’, and means the
basic law which ‘upholds’ the universe. It is, therefore, sometimes translated simply as Law or Norm. It
conveys some idea of the unity that informs the whole body of the Buddha’s teaching. We shall use the
words Dhamma and Buddhism as synonyms.

The term ‘Basic Buddhism’ is used in this passage to denote those elements of Buddhism as currently
propagated, which could be attributed fairly unambiguously to the Buddha himself. It is a basic argument
here that this teaching can not only be practised effectively in the modern world, but also conforms to the
modern scientific view of the world. In seeking to establish the content of Basic Buddhism, we have to start
with a consideration of the different schools of Buddhism that have arisen in the course of time. The
Buddha did not leave any written records, and his disciples transmitted his teaching initially as an oral
tradition. Quite early in its history, several distinct schools of Buddhism arose, based partly on the
interpretation of common discourses, and partly on differing texts of the discourses themselves. There is a
substantial degree of agreement between these diverse schools, and they have never exhibited an animosity
towards each other comparable to the schisms that have characterized many other religions. It is from the
scriptures of these various schools of Buddhism, particularly from the Pali Canon, that the original message
of the Buddha, which we term Basic Buddhism, has to be reconstructed.

About three centuries after the death of the Buddha, several schools of Buddhism emerged, but the
differences between them were slight and related to minor points. However, towards the beginning of the
Common Era (CE), some of these groups gave a new interpretation to the Buddha’s teaching and called
themselves the ‘Mahâyâna’ (Greater Vehicle) School. They called the earlier schools the ‘Hinayâna’ (Lesser
Vehicle) School. However, this term was never accepted by the schools who were designated by it. Of
these schools, only one survives today. This is the ‘Theravâda’ (Doctrine of the Elders) School which
claims to carry on Buddhism of the early followers of the Buddha. This view is now generally accepted and
the Mahâyâna is seen as a new innovation in Buddhism, but still containing some of the essence of the
original teaching. These two traditions have also been termed the Southern and Northern schools of Buddhism
because of the geographical areas in which each prevailed. Each of these traditions has its own versions
of the Buddhist scriptures. All Theravada groups subscribe to a common set of basic books (called the Pali
Canon after the language Pali, in which it is recorded). We shall, however, refer to the original Buddhism as
Pali Buddhism rather than Theravada Buddhism. Amongst the Mahâyâna, there is a much greater diversity
of schools, doctrines, languages and texts. Initially, Sanskrit was the language of the Indian Mahayâna
schools, but many of these were later translated to Chinese, and China soon became the centre of
Mahayâna Buddhism. From there, it spread to many other countries, including Korea, Japan (where the
best known school of Buddhism is Zen) and Tibet (where a distinct variety of Mahâyâna Buddhism called
the Vajrayâna or the ‘Diamond Vehicle’ developed).

In its fundamental doctrines, Basic Buddhism is closer to Pali Buddhism than to the Mahâyâna Schools.
This is because the Pali Canon is the oldest compilation of the Buddha’s teaching, and closest to the
actual words of the Buddha. Its present form was settled at the Third Council of Buddhists held during the
reign of King Asoka of Ancient India, about 250 B.C. The Pali Canon was thus systemized quite early, and

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 25

has changed very little, indeed if at all, since then. It was committed to writing in the first century bce, and
this preserved the texts from possible further verbal corruption. The Pali Canon (like some other Buddhist
canons) consists of three sections (called Pitakas or baskets) dealing with the Vinaya (monastic discipline),
the Sutta (doctrines) and the Abhidhamma (the analysis of the Dhamma).

While the principles and practices of Basic Buddhism have to be sought in the Pali Canon (especially, in
the Vinaya and the Sutta Pitakas), actual Theravâda theory shows some development from early Buddhism.
This took three directions:

1. Some of the material in the third section of the Canon, the Abhidhamma Pitaka, was composed at
a later date, and employed a didactic and taxonomic method in analysing the psychological and
philosophical concepts introduced by the Buddha. The empirical method it employed to verify the
Buddha’s teaching was meditative contemplation (especially insight meditation), and it excluded
the use of other empirical methods such as those employed by modern science.

2. The commendable efforts of the great medieval scholars like Buddhaghosa and Dharmapâla tended
to ossify the meaning and interpretation of the Buddha’s discourses, which was taken to be
authoritative interpretations of the Dhamma.

3. Some contemporary developments in the Mahayâna came to influence not only the practices of
Theravâda, but also some aspects of Theravâda doctrine as well. These developments must be
taken into account in the reconstruction of the original message of the Buddha.

It must not be thought that Basic Buddhism should exclude everything found in the Mahayana teachings.
While Mahayana has little to contribute to the reconstruction of the theory of early Buddhism, it did retain
some early Buddhist practices which play a subordinate role in Pali Buddhism, but which could play a
useful role in modern Buddhist practices. Mahayana Buddhism shifted the Buddhist ideal from the Arahant
of Theravada Buddhism to the Boddhisattva. The Boddhisattva was seen as some one who, while being
capable of enlightenment and release from samsâra, wilfully postpones becoming fully liberated in order to
help others. A natural consequence of this view was that the primary Buddhist virtue was compassion
(karunâ). In contrast to this, Theravada had regarded mettâ (loving-kindness) as the dominant virtue. There
is a need to reinstate compassion in Buddhist practice at least to an extent equal to that given to mettâ.

Another aspect of Mahâyâna that is important is the greater role given to the lay community in contrast to
that given to the monks. Early Buddhism had denoted by the Sangha, the community of all Buddhists who
had made some progress in the Dhamma.This Sangha included both the monks and lay persons, but
Theravada Buddhism tended to be excessively centred around the monastic orders, and included in the
Sangha only the ordained monks, and sometimes reserved for them the exclusive role as teachers of the
Dhamma. Mahâyâna took a more flexible attitude. While the role of monks in Buddhism cannot be underrated,
and they will continue to play an important part in contemporary Buddhism, it is clear that Basic Buddhism
should reinstate the role of the lay community.

Basic Buddhism should not be seen as an innovation in Buddhism, but rather as an attempt to go back to
the roots of Buddhism, to what would have been the actual doctrines preached originally by the Buddha.

Page 26 Mock CAT Test – 4

118. As per the passage, Buddha was
a. an ancient godly figure of the Indian subcontinent.
b. an ancient person who developed a new psychological system and projected it as his teachings.
c. a historical person who flourished 25 centuries ago on the Indian subcontinent.
d. a historical figure who developed the idea of unity that informs the whole human body.

119. ‘Basic Buddhism’ as seen in the modern world denotes

a. those elements of Buddhism which fairly and unambiguously are attributed to Buddha.
b. those teachings of Buddha which cannot be practised in the light of scientific views of the world.
c. the culmination of the thoughts of different schools of Buddhism.
d. None of the above

120. Basic teaching of Buddhism was practised

a. initially orally, then through different texts.
b. through script developed by Pali Canon.
c. orally.
d. both orally as well as in text but only the original message of Buddha was explained orally while
rest was text.

121. All Theravada groups subscribe to a common set of basic books

a. termed as Theravada Buddhism. b. termed as Mahayana Buddhism.
c. termed as Pali Canon. d. termed as Zen.

122. The author says that in its fundamental doctrines, Basic Buddhism is closer to
a. the Theravada school. b. Diamond Vehicle principle.
c. the Zen school of thought. d. Pali Buddhism.

123. What is Abhidhamma Pitaka?

a. A method to develop contemplation of self.
b. A method to analyse the psychological and philosophical concepts of Buddha.
c. A method to analyse the didactic and taxonomic concepts of Buddha.
d. A style which ossifies the meaning of Buddha in today’s world.

124. Boddhisattva, as per the passage, speaks about the primary Buddhist virtue, which is
a. loving-kindness. b. compassion.
c. Arahant. d. Basic Buddhism.

125. Which school gives greater role to the lay community in contrast to that of the monks?
a. Boddhisattva b. Hinayana
c. Dharmapala d. Mahayana

126. As per the author, what should Basic Buddhism be seen as?
a. Dhamma
b. An attempt to return to the roots of Buddhism
c. An attempt to realize the change in Buddhism through innovation
d. New Zen

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 27

 Passage – 5

This year brings another bumper harvest to India. If you think that this refers to our agricultural production,
think again. This refers to beauty pageants. India is now universally acknowledged as the Land of Beauties.
It’s definitely a preferable world image than as a Land of Poverty and Disasters.

That’s one positive spin-off, but the negatives are many. Feminist opposition to beauty pageants is a valid
but minority perspective. The majority view appears to be that there is nothing wrong in glorifying beauty; if
you can admire beauty in nature and art, why not in god’s ultimate creation; that a gorgeous, well-shaped
woman is worthy of as much gazing and appreciation as a beautiful sunset, an exquisite orchid or a
striking painting?

Perhaps. But beauty pageants are increasingly distasteful on moral grounds, because they are the coronation
of hypocrisy.

Priyanka Chopra’s crowning exploded a beloved myth perpetrated by supporters of beauty pageants, that
this is a competition that rewards ‘Beauty with Brains’. The question round, testing the poise and intelligence
of the contestants, is projected as a crucial round. But Priyanka’s victory nailed the lie once and for all. It
doesn’t matter how silly or factually incorrect your answer is, provided it is pious, politically correct and
well-articulated.

To the question whom she considered the most successful ‘living’ woman, the young damsel gushed about
–there it comes again — Mother Teresa! She was probably so busy preparing the last several years for this
round, mugging all the questions, that she probably didn’t know Mother Teresa had died along the way.
Either she was clueless about the current affairs, or didn’t hear the question right, or was so nervous, that
she fumbled royally. Whatever the reason, she ought to have scored zilch.

But long before this round, the bookies had already decreed Priyanka the winner. There was little to choose
from the top 10 contestants in terms of beauty, but Priyanka was the bookie’s favourite, because she was
the best-trained, like in a dog show. Barely had the question been asked that Priyanka launched confidently
into a virtuous spiel that is a tribute to Pavlovian training but a travesty of honesty.

Hypocrisy reigns supreme in the way these contestants are rewarded for uttering insincere but politically-
correct platitudes about noble role-models, goals and commitment to social work. How many times Mother
Teresa must have turned in her grave when her name is invoked by — of all people — aspiring beauty
queens! And contestants are programmed to invoke her name like robots. ‘Successful Woman’, Priyanka
Chopra hears the two magic words, not the question. Lights blink and bells ring in her brain and outcomes
the automatic response: Mother Teresa.

Given her peculiar situation, wouldn’t it have sounded more honest if Priyanka said she considered Aishwarya
Rai the most successful living person? Surely, she must have drawn inspiration and courage to beat the
odds and win the way Aishwarya did. But well-groomed Priyanka knows that honesty doesn’t pay and the
judges proved her right: it’s more savvy to be hypocritical than honest.

Irritation over this flagrant hypocrisy increases when the pretty damsel claims her ‘Indianness’ helped her
to win the coveted title. Even liberal citizens of this nation would fail to see anything Indian in the way her
apparently-siliconed assets popped out of her western-style sequined dress.

Page 28 Mock CAT Test – 4

When hypocrisy triumphs, it hurts any right-thinking person. And this is why beauty pageants are
objectionable. These shows may have been tolerable if they ended with the crowning moment. But their
harmful impact is felt long afterwards in the way they affect values, society and especially young girls.

First, let’s look at the impact on the winners. This year’s bumper harvest of the Lara Dutta-Priyanka Chopra
victory aroused much less excitement than the first time India reaped such a harvest with Sushmita Sen
and Aishwarya Rai. It’s with difficulty that one can remember last year’s winner. What must it be like for an
18-year-old to be the cynosure of the world for a year and then be dumped and forgotten in a matter of
years? They are both products and victims of a short-attention-span world. What psychological disorders
would yesterday’s winners be coping with today?

The losers are in a far worse plight. Think of all the years they have spent exercising, dieting, siliconing and
liposuctioning. And then comes that moment of crushing defeat. All that effort and sacrifice for nothing.
They had been focused so obsessively on winning a beauty pageant that they ignored their education.
Broken dreams entombed in broken bodies.

But the world does not see that, it sees only the glamour of the diamond tiara, the triumphant jubilation, the
resplendent smiles, the teary eyes and quivering lips of heady emotion, the overnight half-a-crorepati
financial status and the beginning of a multi-crorepati career as a model or an actress. And yet another
generation of young girls are lured into this minefield. In this perilous journey, they are armed with ambitions
and a set of hypocritical moral values acquired from beauty queens. And those teenagers who can’t even
compete because they lack beauty, poise and siliconed perfection flounder in the debris of their self-
esteem.

When the joy of a bumper harvest subsides, we see the real winner is the ‘humble farmer’. And this does
not refer to the humble farmer who has been cheated of his procurement price, nor to Deve Gowda about
whom this label was first coined. This is the new Miss World.

127. The author feels that

a. the agricultural production scene is thriving in India.
b. there is a glut in the beauty pageant scene.
c. anything is better than being known for poverty and disasters.
d. it is better to be known for a famine where beauty queens are concerned.

128. The author is of the opinion that feminist opposition to beauty pageants is
a. invalid. b. a majority perspective.
c. justified. d. to be dismissed.

129. The word ‘perpetrate’ used in the context of the passage could mean
a. to penetrate the perception.
b. to permeate the ambience.
c. to be perplexed and confused.
d. to be passed around as genuine.

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 29

130. The author feels that the answer of Priyanka Chopra was all of the below except
a. it showed that she was clueless about the current affairs.
b. it showed that she heard the question right at least.
c. it showed that she probably didn’t know that Mother Teresa had died along the way.
d. it showed that she was rather nervous.

131. The word ‘platitude’ in the passage means

a. a plateau. b. a word of gratitude.
c. an expected remark. d. an honest statement.

132. The author feels that

a. it is less savvy to be hypocritical than honest.
b. it is more savvy to be hypocritical than honest.
c. it is more savvy to be hypocritical as honest.
d. it is more savvy to be honest than hypocritical.

133. Liberal Indians

a. see Indian in the way Priyanka Chopra portrayed herself.
b. felt irritated over the pretty damsel’s Indianness.
c. condemned the evening gown that Priyanka wore.
d. None of the above

134. The author feels that the impact of beauty contests is felt on all of the below except
a. values. b. young girls and society.
c. yesterday’s winners. d. None of these

135. What does the author refer to as a ‘minefield’ here?

a. The cynosure b. The beauty pageant
c. The financial status d. The perilous journey

Page 30 Mock CAT Test – 4

 Section – 1V

Direction for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions based on the table given below.
Three items A, B and C are manufactured by combining components in certain weights of composition
x, y and z.
The manufacturer has 120 kg of x, 260 kg of y and 300 kg of z. He wishes to use the material judiciously.
The table below gives the composition of three items and the profit percentage earned by them.

A B C

Co m p o s itio n x y z x y z x y z

1 kg 2 kg 3 kg 3 kg 2 kg 1 kg 4 kg 1 kg 3 kg

Pr o f i t
10% 20% 25%
p er c en t ag e

The cost price of x : y : z is 1 : 2 : 3.

136. Which item must be manufactured to get the maximum revenues from the existing stock?
a. Only A b. Only B c. Only C d. Both A and B

137. Which item must be manufactured to get the highest profit from the existing stock?
a. Only B b. Only C c. Only A d. None of these

138. Which item must be manufactured to get the highest profitability?

 Profit of the item sold 
 Profitability = × 100 
 Cost price of the item sold 
a. Only A b. Only B c. Only C d. None of these

139. If 20 items of C are produced, what is the composition of the remaining items in order to maximize
the profit?
a. 13 of B b. 5 of B, 15 of A c. 10 of B, 10 of A d. 40 of A

140. What is the maximum number of items that can be produced?

a. 20 of B, 60 of A b. 20 of C, 40 of A
c. 80 of A, 6 of B d. 100 of A

Direction for questions 141 to 144: Answer the questions based on the following information.
In a college, students specialize in four subjects — finance, marketing, systems and operations. The
college has 400 students. Every student specializes in exactly two subjects.
100 students specialize in both Marketing and Finance.
70 students specialize in both Marketing and Systems.
50 students specialize in both Finance and Systems.
Equal number of students specialize in all the other possible dual specializations.

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 31

141. How many students specialize in Finance?
a. 220 b. 210 c. 160 d. Cannot be determined

142. How many students specialize in either Marketing or Systems?

a. 270 b. 340 c. 410 d. None of these

143. If 20% of the students taking Finance failed, what is the maximum failure percentage of students
who have appeared for both Systems and Finance?
a. 80 b. 84 c. 42 d. 20

144. If every dual specialization has a 80% passing rate (a student passes if he passes in both the
subjects), find the number of people passing in the class.
a. 320 b. 280 c. 240 d. None of these

Direction for questions 145 to 147: Answer these questions based on the data presented in the figure
given below.
The graphs below show the number of dotcoms and the total revenue of dotcoms in India from 1997-98 to
2000-01.

Re ve nue of dotcom s
2000
Number of dotcoms

1500 500 450

1500 1200
900 1000 400
Rs. in crores

1000 300
300 250
500 190
200
0 100
1997-98 1998-99 1999-2000 2000-2001
0
Ye ars 1997-98 1998-99 1999-2000 2000-2001
Ye ars

145. The average revenue of a dotcom has increased by ___ over the period 1998-99 to 2000-01.
a. 173% b. 100% c. 184% d. 130%

146. If company X which contributed 10% of the market share in 1998-99 grew by 15%, what is its market
share in 2000-01?
a. 3% b. 4.2% c. 4.9% d. 6.2%

147. What is the compounded growth rate of revenue per dotcom in the given period?
a. 22% b. 25% c. 39% d. 35%

Page 32 Mock CAT Test – 4

Direction for questions 148 to 152: Answer the questions based on the table given below.
The following table gives the time required to do the activities A to H in man-hour.

Activity A B C D E F G H

Time taken (in man-hour) 100 600 200 1000 750 150 250 450

The order of precedence of the activities are mentioned below.

I. B cannot be started before A.
II. E has to be started only after C is completed.
III. F, G can be started only after D is completed.
IV. H can be started only after G is completed.

The remaining can be started at any point of time as long as they do not violate these precedence conditions.
The job is completed only when all the activities are finished.

148. If there are 100 men working on the project, all working on the same activity at any point of time,
what is the minimum time needed to finish the project?
a. 25 hr b. 30 hr c. 35 hr d. 75 hr

149. If there are 100 men working on the project at any instant, what is the minimum number of days
needed to complete the project? (Each worker puts in 10 hours per day).
a. 10 days b. 3.5 days c. 35 days d. Data insufficient

150. What is the minimum number of men needed to complete the job in less than or equal to 5 days?
a. 28 b. 30 c. 35 d. 32

151. Which is the last activity to be completed?

a. B b. E c. H d. Data insufficient

152. If the activity D was completed by people who were 40% as efficient as the original estimates, how
long would it take to finish the activity D if 50 men worked on that?
a. 50 hr b. 20 hr c. 70 hr d. None of these

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 33

Direction for questions 153 to 155: Answer the questions based on the table given below.
The table below gives the percentage break-up of customer complaints received by Indian Airlines in
various categories in the years 1980 and 1981.

Category 1980 1981

(Per cent) (Per cent)

Flight problems 20.0 22.1

B aggage 18.3 21.8

Customer service 13.1 11.3

Oversales of seats 10.5 11.8

Refund problems 10.1 8.1

Fares 6.4 6.0

Reservations and ticketing 5.8 5.6

Tours 3.3 2.3

Smoking 3.2 2.9

Advertising 1.2 1.1

Credit 1.0 0.8

Special passengers 0.9 0.9

Others 6.2 5.3

Total 100.00 100.00

Total number of complaints 22,988 13,278

153. What is the percentage increase or decrease change in number of complaints received by Indian
Airlines regarding flight problems in 1981 over 1980?
a. –36.5% b. 30.2% c. –29% d. 33.4%

154. What is the percentage decrease in number of people complaining in Indian Airlines from 1980 to
1981?
a. 38% b. 42.2% c. 49% d. Data insufficient

155. If 40% of the complaints lodged in 1980 were made by foreign tourists and the number increased by
5% in 1981, what is the percentage of total complaints made by foreign tourists in 1981?
a. 62.5 b. 72.7 c. 82 d. None of these

Page 34 Mock CAT Test – 4

Direction for questions 156 to 160: Answer the questions based on the table below.
The following table gives details about the various types of cases handled by a hospital over a three year
period, 1999-2001.

1999 2000 2001 Average revenue per

patient ( in Rs. )

Outpatients treated 80560 90388 95450 60

Inpatients treated 9000 10800 10817 1000

Cardiac catheterization 2678 4156 4991 5000

Angiography 2816 3868 4892 2500

Coronary angiograms 1892 2862 3072 3000

Temporary pacing 160 232 220 1600

Permanent pacing 68 100 105 2000

156. What is the ratio of number of outpatients to inpatients over the three-year period?
a. 8 : 8 b. 9 : 2 c. 9 : 1 d. 9 : 4

157. Among the following, which has registered the maximum growth between 1999 and 2001?
a. Permanent pacing 54% b. Coronary angiogram 62.4%
c. Temporary pacing 37.5% d. Cardiac catheterization 86%

158. What was the annualized growth in total number of patients over the three-year period?
a. 11.51% b. 10.86% c. 11.35% d. 13.20%

159. What was the percentage increase in revenue between 1999 and 2000?
a. 38.4 b. 35.7 c. 43.5 d. 38.9

160. If it costs the hospital on an average Rs. 400 per patient, what was the profit in 2001?
a. 15 million b. 25 million c. 30 million d. 40 million

Direction for questions 161 to 170: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions.

Mark:
a. if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by
using the other statement alone.
b. if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
c. if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered
by using either statement alone.
d. if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 35

161. If N is an integer, what is its value?

N2
I. is a perfect square.
3

N3
II. is a perfect square.
3

162. Is A ∪ (B ∩ C)' = φ ? U ≠ φ , U is universal set.

I. B ∩ C = φ
II. A = φ

163. In a family of three generations, find the number of parents.

I. Four are only parents.
II. Twelve are children.

164.
(2, 3)
3
2
a
–2
1 2
–1

Fill the table.

X –3 3 1 2

Y 3

I. a = 1
II. The slant line is parallel to y = x.

165. Find the value of a6 – b6 .

.
I. a6 + b6 = 128
II. a – b = 0

166. If n is a positive integer, then the value of (b – a) at least twice the value of (3n – 2n)?
I. a = 2n+1 and b = 3n+1
.
II. n = 3

167. Is 7x2 + 3 even?

I. 14x + 6 is even
II. x is odd

Page 36 Mock CAT Test – 4

168. Is x an even number?
I. x3 + x2y + x is an odd number
II. y is an odd number

169. bc = 0. Is a positive?
I. a > b
II. a > c

170. Let c1and c2 be two circles one inside the other. The radius of bigger circle c2 is 80.5 m. Find the area
of c2 excluding c1.
I. The two circles are concentric.
II. They touch each other and c1 passes through the centre of c2.

171. A cable of length 16 m hangs between two pillars each 15 m high. The ends of the cable are
attached to the top of the pillars. At its lowest point, the cable hangs 7 m above the ground. How far
are the two pillars apart?
a. 0 m b. 9 m c. 2 m d. None of these

172. In a distant dark forest, 400 highly intelligent dwarfs live, all look exactly alike, but only difference is
that they are wearing either a red or a blue hat. There are 200 dwarfs with red hats and 200 dwarfs
with blue hats. The dwarfs don’t know these numbers themselves and that none of them knows the
colour of his hat (there are, for example, no mirrors in this forest). The only thing they know is that
there is at least one red hat and one blue hat. Unfortunately they cannot communicate among
themselves. Now, there is a big party in this forest that lasts for 10 years, to which initially all dwarfs
go. However, this party is only intended for dwarfs wearing blue hats. Dwarfs with red hats are never
supposed to return to the party again, as soon as they know that they are wearing red hats. How
many days does it take before there are no more dwarfs with red hats left at the party?
a. 1000 b. 200 c. 400 d. Data insufficient

Direction for questions 173 to 177: Answer the questions based on the following information.
There are four boxes on a shelf arranged in a straight horizontal line. Each box contains a pair of gloves and
a scarf, no box contains a pair of gloves and a scarf of the same colour. Neither are the colours of the gloves
nor scarves same as the colour of the box. All the four boxes, four pairs of gloves and the four scarves are
either red, green, blue or yellow. No two boxes are of same colour, no two scarves are of the same colour,
and no two pairs of gloves are of same colour. The red scarf is in the box next to the box containing the pair
of green gloves. The yellow gloves are in the box next to the green box which is next to the box containing
green scarf. The box on the extreme left is red. The blue gloves are in the box next to the box containing
blue scarf. The yellow box isn’t next to the blue box which is next to the box containing the red gloves. The
green scarf is in the blue box or the yellow box. The yellow scarf is not in the red box which is not, next to
the box containing the yellow gloves.

173. Which gloves are there in the red box?

a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. Yellow

Mock CAT Test – 4 Page 37

174. Which gloves are there in the yellow box?
a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. Yellow

175. Which scarf is there in the blue box?

a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. Yellow

176. Which scarf is there along with the blue gloves?

a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. Yellow

177. Which scarf is there in the green box?

a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. Yellow

Direction for questions 178 to 180: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Once in my life when I happened to make an inquiry to three young girls, Ramba, Urvashi and Meneka
about their ages (a blunder which I regret till this day), this is what I was told.
Meneka : The difference between Urvashi’s age and mine is three years.
Ramba : Urvashi is the youngest.
Urvashi : Either I am 24-year-old or Ramba 25 or Meneka 26.
Ramba : All are above 24 years of age.
Meneka : I am the eldest if and only if Urvashi is not the youngest.
Urvashi : Meneka is elder to me.
Ramba : I am the eldest.
Urvashi : Ramba is not 27 years of age.
Meneka : The sum of my age and Ramba’s age is 2 more than twice Urvashi’s age.

They also conveyed to me that one of them had been telling a lie throughout whereas other two have
spoken the truth and nothing but the truth. It was too much for me to make sense out of what they had
said. Can you help me in determining their ages?

178. What is Meneka’s age?

a. 26 b. 23 c. 27 d. 25

179. What is Ramba’s age?

a. 26 b. 23 c. 24 d. 25

180. What is Urvashi’s age?

a. 26 b. 28 c. 23 d. 24

Page 38 Mock CAT Test – 4