01-06-2025

1001CMD303361250027 MD

PHYSICS

1) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In Vernier calliper if positive zero error exists, then while taking measurements, the
reading taken will be more than the actual reading.
Reason (R) : The zero error in Vernier Calliper might have happened due to manufacturing defect
or due to rough handling.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

2) A physical quantity Z is given by and the percentage errors in measurements of A, B

and C are 1%, 2% and 0.5% respectively. The maximum fractional error in calculation of Z is

(1) 4
(2) 0.5
(3) 1
(4) 0.04

3) If force F acting on a particle as a function of time t is given as , where A, B and C

are constants then dimensional formula of B is

(1) [MLT–2]
(2) [ML2T–2]
(3) [MLT–3]
(4) [MLT–1]

4) If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then energy has
the dimensional formula :-

(1) [P1 A–1 T1]

(2) [P2 A1 T1]
(3) [P1 A–1/2 T1]
(4) [P1 A1/2 T–1]

5) Which of the following pairs of physical quantities does not have same dimensional formula :
(1) Work and torque
(2) Angular momentum and Planck's constant.
(3) Tension and surface tension.
(4) Impulse and linear momentum

6) The number of divisions in circular scale is 50 & pitch of screwguage is 1 mm. Find diameter of

sphere in given figure :-

(1) 1.238 cm
(2) 1.228 cm
(3) 1.218 cm
(4) 1.215 cm

7) Assertion (A) : Radio waves can be polarised.

Reason (R) : Sound waves in air are longitudinal in nature.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A & R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true and R is wrong
(4) Both A and R are wrong

8) Assertion : If white light is used in YDSE, then the central bright fringe will be white Reason :
Because all the wavelengths produce their zero order maxima at the same position

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

9) When a plane wave front incident on a concave mirror as shown in figure, then shape of reflected

wave front :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A Young's double slit apparatus is shown in figure :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Source S move upwards (P) Central fringe moves upwards

(B) A thin glass slab is placed in front of slit S2 (Q) Central fringe moves downward

(C) Whole apparatus is immersed in water (R) Fringe width remains constant

(D) Diameter of slit S2 is doubled (S) Fringe width decreases

(T) Intensity of central maxima increases

(1) A→P, R ; B → Q, R ; C → R, T ; D → R, T
(2) A→Q, R ; B → Q, R ; C → S ; D → R, T
(3) A→P, R ; B → P, R ; C → S ; D → Q, R
(4) A→Q, R ; B → P, R ; C → R, T ; D → R, T

11) The first diffraction minimum due to a single slit diffraction is at θ = 30° for a light of
wavelength 5000 Å. The width of the slit is :-

(1) 5 × 10–5 cm
(2) 1.0 × 10–4 cm
(3) 2.5 × 10–5 cm
(4) 1.25 × 10–5 cm

12)

How much ice at 0°C can be melted by 1 gm of steam at 100°C ?

(1) 3gm
(2) 8 gm
(3) 5 gm
(4) None

13) The R.M.S. velocity of the molecules in a gas at 27ºC is 300m/s. The R.M.S. velocity of the
molecules in the same gas at 927ºC is -

(1) 1200 m/s

(2) 600 m/s
(3) 150 m/s
(4) 75 m/s

14)

A black body is maintained at 27ºC and 927ºC. What will be the ratio of rate of radiations emitted?

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1:16
(3) 1:64
(4) 1 : 256

15) A Polyatomic gas with six degrees of freedom does 75 J of work when it is expanded at constant
pressure. The heat given to the gas is -

(1) 400 J
(2) 500 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 300 J

16) Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is shown in figure.

(1) During the process AB work done by the gas is positive

(2) During the process CD work done by the gas is negative
(3) During the process BC internal energy of the gas is increasing
(4) None

17) P-V diagram of an ideal gas is as shown in figure, Work done by the gas in the process ABCD is :-
(1) 4P0V0
(2) 2P0V0
(3) 3P0V0
(4) P0V0

18) Three curves are shown in the P-V diagram. P, Q and R represent the processes respectively-

(1) isothermal, adiabatic, isometric

(2) isobaric, isothermal, isometric
(3) isometric, isobaric, adiabatic
(4) isometric, isobaric, isothermal

19) One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joule of work adiabaticaly. If

the ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is , the final
temperature of gas will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) The graph shown in the figure represent change in the temperature of 5 kg of a substance as it
absorbs heat at a constant rate of 42 kJ min–1. The latent heat of vapourazation of the substance is :
(1) 630 kJ kg–1
(2) 126 kJ kg–1
(3) 84 kJ kg–1
(4) 12.6 kJ kg–1

21) A bimetallic strip consists of metals X and Y. It is mounted rigidly at the base as shown in the
figure. The metal X has a higher coefficient of expansion as compared to that for metal Y. When the

bimetallic strip is placed in a cold bath :-

(1) It will bend towards the right

(2) It will bend towards the left
(3) It will not bend but shrink
(4) It will neither bend, nor shrink

22) The water equivalent of a copper calorimeter is 4.5 gm. If the specific heat of copper is 0.09
cal/gm/°C :-

(1) mass of the calorimeter is 0.05 kg

(2) thermal capacity of the calorimeter is 4.5 cal/°C
(3) heat required to raise the temperature of the calorimeter by 8°C will be 36 cal
(4) All of these

23) In a steady state, the temperature at the end A and B of 20 cm long rod AB are 100°C and 0°C.
The temperature of a point 9 cm from A is :-

(1) 45°C
(2) 55°C
(3) 5°C
(4) 65°C

24) A ball A has twice the diameter as another ball B of the same material and with same surface
finish. A and B are both heated to the same temperature and allowed to cool in same surrounding
then:
(1) Rate of cooling of A is same as that of B
(2) Rate of cooling of A is twice that of B
(3) Rate of cooling of A is half that of B
(4) Rate of cooling of A is four times that of B

25) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule at 27°C is 6.21 × 10–21 J. Its average kinetic energy
at 227°C will be

(1) 52.2 × 10–21 J

(2) 5.22 × 10–21 J
(3) 10.35 × 10–21 J
(4) 11.35 × 10–21 J

26) Mean kinetic energy (or average energy) per gram molecule of a monoatomic gas is given by :

(1) 3RT/2
(2) kT/2
(3) RT/3
(4) 3kT/2

27) For a diatomic gas, change in internal energy for unit change in temperature at constant
pressure and volume is U1 and U2 respectively then U1 : U2 is :

(1) 5 : 3
(2) 7 : 5
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 5 : 7

28) The pressure exerted on the walls of the container by a gas is due to the fact that gas molecules
are:-

(1) losing their kinetic energy

(2) sticking to the walls
(3) changing their momentum due to collision with the walls
(4) getting accelerated towards the wall

29) Two electrical bulbs marked 40 W, 220 V and 60 W, 220V when connected in series across same
voltage supply of 220 V, the effective power is P1, and when connected in parallel the effective power
is P2. Then (P1/P2) is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.48
(3) 0.24
(4) 0.16

30) A galvanometer of 10 Ω resistance yields complete deflection when 1 mA current flows. What
should be the value of shunt so that it can measure currents upto 100 mA ?

(1) 11.11 Ω
(2) 0.1 Ω
(3) 1.1 Ω
(4) 0.2 Ω

31) The heat produced in the 3Ω resistor due to current flowing through it is H calories per second.

The heat generated per second in the 2Ω resistor is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) An electric kettle has two heating elements. One brings it to boil in ten minutes and the other in
fifteen minutes. If the two heating filaments are connected in parallel, the water in the kettle will
boil in :-

(1) 5 minutes
(2) 25 minutes
(3) 8 minutes
(4) 6 minutes

33) A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is first connected to an external resistance R1 and
then connected to another external resistance R2 for same time. If the heat dissipated in R1 and R2 is
same , then the value of r will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) In the following circuit, bulb rated as 1.5 V, 0.45 W. If bulbs glows with full intensity then what
will be the equivalent resistance between X and Y.

(1) 0.45 Ω
(2) 1 Ω
(3) 3 Ω
(4) 5 Ω

35) A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ω gives full scale deflection when a current of 0.04 A is passed
through it. It is desired to convert it into an ammeter reading upto 20A. The only shunt available is
0.05 Ω resistance. The resistance that must be connected in series with the coil of the galvanometer
is:

(1) 4.95 Ω
(2) 5.94 Ω
(3) 9.45 Ω
(4) 12.62 Ω

36) A capacitor is charged by using a battery which is then disconnected. A dielectric slab is then
slipped between the plates, which results in :-

(1) Reduction of charge on the plates and increase of potential difference across the plates.
Increase in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change
(2)
in the charge on the plates.
Decrease in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change
(3)
in the charge on the plates
(4) None of the above

37) A 10 µF capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 1000 V. The terminals of the charged
capacitor are disconnected from the power supply and connected to the terminals of an uncharged 6
µF capacitor. What is the final potential difference across each capacitor :-

(1) 167 V
(2) 100 V
(3) 625 V
(4) 250 V

38) A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by V potential then it is connected to uncharged

capacitor of same capacity C. What will be energy loss :

(1) CV2

(2)
(3)

(4)

39) Two isolated spherical conductors radii 6 cm and 12 cm respectively. They have charges of 12μC
and –3μC after connecting them by conducting wire common potential will be :-

(1) 9 × 105 volt

(2) 4.5 × 105 volt
(3) 105 volt
(4) 2.25 × 105 volt

40) Four capacitors are connected as shown in the figure. Their capacities are indicated in the

figure. The effective capacitance between points x and y is (in µF) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2

41) A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation
between its plates is 'd'. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of the

dielectrics has dielectric constant K1=3 and thickness while the other one has dielectric constant

K2 = 6 and thickness . Capacitance of the capacitor is now:-

(1) 1.8 pF
(2) 45 pF
(3) 40.5 pF
(4) 20.25 pF

42) A 3µF capacitor is charged to a potential of 400V and 2µF capacitor is charged to 200 V. The
capacitor are then connected in parallel with plates of opposite polarity joined together. What
amount of charge will flow when the plates are so connected :-

(1) 620 µC
(2) 720 µC
(3) 520 µC
(4) 420 µC

43) Six capacitors each of capacitance of 2µF are connected as shown in the figure. The effective

capacitance between A and B is :-

(1) 12 µF

(2)
µF
(3) 3 µF
(4) 6 µF

44) In the given circuit if point C is connected to the earth and a potential of +2000V is given to the

point A, the electric potential at B is :

(1) 1500V
(2) 1000V
(3) 500V
(4) 400V

45) In the given system a capacitor of plate area A is charged up to charge q. The mass of each plate
is m2 .The lower plate is rigidly fixed. Find the value of m1, so that the system is in equilibrium –

(1)

(2) m2

(3)

(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY
1) Correct order of Vanderwaal radius is

(1) N > O > F > Ne

(2) N > O > F << Ne
(3) Li < Be < B < C
(4) P > S > Cl << Ar

2) Covalent radius of Cl is 99 pm. Select best about Cl2 molecule

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II
(Order) (Properties)

B > Tℓ > Ga > Aℓ >

(i) (a) Electron affinity (EA)
In

(ii) Cℓ > F > Br > I (b) Electronagativity (EN)

(iii) F > Cℓ > Br > I (c) Ionisation energy (IP)

B < Ga < Aℓ < In <

(iv) (d) Atomic radius
Tℓ
(1) i – a, ii – b, iii – d, iv – c
(2) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
(3) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
(4) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a

4) The increasing order of the ionic radii of the given isoelectronic species is–

(1) S–2, Cl–, Ca+2, K+

(2) Ca+2, K+, Cl–, S–2
(3) K+, S–2, Ca+2, Cl–
(4) Cl–, Ca+2, K+, S–2

5) Assertion : First ionisation energy of nitrogen is lower than oxygen.

Reason : Across a period effective nuclear charge decreases.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

6) Which one of the following statements is incorrect in relation to ionisation enthalpy ?

(1) Ionization enthalpy increases for each successive electron removal

The greatest increase in ionization enthalpy is experienced on removal of electron from core of
(2)
noble gas configuration.
(3) Determination of valence electrons is marked by a large jump in ionization enthalpy.
Removal of electron from orbitals bearing lower n value is easier than from orbital having
(4)
higher n value.

7) The first four IE values of an element are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ/mole. The no. of valence in
the element one

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

8) The correct values of ionisation energies (in kJ mol–1) of Be, Ne, He and N respectively are

(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256

(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256

9) Select equation having exothermic step :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

10) Which is the correct order of ionization energies?

(1) F– > F > Cl– > Cl
(2) F > Cl > Cl– > F–
(3) F– > Cl– > Cl> F
(4) F– > Cl– > F > Cl

11) Which of the following has maximum difference in electronegativity :-

(1) Li, Mg
(2) B, Al
(3) N, F
(4) B, P

12) Which of the following is different from other three oxides?

(1) MgO
(2) SnO
(3) PbO
(4) ZnO

13) Correct diagram about the acidic strength of oxides :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The compound exhibiting hypervalent covalent bond is

(1) PCl3
(2) BF3
(3)
(4) SF6

15) Which of the iodine compound is formed in 2nd excitation state?

(1) IF7
(2) IF5
(3) ICl
(4) IF3

16) Which of the following overlaps is incorrect (assuming Z-axis is internuclear axis) ?
(A) 2py + 2py → π-bond formation
(B) 2px + 2px → σ-bond formation
(C) 3dxy + 3dxy → π-bond formation
(D) 2s + 2py → π-bond formation
(E) 3dxy + 3dxy → δ-bond formation
(F) 2pz + 2pz → σ-bond formation
(G) pz + dxz → π-bond formation

(1) A,B,C,F
(2) C,F,G
(3) B,E,F
(4) B,C,D,G

17) Consider x-axis as the internuclear axis. Which out of following is correct related to the strength
of covalent bond?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
18)
A and B are :-

(1) Both

(2)
Both

(3)
,

(4)
,

19) The major product of following reaction will be

products

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) On heating sodium propionate with sodalime the hydrocarbon obtained is :-

(1) Butane
(2) Ethane
(3) Propane
(4) Ethene
21) 2-Hexyne can be converted into trans-2-hexene by the action of :

(1) H2–Pd-BaSO4
(2) Na in liq. NH3
(3) H2/Ni
(4) NaBH4

22) Statement-I : In alkene, during electrophilic addition of Br2, cyclic halonium ion is formed.
Statement-II : In alkene, during electrophilic addition of Br2, carbocation rearrangement takes
place.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is incorrect

23)

Elimination reaction of 2-Bromopentane to form pent-2-ene is:

(a) Elimination reaction.
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule.
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction.
(d) Dehydration reaction.
Choose the correct statements

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, c, d

24) Assertion : Boiling point of n-pentane is higher than 2,2-dimethyl propane.

Reason : There is steady increase in boiling point with increase in molecular mass.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

25) Assertion (A) : Propene does not react with sodamide while propyne reacts.
Reason (R) : Propyne has hydrogen attached to sp carbon that show acidic nature with sodamide.

(1) If (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.

26) Assertion : Addition of HBr to 1-butene gives two optical isomers.

Reason : The product contains one asymmetric carbon.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

27) Predict the product C obtained in the following reaction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) P1 CH3 – C ≡ CH P2
P1 & P2 are :-

(1) Positional Isomers

(2) Homomers
(3) Functional group isomers
(4) Tautomers

29) Which of the following carbocation would you expect to re-arrange ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
30)
Product C is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Possible monochloro derivative number of product (excluding stereo isomer) :-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 6

32) Match the reactions given in column I with the catalyst required given in column II.

Column I Column II

a i Mo2O3
2CH4 + O2 2CH3OH

b ii (CH3COO)2Mn

c CH4 + H2O CO + 3H2 iii Cu

 d 2CH3CH3 + 3O2 2CH3COOH + 2H2O iv Ni
The correct match is
(1) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(2) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii
(3) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
(4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i

33)
P should be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH3

34) Which of the following compound has only one type of carbon atoms ?

(1) Neo pentane

(2) Iso butane
(3) Propane
(4) Benzene

35) Which pair of molecules represent correct set of homologues -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

36) Correct IUPAC numbering is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Structure of isobutyl amine is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) CHO-CH(OH)CH(OH)-CH2OH has total

(1) 4 optical isomers

(2) 2 optical isomers
(3) 3 optical isomers
(4) none of these

39) Which of the following compound can exist in two geometrically isomeric forms ?

(1) CH3-C≡C-CH3

(2)
(3) CH3CH2CH=CHCH3
(4) CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2

40) Which of the following compound could be optically active?

(1) 4-Chloro-1-hydroxybutane
(2) Tertiary butyl alcohol
(3) Secondary butyl amine
(4) n-Butyl alcohol

41) Which of the following do not show geometrical isomerism :-

(1) 1,2-Dibromopent-1-ene
(2) 1,1-Dibromopent-1-ene
(3) 1,3-Dibromopent-2-ene
(4) 1,4-Dibromopent-2-ene

42) Which of the following compound has ‘S’ configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) and are

(1) Geometrical isomers

(2) Enantiomers
(3) Identical
(4) Position isomers

44) CH3–CH2–CH2–C≡N;
(A) (B)
Relation between (A) and (B) is :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Identical
(4) Homologous

45)

Which is correctly matched ?

(1)
and Position isomers

(2) and
Functional group isomers

(3)
and Functional isomers

(4)
and Chain isomers

BIOLOGY

1) In the given figure which one of the following represent the correct example of convergent
evolution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Consider the following statements regarding the phenomenon shown in the adjacent figure and
select the incorrect statement :-

It can be explained on the behalf that the predators spot a moth against a contrasting
(1)
background
It shows that in a mixed population, those who can better adapt, survive and increase in
(2)
population size.
Figure A shows non-polluted condition in which black winged moth did not survive due to
(3)
predators and white moth survived.
The count of melanic moth was low in unpolluted area (Figure A) as most of them migrated to
(4)
the polluted areas (shown in figure B)

3) In a rabbit population, the fur color is determined by incompletely dominant allele pair.
Homozygous genotype ‘BB’ and ‘bb’ produce white fur and black fur respectively. Grey fur however
appears in heterozygous genotype. This rabbit population occurs in an area with white rocks as well
as black rocks. Rabbits with white fur hide themselves amongst white rocks and rabbits with black
fur hide themselves amongst black rocks. The rabbits, with grey fur being contrasting to their
background suffer greater predation. Which type of selection process is taking place?

(1) Directional Selection

(2) Stabilizing Selection
(3) Disruptive Selection
(4) Cyclical Selection

4) In following line diagram A,B,C show which type of evolution

A B C

(1) Chemical Organic Biological

(2) Organic Biological Chemical

(3) Biological Biological Chemical

(4) Chemical Biological Organic

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5)

Identify the correct sequence of human evolution ?

(a) Australopithecus (b) Ramapithecus
(c) Homo erectus (d) Homo habilis

(e) Homo sapiens

(1) a, b, d, c, e
(2) b, a, d, c, e
(3) a, b, c, e, d
(4) b, a, c, e, d

6) For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively.
The expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing organisms is likely to be:

(1) 42%
(2) 49%
(3) 9%
(4) 58%

7)

The Hardy-Weinberg principle cannot operate if :

(1) A population does not migrate for a long time to a new habitat.
(2) Frequent mutations occur in the population.
(3) The population has no chance of interaction with other populations.
(4) Free interbreeding occurs among all members of the population.

8) Select the correctly matched option from the column I and column II :

Column I Column II

Lived in East-African
(a) Ramapithecus (i)
grasslands

(b) Australopithecus (ii) Probably ate meat

(c) Homo habilis (iii) Existed about 15 mya

(d) Homo erectus (iv) First human like being

Options :
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
9) Forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and human do not show -
a. Similarities in the pattern of bones
b. Adaptive radiation
c. Analogous organs
d. Convergent evolution
e. Divergent evolution
f. Different structures evolving for same functions

(1) a, b and c
(2) c, d and f
(3) a and d
(4) a, d and c

10) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion (A) :- Australian marsupials and placental mammals exhibit convergent evolution.
Reason (R) :- Placental mammals in Australia also exhibit adaptive radiation in evolving into
varieties of such placental mammals each of which appears to be 'similar' to a corresponding
marsupials (eg. placental wolf and tasmanian wolf marsupial)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is not the correction explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

11) k-selected species has :-

(1) High stability & low biotic potential

(2) Low stability & high biotic potential
(3) Short life time & high growth rate
(4) Long life time & high growth rate

12) Refer the given table that summarizes the interactions between two organisms (organism 1 and
organism 2). Identify the types of interaction (A, B and C) and select the correct answer.

(i) A can be either predation or

parasitism.
(ii) B can be either commensalism or amensalism.
(iii) C can be amensalism.
(iv) D can be competition
Option :-

(1) (i) and (ii), (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii), (iv)

13)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

In above diagram four areas are given. Which area has maximum species diversity ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

14)

Match the column I and II.

Column - I Column - II

(a) Mutualism

(b) Competition

(c) Ammensalism

(d) Predation

(e) Commensalism
(1) i–e, ii–d, iii–b, iv–a
(2) i–e, ii–b, iii–d, iv–a
(3) i–c, ii–d, iii–a, iv–b
(4) i–c, ii–b, iii–d, iv–b

15) What does the shape of the given age pyramids (A to C) reflect about the growth status of

populations ?

A B C

(1) Declining Stable Expanding

(2) Stable Expanding Declining

(3) Expanding Stable Declining

(4) Declining Expanding Stable

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) The table below gives the population (in thousands) of ten species (A-J) in four area (p-s)
consisting of the number of species, and habitats given within brackets against each.
Study the table and answer the question which follows.

Area
and
Species, and their populations (in thousand) in the area
No. of
habitats

A B C D E F G H I J

p (11) 2.3 1.2 0.52 6.0 - 3.1 1.1 9.0 - 10.3

q (11) 10.2 - 0.62 - 1.5 3.0 - 8.2 1.1 11.2

r (13) 11.3 0.9 0.48 2.4 1.4 4.2 0.8 8.4 2.2 4.1

s (12) 3.2 10.2 11.1 4.8 0.4 3.3 0.8 7.3 11.3 2.1
Which area out of p - s shows maximum species diversity ?
(1) s
(2) p
(3) q
(4) r

17) Select the correct option w.r.t. given population growth curve :
(1)
a = resources are not limiting the growth;

(2)
b = resources are limiting the growth;
rt
(3) a = growth is exponential; Nt = N0e
b = growth is logistic ;
(4)

18) How many of the following statements are correct regarding the figures given below?

(A) Community P has maximum species diversity.

(B) Community S has minimum species diversity.
(C) Community Q has more species diversity than community R.
(D) Species diversity of community Q is greater than that of community P.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

19) For the given population growth curve which statement is correct :-

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very low.

(2)
Curve 'b' population growth rate is represented by = rN.
(3) 'K' is carrying capacity and its value is equal for all organisms.
(4) Curve 'b' represents logistic growth rate in a population.

20) Statement-I : Resource availability is obviously essential for unimpeded growth of population.
Statement-II : Ideally when resources in habitat are limited, each species has the ability to realise
fully its innate potential to grow in number.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

21) Statement-I :- A population with limited resources show initially a lag phase, followed by
phases of deaceleration and acceleration and finally an asymptote, when the population density
reaches the carrying capacity.
Statement-II :- No population of any species in nature has at its disposal unlimited resources to
permit logistic growth.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

22) If there are 300 earthworm in a cropfield, and within a year their number increases by 3000 by
reproduction. What should be the birth rate per earthworm per year ?

(1) 10
(2) 9
(3) 11
(4) 15

23) The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season
followed by its disappearance at the end of the season, what does this show :-

(1) Population of predator increases enormously

(2) S shape or sigmoid growth of population
(3) The food plants mature at end of season
(4) Its population growth curve is J shape

24) Logistic growth and exponential growth formula are respectively :-

(1)
= rN ; = rN

(2)
= rN ; = rN
(3)
= rN ; = rN

(4)
= rN ; = rN

25) Life history traits of organisms have evolved in relation to contraints by :-

(1) Abiotic components only

(2) Biotic components only
(3) Total sum of biotic and abiotic components
(4) Either of the biotic or abiotic components

26) Ecosystem properties can not be detected at how many levels given below ?

Deme Metapopulation Biosphere

Organism Biome Communities
Species Organ system Landscape
(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three

27) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known as :-

(1) Natural genetic engineer of plant

(2) Natural genetic engineer of animal
(3) Symbiotic bacteria
(4) Symbiotic plant

28) Statement I- Multiple copies of the gene of interest is synthesised in vitro using two sets of
primers and the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Statement II- If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA can
be amplified to approximately billion times, i.e., 1 billion copies are made.

(1) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Both statement I and II are correct.
(4) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

29) Statement I - The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with
a compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to X ray radiation.
Statement II- The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the
gel piece. This step is known as elution.

(1) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Both statement I and II are correct.
(4) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

30) The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the vector pBR322. Which one of the
given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?

(1) Cla I, EcoR I-selectable markers

(2) ampR , tetR -antibiotic resistance genes
(3) ori-origin of replication
(4) Both (2) and (3)

31) Select the incorrect statement from the following :

Cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of restriction
(1)
endonuclease.
(2) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer accomplished first recombinant DNA in 1982.
(3) The first discovered restriction endonuclease is Hind II.
Asexual reproduction preserves the genetic information, while sexual reproduction permits
(4)
variation.

32) Assertion : A stirred-tank reactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the
mixing of the reactor contents.
Reason : The processes including separation and purification, are collectively referred to as
downstream processing.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

33) Select the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) Sticky ends facilitates the action of DNA ligase.

(2) In gene gun method, DNA or Tungsten particles are coated with gold.
(3) EcoRI is isolated from E.coli RY13
(4) DNA is hydrophilic and thus can not pass through the membrane
34) Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t to plasmids :-

Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972 constructed the first recombinant DNA using a native
(1)
plasmid of E.coli
(2) It is an autonomously replicating circular extra chromosomal DNA
(3) Plasmid DNA act a vector to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with help of
(4)
DNA ligase.

35) March column I with column II :

Column I Column II

(a) Ribonuclease (i) Digest bacterial cell wall

(b) Protease (ii) RNA

(c) Chilled ethanol (iii) Digest plant cell wall

(d) Lysozyme (iv) Protein

(e) Cellulase (v) Digest fungal cell wall

(f) Chitinase (vi) Precipitation of DNA

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv), e-(v), f-(vi)
(2) a-(vi), b-(v), c-(iv), d-(iii), e-(ii), f-(i)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(vi), e-(iii), f-(v)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(vi), d-(i), e-(iii), f-(v)

36) Which of the following has the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells in animals ?

(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(2) Retroviruses
(3) pBR322
(4) Plasmids

37) The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
recombinant bacteria because of -

(1) insertional inactivation of α-lactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria.

(2) insertional inactivation of β-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria.
(3) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria.
(4) non-recombinant bacteria containing β-galactosidase.

38) Best genetic vector for plants is obtained from:-

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis

(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(3) Pseudomonas putida
(4) Escherichia coli
39) The figure given below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select
the option giving correct identification together with what it represents?

(1) B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands.
(2) A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C.
(3) C - Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase.
(4) A - Annealing with two sets of primers.

40) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Column I Column II

A. Plasmid I. Selectable marker

B. amp II. Extra chromosomal DNA

C. Ti-gene III. Enzyme

D. Chitinase IV. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(1) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(2) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(4) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III

41) Which of the following statements (i-iv) are correct.

(i) In elution, the separated bands of DNA are cut out from agarose gel and extracted from the gel
piece.
(ii) E.coli cloning vector pBR 322 shows several restriction Sites, Ori, antibiotic resistance genes and
rop.
(iii) The downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.
(iv) Competent bacterial cell cannot take up the plasmid.

(1) All of the above

(2) None of the above
(3) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(4) Only (iv)
42) Which of the following statement is not correct about cloning vector ?

(1) ‘Ori’ is a sequence responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.
(2) Selectable marker selectively permitting the growth of the non-transformants
In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have single recognition site for the commonly
(3)
used restriction enzymes.
The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic
(4)
resistance genes.

43) Match List -I with List - II.

List I List II

(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency

(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato

(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones

(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) a → iii, b → iv, c → ii, d → i
(2) a → ii, b → i, c → iv, d → iii
(3) a → iii, b → iv, c → i, d → ii
(4) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i

44) Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A → IV; B → I, C → II; D → III

(2) A → IV; B → II; C → III; D → I
(3) A → IV; B → III; C → II; D → I
(4) A → IV; B → III; C → I; D → II

45) Which step of Government of India has taken to cater requirement of patent terms and other
emergency provisions in this regard ?

(1) Biopiracy act

(2) Indian patents bill
(3) RTI act
(4) Negotiable instruments act

46) Assertion : The GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) has been set up by the Indian
Government.
Reason : Introduction of GMO could have unpredictable result in the ecosystem.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

47) Which technique could be a permanent cure in SCID ?

(1) Gene therapy in adult stage.

(2) Gene therapy in embryonic stage.
(3) Bone marrow transplantation.
(4) Enzyme replacement therapy.

48) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(i) Insulin was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered pigs and cattle.
(ii) Animal insulin is difficult to obtain.
(iii) Animal insulin is identical to human insulin and does not elicit unwanted immunological
responses.
(iv) Non-human insulin caused some patients to develop allergy.
(v) Recombinant insulin is actually obtained from E.coli

(1) Only (i) and (ii)

(2) Only (iii) and (iv)
(3) Only (iii)
(4) Only (v)

49) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

The procedure for chemical safety testing / toxicity is the same as that used for testing toxicity
(1)
of drugs.
(2) Transgenic animals are more sensitive to the toxic substances than non-transgenic animals.
(3) Golden rice, a genetically engineered rice has high vitamin A (retinol) content.
(4) All of the above

50) Find out the incorrect statement.

(1) Human protein used to treat emphysema is α-1 antitrypsin

Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of Agrobacterium
(2)
tumefaciens.
(3) Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced human protein enriched milk.
(4) Cry I Ab endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis is effective against corn borers.

51) Which of the following statement is correct about Bt toxin ?

(1) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus.

The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilize it and thus prevent its
(2)
multiplication
(3) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
(4) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut.

52) Statement I : Bt-cotton is a best example of pesticide-resistant crop.

Statement II : A biopesticide has been created by expressing Bt toxin gene in plants.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

53) Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated
with vitamin 'A' deficiency?

(1) Golden rice

(2) Bt-Brinjal
(3) Bt Cotton
(4) Both (2) and (3)

54) DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called:-

(1) Vector
(2) Plasmid
(3) Clone
(4) Probe

55) Select the incorrect statement regarding Transgenic Animals?

(1) Transgenic animals can be specifically designed to allow the study of how genes are regulated.
Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of how genes contribute
(2)
to the development of disease
In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk (2.03 grams per
(3)
litre).
(4) Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine

56) Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of :-

(1) Mice
(2) Pig
(3) Cow
(4) Buffalo

57) Gene therapy first used in the treatment of:-

(1) Albinism
(2) Cancer
(3) SCID
(4) Cystic fibrosis

58) GM plants have been useful in many ways except :-

(1) It made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses.

(2) It increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants.
(3) It increased reliance on chemical pesticides.
(4) It helped to reduce post harvest losses.

59) Match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

(a) Lepidopterans (i) Armyworm

(b) Coleopterons (ii) Mosquitos

(c) Dipterans (iii) Tobacco bud worm

(iv) Flies

(v) Beetles
(1) (a)-(i), (iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv), (v)
(2) (a)-(i), (iii); (b)-(v); (c)-(ii), (iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii), (v)
(4) (a)-(ii), (iv); (b)-(v); (c)-(i), (iii)

60) If the sequence of one strand of DNA is 5' A T G C A T C G 3' find the sequence of
complementary strand in 5' → 3' direction

(1) T A C G T A G C
(2) C G A T G C A T
(3) A T G C A T C G
(4) A T C G T A C G

61) Which plant was used by Taylor to prove semiconservative replication at chromosomal level?

(1) Pisum sativum

(2) Vicia faba
(3) Oenothera
(4) Lathyrus odoratos
62) Which of the following radioactive isotopes were utilised for labelling protein and DNA in
transduction experiment respectively?

(1) 32P, 35P

(2) 35S, 35P
(3) 35S, 32P
(4) 32S, 35P

63) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
Francois
DNA replicates
Jacob and
A. semi I.
Jacque
conservatively
Monod
The unequivocal
Hershey
proof that DNA is
B. II. and Martha
the genetic
Chase
material
Matthew
Double helix Meselson
C. model for the III. and
structure of DNA Franklin
Stahl
James
The elucidation of Watson and
D IV.
the lac operon Francis
Crick

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

64) Some of the salient observations drawn from human genome project except

(1) Largest known human gene is dystrophin.

(2) Repeated sequences make up very small portion of the human genome
Functions are unknown for over
(3)
50 percent of the discovered genes.
(4) Single nucleotide polymorphism (snips) occur in humans at about 1.4 million locations.

65) DNA Fingerprinting is :

(1) A technique to find out variations in individuals of a population at DNA level.

(2) Not applied in the field of forensic science, genetic biodiversity and evolutionary biology.
(3) A mega project that aimed to sequence every base in human genome.
(4) The primary step for regulation of gene expression in bacteria.

66) Put the following enzymes of Lac operon structural genes z, y & a in a proper order.

(1) Permease – β-galactosidase –transacetylase

(2) β-galactosidase – permease –transacetylase
(3) Transacetylase – β-galactosidase – permease
(4) β-galactosidase – transacetylase – permease

67) Which of the following is not salient features of the double-helix structure :-

(1) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix.
(2) The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm.
(3) Two strands are paired through phosphodiester bond forming base pairs (bp).
(4) Backbone is constituted by sugar-phosphate.

68) If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the ratio of
15
N/15N : 15N/14N : 14N/14N containing DNA in the fourth generation would be:-

(1) 8 : 8 : 0
(2) 4 : 12 : 0
(3) 0 : 4 : 10
(4) 0 : 2 : 14

69) Find the correct statement :-

(1) Sigma factor is essential for RNA polymerase to recognize the promoter in prokaryotic cells.
(2) Ribosome moves from 3' to 5' on the DNA template during replication.
(3) The promoter region is located upstream of the translation start site.
(4) In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase-II transcribes rRNA.

70) Mostly prokaryotic genes are :-

(1) Polycistronic
(2) Monocistronic
(3) Split gene
(4) Having capping and tailing in hnRNA processing.

71) Assertion: The Lac operon is induced in the presence of lactose.

Reason: Lactose binds to the repressor protein, making it inactive and allowing transcription of
structural genes to proceed.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
72) Match the following enzymes with their functions:

Column A Column B

(A) Helicase (1) Joins Okazaki fragments

(B) DNA Ligase (2) Unwinds the DNA helix

Adds nucleotides to the growing DNA

(C) DNA Polymerase (3)
strand

(D) Primase (4) Synthesizes the RNA primer

(1) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(2) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
(3) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
(4) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3

73)

Predict the nucleotide sequence according to the sequence of amino acids provided below :-
Met - Phe - Phe - Phe - Phe

(1) 5'AUG UUU UUU UUU UUU UAG 3'

(2) 5'AUG UUU UUC UUU UUU UAA 3'
(3) 5'GUG UUC UUU UUC UUU UGA 3'
(4) All of the above

74) The digital storage and computation of DNA sequencing data by Human Genome Project is
revolutionised by which new branch of biology?

(1) Biotechnology
(2) Biostatistics
(3) Bioinformatics
(4) Biogenesis

75)

Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in sequence :

(I) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.
(II) Isolation of DNA.
(III) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
(IV) Southern blotting.
(V) DNA fragment separation by gel electrophoresis.
(VI) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases.

(1) I → II → III → IV → V → VI
(2) II → VI → V → IV→ I → III
(3) II → VI → V → I → IV → III
(4) III → V → VI → I → IV → II
76) Statement-I: On one strand (the template with polarity 3'→5'), the replication is continuous,
while on the other (the template with polarity 5'→3'), it is discontinuous during replication.
Statement-II: The discontinuously synthesised fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA
ligase during replication.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

77) Introns are removed and exons are joined to produce functional RNA by :-

(1) Sequencing
(2) Autoradiography
(3) X-ray crystallography
(4) Splicing

78) Assertion: RNA is not the predominant genetic material.

Reason: RNA being stable, mutates at faster rate.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

79) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Bacteriophage ϕ ×174 (i) 48502 base pairs
(b) Bacteriophage lambda (ii) 5386 nucleotides
(c) Escherichia coli (iii) 3.3 × 109 base pairs
(d) Haploid content human DNA (iv) 4.6 × 106 base pairs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
(2) a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(4) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii

80) Which of the given statement is correct in context of observing

DNA separated by agarose gel electrophoresis?

(1) DNA can be seen in visible light

(2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light.
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light.

81) The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as

(1) Micro satellite
(2) Nano satellite
(3) Mini satellite
(4) Milli satellite

82) Assertion : In mRNA exons are removed and introns are joined in a defined order.
Reason : Primary transcript contain both exons and introns and are nonfunctional.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

83) Lac operon is

(1) Negative regulation operon

(2) Positive regulation operon
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) None of these

84) Which of the following statement is not correct about Rana tigrina?

(1) Body is divisible into the head and trunk.

(2) Frog excretes uric acid and thus is a uricotelic animal.
(3) Three chambered heart with sinus venosus and conus arteriosus is present.
(4) Fertilisation is external and development is indirect.

85) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about respiration in frogs?

(1) In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ.

(2) On land, the buccal cavity,skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs.
(3) During aestivation and hibernation, gaseous exchange takes place through skin.
(4) All of these

86) Frogs are different from humans in having:

(1) Open Circulation

(2) Hepatic portal system
(3) Renal portal system
(4) Paired cerebral hemispheres

87) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism.
Reason (R): Male frogs can be distinguished by the presence of sound producing vocal sacs and
copulatory pad on the first digit of the forelimbs which are absent in female frogs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R ) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

88) Croaking is commonly heard during the breeding season. It is louder in male frogs due to the
presence of a pair of

(1) Vocal cords

(2) Nostrils
(3) Vocal sacs
(4) Larynx

89) Homo sapiens and Rana tigrina have similar

(1) Number of chambers in heart

(2) Number of cranial nerves
(3) Main excretory product
(4) Special venous connection present between kidney and lower parts of the body

90) Some statements about the reproductive system in frogs are given below:
(A) In females, ureters act as urinogenital ducts.
(B) In males, Bidder's canal is present inside the kidneys.
(C) Male frogs have copulatory pads on the first digit of the hindlimbs.
(D) In males, testes are structurally and functionally connected to kidneys.
(E) In females,there is no functional connection between kidneys and ovaries.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) A, Band D only

(2) B, C and E only
(3) A and C only
(4) B, D and E only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 4 4 3 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 2 4 4 3 3 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 4 2 2 1 3 3 2 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 4 2 4 2 4 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 2 1 4 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 4 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 3 3 3 1 3 2 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 4 2 3 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 1 4 2 2 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 4 4 1 4 3 1 3 3 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 4 1 1 1 3 4 3 2 3 4 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Assertion & Reason both are correct

Theory

4)

[ML2T–2] = [MLT–1]X[L2]Y[T]Z
X=1
–X+Z=–2⇒Z=–1

X + 2Y = 2 ⇒ Y =

5)

Tension is force surface tension is force/length.

6) Least count = = = 0.02 mm

= 0.002 cm

zero error =
= 5 × 0.002
= 0.010 cm
Total reading = L.S.R. + (C.S.R. × L.C.)
= 1.2 cm + (14 × 0.02)
= 1.2 + 0.028
= 1.228 cm
Correct reading = 1.228 – 0.010
= 1.218 cm

8) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Question Explanation:
In this question we have to choose the correct statement.
Concept:
Interference of light and formation of fringes in Young's Double Slit Experiment.
Formula:
Condition for constructive interference at central maxima: Δx = nλ For n = 0, all wavelengths
overlap constructively at the center.
Explanation:
• In YDSE, the central bright fringe occurs due to constructive interference of all wavelengths.
• Since white light consists of multiple wavelengths, all their zero-order maxima coincide at
the same position forming a white fringe at the center. Final Answer:
Final Answer: Option: 4
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason correctly explains Assertion.

11)

a sin θ = λ
⇒ a sin 30° = λ
⇒ a = 2λ
a = 2 × 5 × 10–7 m
a = 1.0 × 10–4 cm

12) 1 × 540 + 1 × 1 × 100 = 640 cal

640 cal = m × 80
m = 8 gm

13)

Vrms =
gas is same in both the cases, therefore Vrms

(Vrms)2 = 300 × = 600 m/s

15)

ΔQ = dU + dw
Δw = PΔv = nRΔT
For one mole Δw = RΔT = 75J

and dU =
here n = 1, 'f' = 6
dU = 3RΔT
dU = 3 × 75 = 225
ΔQ = 225 + 75 = 300J

17) W = WAB + WBC + WCD

= –P0V0 + 0 + 2P0 × 2V0
= 3P0V0

19)
 20) (5kg) × L = 42 × (10 min)

21) Problem Explanation: A bimetallic strip of metals X and Y (with X having a higher
expansion coefficient) is cooled. We need to determine the bending direction.

Concept:
Materials contract upon cooling. The one with a higher coefficient (X) contracts more, causing
the strip to bend.

Formula:
Linear Expansion: ΔL = αLΔT (where α is the coefficient of expansion)

Calculation:

A. X contracts more than Y, making it shorter.

B. Since they are bonded, Y forces X into an inward curve.
C. The strip bends towards X (leftward)

Final Answer:
It bends towards the left.
Hence, option (2) is correct.

23)
⇒ 45 = 100 – θ ⇒ θ = 55°C

24) Given T, T0, e ρ,c → same

Given

25) Concept :
The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to the temperature in
Kelvin, according to the equation:
Eavg. ∝ T.
Formula:
The relationship between the average kinetic energy (Eavg.) and temperature (T) is given by:

Calculation :
E∝T

E2 = × 6.21 × 10–21 = 10.35 × 10–21J

Final Answer : (3) 10.35 × 10–21 J

26) Mean K.E Per gram molecule = Molar K.E

27) ΔU = μCvΔT (always) = μ RΔT, ΔT = same

29) In sem R1 =R2=

Pseries =

Pparallel =

= 0.24

30) 1(10+S) = 100 S

31)

32) For constant heat

In parallel

So
= 6 minute

33)
34)
P = Vi
0.45 = 1.5 × i
i = 0.3 A

35) Since the shunt is in parallel to (20 + R)Ω

⇒ 0.04 × (20 + R) = 0.05 × (20 – 0.04)

⇒ R = 4.95 Ω

36)

Due to slab.

C → KC, E = CV2
V → V/K , E = E/K
Q = CV = constant
V → Decrease, Energy decrease.
Q → Remain constant

37) Question Explanation: A 10 μF capacitor charged to 1000 V is connected to an

uncharged 6μF capacitor. We are to find the final common potential across both capacitors.
Concept: Redistribution of charge (capacitors)

Formula: Vf =
Calculation: C1 = 10 μF,, V1 = 1000 V, C2 = 6μF, V2 = 0

Vf = = = 625 V
Answer 625V Option (3)

38) Question Explanation:

A charged capacitor is connected to an identical uncharged one. We need to determine how
much energy is lost due to redistribution of charge after connection.

Concept Based:
When a charged capacitor is connected to an uncharged one, charge redistributes. Some
energy is lost as heat or redistributes. Some energy is lost as heat or radiation, even though
total charge is conserved.

Formula Used:

Initial energy :

Final energy :
Energy loss: ΔE = Ei - Ef
Calculation:

Initial energy is

Final voltage on each is , so final energy is 2 × C .

Energy loss =

Final Answer is option (2).

40)

41) = 9 pF

C' = = =

C' = pF = 40.5pF

42)

Initial charge on 3μF = 3 × 400

= 1200 μC …(1)
Common potential

V=

Final charge on 3μF = …(2)

∴ charge flown =
 = 720 μC

43) ≡
CAB = 12μF

44)

The given circuit can be redrawn as follows

×2000 ⇒ VA –VB =1500V

⇒ 2000 – VB = 1500 V ⇒ VB = 500 V

45)

CHEMISTRY

51) Value of n is less

Zeff ↑↑, IP↑↑

53) Asking about : Correct values of IE for Be, Ne, He, N will be

Formula : IP ∝ Zeff (In a period)

IP ∝ (In a group)
Solution/Explanation/Calculation :

So in the given options ; IE(min) = Be & IE(max) = He overall order of IE : Be < N < Ne < He
Since in the questions ; the position of He is shown at 3rd position. Hence He should come at
3rd position. because highest IE is of He.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

63) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page-321, 322

66)

Na in liq NH3

70)

76)

79) All 'C' atoms are 2°

80)
Both are cycloalkanes
 81)

82)

83) If molecule is Asymmetrical and number of chiral centre is 'n' then number of stereo

isomers is 2n. ∴ In →n=2

→ Number of optical isomers

4.

87) the arrow is anticlockwise and least priority group is on the bottom of
vertical line in fischer-projection.

89)

NCERT XI Pg. # 348

90)

Position of methyl group is different so it is P.I.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 118

95) NCERT XIIth Pg.#140,141

96) 1. Calculate the expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing organisms. • Use the
Hardy-Weinberg equation: For a two-allele system, the equation is p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, where:

A. p = frequency of allele M
 B. q = frequency of allele N
C. p2 = frequency of MM genotype
D. 2pq = frequency of MN genotype
E. q2 = frequency of NN genotype

• Given:

A. p = 0.7
B. q = 0.3

• Calculate the frequency of MN genotype (2pq):

A. 2pq = 2 * 0. 7 * 0.3 = 0.42

• Convert to percentage:

A. 0.42 * 100 = 42%

Therefore, the expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing organisms is 42%.

97)

NCERT XII, Pg. No.135

98) NCERT(XII) Pg#140/151(H) Para:7.9

100) NCERT-XII, Pg # 134(E), 145(H)

102)

NCERT, Pg.: 233, 237

107) NCERT - Pg. # 194

109)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 194, 195

110) NCERT-XII Pg. # 194

114) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 195

115) NCERT Pg # 232

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 178

118) If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA can be
amplified to approximately billion times, i.e., 1 billion copies are made.

119) The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a
compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation.

120) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 199

121) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 194

122) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 204

123) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 194

124) First recombinant DNA was constructed using a native plasmid of Salmonella
typhimurium

125) Ribonucleas - RNA

Protease - Protein
Chilled ethanol - Precipitation of DNA
Lysozyme - Bacterial cell wall
Cellulase - Plant cell wall
Chitinase - Fungal cell wall

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 170

127)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 170

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 170

129)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 172

130)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 164

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 168

132)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169, 173

133) Protoplast fusion - Pomato

Plant tissue culture- Totipotency
Meristem culture - Virus free plants
Micropropagation - Somaclones

134) NCERT XII, Page # 211,212

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 185

136)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 184

137)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

138)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

139)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179, 184

140)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 184

141)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179

142) NCERT Page # 208

143)

NCERT-XII, Page # 179

144)

NCERT-XII, Page # 173

145)

NCERT-XII, Page # 184

146)

NCERT-XII, Page # 183

147)

NCERT-XII, Page # 182

148)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 208

149)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 208

150) Answer (2)

151) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 90

152) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 85

154) Repeated sequences make up large portion of the human genome.

155) DNA fingerprinting detects DNA-level variations.

156)
z (β-galactosidase) → y (permease) → a (transacetylase)

160)

NCERT-XII, Page # 93

161) NCERT-XII, Page # 101

162) NCERT-XII, Page # 90

163)

All of the above are possible because

Met is coded by AUG and GUG codons and phenyalanine is coded by the mRNA codons UUU
and UUC.

164) NCERT-XII, Page # 102

BIOTECHNOLOGY: Biotechnology is the use of biological processes, organisms, or parts of
them to develop new technologies and products.
BIOSTATISTICS: Biostatistics is the application of statistical methods to the biological and
life sciences.
BIOGENESIS: Biogenesis refers to all living things that come from other living things.
BIOINFORMATICS: Bioinformatics combines computer science, mathematics, statistics, and
biology to address biological questions like sequencing DNA using computational tools.

166) NCERT-XII, Page # 91

167) NCERT-XII, Page # 94

168) RNA being unstable, mutates at faster rate.

169) NCERT-XII, Page # 80

170) NCERT XII, Page # 168

171) NCERT-XII, Page no. 106

172) NCERT-XII, pg- 111

173) NCERT-XII, Pg.NO.117

174) NCERT XI (NEW) PAGE NO. 80,82,83,84

175) NCERT XI (NEW) PAGE NO. 82

176) NCERT XI (NEW) PAGE NO. 82

177) NCERT XI (NEW) PAGE NO. 81

178) NCERT XI (NEW) PAGE NO. 81

179) NCERT XI (NEW) PAGE NO. 83

180) NCERT XI (NEW) PAGE NO. 82,83,84