UNIT Vi

Reproduction

Chapter 1
Reproduction in Organisms

Chapter 2
Sexual Reproduction in flowering Plants

Chapter 3
Human Reproduction

Chapter 4
Reproductive Health
CHAPTER 2 - SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

SECTION A (1 mark each)

Multiple Choice Questions: (Choose the correct option)

1. Which of the following cells secrete enzyme to dissolve the nucellus and create an entry for
the male germ cells?
i) Synergids ii) Egg cell iii) Both a and b iv) None

2. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and female plant is tetraploid, the ploidy of
endosperm is?
i) Tetraploid ii) Pentaploid iii) Haploid iv) Triploid

3. Which of the following plant is not pollinated by water?

i) Vallisneria ii) Water Hyacinth iii) Hydrilla iv) Zostera

4. Which one undergoes meiosis?

i) PMC ii) Root tip iii) Pollen Grain iv) Antipodal

5. Apomixis means:
i) Sexual reproduction ii) Formation of seed without fusion of gametes
iii) Vegetative propagation iv) Formation of Seedless Fruit
6. How many microspores and megaspores would be required respectively to produce 200
embryos?
i) 200, 200 ii) 100, 200 iii) 50, 200 iv) 50, 100

7. Identify the type of pollination shown by Viola -

i) Autogamy ii) only Cleistogamy iii) Geitonogamy iv) Xenogamy

8. Which of the following is the only type of pollination which during pollination brings
genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?
i) Geitonogamy ii) Xenogamy iii) Autogamy iv) Cleistogamy

9. Which of the following does not have an albuminous seed?

i) coconut ii) barley iii) pea iv) castor

10. Which of the following is different with respect to ploidy?

i) Tapetum ii) Nucellus iii) Cotyledon iv) Endosperm
11. Which of the following do not have two types of flowers – chasmogamous and
cleistogamous?
i) cucurbits ii) pansy iii) Viola iv) Commelina

12. Which of the following has one ovule in one ovary?

i) papaya ii) paddy iii) water melon iv) orchids

13. Which of the following has many ovules in one ovary?

i) wheat ii) paddy iii) papaya iv) mango

14. Which of these is a dry fruit?

i) groundnut ii) guava iii) orange iv) mango

15. Scutellum is another name for:

i) Micropyle ii) Cotyledon iii) Coleoptile iv) Coleorrhiza

SECTION B (2 marks each)

Q 1. i) Write the difference between the tender coconut water and the thick, white
kernel of a mature coconut and their ploidy.
ii) Why is tender coconut considered healthy source of nutrition?

Q 2. Which parts of flower develop into perisperm and pericarp?

Q 3. Banana fruit is said to be parthenocarpic whereas turkey is said to be

parthenogenetic. Why?

Q 4. How does the tallest flower of Amorphophallus get pollinated? State another example of
similar kind.

Q 5. Differentiate between the seeds of wheat and groundnut on the basis of endosperm. Also
name these seeds.

Q 6. Angiosperms bearing unisexual flowers are said to be either monoecious or dioecious.

Explain with the help of one example each.

Q 7. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set even in the absence of pollinators. How?

Q 8. State four characteristic features of wind pollinated flowers.

Q 9. State two characteristics of pollen of submerged water plants like sea grass, Zostera.

Q 10. Some flowers, selected for artificial hybridization, do not require emasculation but
bagging is essential for them. Give a reason.

Q 11. A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed and dithecous. Explain.

Q 12. Complete autogamy is rather rare. State two conditions essential for autogamy.

Q 13. Justify giving reasons:

i) Distribution of some bryophytes and pteridophytes is limited.
ii) Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
 Q 14. State one difference each in the pollination of aquatic plants:
i) Water lily and Hydrilla ii) Vallisneria and Zostera.

Q 15. i) Who are pollen / nectar robbers?

ii) Pollination alone does not always ensure pollen germination.
Justify.

Q 16. This picture shows the gynoecium of (A) Papaver and (B)
Michellia
flowers. Write the difference in the structure of their ovaries.

Q 17. Differentiate between coleoptile and coleorrhiza.

Q 18. Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental sequence. Pollen grain,
Sporogenous tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, male gametes.

Q 19. Justify the following:

i) A malfunctioning tapetum fails to produce viable male gametophytes.
ii) Hybrid seeds need to be produced every year.

Q 20. Name:
i) The plant that came into India as contaminant with imported wheat and is responsible
for causing pollen allergy.
ii) One seed that has retained viability for thousands of years.
iii) Two animals which are pollinating agents.

Q 21. State two features of seeds that make them suitable for storage

Q 22. List the post - fertilisation events in

angiosperms.

Q 23. Differentiate between autogamy and

geitonogamy.

Q 24. In the section of apple, label ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’

and ‘d’

Q 25. State the origin, characteristics and fate of a megaspore mother cell.

SECTION C (3 marks each)

Q 1. (a) How does a farmer use the dormancy of seeds to his advantage?
(b) What advantages a seed provides to a plant?

Q 2. Why do hermaphrodite angiosperms develop out breeding devices? Explain any two such
devices with the help of examples.

Q 3. Define geitonogamy. State its one similarity each with autogamy and xenogamy.

Q 4. Describe the structure of a mature pollen grain.

Q 5. What are floral rewards? State their significance.

Q 6. Draw a diagram of L.S. of an embryo of grass and label any six parts.

Q 7. i) Why are pollen preserved as fossils?

ii) How are pollen preserved in pollen banks?

Q 8. i) Explain Double Fertilisation.

ii) State its significance.

Q 9. State the location and functions of the following:

i) Filliform Apparatus ii) Coleorhiza iii) PEN

Q 10. i) State two devices that prevent autogamy.

ii) How can both autogamy and geitonogamy be prevented?

Q 11. i) Mention the pollinating agent of an inflorescence of small, dull colored flowers with
well exposed stamens and large feathery stigma.
ii) State any one characteristic of pollen grains produced by these flowers.
iii) Name the part of flower which the tassels of corn - cob represent.

Q 12. Differentiate between parthenogenesis and parthenocarpy.

Q 13. i) Identify the given figure.

ii) Name the initial cell from which this structure has developed.
iii) Draw the next mature stage and label the parts.

Q 14. Explain pollination in sea grass, Zostera.

Q15. Explain pollination in Vallisneria.

Q 16. Differentiate between Microsporogenesis and Megasporogenesis.

Q 17. How does an embryo of grass differ from the embryo of bean?

Q16. Differentiate between:

i) Hypocotyl and Epicotyl ii) Integument and Testa

Q 17. Endosperm and Perisperm are two nutritive tissues. With the help of one example each,
explain how they are different from each other?

Q 18. Differentiate an embryo with endosperm with respect to origin, ploidy and fate.

Q 19. State any three significances of fruit formation.

SECTION D (3 marks each)

Q 1. A researcher attempts making apomictics of hybrid seeds.

i) What are the advantages of this attempt?
ii) How does it occur naturally in mango?
iii) How do you think this experiment will help the farmer?

Q 2. Pollens from flowers are of ecological as well economic value for humans.
i) How are they economically beneficial for us?
ii) How can pollen grains be harmful for humans?
.

Q 3. i) Brinjal flower is chasmogamous while pea flower is cleistogamous. How are the two
flowers different from each other?
ii) State the pollinating agents of the following: water hyacinth, grass, sunflower, Hydrilla..

Q 4. A farmer has set up bee hives near his maize fields. Do you think that this will help to
increase the yield? Justify.

Q 5. Explain the steps of artificial hybridisation in bisexual and unisexual flowers.

Q 6. i) The wind and water pollinated flowers produce enormous amount of pollen when
compared to the number of ovules available for pollination. Justify.
ii) Give two examples each of wind and water pollinated flowers.

Q 7. Mango is a true fruit, apple is a false fruit while banana is a Parthenocarpic fruit. How are
they different from each other?

Q 8. i) State an example of a fruit in which induced parthenocarpy would be very beneficial.

ii) Banana is a Parthenocarpic fruit while orange exhibits Polyembryony. How are they
different with reference to their seeds?

Q 9. List any three advantages that seeds offer to angiosperms.

Q 10. i) Plan an experiment and prepare a flow chart of steps that you would follow to ensure
that seeds are formed only from the desired set of pollen grain. Name the type of
experiment that you carried out.

ii) Write the importance of such experiments.

Q 11. Cultivation of hybrid varieties of crops is known to increase productivity. Still many
farmers are not adopting them due to some problems.
i) Explain any two problems faced by the farmers.
ii) Suggest a method to overcome these problems.

SECTION E (5 marks each)

Q 1. Draw a fertilized embryo sac. Describe its development into a dicot embryo.

Q 2. A flower of tomato plant produced 400 viable seeds. Answer the following questions giving
reasons:
i) How many ovules are minimally involved?
ii) How many microspore mother cells are involved?
iii) How many megaspore mother cells are involved?
iv) What is the minimum number of pollen grains that must land on the stigma for
pollination?
v) How many male gametes are involved in the process?
 Q 3. i) In the Figure 4 of fertilized embryo – sac, identify ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’.
ii) State the fate of ‘a’ and ‘b’.
iii) State the fate of antipodal cells and synergids after fertilisation.
iv) How would the knowledge of pollen – pistil interaction help a
plant breeder?

Q 4. What do you mean by monosporic development of female

gametophyte? With a neat diagram explain the 7-celled, 8 nucleate
nature of female gametophyte.

Q 6. i) Describe in sequence the process of development of female

gametophyte from megaspore mother cell in angiosperms.
ii) Draw a labelled diagram of the final structure formed.

Q 5. In the diagram of a part of T. S. of anther, identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’,

‘e’
and state their functions.

Q 7. i) Define Apomixis?
ii) State its advantages.
iii) How does it occur?
iv) How is it different from parthenocarpy?

Q 8. Explain the post pollination events up to double fertilisation, that occur in an angiosperm.

Q 9. With the help of diagrams, trace the development of male gametophyte from microspore
mother cell.

Q 10. Majority of the angiosperm pollen are shed at 2 –celled stage.

i) Differentiate between the two cells.
ii) Differentiate between the two protective layers of the pollen.
iii) Why are pollen preserved as fossils?

Q 11. i) Draw L. S. of an anatropous ovule and label micropyle, funiculus, integuments,

embryo sac and chalaza.
ii) State the functions of micropyle, funiculus and integuments.

Q 12. Diagrammatically differentiate between a mature embryo sac and a fertilized

embryo sac.
 CHAPTER 3 - HUMAN REPRODUCTION

SECTION A (1 mark each)

Multiple Choice Questions: (Choose the correct option)

1. Which of the following group of hormones are produced from placenta?

i) Estrogen, hPL, FSH ii) hCG, hPL, Progesterone
iii) Progesterone, hPL, LH iv) hCG, hPL, ICSH

2. Which of the following groups of cells in male gonad represent the haploid cells?
i) Spermatogonia ii) Germinal Epithelial Cells
iii) Secondary Spermatocytes iv) Primary Spermatocytes

3. In early stages of Vertebrate cleavage, successive blastomeres:

i) Are equal in size to that of the original zygote ii) Become smaller and smaller
iii) Grow larger and larger iv) Migrate to positions of future development

4. The _________________ are the first haploid cells during oogenesis:

i) Oogonia ii) Primary Oocyte iii) Secondary Oocyte iv) Ovum

5. During the ____________________ phase of menstruation, the lining of uterus starts to

rebuilt:
i) Menstrual ii) Proliferate iii) Secretory iv) The lining of uterus rebuilds
continuously
6. Which of the following do not have a cavity?
a) Human egg b) blastocyst c) Graafian follicle d) morula

i) a) only ii) b) and c) iii) a) and d) iv) d) only

7. Androgens are synthesized by:

i) Sertoli Cells ii) Leydig cells iii) Seminal vesicles iv) Bulbourethral
gland

8. The doctors inject --------------------- to induce delivery.

i) Relaxin ii) Oxytocin iii) hCG iv) Prolactin

9. Humans are sexually reproducing and ---------------------.

i) Unisexual, viviparous ii) Unisexual, oviparous
iii) Bisexual, viviparous iv) Bisexual, oviparous
 SECTION B (2 marks each)

Q 1. The testes are situated outside the

abdominal cavity within a pouch called
scrotum. State the function of scrotum.

Q 2. State the functions of testis and

ovaries.

Q 3. Identify the events that occur in the

labelled sites in the given figure.

Q 4. In the figure depicting a pregnant woman and assuming the

developing foetus to be a female, name the cells that would be present in
the foetus ovary.
Also state the relationship of X with the pregnant woman.

Q 5. In the given figure,

i) Name the space marked ‘a’ outside egg membrane and
extra
egg membranes, ‘b’ and ‘c’.
ii) The stage has been released from the ovary and is
present in the
fallopian tube. Name the stage of egg development.

Q 6. Differentiate between extra egg membranes, zona pellucida and

corona radiata.

Q 7. Differentiate between menarche and menopause.

Q 8. Name and define the event being depicted in the figure.

Where is it occuring?

Q 9. Identify the stage shown in the figure. Describe its

structure briefly.Name its next stage.

Q 10. Differentiate between Sertoli cell and Leydig cell.

Q 11. What happens to corpus luteum in human

female if
the ovum is (i) fertilized, (ii) not fertilized?
 Q 12. Identify the events ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ to ‘F’ and ‘H’ in
the
development of embryo.

Q 13. Why is breast-feeding recommended during

the
initial period of an infant’s growth? Give
three
reasons.

Q 14. How many eggs are released by a human ovary

in a
month? How many eggs do you think would have
been
released if the mother gave birth to identical
twins?
Would your answer change if the twins born
were
fraternal?
How many eggs do you think were released by
the
ovary of a female dog which gave birth to 6
puppies?
Q 15 During oogenesis, primary oocyte divides by meiosis
unequally into a large haploid secondary oocyte and a
tiny
first polar body. The secondary oocyte retains bulk of
the
nutrient rich cytoplasm of the primary oocyte.
What is the advantage for this?
Q16 Why is parturition called a neuroendocrine mechanism

.
SECTION C (3 marks each)

Q 1. i) Identify the parts ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.

ii) State the number of ‘d’ in each testis.
iii) What is located in ‘d’?

Q 2. Trace the path of spermatozoa from seminiferous tubule

to
exterior.
 3. In the given figure, label the male accessory glands and state their functions.

Q 4. In the diagram showing a part of the human female

reproductive system,
i) Name the uterine layers marked ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’.
ii) State the functions of ‘a’ and ‘b’.
iii) State the shape of uterus.

Q 5. i) In the pictorial representation of

spermatogenesis,
label the processes A, B and C.
iii) When does the process begin in human males
and under the influence of which hormone?
iii) Where do sperms get nutrition from?

Q 6. i) Draw a Graafian follicle and label antrum and

secondary oocyte.
ii) Name the protective layers present.
iv) Name the structure Graafian follicle gets
transformed into.

Q 7. Differentiate between follicular phase and luteal phase of menstrual cycle.

Q 8. Draw a well –labelled diagram of human sperm.
Q 9. Explain the role of pituitary and sex hormones in the process of spermatogenesis.
Q 10. Given figures depict a sequence of development stages that a zygote ‘a’ undergoes.
i) Name the divisions that result in the formation of ‘c’.
ii) How are these divisions different from normal division?
iii) Name the cells ‘X’.
iv)Where are these stages occuring?
v) Name ‘Y’ and explain its significance.
 Q 11. i) Identify the developmental stage depicted in the figure.
ii) Label (i) and (ii) and state their functions.
iii) What is the fate of this stage?

Q 12. Identify the labels ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ in the figure.
Why is ‘C’ rudimentary in humans?

Q 13. i) What is the fate of inner cell mass immediately

after
implantation?
ii) What are stem cells?

Q 14. Answer the following with reference to the figure given below:

i) Identify and differentiate between ‘e’ and ‘g’.

ii) Name the event occurring in ‘f’. Name the hormones responsible for it.
iii) Describe the simultaneous events occurring in the uterus from ‘g’ to ‘i’.

SECTION D (3 marks each)

Q 1. About 300 million spermatozoa may be present in a human male ejaculation at one time.
Calculate how many:
i) spermatogonia will be involved to produce this number of spermatozoa?
ii) Secondary spermatocytes will be formed?
iii) Define Spermiation.

Q 2. Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis

Q 3. In the flow chart depicting hormonal control of spermatogenesis, identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’
‘e’
and ‘f’.
Q 4. i) Draw a sectional view of seminiferous tubules of human. Label Sertoli cells,
spermatagonia
and Leydig cells on it and write their functions.

Q 5. Explain with reason:

i) Not all copulations lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.
ii) Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum. (Or how can polyspermy be prevented?)
iii) The sex of the baby has been decided at zygote stage itself.

Q 6. The given picture depicts kit for detection of

pregnancy.
What is the principle behind this kit?

Q 7. i) A woman misses menstruation and goes to the

doctor to
find out if she is pregnant after a month. How will
the
doctor find out?
ii) It is advised to a pregnant woman to be careful and
not get
undue exposure to radiations or chemicals, especially
during the first three months of pregnancy / first
trimester.
Why?
iv) On confirmation of pregnancy by the doctor, when
will
the pregnant woman first feel the baby?

SECTION E (5 marks each)

Q 1. How many cells are located inside testis?

Name them and state their functions
respectively.

Q 2. In the figure depicting human female

reproductive system, label the parts – ‘a’, ‘b’,
‘c’,
‘d’, ‘e’, ‘f’ and ‘g’.
State the functions of ‘b’ and ‘f’.
 Q 3. In the schematic diagram of a part of testis,
i) Name the processes ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
ii) Name the different cells form a → e.
iii) State the ploidy of cells a, b and c.

Q 4. i) In the given diagram of human

sperm,
label ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’ and state their
functions.

ii) State the conditions necessary

regarding sperm number and structure
for fertility.

Q 5. i) In the figure depicting a section of human

ovary, identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
ii) Name the stage of oogenesis found in ‘a’,
‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
iii) When will ‘a’ be formed? State the
number of ‘a’.
v) Which of the following stages will show
meiosis I? Name the resulting daughter
cells.

Q 6. Explain the events in a normal woman during her menstrual cycle on the following days.
i) Ovarian events from 3-12 days
ii) Ovarian events from 13-15 days
iii) Ovarian events from 16 to 23 days
iv) Ovarian hormones level from 3-12 days
v) Ovarian hormones level from 16 to 23 days

Q 7. Explain the events in a normal woman during her menstrual cycle on the following days.
i) Uterine events from 3-12 days
ii) Uterine events from 16 to 23 days
iii) Uterine events from 24 to 29 days.
iv) Pituitary hormones level from 3-12 days
v) Pituitary hormones level from 13 to 15 days
Q 8. The graph given below shows the variation in the levels of ovarian hormones during
various
phases of menstrual cycle:
i) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.
ii) Specify the source of
the hormone marked
in the diagram.
iii) Reason out why A
peaks before B.
iv) Compare the roles of A and B.
v) Under which condition will the level of B continue to remain high on the 28th day?

Q 9. Describe the steps of spermatogenesis.

Q 10. Explain Oogenesis.

Q 11. Briefly explain the events of fertilization, cleavage and implantation in an adult human
female.

Q 12. Explain the main events of menstrual cycle in a human female.

Q 13. After implantation inter -digitation of maternal and foetal tissues takes place. Identify
the
tissues involved. Name the structure formed and state its functions.

Q 14. Define gestation and parturition? Mention how it is induced.

 CHAPTER 4 - Reproductive Health

SECTION A (1 mark each)

Multiple Choice Questions: (Choose the correct option)

1. Which of the following is not a copper releasing IUDs?

i) CuT ii) Cu7 iii) Multiload 375 iv) Lippes loop

2. Which of the following was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute
(CDRI)
in Lucknow, India?
i) Nirodh ii) Saheli iii) 72 – hour pill iv) Mala –D

3. Which of the following is a terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies?

i) Vasectomy ii) Periodic abstinence iii) IUDs iv) Implants

4. Which of the following is transmitted just like AIDS?

i) Gonorrhoea ii) chlamydiasis iii) trichomoniasis iv) hepatitis-B

5. In test tube baby programme, where is the embryo with more than 8 blastomeres
transferred?
i) fallopian tube ii) Uterus iii) Cervix iv) Ovary

6. A procedure that finds use in testing for genetic disorders, but is also misused for foeticide
is:
i) Lactational amenorrhea ii) Amniocentesis iii) Artificial insemination iv) Parturition

7) ‘Family planning’ programmes were initiated in –

i) 1951 ii) 1952 iii) 1961 iv) 1962

8) Government of India legalised MTP in –

i) 1961 ii) 1971 iii) 1981 iv) 1991

SECTION B (2 marks each)

Q 1. Define reproductive health according to WHO. Which society will be called a

reproductively
healthy society?

Q 2. Expand RCH programmes. State the aim of these programmes.

Q 3. Govt. of India has raised the marriageable age of female to 18 yrs. and of males to 21 yrs.
 Suggest any two more measures adopted by Government for the purpose.

Q 4. A childless couple has agreed for a test tube baby programme. List only the basic steps the
procedure would involve to conceive the baby.

Q 5. Expand ICSI. Under what conditions will the doctor advice it?

Q 6. i) In case of an infertile couple, the male partner can inseminate normally but the mobility
of
sperms is below 40 percent. Which kind of ART is suitable in this situation to form an
embryo in the laboratory conditions, without involving a donor?
ii) In another case of an infertile couple, the female who cannot produce egg but can
provide
suitable environment for fertilisation and further development. Which ART would the
doctor suggest to such a couple?

Q 7. A large number of married couples the world over are childless. State any two reasons
responsible for the cause of infertility.

Q 8. State the composition in pills and implants. Why are implants more effective as a
contraceptive in human females?

Q 9. How can a possible pregnancy due to rape or casual unprotected intercourse avoided?
Q 10. Name three common barrier methods for females. State their major advantage.

Q 11. After a successful in vitro fertilization, the fertilized egg

begins
to divide. Where is this egg transferred before it reaches the
8–
celled stage and what is the technique termed?

Q 12. Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive

option. Justify.

Q 13. In the given picture only one contraceptive pill is shown.

Comment on the application of this pill.

SECTION C (3 marks each)

Q 1. Explain amniocentesis? State one advantage and one disadvantage of the technique.
Q 2. i) List any four characteristics of an ideal contraceptive.
ii) Name two intrauterine contraceptive devices that affect the motility of sperms.

Q 3. Write the characteristics of “Saheli” pill.

Q 4. i) Expand STDs?
ii) State 3 common symptoms of STDs?

Q 5. Give three simple principles to prevent STD infections.

Q 6. A childless couple has agreed for a test tube baby programme. List only the basic steps the
procedure would involve to conceive the baby.

Q 7. (i) ZIFT and IUT are part of test tube baby programme. How are they different from each
 other?
ii) Differentiate between GIFT and ZIFT.
SECTION D (3 marks each)

Q 1. Reproductive and Child Healthcare (RCH) programmes are currently in operation. One
of
the major tasks of these programmes is to create awareness amongst people about the
wide
range of reproduction related aspects as this is important and essential for building a
reproductively healthy society.
i) “Providing sex education in schools is one of the ways to meet this goal.” Give four points
in support of your opinion regarding this statement.
ii) List any two ‘indicators’ that indicate a reproductively healthy society.

Q 2. List three reasons for increase in India’s population.

Q 3. The alarming population growth is leading to scarcity of basic requirements. Suggest with
reasons, any three population control measures other than contraception to address the
situation.

Q 4. Mrs. Sarita was eager to know the sex of foetus which her daughter-in-law was carrying.
She
was so anxious that she could pay any amount for that. The doctor refused to disclose the
result of the test as it is banned in the country.
i) How can one know the sex of the foetus? How is it done?
ii) Why is disclosing the sex of the foetus banned in our country?

Q 5. ‘Nirodh’ is a popular brand of condom for the male. Use of condoms has increased in
recent
years. Justify two main benefits of male condoms

Q 6. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) or induced abortion has a significant role in

decreasing the population though it is not meant for that purpose. Government of India
legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse. Under what
circumstances can MTP be conducted by a medical practitioner?

Q 7. Suggest three techniques that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is
with
the male partner.

.
SECTION E (5 marks each)

Q 1. Expand the following:

i) IVF ii) ZIFT iii) IUT iv) MTP v) GIFT

Q 2. A village health worker was taking a session with women. She tells the women that one has
to
 be very careful while using oral pills as method of birth control. Wrong usage can actually
promote conception.
i) Analyse the statement and compare the merits and demerits of using oral pills and
surgical methods of birth control.
ii) Village women were confused as to how a thin metallic Copper loop can provide
protection against pregnancy. Justify the use explaining the mode of action of IUDs.

Q 3. i) How do pills act? Give three reasons.

ii) State two advantages of using pills.

Q 4. i) Name a terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies.

ii) State the principle behind it.
ii) Describe how it is carried out in males and females respectively.
iii) State its major drawback.

Q 5. i) Name ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space
their
children. How are they used?
ii) How many different types are used? State one example of each.
iii) How do these act?

Q 6. State the main principle behind the following:

i) Periodic abstinence ii) Coitus interruptus
iii) Lactational amenorrhea iv) Barrier methods v) Pills.

Q 7. Identify the following contraceptive devices / method.

i) ii) iii) iv) v)