UNIT SUB : 410245 (B) STQA

ONE

Sr. QUESTIONS A B C D Ans

No.
1 Software project management comprises of a number of System
activities, which contains _________. software
Application
softwarec
Scientific
software
none
A

2 Software is defined as ____ . Instructions Data Structures documents all above

D
3 What are the signs that a software project is in trouble The product Deadlines are
scope is poorly unrealistic.
Changes are
managed All of the above
D
defined. poorly.

4 A Project can be characterized as _____ . Every project

may not have a
Project is
routine activity
Project does not none
comes with a
D
unique and or day-to-day start time and
distinct goal. operations. end time.

5 CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of

______ .
Develop the
software.
Improve the
software
Improve the
testing process.
all of above
B
process.
6 Project risk factor is considered in which model Spiral model Waterfall
model
Prototyping
model
None of the
above.
A

7 Effective software project management focuses on the

four P’s. What are those four P’s?
People,
performance,
People,
product,
People,
product,
all
B
payment, process, project performance,
product project
8 What are the signs that a software project is in trouble? The product Deadlines are
scope is poorly unrealistic.
Changes are
managed
all
D
defined. poorly.

9 Software quality assurance is an umbrella activity. TRUE FALSE

A
10 Which of the following are the valid relationships in Use Generalization Include
Case Diagrams
Extend all
D

11 Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary

Process Model?
WINWIN Spiral Incremental
Model Model
Concurrent
Development
All of the
mentioned
D
Model

12 The Incremental Model is a result of combination of

elements of which two models?
Build & FIX
Model &
Linear Model
& RAD Model
Linear Model & Waterfall
Prototyping Model & RAD
C
Waterfall Model Model
Model
13 The spiral model was originally proposed by IBM Barry Boehm Pressman Royce
B
14 Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases. TRUE FALSE
B
15 If you were to create client/server applications, which
model would you go for?
WINWIN Spiral Spiral Model
Model
Concurrent
Model
Incremental
Model
C
16 Which of the following is not a phase of SDLC? Requirement
gathering
Maintenance Testing all
D

17 Selection of particular life cycle model is based on, Requirements Technical

knowledge of
Users all
D
development
team
18 Which of the following are incremental developmental
models?
Prototyping Agile
development
both a and b none
C

19 In a college,students are asked to develop a software.

Which model would be preferable
Waterfall
model
spiral model aglie model code nad fix
model
D

20 In waterfall model, output of one phase is input to next TRUE

phase.
FALSE
A
21 The first step in Software Development Life Cycle(SDLC) Preliminary
is investigation
System Design System Testing coding
A
and Analysis

22 The detailed study of existing system is referred to as : System

Planning
System
analysis
Feasibility
Study
design dfd
B

23 System analysis and design phase of Software

Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
Parallel run Sizing All of these specifications
freeze
C

24 Prototyping aims at : end user

understanding
program logic program logic none of these
A
and approval

25 What is a prototype ? Mini-model of Mini-model of Working model none

existing system the proposed of the existing
B
system system
26 The phase of System Development associated with
creation of the test data is
System analysis Physical design System
acceptance
logical design
C

27 Which of the following is not a named phase in the

System development life cycle ?
Assessment Maintenance Development testing
A
28 What is the final outcome of the requirements analysis
and specifications phase ?
Drawing the
data flow
The SRS
Document
Coding the
project
The User
Manual
B
diagram
29 QFD stands for quality quality
function design function
quality
function
none
C
development deployment

30 A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that

different people may play.
TRUE FALSE
B

31 The user system requirements are the parts of which

document ?
sda srs srr rar
B
32 What are the types of requirement in Quality Function
Deployment(QFD) ?
Known,
Unknown,
User,
Developer
Functional, Normal,
Non-Functional Expected,
D
Undreamed Exciting
33 Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis. TRUE FALSE
B
34 Which of the following statements about SRS is/are
true ? i. SRS is written by customer ii. SRS is written by a
Only i is true Both ii and iii
are true
All are true None of the
above
C
developer iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer
and developer
35 Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a Client Client Production
team
Project
manager
D

36 Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased Product risk

component to perform as expected?
Project risk Business risk Programming
risk
A
37 Which of the following term is best defined by the
statement: “There will be a change of organizational
Staff turnover Technology
change
Management
change
Product
competition
C
management with different priorities.”?

38 Which of the following term is best defined by the

statement: “The underlying technology on which the
Technology
change
Product
competition
Requirements
change
None of the
mentioned
A
system is built is superseded by new technology.”?

39 What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation
and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
Risk
monitoring
Risk planning Risk analysis Risk
identification
A

40 Which of the following risks are derived from the

organizational environment where the software is
People risks Technology
risks
Estimation
risks
Organizational
risks
D
being developed?
41 Which of the following risks are derived from the
software or hardware technologies that are used to
Managerial
risks
Technology
risks
Estimation
risks
Organizational
risks
B
develop the system?
42 Which of the following term is best defined by the Underestimate Organizational Requirements
statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize d development restructuring changes
None of the
mentioned
C
information hiding in the design.”? time

43 Which of the following strategies means that the impact Avoidance

of the risk will be reduced? strategies
Minimization
strategies
Contingency
plans
All of the
mentioned
B

44 Risk management is now recognized as one of the most

important project management tasks.
TRUE FALSE
A
45 Choose the correct option according to the given Statement 1
statements regarding risk management.Statement 1: A and 2 are
Only statement Only statement Statement 1
1 is correct. 3 is correct. and 3 are
A
risk is a potential problem—it might happen, it might correct. correct.
not.
Statement 2: Managers, software engineers, and
customers participate in risk analysis and management.
Statement 3: Only Managers participate in risk analysis
and management.

46 Reactive risk management is sometimes described as: Fire fighting

mode
Solution mode. Uncertain
mode
None of the
above.
A

47 Software risk always involves two characteristics. What Uncertainty

are those characteristics? and loss
Certainty and
profit
Staff size and
budget
Project
Deadline and
A
budget

48 What is/are the different types of risk may occur when

you develop software?
Project risks Technical risks Business risks All of the above
D

49 Effective risk management plan needs to address which Risk avoidance Risk
of these issues? monitoring
Risk
management
All of the
above.
D
and
contingency
planning

50 Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk

monitoring is a ___________ activity
Avoidance,
Project
Increasing,
Project
Project
tracking,
Random,
Tracking.
A
tracking. tracking. Avoidance.
51 Which of the following categories is part of the output of computer
software process? programs
documents that data
describe the
all of the
mentioned
D
computer
programs

52 Which of the following is the process of assembling

program components, data, and libraries, and then
System
building
Release
management
Change
management
Version
management
A
compiling and linking these to create an executable
system?

53 Which of the following is / are the output of the Software Computer

Process? programs
Documents that
describe the
Data (contained All of the above
within the
D
computer program or
programs. external to it).

54 As the reliability increases, failure intensity _____. Decreases Increases No effect None of the
above
A
UNIT SUB : 410245 (B) STQA
TWO

Sr. No. QUESTIONS A B C D Ans

1 Which of the following term describes testing? Finding

broken code
Evaluating A stage of all
deliverable to projects
None of the
mentioned
B
find errors

2 What is Cyclomatic complexity? Black box

testing
White box
testing
Yellow box
testing
Green box
testing
B

3 Lower and upper limits are present in which chart? Run chart Bar chart Control chart None of the
mentioned
A

4 Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology? Retesting Sanity testing Breadth test Confirmation
and depth test testing
C
5 White Box techniques are also classified as Design based Structural
testing testing
Error
guessing
None of the
mentioned
B
technique
6 Exhaustive testing is always
possible
practically
possible
impractical
but possible
impractical
and
C
impossible
7 Which of the following is/are White box technique? Statement
Testing
Decision
Testing
Condition
Coverage
All of the
mentioned
D
8 What are the various Testing Levels? Unit Testing System
Testing
Integration
Testing
All of the
mentioned
D
9 Boundary value analysis belong to? White Box
Testing
Black Box
Testing
White Box &
Black Box
None of the
mentioned
B
Testing
10 Alpha testing is done at Developer’s
end
User’s end Developer’s & None of the
User’s end mentioned
A
11 E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than Pareto
gaming software testing. Which testing principle implies this? principle
Testing is
Context
Testing shows Absence of
presence of errors-fallacy
B
dependent defects

12 When a cost to remove defect is not high? During

requirement
During
designing
During
coding
During testing
A
analysis

13 In software development life cycle , who is the best person to

catch a defect?
Software
Tester
Customers Designer Business
Analyst
D
14 Which of the following statement is true? Exhaustive
testing is
Exhaustive
testing is
Exhaustive
testing is
Exhaustive
testing is
B
impossible possible but impossible possible and
but impracticable and practicable
practicable impracticable

15 Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software.

Which of the following testing principle implies this?
Testing shows Pesticide
presence of paradox
Testing is
context
Defect
Clustering
D
defects dependent

16 The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following

testing principle implies this?
Testing shows Pesticide
presence of paradox
Testing is
context
Defect
Clustering
B
defects dependent

17 When testing principles are useful? During testing During

execution
During
review
Throughout
life-cycle
D
18 In white box testing what do you verify? Verify the Verify the
security holes incomplete or
Verify the
flow of
All of these
D
in the code broken paths structure
in the code according to
the document
specification
19 End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________ Functional
and
Architectural Usability and
and Reliability
Algorithmic
and Data
A
Behavioral Structural Structure
20 The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from Project plan Business plan Support plan None of the
above
B
21 Testing beyond normal operational capacity is __________ Load testing Performance Stress testing All of these
testing
C
22 Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during
which phase?
Test Test closure
implementati activity
Evaluating Test analysis
exit criteria and design
B
on and and reporting
execution
23 What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and
budget
a. 1, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 4 d. 1, 3
C
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project
24 Who leads a formal review process? Author Moderator Reviewer Scribe
B
25 A chronological record of relevant details about the execution Test suite
of tests is called as, a _______
Test
procedure
Test data Test log
D

26 Non functional testing is performed only at system testing

level. True or false.
TRUE FALSE
B
27 Which of the following is not other name for structural testing? White box
testing
Glass box
testing
Behavioral
testing
None of the
above
C

28 Which things are measured by software Test effectiveness? How many

customer
How well the
customer
How much All of the
effort is put above
D
requirements specifications in developing
are are achieved the system?
implemented by the
in system? system?
29 In which of the following type of testing, testing is done
without planning and documentation?
Unit testing Retesting Ad hoc testing Regression
testing
C

30 When should company stop the testing of a particular

software?
After system
testing done
It depends on After smoke
the risks for testing done
None of the
above
B
the system
being tested

31 ___________ refers to a different set of tasks ensures that the

software that has been built is traceable to Customer
Verification Requirement Validation
engineering
None of the
above
C
Requirements.

32 Who performs the Acceptance Testing? Software

Developer
End users Testing team Systems
engineers
B

33 Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is Alpha
to be done in-house?
Betta Gamma Theta
A
34 Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________. Requirement Requirement Requirement Requirement
Design Elicitation Analysis Documentatio
A
n

35 When an expected result is not specified in test case template

then ___________.
We cannot
run the test.
It may be
difficult to
It may be
difficult to
We cannot
automate the
B
determine if repeat the user inputs.
the test has test.
passed or
failed.
36 End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________. Functional
and
Architectural Usability and Algorithmic
and Reliability and Data
A
Behavioral Structural Structure
37 Bug status is set to postpone due to ________. Priority of
that bug may
Lack of time
for the
The bug may Data may be
not be the unavailable.
D
low. release. major effect
in the
software.
38 Which Testing is performed first? Black box
testing
White box
testing
Dynamic
testing
Static testing
D

39 Verification and Validation uses __________. Internal and

External
Internal
resources
External
resources
External and
Internal
A
resources only. only. resources
respectively. respectively.

40 Testing beyond normal operational capacity is __________. Load testing Performance Stress testing none
testing
C
41 The expected results of the software is _________________. Only Only used in Most useful
important in component when
Derived from
the code.
A
system testing testing specified in
advance
42 Test cases are created in which phase? Test
Specification
Test Planning Test Test
Requirement Configuration
A

43 7n test cases are generated in which case of Boundary Value

Analysis?
Worst case Roust worst
case
Critical fault
assumption
none
B

44 Which testing cannot be performed on first build of the

software?
Regression
testing
Retesting a,b none
C

45 Which testing is performed with Planning and

Documentation?
Ad-hoc testing Monkey
testing
Fuzz testing End-to-End
testing
D

46 GUI means Graphical Graphical

user interface user
Graphics
uniform
none
A
interaction interaction

47 Plasma panel have_________ resolution. high good a,b none

A
48 1975 1966 1977 1967
First graphical user interface used commercially was
introduced in
A
49 What is/are the main component / components of user
interface ?
Presentation
language
Action
language
a,b none
A
50 Which one is the basic input device in GUI Mouse keyboard cpu monitor
A

51 Which of the following model put much more emphasis on

testing?
waterfall
model
agile model spiral model v-v model
D
52 Independent modules are easier to maintain and test because
of.
Code
modification
Error
propagation
Reusable
modules are
All of the
above.
D
is limited, is reduced possible.

53 Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration

management tools?
Tracking of
change
Storing
versions of
Tracking the
releases of
None of the
mentioned
D
proposals system system
components versions to
customers
54 Which of the following is not a Software Configuration
Management Activity?
Configuration Risk
item
Release
management management
Branch
management
B
identification

55 The definition and use of configuration management

standards is essential for quality certification in
ISO 9000 CMM CMMI All of the
mentioned
D

56 Client/server architectures cannot be properly tested because

network load is highly variable.
TRUE FALSE
B

57 Which of the following is / are types of Software Maintenance? Corrective Adaptive Perfective All of the
above
D

58 _______ is a Software Configuration Management concept that

helps us to control change.
Baseline Procedure Audit None of the
above
A
59 Software Configuration Management (SCM) is an umbrella
activity.
TRUE FALSE
A

60 What is the main aim of Software Configuration Management Identify

(SCM)? change
Control
change
Ensure that
change is
all of the
above
D
being
properly
implemented
UNIT SUB : 410245 (B) STQA
THREE
Sr. No. Questions a b c d Ans

1 A____tool is piece of software that enables people to define

software testing tasks.
a.test
automation
b.selenium c.HPE d.Ranorex
a
2 Test automation tool can be expensive and usually
employed in cambination with____.
a.system
testing
b.software
tesating
c.manual
testin
d.beta testing
c

3 The behavior observed when a ______or system is tested a.component b.test case c.code d.data
a
4 Which skill does not require for automation engineer a.Troubleshoot b.coding
ing
c.certification d.designing
d
5 which test are important to exercise code functiojnality
without touching any dependency
a.system test b.code test c.unit test d.manual test
c
6 Which automation testing is a key area in testing processes. a.performance b.functional
testing testing
d.load testing d.stress
testing
b
7 ____testing is the process of evaluating the application
performance.
a.load testing b.stress
testing
c.performanc d.functional
e testing testing
c
8 Identifying the Current business practices with respect to
automation in the target organisation involves in which test
a.current state b.future state c.gap analysis d.business
case
a
9 Which automation framework step is based on the input
provided by the gap analysis.
a.work plan b.business
case
c.Requiremen Risk
t anlysiss management
c
10 In which step automation framework is identified as an
"ideal world" scenario.
a.future state b.current
state
c.business
case
d.work plan
a
11 In which layer the system being tested a.domain layer b.system
under test
c.test cases
layer
d.none of this
b
layer
12 which cruteria must satisfy in order to be accepted by the
user,customer.
a.acceptance
criteria
b.testing c.result d.adaptability
a

13 ____testing is often employed as a form of intrernal

acceptance testing
a.alpha testing b.agile testing c.beta testing anamoly
a
14 What allows to implement application specific test
automation solution by adding so,e extra code
a.test
automation
b.test
complexity
c.reporting d.maintainan
ce cost
a
framework
15 What does automated software testing improves a.complexity b.design c.code d.software
quality
d
16 What is the unit of measurement that is used to measure the a. Function
size of a user story for an Agile project? points
b. Story points c. Work
breakdown
d. Velocity
points
b
points
17 Agility is nothing more than the ability of project team to
respond rapidly to change.
a.False b.true c. d.
a

18 Which of the following is a characteristic of an Agile leader? a.Task focused b.Supportive c.Process
oriented
d.Disintereste
d
b
19 Which is a Procedure? a.Exit b.WaitForPro c.Wait
perty
d.None of
these.
c

20 Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating

a test case?
a.The test will
need to be
b.The test will
help in saving
c.The test is
important for
d.The test
gives
d
executed once, time for doing the business intermittent
but with a exploratory and typical results and
large set of testing. use case for impossible to
data. testing. test manually.

21 The main goal of Automation Testing is to _____ the number a.Increase

of test cases to be run manually
b.Reduce c.Enlarge d.Multiply
b
22 Why will you do automation testing? a.It increases b.It improves c.It improves d.It reduces
defect the quality of the efficiency the cost of
c
detection ratio. production of testing. testing.
code.

23 Which of the following is not a BDD automation framework? a.Cucumber b.Jbehave c.Watir d.Concordion
c
24 What type of test cases should you not automate? a.Tests that
don't require
b.Tests that
demand
c.Tests that
fall under the
d.Tests that
require
a
re-execution continuous acceptance cross-platfor
testing test criteria m testing

25 Iterative development is NOT a good idea for? a.Back end

development
b. Front end c. d.Software
development Middleware development
b
development
26 Which of the following is not a characteristic of the good
automation tool?
a.Robust object b.Support of
identification. cross-platfor
c.Easy
integration
d.Good
debugging
c
m testing. with CI tools ability.

27 Which of the following is the best approach for automation

in the long term?
a. Build a team
with members
b.Outsource
automation
c.Associate
with the
d.Train
manual
a
having tasks to developers to testers and
development external start start
skills vendors automation automation

28 JMeter is for performance testing, whereas Selenium is

mainly for ________.
a.performance b.Automation c.Sanity
testing Testing testing
d.Regression
testing
b
29 JUnit is a ____ testing tool a.unit b.load c.block d. Agile
a

30 Apache _____ is an open source Java application designed to a.Junit

load test functional behavior and gauge software
b.selenium c.JMeter d.loader
c
performance.

31 Who performs manual testing a.designer b.tester c.machine d.user

d
32 Which tool is used for test managing scheduling,tracking
and analysis
a.test
management
b.test
comparator
c.test d.performanc
execution tool e testing tool
a
tool tool
33 Who does static testing a.tester b.developer c.team
members
d.user
b
34 Which is not a challenge for framework design a.time b.resources c.quality d.debugging
d
35 The power of machines to control the executiion of
testd,compare their outcomes is called_____
a.testing
software
b.automation c.system
testing testing
d.manual
testing
b

36 When forming an Agile project team it is BEST to use_____ a.Generalized

Specialists
b.Top c.Highly
management specialized
d.All of the
above
a
officials developers

37 What is NOT an Agile methodology? a.Extreme

programming
b.Scrum c.Crystal
Clear
d.PMBOK® 3
d
(XP)
38 The ' // ' tells the query that ___________. a.It needs to b.This is
stop at the first comment
c.The path of d. All of these
the file or
a
element that it folder
finds
39 Which of the following tools would be involved in the
automation for regression test
a. data tester b.output
comparator
c.boundary
testing
d.capture/
playback
d

40 Which of the following is not a prereq for automation

testing?
a.Ready Test
Scripts
b.Stable code c.Ready Test
and Suite
d.Skilled and
experienced
a
application resources
UNIT SUB : 410245 (B) STQA
FOUR
Sr. Questions a b c d Ans
No.

1 Select the operating system which is not supported by

Selenium IDE
Unix Linux Windows Solaries
a

2 The Selenium RC is used To run your

test against
To create test
with little or no
To test a web
application
To run a huge
test suite, that
a
different prior against firefox can be
browers on knowledge in only executed on
different programming multiple
opearting machines
systems

3 Out of the following which can only test web

applications
QTP Selenium
b
4 Select the component which is not part of Selenium
Suite
Selenium IDE Selenium RC SeleniumGrid Selenium Web
d
5 Select the language which is not supported by the
Selenium RC
ASP Java C# PHP
a
6 Select the name which is not the type of locators ID Name Password Link Text
c
7 The Web Driver is used To execute tests To design a test To quickly
on the HTML Using Selenese create tests
To test a web
application
a
Unit browser against Firefox
only
8 The Selenium IDE is used To create To deploy your To test with
customized test tests across HTML Unit
To test a web
application
d
results multiple against Firefox
environments only
using Selenium
Grid

9 Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE Google Chrome Opera Mini Mozilla Firefox Internet
Explorer
c

10 Selenium IDE stands for Selenium

Initialization
Selenium
Interrelated
Selenium
Integrated
Selenium
Information
c
Development Development Development Development
Environment Environment Environment Environment

11 Is Web driver a component of the Selenium ? No Yes

b
12 Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Assert
Selenium IDE
Verify WaitFor Wait
d

13 Select the method which selects the option at the at the

given index
selectByIndex() selectIndex() selectedByInde selectByIndexe
x() s()
a

14 The selenium can access controls both web and

within the desktop
only test web
applications
c
desktop applications
15 The Selenium provides
professional
tests reports
are generated
comes with a
built in object
Cannot access
elements
d
computer automatically repository outside of the
support web
application
under test
16 Can Google Chrome be supported by Selenium Yes No
b
17 Can Unix operating system be supported by Selenium No Yes
a
18 Which command can be used to enter values onto text
boxes ?
sendsKey() sendKey() sendKeys sendKeys()
d

19 Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Perl

Web driver
Sql ASP Cobol
a

20 Which Selenium Component Supports all operating

systems
Selenium
Generator
Selenium IDE Selenium
WebDriver
c

21 Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a

web page using theURL
OpenRecord Open OpenText OpenTable
b

22 In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your

script in
DHTML format XML format j2EE format HTML format
d

23 The Actions Commands are commands

that directly
are commands
that allow you
are commands
that verify if a
a
interact with to store values certain
page elements to a variable condition is
met
24 Select the command which is used to check the presence verifyTable
of a certain element
verifyTitlePres verifyTextPres verifyElement
ent ent Present
d

25 Select the command which is used to print a string

value of a variable in Selenium IDE
The 'display'
command
The 'echo'
command
The 'print'
command
The 'printr'
command
b

26 Which component of Selenium can create customized

test results ?
Web Driver Selenium RC Selenium IDE Selenium Grid
a

27 Select the command that will not wait for the new page clickAndWait
to load before moving on to the next command
typeAndWait selectAndWait selectAndType
d

28 Select the command which is used to pause execution

until the page is loaded completely
waitForPageTo waitForElemen waitForPage
Load tPresent
waitForLoad
a

29 What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using

Selenium
FlexUISeleniu
m
FlexUI UIFlexSeleniu SeleniumFlex
m
a

30 Select the command which is used to compare the

actual page title with an expected value
verifyTitle verifiedTitle verifyTitles verifiedTitles
a

31 Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful

information when executing tests
Information Feddback Reference Element
c

32 What is TestNG ? TestNextGener TestNewGenerl TestNewGener TestNextGener

ation ization ation ations
a

33 Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE Variable
is currently executing
Data Information Info
d
34 Which is a faster component between the Selenium
Web driver and Selenium RC
Selenium Web Selenium Web
Driver driver
b

35 select the variation which locates elements by the value By.id

of their "id" attribute in Web Driver Selenium
By.idno By.id_no By.tag_id
a
36 Select the method which clears all selected entries in
Web Driver Selenium
dselectAll() deselect_Al() dselect_Al() deselectAll()
d

37 Method which selects the option which displays the text selectVisibleTe selectByVisible select_VisibleT select_ByVisibl
matching the parameter passed to it xt() Text() ext() eText()
b

38 Out of the following which is not a wait comand waitForTitle waitForTextPre waitForActive waitForAlert
sent
c

39 Select the command which retrieves the alert message

and stores it in a variable that you will specify
storeAlert storedAlert store_Alert storesAlert
a

40 Select the method which performs a context-click at the click_Context() context.Click() contextClick()
curent mouse location
context_Click()
c
UNIT SUB : 410245 (B) STQA
FIVE

Sr. Questions a b c d Ans

No.
1 Select which option is not true about SQA…? Audits and reviews Amount of Evaluations to
to be performed by technical work be performed
Documents that
are produced by
c
the team to be performed the SQA team.

2 A product which is manufactured by using the

degree of the design specification…
Quality of
conformance
Quality Control Quality
Assurance
None of the
above.
a

3 Which of the following is not included in

prevention cost?
equipment
calibration and
formal technical test
reviews
quality
equipment revie planning review
a
maintenance ws s

4 Select the people who identify the document and

verifies the correctness of the software…
Project manager SQA team Project team All of the
mentioned
b

5 Select the option which is not an appraisal in SQA? inter-process

inspection
maintenance testing quality
planning
d

6 What does Qa and QC stands for Quality Assurance Quality

and Quality
Quality Quality
Adjustment and Assurance and Adjustment and
a
Control Quality Quaity Queuing control Queuing Control
completion
7 Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a
project?
evaluations to be
performed
amount of
technical work
audits and
reviews to be
ocuments to be
produced by the
b
performed SQA group
8 Which of the following is not included in External
failure costs?
testing help line
support
warranty work complaint
resolution
a

9 Who identifies, documents, and verifies that

corrections have been made to the software?
Project manager Project Team SQA Group All of the
mentioned
c

10 Quality also can be looked at in terms of user

satisfaction which includes
A compliant
product
Good quality
output
Delivery within All of the
budget and mentioned
d
schedule

11 Which of the following is not a core step of Six

Sigma?
Define Control Measure Analyse
b
12 Non-conformance to software requirements is
known as
Software
Availability
Software
Reliability
software Failure None of the
above.
c
13 According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing
comes under which management responsibility?
Process control Document
control
Control of
nonconforming
Servicing
a
products

14 Alpha testing is done at Developer‟s end User's end both a and b None of the
above.
a
15 What are the various Testing Levels? Unit testing system testing integration
testing
All of the
mentioned
d
16 Which of the following term describes testing? Finding broken
code
Evaluating
deliverable to
A stage of all
projects
All of the
mentioned
b
find errors

17 Behavioral testing is white box testing black bozx

testing
grey box testing None of the
above.
b
18 In which testing level the focus is on customer
usage?
Alpha testing beta testing validation
testing
both a and b
d
19 Which testing is an integration testing approach
that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped”
Regression Testing Integration
testing
Smoke testing none of the
above.
c
software products are being developed?

20 Testing of individua l components by the

developers are comes under which type of testing?
Integration testing validation
testing
Unit testing None of the
above.
c

21 When different combination of input requires

different combination of actions,Which of the
Boundary Value
Analysis
Equivalence
Partition
Decision Table Decision
Coverage
c
following technique is used in such situation

22 Which of the following is a myth in testing? Tester can find

bugs
Any user can
test software
Missed defects
are not due to
Complete testing
is not possible
b
testers
23 1987 1985 1890 1980
ISO published the standard in __________
a
24 -----------is theapplication of quality principles to all TQM
facets and business process of an organization.
Software
Reliability
software Failure Software testing
a

25 .Innovation is the ---------------activity leading to

changes.
Planned Accidental Virtual User
a
26 Quality management system of a organization
based on which pillars
Test plans, Test
conditions &
Quality
processes,
Quality police,
objectives and
None of the
above.
b
decisions Guidelines and manuals
standards &
Formats and
templates
27 V-model uses --------test models Component
testing, integration
Not fix alpha testing,
beta testing ,
black box
testing, white
b
testing, system acceptance box testing and
testing and testing and user gray box testing
acceptance testing testing
28 Which of the following is a principle of total
quality management?
Continuous
process
Continuous
productivity
Continuous
value
Continuous
defect
c
improvement improvement enhancement elimination

29 The difference between and internal and an

external customer is:
Internal
customers usually
Quality-oriented
businesses care
External
customers care
Internal
customers do
b
work in the only about about what they not evaluate
business, external external receive, internal quality, and
customers do not. customers. customers do external
not. customers do.
30 Costs associated with efforts to prevent errors are Appraisal cost Direct Cost Prevention Cost ExpectedCost
a
31 Quality management system of a organization
based on which pillars
Test plans, Test
conditions &
Quality
processes,
Quality police,
objectives and
None of the
above.
b
decisions Guidelines and manuals
standards &
Formats and
templates

32 What is meant by Kaizen? card signal to avoid

inadvertent
change for
better quality
None of the
above.
c
errors
33 What is the aim of fool proofing technique used for to achieve zero
total quality management? defects
to specify time
cschedule
to specify targets none of the aove
a
34 ISO 14000 quality standard is related with Environmental
management
Automotive
quality
Eliminating
poor quality
Customer
satisfaction
a
systems standards
35 What is quality assurance? Quality assurance
deals with
Quality
assurance deals
Quality None of the
assurance deals above.
a
activities which with activities with controlling
prove that which aim at the quality of
products and customers products by
services meet the satisfaction inspection
required quality
standard

36 Which of the following statements is/are false?

1. Fault tree analysis method is used to determine
Only statement 3 Statement 2 and Only statement Statement 1, 3
statement 3 2 and 4
c
reliability of product
2. The goal of Six Sigma is to reduce number of
defects to 2.4 parts per billion
3. Six sigma is represented by normal distribution
curve
4. Poka yoke is a policy which prevents occurrence
of human errors

37 The aim of Just-In-Time manufacturing principle

is to eliminate
time wastage labour wastage cost of excessive All of the
inventory mentioned
d

38 To what does the ISO 9000 standards family apply? Calibration Efficiency &
productivity
Quality system
design &
None of the
above.
a
39 "The degree to which a set of inherent
characteristics of an object fulfils requirements" is
Conformity Quality Grade None of the
above.
a
known as
40 Which of the following is not one of the seven
Quality Management Principles?
System Approach
to Management
Engagement of
people
Leadership Customer focus
a
UNIT SUB : 410245 (B) STQA
SIX
Sr. Questions a b c d Ans
No.
1 The role of management is to ____________________ provide
Resources
monitor the
effectiveness of
both a and b None of the
above.
c
the system

2 ISO – 14001 gives stress on ___________ Plan – Do

-check -Act
Environmental
protection
Prevention
rather than
all of the above
d
detection
3 Service Assurance is _______ Confidence
with customer
Customer has
trust
Employee has
knowledge
all of the above
d

4 When a manager monitors the work performance of Planning

workers in his department to determine if the quality
Controlling Organizing Leadig
b
of their work is 'up to standard', this manager is
engaging in which function?
5 What are the three C'c of TQM? Cultural,
Country,
Cultural,
comunication
Cultural,
comunication
None of the
above
c
commitment and and
Commitment Contribution
6 ______________ is not a process tools for TQM systems process flow
analysis
histograms lpier control of chart
c

7 Processes that operate with "six sigma quality" over 2.4 2 3 3.4
the short term are assumed to produce long-term
d
defect levels below ______________ defects per million
opportunities (DPMO).
8 ______________ are used in six sigma black belt green belt both a and b None of the
above
c

9 Customers are primarily concerned with

______________
Communicatio
n, courtesy, and
Competence,
courtesy, and
Competence,
responsiveness,
Communication,
responsiveness,
a
credibility of security of the and reliability and cleverness
the sales person sales person of the sales of the sales
person person
10 Assured quality is necessary for building customer
confidence.
correct correct to some
extent
correct to great
extent
incorrect
a

11 "Quality is defined by the customer" is An unrealistic

definition of
A user-based
definition of
A A product-based
manufacturing- definition of
b
quality quality based definition quality
of quality
12 Deming's 4 step cycle for improvement
is______________
plan, do, check, schedule, do, act, do, act, check,
act check monitor
plan, control,
act, sustain
a

13 In Six Sigma, a ______________ is defined as any

process output that does not meet customer
error cost quality defect
d
specifications

14 Quality practices must be carried out ______________ at the start of

the project
throuout the life at the end of the no neeed to
of the project project carry out quality
b
practices
15 The Pareto Chart is a bar chart that allows for
analysis of data in search of the Pareto Principle or
80/20 rule. pareto rule negotiation rule all of the above
a
the _______________________
16 The pareto chart is a _____________________ that
allows us to focus on the issues that are causing the
prioritization
tool
Mu sigma Ishikawa tool all of the above
a
biggest problem, and thus maximize our impact.

17 The Cause and Effect diagram is a visual tool to

explore all the ________________that may be causing
potential
factors
similar factors unrealistic
factors
None of the
above
a
or contributing to a particular problem

18 Data are _______________onthe check sheet to record

the frequency of specific events during a
“collected and
tabulated”
"circulated" "reported" None of the
above
a
datacollection period.

19 Histogram is very useful tool to describe

a________________ of the frequencydistribution of
sense quality measurement all of the above
a
observed values of a variable

20 The _____________ diagram is a problem-solving tool

that investigates and analizessystematically all the
cause and
effect
pareto histogram all of the above
a
potential or real causes that result in a single effect.

21 Which of the following does not affect the software

quality and organizational performance?
Market Product Technology People
a

22 Which of the following is an indirect measure of

product?
Quality Complexity Reliability all of the above
d

23 A graphical technique for finding if changes and Defect Removal Function Point
variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as Efficiency Analaysis
Control Chart all of the above
c
24 What encapsulates state data and services in a
manner that is analogous to objects?
State Box Clean Box White Box Black Box
a

25 MTTF stands for _______________________ mean-time-to-f mean-time-to-fa manufacture-ti

unction ilure me-to-function
None of the
above
b

26 A ........ is an existing defect that hasn’t yet ust because mutant defect
another defect has yet caused a failure because
BKSU defect latent defect delayed defect
c
the exact set of conditions were never met.

27 Which of the following is not a state of a defect in

defect life cycle:
New Open Verified Critical
d

28 ........... happens when defect introduced in one phase Defect

passes to another phase without getting caught in the Cascading
Defect
Prevention
QC Defect Leakage
d
phase-end verification or validation activities.

29 Defect ....... is a technique that was developed to

estimate the number of defects resident in a piece of
Density Seeding Age Latency
b
software.
30 The main focus of ......... is to reduce defects and
variations in the processes.
QA QC Six Sigma None of the
above
c

31 Who among the following suggested seven quality

tools for controlling quality?
Juran Kaoru Ishikawa Dr. W. Edward
Deming
Feigenbaum
b

32 Which among the following depicts positive and

negative relation between driving factor and
Scatter diagram histogram check sheet None of the
above
a
performance factor?
33 Which of the following is the limitation of Quality
circle?
higher cost training time
and cost
development of all of the above
leadership
b

34 Which of the following is the task ofproject

indicators:
help in track potential
assessment of risk
help in
assessment of
None of the
above
c
status of status of
ongoing project ongoing project
and track
potential risk

35 Which of the following is an indirect measure of

product?
Quality Complexity Reliability all of the above
d
36 The intent of project metrics is : Minimization For strategic
of development purposes
assessig project Minimization of
quality on going development
d
schedule basis schedule and
assessing project
quality on going
basis

37 Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality

Costs?
Prevention Internal Failure External Failure Appraisal
d
38 -----------is the ability to encourage by "push or pull"
technical people to produce to their best ability.
Evaluating Motivation Monitoring None of the
above
b

39 Which of the following is responsible for the quality Top level

objective? management
Middle level
management
Frontline
Management
all of the above
a

40 Which of the following is not a core step of Six

Sigma?
Define Control measure Analyse
b
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Name of the Teacher: Prof. S. M. Kolekar

Class: BE Subject: STQA

AY: 2020-21 SEM: II

UNIT-1
1) Major views associated with product or project quality are :

I. Customer View

II. Supplier View

III. Employee View

IV. Management View

V. Society View

VI. Government View

a. I, II, IV, V

b. III, II, I

c. I, III, V, VI

d. All of the above

Ans: d
Explanation: All mentioned views are associated with product/ project quality.
2) During supply chain it is necessary that each function shall understand its
________, ________ and their needs in order to fulfill requirements
a. Customers, Suppliers

b. Process , Suppliers

c. Quality, Assurance

d. None of the above

Ans: a
Explanation:
3) _______ is continuous process of detecting and reducing errors or defects in any
manufacturing process, improving the customer experience and ensuring that
employees are up to speed with training

a. Process
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
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DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

b. Software Quality

c. Total Quality Management(TQM)

d. Customer

Ans: C
Explanation:
4) People that are external to an organization are termed as ________ .
a. External customer

b. Stakeholder

c. Customer

a) Supplier

Ans: a
Explanation:
5) Full form of of “pdca” is
a. Plan Deploy Check Act

b. Prepare Do Check Act

c. Plan Do Check Act

d. Plan Dispatch Check Act

Ans: c
Explanation:
6) It is used to create qualitative and quantitative metrics that measures product
quality against various scales of a ______

a. Matrices

b. Benchmark

c. Quality Assurance

d. All of the above

Ans: b
Explanation:
7) Categories of Requirements of product
a. Stated and implied requirements

b. General and specific requirements

 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

c. Present and future requirements

d. All of the above

Ans: d
Explanation:
8) Requirement category based on priority
a. primary requirement

b. secondary requirement

c. tertiary requirement

d. All of the above

Ans: d
Explanation:
9) RAD stands for
a. Rapid application development

b. Rapid appliance development

c. read applied development

d. none of the above

Ans: a
Explanation:
10) Types of software product
a. product affecting life

b. product affecting investment

c. simulation-based product
d. All of the above

Ans: d
Explanation:
11) A __________ is a a collection of of business process focused on consistently
meeting customer requirements and enhancing their satisfaction
a. Quality assurance

b. Total Quality Management (TQM)

c. Quality management system (QMS)

d. All of the above

Ans: c
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Explanation:
12) Quality management is the process of overseeing all activities and task needed to
maintain a desired level of excellence.
a. Quality assurance

b. Total Quality Management (TQM)

c. Quality management system (QMS)

d. All of the above

Ans: b

Explanation:
13) Which tiers forms typical structure of quality management system QMS
a. Tier 1 - quality policy

b. Tier 2 - to quality objectives

c. Tier 3 - quality manual

d. all of the above

Ans: d
Explanation:
14) _______ and _______ activities are performed at entry level of product
development
a. Verification, Validation

b. Process , Suppliers

c. Quality, Assurance

d. None of the above

Ans: a
Explanation:
15) ________ consist of project review technical review code review management
review etc
a. Verification

b. Quality

c. Suppliers

d. Validation

Ans: a
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Explanation:
16) Validation consist of testing activities like unit testing system testing etc
a. Verification

b. Quality

c. Suppliers

d. Validation

Ans: b
Explanation:
17) Dimensions of information security are
a. Confidentiality

b. Integrity

c. Availability

d. All of the above

Ans: d
Explanation:
18) Software requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured.
a. Process

b. Software requirements

c. Both

a) None
Ans: b
Explanation:
19) ___________ is the degree of conformance to explicit or implicit requirement and
expectations of customer
a. Quality Assurance

b. Software quality

c. Supplier

d. None

Ans: b
Explanation:
20) Quality planning must be done to achieve target improvements that include

a. Process

b. PDCA cycle
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH
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DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

c. DMMCI cycle

d. All of the above

Ans: d
Explanation:

Name and Sign of Subject Teacher

 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Name of the Teacher: Prof. S. M. Kolekar

Class: BE Subject: STQA

AY: 2020-21 SEM: II

UNIT-2
15) What is the purpose of testing?
a. Quality assurance
b. Verification and Validation
c. Reliability estimation
d. All of the Above

Ans: d
Explanation:
16) What is true about the Big Bang Approach?
i. The main focus is on testing black box functionalities against
SRS document.
ii. Defects detected by big bang approach are always effective.
It is also known as system testing and is the last phase as per waterfall
model.
a. Only i

b. i and iii
c. Only ii
d. ii and iii

Ans: b
Explanation:
17) According to the Tester’s view of testing , Testing
a. Is an attempt made to detect every defect in a work product
which will be corrected eventually.
b. May meet the software must meet customer’s requirements.
c. Should confirm that any legal requirement is satisfied or not.
d. Should ensure the software is safe and reliable.

Ans: a
Explanation:
18) Which of the following is a testing process during development of life
cycle?
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
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DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

a. Alpha testing
b. White box testing
c. Beta testing
d. Requirement testing

Ans: d
Explanation:
19) What is a Test scenario ?

a. a detailed document, which provides information about the

testing stratergy , testing process, preconditions and expected
output.
b. is to verify the test scenario by implementing steps.
c. those derived from the use case and give the one line
information about the test.
d. is a one-time attempt that can be used in the future at the time of
regression testing.

Ans: c
Explanation:
20) Types of Requirement Traceability Matrix?
a. Vertical Traceability Matrix
b. Risk Traceability Matrix
c. Bidirectional Traceability Matrix
d. All of the above

Ans: d
Explanation:
21) What is test strategy?

a. It is a formal document used to define the scope of testing and

different testing activities.
b. It is a high-level document that involves planning for all the
testing activities and delivering a quality product.
c. It is a dynamic document that can be updated frequently when
new requirements or modifications have occurred.
d. It is derived with the help of Use Case documents, SRS
(Software Requirement Specification), and Product Description.

Ans: b
Explanation:
22) What is a characteristic of test planning?
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH
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DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

a. Test planning should predict the number of defects to be

detected during testing.
b. If defects are not detected by test plan that will not be a problem
for designed test cases .
c. Testing is not always a part of SDLC.
d. It predicts whether a development process is ‘good’ or ‘bad’

Ans: a
Explanation:
23) 1. Mutation testing lies on :
i. Component Programmer Assumption
ii. Coupling effect Assumption

a. Only i
b. Only ii
c. Both i and ii
d. None

Ans: c
Explanation:
24) Which of the following is not a Advantage of mutation testing ?
a. Mutation testing brings a good level of error detection to the
software developer.
b. It is extremely costly and time consuming.
c. It uncovers the ambiguities in the source code.
d. This testing is capable comprehensively testing the mutant
program.

Ans: b
Explanation:
25) Unclear , incomplete , inconsistent ,non -measurable requirements leads to
problem in designing test scenarios and test cases. (True or False)
a. True
b. False

Ans: a
Explanation:
26) The variation between the actual results and expected results is known as
_______.
a. Error
b. Mistake
c. Fault
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
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DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

d. Defect

Ans: d

Explanation:
27) Which testing technique is used for usability testing?
a. White-box testing

b. Grey box testing

c. Black Box testing

d. Combination of all
Ans: c
Explanation:
28) What is a component testing?
a. White box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Grey box testing
d. Both a and b

Ans: a
Explanation:
15) Which of the following is refers to as fault based testing technique?
a. Stress Testing

b. Unit testing

c. Mutation Testing

d. Beta Testing
Ans: c
Explanation:
16) Roles of tester ?

i. defect identification

ii. develop testing budget that focuses on people, money,

time ,etc.

iii. Risk identification

 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

iv. Calculate cost and effectiveness of testing.

a. i ,iii,iv
b. ii,iv
c. i , iii
d. ii , iii , iv

Ans: b
Explanation:
17) Requirement Traceability Matrix Template does not contain ?
a. Module name

b. Test case name

c. Low level requirement

d. Test plan number

Ans: d
Explanation:
18) What is the Testing Skill needed by a tester?
a. Good eye on the details

b. Knowledge and hands on experience of a Test management tool

c. Development , maintenance , operation

d. Continuous Education
Ans: b
Explanation:
19) Ad hoc testing has no documentation , no test design , no test case.

a. True

b. False
Ans: a
Explanation:
20) What is the disadvantage of agile testing?
a. There is a emphasis on necessary designing and documentation.
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
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DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

b. Saves time and money.

c. Only senior programmers are capable of taking the kind of decisions

required during the development process.

d. daily meetings are practised which help resolve the issues wee in
advance.
Ans: c
Explanation:

Name and Sign of Subject Teacher

 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY’S
ZEAL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND RESEARCH
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Name of the Teacher: Prof. S. M. Kolekar

Class: BE Subject: STQA

AY: 2020-21 SEM: II

UNIT-3
29) Which is Automation testing tool
a) Selenium
b) LoadRunner
c) SilkTest
d) All of the above

Ans: d
Explanation:
30) What is full form of BVT?
a) Build Verification Testing
b) Bullet Verification Testing
c) Black Verified Test
d) None of the above

Ans: a
Explanation:
31) Automation testing perform the repetition of same operation every time
a) True
b) False

Ans: a
Explanation:
32) What is Test Case?
a) Document that contains test data
b) Document that contains actual output
c) Document that contains test input
d) Both a & c

Ans: d
Explanation:
33) Test Scenarios represents…
a) What a test should do
b) How much time is taken to conduct test
c) How a test will be carried out
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d) Purpose of test

Ans: c
Explanation:
34) How many types of Automation are there
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5

Ans: c
Explanation:
35) Which is the First Generation of Automation

a) Data-driven
b) Record and Playback
c) Action-driven
d) None of the above

Ans: b
Explanation:
36) Action-driven is which type of language
a) Scripting language
b) Programming language
c) Assembly language
d) None of the above

Ans: b
Explanation:
37) Data-driven Automation uses which type of testing

a) Black box testing

b) White box testing
c) None of the above
d) Both a & b

Ans: a
Explanation:
38) Full Form of TDD
a) Test derived data
b) Tool driven development
c) Test driven development
d) Test driven data
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Ans: c
Explanation:
39) Design pattern of JUnit is
a) The compound pattern
b) The composite pattern
c) None of the above
d) Both a & b

Ans: d
Explanation:
40) setup() method is used to
a) initialize the object
b) define the object
c) release the object
d) None of the above

Ans: a

Explanation:
41) JMeter is an Apache Jakarta project
a) True
b) False

Ans: a
Explanation:
42) JMeter is
a) Platform dependent
b) Platform independent

Ans: b
Explanation:
15) Which protocol is not supported by JMeter
a) TCP/IP
b) HTTP
c) JDBC
d) FTP

Ans: c
Explanation:
16) 1. Test plan elements of the JMeter are
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a) Test plan
b) Timers
c) Controllers
d) All of the above

Ans: d
Explanation:
17) Samplers are the components which allow JMeter to:
a) Send specific requests to a server
b) Accept requests from server
c) Give the acknowledgement to the user
d) None

Ans: a
Explanation:
18) The command to stop the test plan by Jmeter is
a) Control + ‘.’
b) Control + ‘,’
c) Shift + ‘.’
d) Shift + ‘/’

Ans: a
Explanation:
19) A Pre-Processor element is executed

a) Just before the request made by sampler

b) After the request made by sampler
c) After running the sampler element
d) Before running configuration element

Ans: a
Explanation:
20) Types of logical controllers are
a) IF controller
b) Transaction controller
c) Do-While controller
d) Only a & b
Ans: d
Explanation:
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Name and Sign of Subject Teacher

Choose the incorrect statement regarding the need for quality.

A. Markets have become more competitive

B. Quality provides sustained performance

C. Quality provides customer satisfaction

D. It is the trend nowadays to introduce quality

Answer: D

How can quality be quantified? (Q=Quality, P=Performance, E=Expectations)

A. Q=P/E

B. Q=P+E

C. Q=P-E

D. Q=P*E

Answer: A

The ‘v’ represent the following term:

A.Verification and validation

B.Static testing and Dynamic testing

C.Black box testing and white box testing

D.Software development process and software testing process

Answer: D

To which phase will training cost fall?

A.Failure
B.Prevention

C.Build

D.Appraisal

Answer: B

The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases

A. Test Matrix

B. Checklist

C. Test bed

D. Traceability Matrix

Answer: D

To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements are not.
It is a static process

A. Validation

B. Verification

C. Quality Assurance

D. Quality Control

Answer: B

To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer requirements r not. It is a
Dynamic process.

A. Validation

B. Verification

C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control

Answer: A

Cost of quality = Prevention Cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a system of management
activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle & Deals with Process.

A. Validation

B. Verification

C. Quality Assurance

D. Quality Control

Answer: C

It measures the quality of a product It is a specific part of the QA procedure, It is a corrective process, It
applies for particular product & Deals with the product.

A. Validation

B. Verification

C. Quality Assurance

D. Quality Control
Answer: D

Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

What is correct Software Process Cycle?

A. Plan(P)------>Check(C)------>Act(A)----->Do(D)

B. Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Check(C)----->Act(A)

C. Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Act(A)----->Check(C)

Answer: B

Which Software Development Life cycle model will require to start Testing Activities when starting
development activities itself

A. Water falls model

B. Spiral Model

C. V-model

D. Linear model

Answer: C

Cost of Production = Right The First time cost(RTF. + Cost of Quality.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

TQM represents

A. Tool Quality Management

B. Test Quality Manager

C. Total Quality Management

D. Total Quality Manager

Answer: C

'Q' organisations are the oraganisations who believe in listening to cutomers and determining their
requirements.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

'q' organisations assume that they know customer requirements

A. True

B. False

Answer: A
Which organisation concentrate on identifying cost of quality and focusing it to reduce cost of failure
whcih will reduce overll cost and price

A. 'q' organisation

B. 'Q' organisation

Answer: B

Which organisation believe in taking ownership of processes and defects at all levels

A. 'q' organisation

B. 'Q' organisation

Answer: B

Quality control approach focuses on

A. Finding and fixing defects

B.Creation of of process framework

C. Managing Quality

D. All of these

Answer: A

Quality assurance approach focuses on

A. Finding and fixing defects

B.Creation of of process framework

C. Managing Quality

D. All of these
Answer: B

Breakthrough changes are possible with ...

A. Inventions

B. Innovations

C. All of these

Answer: A

Innovation is a planned activity leading to change

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

The value of product defined on the basis of accomplishment of ------requirements

A. Must Requirements

B. Should Requirements

C. Could Requirements

D. All of these

Answer:A

-----are the requirements which may be appreciated by the customer if they are present/absent and may
add some value to product
A. Must Requirements

B. Should Requirements

C. Could Requirements

D. All of these

Answer:B

------ are the requirements which may add a competitive advantage to the product but may not add
much valuein terms of price paid by a customer.

A. Must Requirements

B. Should Requirements

C. Could Requirements

D. All of these

Answer:C

Improvement in quality directly leads to improved productivity

A. True

B. False

Answer:A

Quality planning at unit level must be done by

A. People responsible for managing the unit

B. Senior Management
C. Supplier

D. Customer

Answer:A

Quality planning at organisational level must be done by

A. People responsible for managing the unit

B. Senior Management

C. Supplier

D. Customer

Answer: B

Quality planning at organisational level must be in form of

A. policy definition

B. Vision

C. Mission

D. All of these

Answer: D

Cost required for developing the right product by right method at the first time is called as:

A. Cost of manufacturing

B. Cost of Quality

C. Cost of Prevention
D. Cost of Failure

Answer: A

Defined processes , guidelines, standards of development, testing represent

A. Cost of manufacturing

B. Cost of Appraisal

C. Cost of Prevention

D. Cost of Failure

Answer: C

Proft= Sales price -[cost of manufacturing + cost of quality]

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

Users gap is

A. gap between requirement specifiactions for the product and user expectations from it

B. gap between quality and productivity

C. communication gap between users and producers

D. None of these
Continuous improvement is dynamic in nature

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

In ------------ changes in environment is followed by stabilisation

A. Continuous improvement

B. Continual improvemnet

C. Quality Control

D. None of these

Answer: A

Primary role of software testing is

A. Demonstarte correctness of sofware

B. Expose hidden defects so that that can be fixed

C. Quality Improvement

D. Quality Assurance

Answer:A

'Big Bang' approach involve testing software system

A. After development work

B. Before development work

C. During development work

D. All of these

Answer: A

Cost of prevention represents

A. Green Money

B. Blue Money

C. Red Money

D. None of these

Answer: A

Cost of appraisal represents

A. Green Money

B. Blue Money

C. Red Money

D. None of these

Answer: B

Cost of failure represents

A. Green Money
B. Blue Money

C. Red Money

D. None of these

Answer: C

Requirement testing involve mock running of future application using requirement statement

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

Test scenarios are written by

A. Developers

B. Testers

C. Suppliers

D. Customers

Answer: B

Entire software development can be tracked through requirement traceability matrix

A. True

B. False

Answer: A
When an application can be traced from requirement through design & coding till test scenario and test
cases upto test results , it is termed as

A. Vericcal Traceability

B. Horizontal Traceability

C. Bidirectional Traceability

D. None of these

Answer: B

When an application can be traced from requirement through design & coding till test scenario and test
cases upto test results and reverse is also possible , it is termed as

A. Vericcal Traceability

B. Horizontal Traceability

C. Bidirectional Traceability

D. Risk Traceability

Answer: C

Due to existence of a certain defect few more defects are introduced or seen is normally termed as

A. Camouflage effect

B. Coverage Effect

C. Cascading Effect

D. Redundant Effect

Answer: C
Which of the following are typical exit criteria for testing?

i) costs

ii) Schedules such as those based on time to market

iii) Test environment availability and readiness

iv) Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

A. i, ii and iii only

B. ii, iii and iv only

C. i, iii and iv only

D. i, ii and iv only

Answer: D

……………. provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable
identification, isolation, and correction as necessary.

A. Incident report

B. Incident logging

C. Testing report

D. Risk report

Answer: A

Which of the following risk does NOT include product risks in software testing?

A. Failure-prone software delivered

B. Software that does not perform its intended functions

C. Low quality of the design and coding

D. Poor data integrity and quality

Answer: C

The purpose of ……………… is to provide feedback and visibility about test activities.

A. Test control.

B. Test monitoring

C. Test reporting

D. Configuration management

Answer: B

Test policy is overall high-level approach.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

Exit criteria is determined during ______.

A. Test Closure activity

B. Implementation and execution

C. Evaluating exit criteria and Reporting

D. Planning and Control

Answer: D

Which of the following are the tasks performed by the typical tester?

i) Review tests developed by others

ii) Decide on the implementation of the test environment

iii) Prepare and acquire test data

A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

Answer: C

The testing in which code is checked

A. Black box testing

B. White box testing

C. Red box testing

D. Green box testing

Answer :B

Which of the following is/are White box technique?

A. Statement Testing
B. Decision Testing

C. Condition Coverage

D. All of the mentioned

Answer:D

Boundary value analysis belong to?

A. White Box Testing

B. Black Box Testing

C. White Box & Black Box Testing

D. None of the mentioned

Answer: B

Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific

function.

A True

B False

Answer : B

Which of the following is the odd one out?

A. White box

B. Functional

C. Structural

D. Glass box
Answer: B

Which of the following is a static test?

A. Coverage analysis

B. Code inspection

C. Usability assessment

D. Installation test

Answer: B

Which of the following is a black box design technique?

A. statement testing

B. error- guessing

c. equivalence partitioning

D. usability testing

Answer: C

Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A. Design based
B. Bottom-up

C. Big-bang

D. Top-down

Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A. To find faults in the software

B. To give confidence in the software

C. To prove that the software has no faults

D. To find performance problems

Answer: C

6. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A. Non-functional system testing

B. Component testing

C. User acceptance testing

D. Maintenance testing

Answer: D

Expected results are:

A. Only important in system testing

B. Most useful when specified in advance

C. Only used in component testing

D. Derived from the code

Answer: B

What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics?

A. Management review

B. Inspection

C. Walkthrough

D. Post project review

Answer: B

The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

A. Re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression

testing looks for unexpected side-effects

B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing

ensures the original fault has been removed

C. Re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by

independent testers
D. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done

earlier

Answer: A

Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an
independent system test team?

i) static analysis

ii) performance testing

iii. test management

iv) dynamic analysis

A. Developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii

B. Developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv

C. Developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team iiD

D. Developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii

Answer: A

A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

A. an error
B. a fault

C. a failure

D. a defect

Answer: C

Beta Testing is also known as _________ testing.

A. Field

B. Unit

C. Functional

D. Box

Answer: A

Unit Tests can detect ________________

A. Regressions

B. Quality Check

C. Database Errors

D. Enforced Error

Answer: A
assertThat(0.03, is(closeTo(1.0, 0.03))) is ___________

A. True

B. False

C. Null

D. Error

Answer: B

Which of the following is/are the uses of software testing tools?

i. Test tools are used in reconnaissance.

ii. Test tools help in managing the testing process.

A. i only

B. ii only

C. Both i and ii

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Which of the following is/are the purposes of using software testing tools?

i. To improve the efficiency of test activities by automating repetitive tasks.

ii. To automate the activities that require significant resources when done manually.

iii. To automate the activities that cannot be executed manually.

A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

Answer: C

… execute test objects using the automated test scripts.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Monitoring Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Execution Tools

Answer: D

State whether the following statements about the risk of using tools for testing are True or False.

i. There is a poor response from the vendor for support, upgrades, and defect fixes.

ii. There is a risk of suspension of the open-source or free tools project.

A. i-True, ii-False

B. i-False, ii-True

C. i-True, ii-True

D. i-False, ii-False

Answer: C
… store and manage defects, failure, change requests, or perceived problems and anomalies.

A. Requirements Management Tools

B. Test Management Tools

C. Incident Management Tools

D. Configuration Management Tools

Answer: C

Which of the following is/are the uses of software testing tools?

i. Test tools are used in reconnaissance.

ii. Test tools help in managing the testing process.

A. i only

B. ii only

C. Both i and ii

D. None of the above

Answer: C

which of the following is/are the purposes of using software testing tools?

i. To improve the efficiency of test activities by automating repetitive tasks.

ii. To automate the activities that require significant resources when done manually.

iii. To automate the activities that cannot be executed manually.

A. i and ii only
B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

Answer: D

… provide interfaces for executing tests, tracking defects, and managing requirements along with
support for quantitative analysis and reporting of the test objects.

A. Requirements Management Tools

B. Test Management Tools

C. Incident Management Tools

D. Configuration Management Tools

Answer: B

… helps with identifying inconsistent or missing requirements.

A. Requirements Management Tools

B. Test Management Tools

C. Incident Management Tools

D. Configuration Management Tools

Answer: A

… store and manage defects, failure, change requests, or perceived problems and anomalies.

A. Requirements Management Tools

B. Test Management Tools

C. Incident Management Tools

D. Configuration Management Tools

Answer: C

… are necessary for storage and version management of testware and related software.

A. Requirements Management Tools

B. Test Management Tools

C. Incident Management Tools

D. Configuration Management Tools

Answer: D

… helps in planning or risk analysis by providing metrics for the code.

A. Review Tools

B. Static Analysis Tools

C. Modeling Tools

D. Test Design Tools

Answer: B

… are used to validate software models by enumerating inconsistencies and finding defects.

A. Review Tools

B. Static Analysis Tools

C. Modeling Tools

D. Test Design Tools

Answer: C

… are used to generate test inputs or executable tests.

A. Review Tools

B. Static Analysis Tools

C. Modeling Tools

D. Test Design Tools

Answer: D

… manipulate databases, files, or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution
of tests.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Static Analysis Tools

C. Modeling Tools

D. Test Design Tools

Answer: A

… are used to record tests and usually support scripting languages or GUI-based configuration for
parameterization of data and other customization in the tests.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Test Execution Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Design Tools

Answer: B

… are used in component and component integration testing and when testing middleware.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Monitoring Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Execution Tools

Answer: C

… continuously analyze, verify, and report on the usage of specific system resources and give warnings
of possible problems.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Monitoring Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Execution Tools

Answer: B

which of the following is/are the potential benefits of using tools for testing?

i. Reducing the repetitive work.

ii. Increasing consistency and repeatability.

iii. Over-reliance on the tool.

A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

Answer: A

State whether the following statements about the risk of using tools for testing are True or False.

i. There is a poor response from the vendor for support, upgrades, and defect fixes.

ii. There is a risk of suspension of the open-source or free tools project.

A. i-True, ii-False

B. i-False, ii-True

C. i-True, ii-True

D. i-False, ii-False

Answer: C

… execute test objects using the automated test scripts.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Monitoring Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Execution Tools

Answer: D
When … are applied to source code can enforce coding standards, but if applied to existing code may
generate a large number of messages.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Static Analysis Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Execution Tools

Answer: B

What you should consider while selecting a tool for an organization?

i. Evaluating the training needs by considering the current test team’s test automation skills.

ii. Estimating the cost-benefit ratio based on a concrete business case.

iii. Providing training for new users.

A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

Answer: A

Which of the following is/are the main objectives of introducing the selected tool into an organization
with a pilot project?

i. To learn more detail about the tool.

ii. To evaluate how the tool fits with the existing process.

iii. To decide the standard ways of using, managing, sorting, and maintaining the tool.
A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

Answer: D

Which of the following are the success factors for the deployment of the tool within an organization.?

i. Assessing whether the benefits will be achieved at a reasonable cost.

ii. Adapting and improving processes to fit with the use of the tool.

iii. Defining the usage guidelines.

A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

Answer:B

State whether the following statements are True or False.

i) Testing removes faults, debugging identifies the causes of failures.

ii) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures, debugging removes the failures.

A. True, True

B. True, False

C. False, True

D. False, False
Answer: D

Which of the following statements are TRUE.

i) Testing identifies the source of defects, debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention
activities.

ii) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects, debugging finds, analyzes and removes the causes
of failure in the software.

A. True, True

B. True, False

C. False, True

D. False, False

Answers: C

Which of the following is correct about a Unit Test Case?

A. A Unit Test Case is a part of code which ensures that the another part of code (method) works as
expected.

B. A formal written unit test case is characterized by a known input and by an expected output, which is
worked out before the test is executed.

C. The known input should test a precondition and the expected output should test a postcondition.

D. All of the above.

Answers: D

Which of the following is correct about JUnit execution procedure?

A. First of all method annotated as @BeforeClass execute only once.

B. Lastly, the method annotated as @AfterClass executes only once.

C. Method annotated as @Before executes for each test case but before executing the test case.

D. All of the above.

Answers: D

Which of the following class is used to bundle unit test cases and run them together?

A. JUnitCore

B. TestCase

C. TestSuite

D. TestResult

Answers: C

Jmeter is used for

A. Testing Web Application

B. Executing Web Application

C. Searching Web Application

D. None of this

Answers: A

Stress testing is possible by Jmeter?

A. No

B. Yes
Answer: B

Which is the assertion tests where each server response was received within a given amount of time?

A. Duration

B. Size

C. XML

D. Response

Answer: A

Select testing which uses multiple systems to perform stress testing.

A. Load Testing

B. Functional Testing

C. Distributed Testing

D. web application testing

Answer: C
 Unit -1 Introduction Answer
1 How a quality can be quantified D
A. Performance + Expectations
B. Performance X Expectations
C. Performance – Expectations
D. Performance / Expectations
Explanation:
Quality can be quantified by
Quality (Q) = Performance (P) /Expectations (E)
So option D is correct
2 Traditional culture of quality requirements focuses on A
A. Product oriented
B. Process oriented
C. Customer oriented
D. Supplier oriented
Explanation:
Traditional culture of quality requirements is Product oriented, whereas TQM culture is
Process oriented.
So option A is correct
3 American quality guru who took the message of quality to Japan D
A. Genichi Taguchi
B. Masaaki Imai
C. Shigeo Shingo
D. W. Edwards Deming
Explanation:
American quality Guru’s are W. Edward Deming, Walter Shewhart, Philip Crosby, Joseph
M Juran.
So option D is correct
4 PDCA cycle is the contribution of D
A. Walter Shewhart
B. Philip Crosby
C. Genichi Taguchi
D. W. Edward Deming
Explanation:
W. Edward Deming contributions are
1. Deming’s 14 points route to quality
2. Deming Cycle or PDCA cycle
3. Seven deadly diseases of Management
4. System of profound
knowledge So option D is
Correct
5 In TQM , the contributions of quality Guru W. Edward Deming D
A. Deming’s 14 points
B. Deming’s Cycle
C. System of profound knowledge
D. All the above
Explanation:
W. Edward Deming contributions are
1. Deming’s 14 points route to quality
2. Deming Cycle or PDCA cycle
3. Seven deadly diseases of Management
4. System of profound
knowledge So option D is
Correct
6 Which one is Juran’s “three- role model” A
A. Supplier – Process – Customer
B. Customer - Process – Customer
C. Process – Customer – Supplier
D. Process – Supplier – Customer
Explanation:
Juran’s “Three role model” is Supplier – Process – Customer
So option A is correct
7 In TQM, how many elements are there in Quality statements C
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Explanation:
Quality statements has three elements
1. Vision statement
2. Mission statement
3. Quality policy statement
So option C is correct
8 What are the elements of Quality statements D
A. Vision statement
B. Mission statement
C. Quality policy statement
D. All the above
Explanation:
Quality statements has three elements
1. Vision statement
2. Mission statement
3. Quality policy statement
So option D is correct
9 Quality Trilogy is the contributions of C
A. Walter Shewhart
B. Philip Crosby
C. Joseph M Juran
D. W. Edward Deming
Explanation:
Juran’s Contributions are
1. Internal customer
 2. Cost of quality
3. Fitness of Use
4. Quality trilogy
5. Juran’s 10 steps for quality improvement
6. Breakthrough concept
So option C is correct
10 In TQM , the contributions of quality Guru Joseph M Juran D
A. Internal Customer
B. Cost of Quality
C. Breakthrough Concept
D. All the above
Explanation:
Juran’s Contributions are
1. Internal customer
2. Cost of quality
3. Quality trilogy
4. Fitness of Use
5. Juran’s 10 steps for quality improvement
6. Breakthrough concept
So option D is correct
11 The contributions of quality Guru Philip Crosby in TQM D
A. PDCA Cycle
B. Quality trilogy
C. PDSA
D. Concept of Zero defects
Explanation:
Philip Crosby’s contributions are
1. Four absolutes of quality
2. 14 steps to quality management
3. Crosby’s quality vaccine
4. Concept of Zero defects
So option D is correct
12 The contribution of Four absolute of Quality is given by B
A. Walter Shewhart
B. Philip Crosby
C. Joseph M Juran
D. W. Edward Deming
Explanation:
Philip Crosby’s contributions are
1. Four absolutes of quality
2. 14 steps to quality management
3. Crosby’s quality vaccine
4. Concept of Zero defects
So option B is correct
13 Cost of quality is given by costs of A
A. Prevention + Appraisal +Internal failure +External failure
B. Prevention + Appraisal
C. Internal failure + External failure
D. Appraisal + Internal failure
 Explanation:
Cost of quality = Prevention cost + Appraisal cost + Internal failure cost + External failure
cost
So option A is correct
14 In components of CoQ, Cost of good quality contains C
A. Prevention cost
B. Appraisal cost
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Explanation:
CoQ of good quality = Prevention cost + Appraisal cost
So option C is correct
15 In components of CoQ, Cost of poor quality contains C
A. Internal failure cost
B. External failure cost
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Explanation:
CoQ of good quality = Internal failure cost + External failure cost
So option C is correct
16 The Teboul’s customer satisfaction model depends on C
A. Company offer
B. Customer needs
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Explanation:
Teboul’s customer satisfaction model is the intersection of Company offer and Customer
needs
So option C is correct
17 Customer perception on quality contains D
A. Performance
B. Features
C. Service
D. All the above
Explanation:
Customer perception on quality are performance, Features, Service, Warranty, Price and
Reputation
So option D is correct
18 Tools used for collecting customer complaints D
A. Comment cards
B. Focus groups
C. Toll free Telephone numbers
D. All the above
Explanation:
Tools used for receiving customer complaints 1. Comment Cards 2. Customer
Questionnaire 3. Post-transaction surveys 4. Employee feedback 5.Focus groups 6.Toll free
Telephone numbers.
So option D is correct
19 PDCA cycle stands for A
A. Plan Do Check Act
B. Plan Did Check Act
C. Process Do Check Act
D. Process Did Check Acknowledge
Explanation:
PDCA cycle stands for Plan Do Check Act as per E. Deming
So option A is correct
20 Dimensions of quality contains D
A. Performance
B. Reliability
C. Conformance
All the above
Explanation:
Dimensions of quality contains Performance, features, usability, conformance
to standards/specifications, reliability, durability, maintainability.
So option D is correct
21 TQM culture of quality requirements focuses on B
A. Product oriented
B. Process oriented
C. Customer oriented
D. Supplier oriented
Explanation:
TQM culture of quality requirements is Process oriented, whereas Traditional culture is
Product oriented.
So option B is correct
22 Dimensions of Service quality contains D
A. Tangibles
B. Reliability
C. Assurance
D. All the above
Explanation:
Dimensions of Service quality contains Tangibles , Reliability, Assurance, empathy,
Responsiveness
So option D is correct
23 Japanese quality guru who developed new concepts in response to the American C
gurus
A. Walter Shewhart
B. Philip Crosby
C. Genichi Taguchi
D. W. Edward Deming
Explanation:
Japanese quality guru are Genichi Taguchi, Masaaki Imai, Shigeo Shingo.
So option C is correct
24 In TQM, the customer need can be understandable by which model B
A. Taguchi Model
B. Kano Model
C. Deming Model
D. Kaizen Model
Explanation:
 Kano proposed a model to understand the customer need. Whereas others contributions are
not with respect to customer need.
So option B is correct
25 The most common techniques used for analyzing the quality costs are C
A. Trend Analysis
B. Pareto Analysis
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Explanation:
The techniques ​used for analyzing the quality costs are ​Trend Analysis and Pareto
Analysis
So option C is correct
26 In continuous improvement, PDSA stands for A
A. Plan Do Study Act
B. Plan Did Study Act
C. Process Do Study Act
D. Process Did Study Acknowledge
Explanation:
PDSA stands for Plan Do Study Act
So option A is correct
27 The system for causing quality is preventive, not appraisal is B
A. First absolute
B. Second absolute
C. Third absolute
D. Fourth absolute
Explanation:
First absolute: Definition of Quality
Second absolute: The system for causing quality is preventive, not appraisal
Third absolute: Zero defect
Fourth absolute: The measurement of quality is the price of non-conformance, not indexes
So option B is correct
28 The Quality as “ Fitness of Use” is given by C
A. Walter Shewhart
B. Philip Crosby
C. Joseph M Juran
D. W. Edward Deming
Explanation:
Juran’s Contributions are
1. Internal customer
2. Cost of quality
3. Fitness of Use
4. Quality trilogy
5. Juran’s 10 steps for quality improvement
6. Breakthrough concept
So option C is correct
29 Cost generated before the before a product is shipped as a result of non-conformance B
to requirements is
A. Appraisal cost
B. Internal failure cost
C. External failure cost
 D. Prevention cost
Explanation:
Internal failure cost: Cost generated before the before a product is shipped as a result of
non-conformance to requirements.
External failure cost: Cost generated before the after a product is shipped as a result of
non-conformance to requirements
So option B is correct

30 The expression of dissatisfaction with a product either orally or written is C

A. Customer retention
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Customer complaints
D. Customer service
Explanation:
Customer complaint is defined as The expression of dissatisfaction with a product either
orally or written.
So option C is correct
UNIT-II TQM Principles
31 Success of each organization is depending on the performance of c
a) Employer
b) Management
c) Employee
d) Vendor
Explanation:
Employee involvement improves the quality and productivity at all levels of organization.
So option c is correct
32 A satisfied employee will be a b
a) Manager
b) High performer
c) Motivator to others
d) Team leader
Explanation:
A satisfied employee will improve their work continuously, find new goals and change
challenges.
So option b is correct

33 Motivation includes d
a) Job satisfaction
b) Job enrichment
c) Job enlargement
d) All of the above
Explanation:
Motivation promotes job satisfaction and thus reduces absenteeism and turnover.
So option d is correct
34 Which is the process of stimulating people to actions to accomplish the goals? b
a) Bonus
b) Motivation
c) Performance based incentive
d) Promotion
Explanation:
 Motivation is the process of inducing people inner drives and action towards certain goals.
So option b is correct
35 Which theory emphasizes that, Unsatisfied need can influence the behavior, satisfied a
one will not act as a motivator?
a) Maslow Theory
b) Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy theory
d) Alderfer’s ERG theory
Explanation:
Maslow emphasizes that any unsatisfied need, whether of lower order or higher order, will
motivate individuals.
So option a is correct

36 Which of the following is responsible for quality objective? a

a) Top level management
b) Middle level
management c)Frontline
management d)All of the
above
Explanation:
It is the responsibility of top management to implement and maintain the quality policy.
So option a is correct
37 EMS stands for a
a)Environmental management system
b)Employees management system
c)Engineering management system
d)Equipment management system
Explanation:
An ​ Environmental management system ​focuses resources on meeting the commitments
identified in the organization's policy.
So option a is correct

38 Maslow says that Human beings are full of needs & wants. And these needs will lead b
to their?
a) Job
b) Behavior
c) Attitude
d) Motivation
Explanation:
Maslow hierarchy states that a lower level must be completely satisfied and fulfilled before
moving onto a higher pursuit.
So option b is correct.

39 The Need which improves the confidence level of an employee is d

a) Social
b) Safety
c) Basic
d) Esteem
Explanation:
Self esteem needs include those for self confidence, achievement, self-respect etc
 So option d is correct.

40 Which of the following is not a part of hygiene factor of two factor theory c
a) Company policy
b) Administration
c) Responsibilities
d) Interpersonal Relations
Explanation:
Hygiene factors are necessary to maintain a reasonable level of satisfaction among
employees.
So option c is correct.
41 Responsibility, Advancement etc are example of a
a) Motivators
b) Hygiene factors
c) Improvement factors
d) Advance factors
Explanation:
Total quality management ​is a great ​motivator ​for employees as it taps their intellectual
treasure for the success of the organization.
So option a is correct.
42 Continual improvement is in d
a) Environmental objective
b) Audit Result
c) Corrective action
d) All of the above
Explanation:
Continual improvement is an ongoing effort to improve products, services, or processes.
So option d is correct.
43 Kaizen is a
a) Small change
b) Big improvement
c) Sudden impact
d) All of the above
Explanation:
Kaizen ​is a Japanese term meaning "change for the better" or "continuous improvement."
So option a is correct.

44 While setting Quality objective, which need is to be considered. b

a) Organization need
b) Customer need
c) Employees need
d) All of the above
Explanation:
Quality objectives are measurable goals relevant to enhancing customer satisfaction and
are consistent with the quality policy.
So option b is correct.
45 Plan-do-study-act cycle is a procedure to b

a) Overall improvement
b) Continuous improvement
 c) Permanent improvement
d) Immediate improvement

Explanation:
PDSA cycle is an iterative four-step management method used in business for the control
and continuous improvement of processes and products
So option b is correct.
46 Quality practices must be carried out b

a. at the start of the project

b. throuout the life of the project
c. at the end of the project
d. no need to carry out quality practices

Explanation:
Quality practices, such as, teamwork and participation, customer focus and satisfaction,
continuous improvement, were identified as best practices for TQM implementation​ .
So option b is correct.
47 Quality Trilogy includes d

a) Quality planning
b) quality improvement
c) quality control
d) All the three

Explanation:
Juran's trilogy," an approach to cross-functional management that is composed of three
managerial processes: quality planning, quality control and quality improvement.
So option d is correct.
48 Kaizen is a – process the purpose of which goes beyond simple productivity b
improvement.

a) weekly
b) daily
c) monthly
d) annual

Explanation:
Kaizen ​focuses on applying small, daily changes that result in major ​
improvements ​over
time.
So option b is correct.
49 “Poko-Yoke” is the Japanese term for b

a) Card
b) Fool proof
c) Continuous improvement
d) Fishbone diagram
 Explanation:
SEIKETSU practices such as colour coding, Fool Proofing, Responsibility labels can be
followed at the workplace.
So option b is correct.
50 Identify the cost not likely to reduce as a result of better quality​. a

a) Maintenance costs
b) Inspection costs
c) Scrap costs
d) Warranty and service costs

Explanation:
Maintenance cost are incurred not to reduce as a result of better quality
So option a is correct.
51 Quality Management includes forming and directing a team of people to achieve a b
qualitative goal within an effective cost and time frame that results in

a) a project completed in shortest possible time.

b) a product or service that conforms to the required specifications.
c) an award-winning product that brings public recognition to the project
d) an innovative project that establishes qualification of the project team

Explanation:
Organizations seek sustained success through the implementation of a quality management
system
So option b is correct.
52 Quality fulfils a need or expectation that is d

a) Explicitly stated
b) Implied
c) Legally required
d) All of the above

Explanation:
Quality refers to the set of inherent properties of an object that allows satisfying stated or
implied needs.
So option d is correct.
53 Which of the following is not a target of Total Quality Management b

a) Customer Satisfaction
b) Reducing manpower
c) Continuous Cost Reduction
d) Continuous Operational Improvement

Explanation:
Total quality management ​(​TQM​) describes a management approach to long-term
success through customer satisfaction.
 So option b is correct.
54 The roof of House of Quality shows the interrelationship between b

a) Functional Requirements
b) Design Attributes
c) Service Process
d) Manufacturing Process

Explanation:
HOQ is considered the primary tool used during quality function deployment to help
facilitate group decision making.
So option b is correct.
55 Two major component of fitness of use are Quality Design and a

a) Quality of Conformance
b) Quality of Service
c) Quality of Specification
d) Quality of Manufacturing

Explanation:
The degree to which products conform to essential requirements and meet the needs of
users for which they are intended.
So option a is correct.

56 Which is the set of activities that ensures the quality levels of product and services are a
properly maintained and that supplier and customer quality issues are properly
resolved?

a) Quality Assurance
b) Quality Planning
c) Quality Control
d) Quality Management

Explanation:
Quality Assurance (QA) is defined as an activity to ensure that an organization is
providing the best possible product or service to customers.
So option a is correct.

57 Which of the following are responsible for Quality objective? a

a) Top level management

b) Middle level management
c) Frontline management
d) All of the above

Explanation:
Top level management shall demonstrate leadership and commitment with respect to the
quality management system​.
 So option a is correct.
58 While setting Quality objective, which need has to be considered. a

a) Customer need
b) Organizational need
c) Supplier need
d) Worker need

Explanation:
A customer need is a motive that prompts a customer to buy a product or service.
So option a is correct.

59 The role of management is to d

a) provide Resources
b) define EMS
c) monitor the effectiveness of the system
d) All of the above

Explanation:
Management responsibilities are to ensure operational efficiency, financial reporting
quality, and compliance with applicable laws, regulations, rules, and standards.
So option d is correct.

60 Which refers to general processes of improvement and encompasses discontinuous b

improvements?

a) Continuous improvement
b) Continual improvement
c) Constant improvement
d) Consecutive improvement

Explanation:
Continual improvement is the ongoing improvement of products, services or processes
through incremental and breakthrough improvements.
So option b is correct.

UNIT-III TQM TOOLS AND TECHNIQUES I

61 Which of the following is not a process tool for TQM C

A. process flow analysis

B. histograms
C. plier
D. control charts

Explanation: ​A process flow chart is a logical, relatively easy to understand chart, which
displays how a process operates via using standard symbols to represent activity. Control
used to study how a process changes over time. The Histogram is a kind of bar chart
 showing a distribution of variables or causes of problems. But plier is not a TQM tool.It is
a manufacturing tool.
62 The charts that identify the potential causes for a particular quality problem. C

A. Control Chart
B. Flow chart
C. Cause and Effect Diagram
D. Pareto chart

Explanation: ​Control used to study how a process changes over time. The Histogram is a
kind of bar chart showing a distribution of variables or causes of problems. ​
Flowcharting is
typically used to map a process flow showing the beginning of a process, decision points,
and the end of the process. A Pareto Chart is a graph that indicates the frequency of
defects, as well as their cumulative impact. ​ Cause and Effect Diagrams are ​ charts that
identify the potential causes for a particular quality problem.
63 In six sigma, which of the following is defined as any process output that does not D
meet customer specification?

A. Error
B. Cost
C. Quality
D. Defect

Explanation: ​Six Sigma ​strategies seek to improve the quality of the output of a process
by identifying and removing the causes of defects and minimizing impact variability in
manufacturing and business processes.
64 A Fish bone diagram is also known as A

A. cause-and-effect diagram
B. poka-yoke diagram
C. Kaizen diagram
D. Taguchi diagram

Explanation: ​The ​fishbone diagram ​or ​ Ishikawa diagram ​is a ​ cause-and-effect

diagram ​that helps managers to track down the reasons for imperfections, variations,
defects, or failures. The ​diagram ​looks just like a fish's skeleton with the problem at its
head and the causes for the problem feeding into the spine.
65 A maturity model can be used as the benchmark for comparison and an aid to A
understanding

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. depends
D. can't say

Explanation: ​Benchmarking ​is a process of measuring the performance of a company's

products, services, or processes against those of another business considered to be the best
in the industry, aka “best in class.” The point of ​ benchmarking ​is to identify internal
opportunities for improvement.
66 DMAIC is C
 A. develop, multiply, analyze, improve, check
B. define, muliply, analyze, improve, control
C. define, measure, analyze, improve, control
D. define, manufacture, analyze, improve, control

Explanation: ​Define, measure, analyze, improve, and control (​ DMAIC​) is a data-driven

quality strategy used to improve processes. The letters in the acronym represent the five
phases that make up the process, including the tools to use to complete those phases
67 Check sheet is used during which part of DMAIC B

A. Define
B. Measure
C. Analyze
D. Improve

Explanation: ​Check Sheets are ​best ​used ​when the data can be collected by the same
person or in the same location.Therefore it is in measure phase.
68 Presence of one of the following after every stage of DMAIC allows for review of B
project and incorporation of suggestions.

A. Review gate
B. Toll gate
C. Decision gate
D. None of these

Explanation: ​A ​DMAIC tollgate ​(also called a “phase-gate” or “stage-gate”) is a

checkpoints allowing you to proceed through the ​ DMAIC ​model. It marks your project
officially progressing from one stage to the next.
69 The Toyota production system is based on two pillars namely C

A. Kaizen, Six Sigma

B. Lean, Six Sigma
C. Just in Time, Jidoka
D. Just in Time, Kaizen

Explanation:​Just-in-time ​(​JIT​) ​manufacturing​, also known as ​just-in-time

production ​or the Toyota ​Production ​System (TPS), is a methodology aimed primarily at
times ​within the ​production ​system as well as response ​
reducing ​ times ​from suppliers and
to customers.
Jidoka ​is a Lean method that is widely-adopted in manufacturing and product
development. Also known as autonomation, it is a simple way of protecting your company
from delivering products of low quality or defects to your customers while trying to keep
up your takt time.
70 The diagram shows the location of defect in any unit. This diagram is used in the C
analyze step of DMAIC

A. Affinity
B. Relations
C. Defect Concentration
 D. ​
Scatter

Explanation: ​The defect concentration diagram is a graphical tool that is useful in

analyzing the causes of the product or part defects.
71 Which of the diagram is used to identify what might go wrong in a plan under B
development

A. Pareto Chart
B. PDPC
C. Arrow Diagram
D. Matrix Diagram

Explanation: ​The process decision program chart (​ PDPC​) is a tool used to systematically
diagram ​of the proposed plan.
identifies what might go.Obtain or develop a tree ​
72 The standard normal distribution has mean and standard deviation, B

A. 1,0
B. 0,1
C. 0,0
D. ​1,1

Explanation: ​The ​standard normal distribution ​is a ​

normal distribution ​with a mean
standard ​deviation of 1.
of zero and ​

73 The sixsigma improvement project the least experienced individuals are A

A. Green Belt
B. Black belts
C. Red Belts
D. Master Black Belts

Explanation: ​In six sigma training certificates, varies ranking levels are there,that are belt
level rankings. ​A ​Green Belt ​has expertise ​
in Six Sigma ​and has set their feet on the path
toward leadership.
74 Which of the following is not a use of arrow diagrams D

A. Determining the best schedule for the entire project

B. Potential Scheduling problem and solution
C. Calculate critical path of the project
 D. ​
Identifying defects in a process

Explanation: ​The ​arrow diagramming method ​(ADM) refers to a schedule

network ​diagramming technique ​in which the schedule activites within a given project
are represented by the use of ​arrows​. The beginning of the schedule activity is represented
by the tail, or base, of the ​arrow​.
75 Failure Mode and Effect Analysis, which prioritizes different sources of error is used D
in one of the following stage

A. Define
B. Measure
C. Improve
D. Analyze

Explanation: ​Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA; often written with "failure
modes" in plural) is the process of reviewing as many components, assemblies, and
subsystems as possible to identify potential failure modes in a system and their causes and
effects.
76 What is the aim of fool proofing technique used for total quality management? A
A. to achieve zero defects
B. to specify time schedules
C. to specify targets
D. none of the above
Explanation: ​A poka-yoke is any mechanism in any process that helps an equipment
operator avoid (yokeru) mistakes (poka). Its purpose is to eliminate product defects
by
preventing, correcting, or drawing attention to human errors as they occur.
77 Which of the following statements is/are false? D

1. Fault tree analysis method is used to determine reliability of product

2. The goal of Six Sigma is to reduce number of defects to 2.4 parts per billion
3. Six sigma is represented by normal distribution curve
4. Poka yoke is a policy which prevents occurrence of human errors
A. Only statement 3
B. Statement 2 and statement 3
C. Statement 1, 3 and 4
D. Only statement 2
Explanation: ​The ​goal ​of Six Sigma is to increase profits by eliminating variability,
defects and waste that undermine ​customer loyalty​. Six Sigma can be
understood/perceived at three levels: Metric: 3.4 Defects Per Million ​Opportunities​.
78 Benchmarking determines C

A. Customer requirements
B. Process capability
C. How company is doing relative to others
D. Getting ISO 9000 audit done
E. If management is motivated
 Explanation: ​Benchmarking ​can become a tool to sustain this new ​TQM ​paradigm,
providing a means to increase an organization's competitive performance by a comparison
with the best-in-class.
79 Old Management Tools B
A. Affinity diagram
B. Decision Matrix
C. Flow chart
D. All of these,
Explanation: ​New 7 tools
Affinity Diagram.
Arrow Diagram.
Matrix
Diagram.
Nominal Group Technique (NGT)
Process Decision Program Chart (PDPC)
Relations Diagram.
Tree Diagram.
80 Need for new management Tools D
A. Promote innovation
B. Communicate information
C. Successfully plan projects
D. All of these
E. None of these
Explanation: ​New tools are more relational and network oriented.New tools may take
more practice to develop proficiency.
81 Bench marking process are D
A. Introgation
B. Action
C. Maturity
D. All the above
Explanation: ​The key steps in benchmarking process are divided into five phases starting
with the ​planning ​phase and evolving through ​
analysis​, integration, ​
action​, and
finally ​
maturity​.
82 Types of Bench Marking (BM) E
A. Internal BM
B. Competitive BM
C. Functional BM
D. Generic BM
E. All the above
Explanation: ​There are four main ​types of benchmarking:​internal,​ Competitive
,Functional,Generic BM.
83 Reliability of a product means D
Consistency of performance
Performance over period
Free of technical errors
The correct order is
i& iii
 i& ii
ii & iii
i, ii & iii
Explanation: ​Reliability ​is defined as the probability that a ​
product​, system, or service
will perform its intended function adequately for a specified period of time, or will operate
in a defined environment without failure.
84 Failure Rate is C
A. Engineering system fails per hour
B. Component fails per hour
C. Both.
D. None of the above.
Explanation: ​Failure rate ​is the frequency with which an engineered system or
component fails, expressed for example in ​ failures ​per hour. It is often denoted by the
Greek letter λ (lambda) and is important in reliability theory.
85 Types of FMEA C
A. Process FMEA
B. Design FMEA
C. Both
D. None of these.
Explanation​: There are two important types of FMEA are Process FMEA, Design FMEA.
86 Classifications of FEMA E
A. Equipment FEMA
B. Maintenance FEMA
C. Service FEMA
D. System FEMA
E. All the above
Explanation: ​Classification of FEMA: ​ System ​ FMEA​, Design ​ FMEA​,
Process ​FMEA​, Service ​FMEA​, Equipment ​ FMEA, ​Maintenance ​ FMEA​,
Concept ​ FMEA​, Environmental ​FMEA​.
87 Professionals ,if they have not undergone a formal certification program of six sigma. C
The following belt will be given.
A. Green belt
B. Black belt
C. White belt
D. Yellow belt
Explanation: ​Professionals are considered Six Sigma White Belts if they have not
undergone a formal certification program or extended training.
88 The Zero defect concept D

A. Is a performance standard for management

B. Is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time"
C. Is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone should do
things right the first time
D. A and C
E. B and C

Explanation: Zero Defects ​is a management tool aimed at the reduction

defects ​through prevention. It is directed at motivating people to prevent mistakes by
of ​
 developing a constant, conscious desire to do their job right the first time." — ​
Zero
Defects​: A New Dimension in Quality Assurance.
89 The concept of Zero inventory is called C

A. Six sigma
B. Continuous improvement
C. Just in Time
D. Zero defects

Explanation: ​A ​system ​in which a company keeps no or very little ​

inventory ​in storage,
simply ordering exactly what it needs to sell and receiving it in a timely manner. ​ Zero
inventory ​is the goal of just-in-time ​inventory management ​and the two terms are
sometimes used to mean the same thing.
90 Some organizations today are using six sigma to set the upper and lower limits on B
control charts rather than the traditional sigma

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
E. twelve

Explanation: ​Control limits ​on a ​control chart ​are commonly drawn at 3s from the
center line because ​3​-​sigma limits ​are a good balance point between two types of errors:
Type I or alpha errors occur when a point falls outside the ​ control limits ​even though no
special cause is operating.
UNIT-IV TQM TOOLS AND TECHNIQUES II
91 Which statistical technique integrates product design and manufacturing process? d
a) Tree analysis
b) Problem solving techniques
c) Quality function deployment
d) Taguchi approach
Explanation: ​Taguchi’s approach for quality combines statistical methods and engineering
to achieve rapid movement in quality and cost by optimising the design of a product. It
integrates manufacturing process and product design.
92 What is the key step in Taguchi’s approach? c
a) Tolerance design
b) System design
c) Parameter design
d) Process design
Explanation: ​Taguchi’s approach is based on integrating system design (initial design
stage), parameter design (Testing various material combinations) and tolerance design
(buying material of better grade). Parameter design is the key step as it offers the concept
of uncontrollable factor.
93 What is called the stratification of information? a
a) Breaking down a whole group into smaller sub groups
b) Isolating the vital few from the trivial many
c) Grouping of scattered information
d) Sequencing of processes in a quality system
Explanation: ​Stratification of information is one of the statistical tools which means
 breaking down of the whole group into smaller sub-groups. Run charts, effect diagram,
pareto diagram and scatter diagrams are also the statistical tools.
94 Which technique is used to relate complex cause and effect relationships? d
a) Affinity diagram
b) Pareto diagram
c) Scatter diagram
d) Interrelationship diagram
Explanation: ​Interrelationship diagram is a quality improvement technique which shows
the relationship between inter-related factors. This diagram displays the factors which are
involved in complex problems.
95 What is PDPC? b
a) A statistical tool
b) Quality improvement technique
c) Quality assurance technique
d) Statistical process control technique
Explanation: ​PDPC is process decision program chart which helps in the selection of the
best process to obtain desired result. It is a quality improvement technique. It evaluates
existing process and also look at alternatives.
96 What is the first step in problem solving process? a
a) Plan
b) Do
c) Check
d) Action
Explanation:
Problems are best solved by the cycle: Plan-Do-Check-Action. In planning, a course
of action is planned according to customer requirement and conditions of service then
the process must be executed according to this plan.
97 How many control charts are normally used for statistical control of variables? c
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Explanation: ​Three control charts are normally used for statistical control of variables.
These are i) Mean chart, ii) Range chart, and iii) standard deviation charts. Control charts
help in the understanding of inherent capability of process and bring the process under
control.
98 Which tool is used to analyse the effects of a failure of individual components on the b
system?
a) FTA
b) FMEA
c) Quality circles
d) Fool proofing
Explanation: ​Failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA) is a statistical tool used to review
the new product design with respect to the requirements of customers before it is sent to
production. It is used basically to analyse the failure effect of individual components on the
system as a whole.
99 What is the formula for process capability index? a
a) (1-K)Cp
b) (1+K)Cp
c) (1-Cp)K
 d) (1+Cp)K
Explanation: ​Process capability index is also known as measure of process capability and
denoted by C​ pk​. C​
pk​ = (1-K)*C​p​. K is the correction factor and always has a positive value.
C​p​ is the process capability potential also known as process capability variation and is
equal to the (Specification width divided by process width).
100 What is arrow diagram in TQM? a
a) A diagram used to plan the most appropriate schedule
b) Diagram shows the relationship strength between the variables
c) Used large amount of data and organise it on the basis of natural relationship
between items
d) Diagram showing the sequencing and inter relationships between factors
Explanation: ​Arrow diagram is a statistical tool used to plan the most appropriate
schedule for any task and to effectively control it during the progress of the process.
Arrow diagram helps in establishing the most suitable plan for a project.
101 What is the aim of fool proofing technique used for total quality management? a
a. to achieve zero defects
b. to specify time schedules
c. to specify targets
d. none of the above
Explanation:
- The use of fool proofing technique eliminates human errors. Its aim is to
obtain zero defects.
- To avoid such errors certain devices are used which produce visual or sonic
alarm when errors occur.
- Proper lightening, clean working conditions and avoiding long hours of work can
reduce errors.
102 Match the following group 1 items with group 2 items 1 – C,
1. Sort A. Seitan 2 – A,
2. Set in order B. Seiketsu 3 – D, 4
3. Shine C. Seiri –B
4. Standardize D. Seiso
a. 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – C
b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
c. 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – D
d. 1 –A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
Explanation: The 5S are as follows:
1) Sort: ​In this step unnecessary items are eliminated by placing a red flag on them.
2) Set in order: ​This step helps in effective storage of items in an organized way.
3) Shine: ​This step refers to cleaning of work piece.
4) Standardize: ​According to this step, standards assigned in the organization are to
be followed by workers and the duties are to be
pre-assigned.
5) Sustain: ​This step is difficult to implement and achieve.
103 What is meant by Kaizen? c
a. card signal
b. to avoid inadvertent errors
c. change for better quality
d. none of the above
Explanation: ​Kaizen is a quality improvement method. Innovation along with Kaizen
improves quality. Following are the principles of Kaizen:
1) Collecting relevant information
 2) Working as per plan
3) Avoiding wastage
4) Keeping appointments
5) Should follow PDCA cycle
104 Which of the following statements is/are false? d
1. Fault tree analysis method is used to determine reliability of product
2. The goal of Six Sigma is to reduce number of defects to 2.4 parts per billion
3. Six sigma is represented by normal distribution curve
4. Poka yoke is a policy which prevents occurrence of human errors
a. Only statement 3
b. Statement 2 and statement 3
c. Statement 1, 3 and 4
d. Only statement 2
Explanation:
Fault tree analysis
- It is a mathematical analysis used to determine reliability of products.
- The reliability (R) of a system is calculated by using the formula: R = 1 –
Probability of failure
- It graphically depicts combination of events which lead to failure of products.
Six Sigma
- Six sigma is a quality improvement programme which reduces number of defects
to 3.4 parts per million.
- The number of defects are just 3.4 parts per million, hence is considered as zero
defect production.
- It is represented by normal distribution curve.
- High acceptable parts are produced using limits of ± 6σ
Poka yoke
- Poka Yoke is used to prevent human errors in production line.
- The word Poka Yoke means avoiding inadvertent errors.
- Poka Yoke satisfies three levels such as: error elimination, in process detection
and out process detection.
105 Which quality management program is related to the maintenance of plants and d
equipments?
a. Environmental management systems
b. Fault tree analysis
c. Failure mode effect analysis
d. Total productive maintenance
Explanation:
- Total productive maintenance is related with maintenance of plants and equipments.
- The main purpose of TPM is to avoid wastage, produce goods without any
loss of quality, reduce costs, etc.
- The main pillars of TPM are 5S, Kaizen, quality maintenance, office TPM,
planned maintenance, training, safety, health and environment and autonomous
maintenance.
- In this process maintenance is considered useful and is considered as daily routine
of the organization.
106 The aim of Just-In-Time manufacturing principle is to eliminate d
a. time wastage
b. labour wastage
c. cost of excessive inventory
d. all of the above
 Explanation:
- The main principle of JIT is to produce when and what is needed. It also
considers the quantity needed.
- JIT (Just-In-Time) aims at eliminating wastage of labour, time and cost of
excessive inventory.
- JIT is a pull type system. In this system, production originates only when an
order is received.
107 Quality Function Deployment (QFD) is largely focused on: d
a. Reducing costs and preventing unnecessary costs prior to production
b. To reduce the number of parts in a product
c. Testing the robustness of a design
d. Ensuring that the eventual design of a product or service meets customer
needs Explanation: ​Quality Function Deployment ​provides documentation for the
decision- making process. ​QFD ​helps you to: Translate customer requirements into
specific offering specifications. Prioritize possible offering specifications and make
trade-off decisions
based on weighted customer requirements and ranked competitive assessment.
108 The main purpose of Taguchi methods is to: a
a. Test the robustness of a design.
b. Reduce costs and prevent any unnecessary costs before producing the
product or service.
c. Create a ‘house of quality’
d. Articulate the ‘voice of the customer’
Explanation: ​Taguchi method of quality control focuses on design and development to
create efficient, reliable products
109 Taguchi methods may be used in which part of the design process? d
a. Preliminary design
b. Screening
c. Prototyping and final design
d. Evaluation and improvement
Explanation: ​Taguchi Method ​is a process/product optimization ​ method ​that is based on
8-steps of planning, conducting and evaluating results of matrix experiments to determine
the best levels of control factors
110 Control chart is b
i. Process monitoring tool
ii. Process control tool
iii. Process planning
tool The Correct Answer
is
a. i only
b. i & ii
c. i, ii & iii
d. None of the above
Explanation: ​Control charts ​are the tools in ​ control ​processes to determine whether a
manufacturing process or a business process is in a controlled statistical state.This ​ chart ​is
a graph which is used to study process changes over time.
111 TQM focuses on b
i. Supplier
ii. Employee
iii. Customer
The Correct Answer is
a. i only
 b. ii & iii
c. i, ii & iii
d. None of the above
Explanation: ​A primary focus of ​TQM ​and most Quality Management Systems is to
improve customer satisfaction by having a customer focus and consistently meeting
customer expectations
112 Process evaluation is to identify c
i. Validation of product
ii. Potential failure prevention
iii. Correctness of
product The Correct
Answer is
a. i only
b. i & ii
c. ii & iii
d. None of the above
Explanation: ​A process evaluation focuses on the implementation process and attempts to
determine how successfully the project followed the strategy laid out in the logic model.
113 Six Sigma is a business-driven, multi-dimensional structured approach to d
a. Reducing process variability
b. Increasing customer satisfaction
c. Lowering Defects & Improving Processes
d. All of the above
Explanation: ​Six Sigma is a business​-​driven​, ​
multi​-​
dimensional structured
approach ​to: Choice-1: Reducing process variability. Choice-2: Increasing customer
satisfaction. Choice-3: Lowering Defects.

114 Small/Mid-sized Six Sigma projects are executed by professionals titled as: b
a. Champion
b. Green Belt
c. Black Belt
d. Site Champion
115 Which of the following are examples of Internal Failure costs? a
a. Defects and rework
b. Inspection and audits
c. Warranty and returns
d. Purchasing and accounting
Explanation: ​Examples of internal failure costs are:
Failure ​analysis activities.
Product rework ​costs​.
Product scrapped, net of scrap sales.
Throughput lost.
116 The main purpose of the measure phase of DMAIC is to d
a. Determine the customer requirements
b. Find root causes
c. Develop solutions
d. Set baseline data to understand how the process is currently performing
Explanation: ​DMAIC ​(an acronym for ​Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and
Control​) refers to a data-driven improvement cycle used for improving, optimizing
 and stabilizing business processes and designs.
117 What does OEE stand for? a
 a. Overall Equipment Effectiveness
b. Overall Estimation Effectiveness
c. Overall Equipment Estimation
d. Overall Effective Estimation
Explanation: ​OEE (​Overall Equipment Effectiveness​) is a “best practices” metric that
identifies the percentage of planned production time that is truly productive.
118 The best metric for measuring defectives is: c
a. DPMO
b. DPU
c. PPM
d. DPO
Explanation: ​PPM ​defective is one of the simplest metrics in Six Sigma to understand. It
refers to the expected number of parts out of one million that you can expect to be
defective. It is a measurement used today by many customers to measure the quality
performance of their suppliers.

119 Which of the following tools is used extensively in quality function deployment? b
a. Affinity diagram
b. Matrix diagram
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Activity network diagram
Explanation: ​The House of Quality is an effective tool used to translate the customer
wants and needs into product or service design characteristics utilizing a relationship
matrix. ​It is usually the first matrix used in the ​
QFD process.
120 The most important factor for the success of six sigma projects is: a
a. Leadership support
b. Team support
c. Teamwork
d. Inter-department harmony
Explanation: ​Effective ​Six Sigma ​management requires commitment and active
participation by senior executives, and ​leadership ​and communications by organizational
champions.
Unit –V QUALITY SYSTEMS
121 The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is A
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Employee satisfaction
C. Skill enhancement
D. Environmental issues
Explanation:
The ​ISO 9000 family of quality management ​systems (QMS) is a set of standards that
helps organizations ensure they meet customers satisfaction.
So option A is correct
122 ISO 14000 quality standard is related with B
A. Environmental management systems
B. Automotive quality standards
C. Eliminating poor quality
D. Customer satisfaction
Explanation:
 ISO 14000 standards are set of norms for Environmental management systems either at
organization process level or product level
So option A is correct
123 ISO stands for C
A. Internal standards and operations
B. International specifications organization
C. International Standards organization
D. None of these are correct
Explanation:
ISO is abbreviated as International Standards organization is an association of national
standards bodies of more than 150 countries
So option C is correct
124 ISO 9001 is not concerned with of quality records C
A. Collection
B. Maintenance
C. Verification
D. Dis-positioning
Explanation:
The practices defining the quality records to be maintained in the CMM are distributed
throughout the key process areas in the various Activities Performed practices.
So option C is correct
125 Which of the following requires design control measure, such as holding and C
recording design reviews and qualification test?
A. CMM
B. ISO 9001
C. ISO 9000-3
D. None of the mentioned
Explanation:
ISO 9000-3 states that the supplier should carry out reviews to ensure the requirements are
met and design methods are correctly carried out.
So option C is correct
126 states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques A
are identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and
product characteristics.
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 9000-4
C. CMM
D. All of the mentioned
Explanation:
ISO 9001 states that, where, appropriate adequate statistical techniques are identified and
used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.
So option A is correct
127 Documents to prepared for quality system A
A. 1. Policy 2.Procedures 3.Work Instructions 4. Records
B. 1.Products 2.Requirements 3.Performance 4.Processes
C. 1.Arrangements 2.Formats 3.Objectives 4.Quality
D. 1. Standards 2.Implementation 3.Accredation 4. Purposes.
Explanation:
The documents required for implementing Quality system are 1. Quality Policy manual
2.Quality System Procedures 3.Work Instructions and 4. Records/Formats/Forms
 So option A is correct
128 Types of Audit D
A. First Party audit
B. Second Party Audit
C. Third Party Audit
D. All the above
Explanation:
The types of are 1. First Party audit (internal audit) 2. Second Party Audit and 3. Third
Party Audit
So option D is correct
129 NCR abbreviated as A
A. Non Conformance report
B. National capital Region
C. National Cash register
D. None of the above
Explanation:
Non Conformance Report ,During ISO certification things do not comply ISO
requirements are reported in format of NCR
So option A is correct
130 ISO 9000 standards are set of norms for C
A. Environmental Management System
B. Technical Specification form
C. Quality Management system
D. Independent Examination
Explanation:
ISO 9000 ​is defined as a ​set ​of international ​
standards ​on quality management and quality
assurance developed to help companies effectively document the quality system elements
needed to maintain an efficient quality system.
So option C is correct
131 Which of these is the equivalent Indian standard for ISO :8402 B
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO:13999(as per 1994
version) C.ISO/TS 16949
D.ISO 14000
Explanation:
The equivalent Indian standard for ISO :8402 is ISO 13999 as per 1994 version
So option B is correct
132 ISO/TS 16949 standards are standards for D
A. Organizational benefits
B. Satisfying customer
C. Public authorities
D. Automotive Quality Management system
Explanation:
TS 16949​:2009, in conjunction with ​ISO ​9001:2008, defines the quality management
ISO​/​
system ​ requirements ​for the design and development, production and, when relevant,
installation and service of automotive-related products.
So option D is correct
133 The various product evaluation standards of ISO 14000 are D
A. Environmental aspects in product standards
B. Environmental Labels and declaration
 C. Life cycle Assessment
D. All the above
Explanation:
The Environmental aspects in product standards, Environmental Labels and declaration ,
Life cycle Assessment are the standards of ISO 140000
So option D is correct
134 The stages of an audit A
A. Planning, Performance, Reporting, Follow-up
B. Specification, Requirements, System, Quality
C. Implementation, Plan, Processes, Document
D. Objective, Analysis, Forms, Results
Explanation:
The stages of an audit are 1. Audit planning 2. Audit performance 3. Audit reporting, and
4. Audit follow –up.
So option A is correct
135 The various organization evolution standards of ISO 14000 series of standards are D
A. Environmental Management system
B. Environmental Auditing
C. Environmental Performance Evaluation
D. All the above
Explanation:
The various organization evolution standards of ISO 14000 series of standards are
Environmental Management system (EMS), Environmental Auditing (EA), Environmental
Performance Evaluation (EPE).
So option D is correct
136 The benefits realized by implementing an ISO 14000 quality system are B
A. Resource benefits, Party benefits
B. Global benefits, Organizational benefits
C. Public benefits ,Private benefits
D. Management benefits, Employee benefits
Explanation:
The benefits realized by implementing an ISO 14000 quality system are
Global benefits: To facilitate trade and remove trade barriers to improve environmental
performance
Organizational benefits: Satisfying customer requirements, Assuring customer of a
commitment to EM
So option B is correct
137 ISO 9000 made up of three core standards they are B
A. ISO9001: 9100, ISO 9001: 2008, ISO 9100 : 2008
B.ISO 9000:2005, ISO: 9001:2008, ISO : 9004:2009
C.ISO 9000: 9100, ISO 9000: 2005, ISO: 9000: 2000
D. None of the above
Explanation:
The family of ISO 9000 made up of three core standards
● ISO 9000:2005, : QMS : Fundamentals
● ISO: 9001:2008, : QMS : Requirements
● ISO : 9004:2009 QMS : Guidelines for performance
Improvement So option B is correct
138 BIS is abbreviated as B
A. Body of India standards
 B. Bureau of Indian Standards
C. Basic India standards
D. None of the above
Explanation:
BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards) is national standards body of India and is a founder
members of ISO
So option B is correct
139 Which IS/ISO 9000 standard is meant for certification A
A. IS/ISO 9001
B. IS/ISO 9004
C. IS/ISO 9100
D. TL 9000
Explanation:
Any organization can apply for certification against IS/ISO 9001. The other IS/ISO 9000
and IS/ISO 9004 are guidance standards and are not meant for certification.
So option A is correct
140 The key elements of Audit performance are C
A. Schedules, Personnel, Checklist
B. Requirements, Assurance, Manuals
C. Opening meeting, Audit process, Audit deficiencies
D. None of the above
Explanation:
The key elements of Audit performance are
Opening meeting: organized to initially brief the auditee about the scope of audit
Audit process: run to schedule and should cover entire scope as planned
Audit deficiencies: clear and precise discrepancy reports are raised.
So option C is correct
141 ISO 14000 standards divided into two area they are A
A. Organization ,Product Evaluation Standards
B. Global , Environmental Standards
C. Management, Assessment Standards
D. Customer, Public Standards
Explanation:
ISO 14000 standards divided into two area they are
Organization standards: the way in which business is to be conducted and govern what is
deemed as acceptable behavior in the workplace.
Product Evaluation Standards: that lays down the requirements to be accomplished by a
product or a group of products to certify its fitness for use.
So option A is correct
142 Which ISO 14000 standard is meant for certification A
A. ISO 14001
B. ISO 14004
C. ISO 9100
D. TS 16949
Explanation:
ISO 14001 is a contractual standard against which organization are certified.ISO 14004 a
non-contractual standard is meant for providing guidance for EMS implementation.
So option A is correct
143 QS 9000 is set of quality system for B
A. Environmental System
 B. Automotive suppliers
C. Management System
D. Customer satisfaction
Explanation:
QS 9000 is set of quality system requirements to help automotive suppliers to ensure that
they are meeting/exceeding customer requirements
So option B is correct
144 The purpose of EMS audit is C
A. Co-operation with public authorities.
B. Management commitment
C. To ensure that EMS conforms to plans
D. None of the above
Explanation:
The purpose of EMS audit is to ensure that the EMS conforms the plans
So option C is correct
145 The third party audit is for B
A. Organization
B. Independent organization
C. Customer
D. All the above
Explanation:
The third party audit refers to audit by an independent organization on a supplier for
accreditation assessment purposes.
So option B is correct
146 What is the purpose of ISO 9000:2005 in QMS? A
A. Fundamental Vocabulary
B. Certification
C. Customer requirement
D. Management
Explanation:
The family of ISO 9000 made up of core standards among that
ISO 9000:2005, : Quality Management System : Fundamentals
So option A is correct
147 What is the purpose of ISO 9001:2008 in QMS?
A. Requirement A
B. Planning
C. Documentation
D. Verification
Explanation:
The family of ISO 9000 made up of core standards among that
ISO: 9001:2008, : Quality Management System: Requirements
So option A is correct
148 What is the purpose of ISO 9004:2009 in QMS? C
A. Policy
B. Review
C. Guidelines for performance improvement
D. Benefits
Explanation:
The family of ISO 9000 made up of core standards among that
ISO : 9004:2009 Quality Management System: Guidelines for performance Improvement
 So option C is correct
149 Why we need Quality Auditing? A
A. To verify whether the system is effective and suitable
B. To decide about the policy
C. To maintain the standards
D. For monitoring and measurement purpose
Explanation:
Quality auditing should be carried out in order to verify whether a quality system is
effective and suitable.
So option A is correct
150 The two generic ISO standards are A
A.ISO 9001 & ISO 14001
B.ISO 8402 & ISO 13999
C. QS 9000 &TS 16949
D. None of the above
Explanation:
The two generic ISO standards are
ISO 9001 : Quality Management system –Requirements
ISO 14001: Environmental Management system-specification with guidance for use.
Generic standards mean that the same standards can be applied to any organization.
So option A is correct
Tools and Techniques of TQM
151. Which statistical technique integrates product design and manufacturing process?
a) Tree analysis
b) Problem solving techniques
c) Quality function deployment
d) Taguchi approach

Answer: d
Explanation: Taguchi’s approach for quality combines statistical methods and engineering to achieve rapid movement in
quality and cost by optimising the design of a product. It integrates manufacturing process and product design.

152. What is the key step in Taguchi’s approach?

a) Tolerance design
b) System design
c) Parameter design
d) Process design

Answer: c
Explanation: Taguchi’s approach is based on integrating system design (initial design stage), parameter design (Testing
various material combinations) and tolerance design (buying material of better grade). Parameter design is the key step as
it offers the concept of uncontrollable factor.

153. What is called the stratification of information?

a) Breaking down a whole group into smaller sub groups
b) Isolating the vital few from the trivial many
c) Grouping of scattered information
d) Sequencing of processes in a quality system

Answer: a
Explanation: Stratification of information is one of the statistical tools which means breaking down of the whole group
into smaller sub-groups. Run charts, effect diagram, pareto diagram and scatter diagrams are also the statistical tools.
154. Which technique is used to relate complex cause and effect relationships?
a) Affinity diagram
b) Pareto diagram
c) Scatter diagram
d) Interrelationship diagram

Answer: d
Explanation: Interrelationship diagram is a quality improvement technique which shows the relationship between
inter-related factors. This diagram displays the factors which are involved in complex problems.

155. What is PDPC?

a) A statistical tool
b) Quality improvement technique
c) Quality assurance technique
d) Statistical process control technique

Answer: b
Explanation: PDPC is process decision program chart which helps in the selection of the best process to obtain desired
result. It is a quality improvement technique. It evaluates existing process and also look at alternatives.

156. What is the first step in problem solving process?

a) Plan
b) Do
c) Check
d) Action

Answer: a
Explanation: Problems are best solved by the cycle: Plan-Do-Check-Action. In planning, a course of action is planned
according to customer requirement and conditions of service then the process must be executed according to this plan.

157. How many control charts are normally used for statistical control of variables?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: c
Explanation: Three control charts are normally used for statistical control of variables. These are i) Mean chart, ii) Range
chart, and iii) standard deviation charts. Control charts help in the understanding of inherent capability of process and
bring the process under control.

158. Which tool is used to analyse the effects of a failure of individual components on the system?
a) FTA
b) FMEA
c) Quality circles
d) Fool proofing

Answer: b
Explanation: Failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA) is a statistical tool used to review the new product design with
respect to the requirements of customers before it is sent to production. It is used basically to analyse the failure effect of
individual components on the system as a whole.

159. What is the formula for process capability index?

a) (1-K)C​
p
b) (1+K)C​p
c) (1-C​p​)K
d) (1+C​p​)K

Answer: a
Explanation: Process capability index is also known as measure of process capability and denoted by C​pk​. C​pk​ = (1-K)*C​p​.
K is the correction factor and always has a positive value. C​p​ is the process capability potential also known as process
capability variation and is equal to the (Specification width divided by process width).

160. What is arrow diagram in TQM?

a) A diagram used to plan the most appropriate schedule
b) Diagram shows the relationship strength between the variables
c) Used large amount of data and organize it on the basis of natural relationship between items
d) Diagram showing the sequencing and inter relationships between factors

Answer: a
Explanation: Arrow diagram is a statistical tool used to plan the most appropriate schedule for any task and to effectively
control it during the progress of the process. Arrow diagram helps in establishing the most suitable plan for a project.
Which is alternative options for latency hiding?
A. Increase CPU frequency
B. Multithreading
C. Increase Bandwidth
D. Increase Memory
ANSWER: B

______ Communication model is generally seen in tightly coupled

system.
A. Message Passing
B. Shared-address space
C. Client-Server
D. Distributed Network
ANSWER: B

The principal parameters that determine the communication latency

are as follows:
A. Startup time (ts) Per-hop time (th) Per-word transfer time (tw)
B. Startup time (ts) Per-word transfer time (tw)
C. Startup time (ts) Per-hop time (th)
D. Startup time (ts) Message-Packet-Size(W)
ANSWER: A

The number and size of tasks into which a problem is decomposed

determines the __
A. Granularity
B. Task
C. Dependency Graph
D. Decomposition
ANSWER: A

Average Degree of Concurrency is...

A. The average number of tasks that can run concurrently over the
entire duration of execution of the process.
B. The average time that can run concurrently over the entire
duration of execution of the process.
C. The average in degree of task dependency graph.
D. The average out degree of task dependency graph.
ANSWER: A

Which task decomposition technique is suitable for the 15-puzzle

problem?
A. Data decomposition
B. Exploratory decomposition
C. Speculative decomposition
D. Recursive decomposition
ANSWER: B

Which of the following method is used to avoid Interaction

Overheads?
A. Maximizing data locality
B. Minimizing data locality
C. Increase memory size
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: A

Which of the following is not parallel algorithm model

A. The Data Parallel Model
B. The work pool model
C. The task graph model
D. The Speculative Model
ANSWER: D

Nvidia GPU based on following architecture

A. MIMD
B. SIMD
C. SISD
D. MISD
ANSWER: B

What is Critical Path?

A. The length of the longest path in a task dependency graph is

called the critical path length.
B. The length of the smallest path in a task dependency graph is
called the critical path length.
C. Path with loop
D. None of the mentioned.
ANSWER: A

Which decompositioin technique uses divide-andconquer strategy?

A. recursive decomposition
B. Sdata decomposition
C. exploratory decomposition
D. speculative decomposition
ANSWER: A

If there are 6 nodes in a ring topology how many message passing

cycles will be required to complete broadcast process in one to all?

A. 1
B. 6
C. 3
D. 4
ANSWER: 3

If there is 4 X 4 Mesh topology network then how many ring operation

will perform to complete one to all broadcast?

A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
ANSWER: 8

Consider all to all broadcast in ring topology with 8 nodes. How

many messages will be present with each node after 3rd step/cycle of
communication?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
ANSWER: 4

Consider Hypercube topology with 8 nodes then how many message

passing cycles will require in all to all broadcast operation?

A. The longest path between any pair of finish nodes.

B. The longest directed path between any pair of start & finish
node.
C. The shortest path between any pair of finish nodes.
D. The number of maximum nodes level in graph.
ANSWER: D

Scatter is ____________.

A. One to all broadcast communication

B. All to all broadcast communication
C. One to all personalised communication
D. Node of the above.
ANSWER: C

If there is 4X4 Mesh Topology ______ message passing cycles will

require complete all to all reduction.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
ANSWER: C

Following issue(s) is/are the true about sorting techniques with

parallel computing.
A. Large sequence is the issue
B. Where to store output sequence is the issue
C. Small sequence is the issue
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

Partitioning on series done after ______________

A. Local arrangement
B. Processess assignments
C. Global arrangement
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C

In Parallel DFS processes has following roles.(Select multiple

choices if applicable)
A. Donor
B. Active
C. Idle
D. Passive
ANSWER: A
Suppose there are 16 elements in a series then how many phases will
be required to sort the series using parallel odd-even bubble sort?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 5
D. 15
ANSWER: D

Which are different sources of Overheads in Parallel Programs?

A. Interprocess interactions
B. Process Idling
C. All mentioned options
D. Excess Computation
ANSWER: C

The ratio of the time taken to solve a problem on a parallel

processors to the time required to solve the same problem on a
single processor with p identical processing elements.
A. The ratio of the time taken to solve a problem on a single
processor to the time required to solve the same problem on a
parallel computer with p identical processing elements.
B. The ratio of the time taken to solve a problem on a single
processor to the time required to solve the same problem on a
parallel computer with p identical processing elements
C. The ratio of number of multiple processors to size of data
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

Efficiency is a measure of the fraction of time for which a

processing element is usefully employed.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
ANSWER: A

CUDA helps do execute code in parallel mode using __________

A. CPU
B. GPU
C. ROM
D. Cash memory
ANSWER: B

In thread-function execution scenario thread is a ___________

A. Work
B. Worker
C. Task
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

In GPU Following statements are true

A. Grid contains Block
B. Block contains Threads
C. All the mentioned options.
D. SM stands for Streaming MultiProcessor
ANSWER: C

Computer system of a parallel computer is capable of_____________

A. Decentralized computing
B. Parallel computing
C. Centralized computing
D. All of these
ANSWER: A

In which application system Distributed systems can run well?

A. HPC
B. Distrubuted Framework
C. HRC
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A

A pipeline is like .................... ?

A. an automobile assembly line
B. house pipeline
C. both a and b
D. a gas line
ANSWER: A

Pipeline implements ?
A. fetch instruction
B. decode instruction
C. fetch operand
D. all of above
ANSWER: D

A processor performing fetch or decoding of different instruction

during the execution of another instruction is called ______ ?
A. Super-scaling
B. Pipe-lining
C. Parallel Computation
D. None of these
ANSWER: B

In a parallel execution, the performance will always improve as the

number of processors will increase?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: B

VLIW stands for ?

A. Very Long Instruction Word
B. Very Long Instruction Width
C. Very Large Instruction Word
D. Very Long Instruction Width
ANSWER: A

In VLIW the decision for the order of execution of the instructions

depends on the program itself?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

Which one is not a limitation of a distributed memory parallel

system?
A. Higher communication time
B. Cache coherency
C. Synchronization overheads
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

Which of these steps can create conflict among the processors?

A. Synchronized computation of local variables
B. Concurrent write
C. Concurrent read
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

Which one is not a characteristic of NUMA multiprocessors?

A. It allows shared memory computing
B. Memory units are placed in physically different location
C. All memory units are mapped to one common virtual global memory
D. Processors access their independent local memories
ANSWER: D

Which of these is not a source of overhead in parallel computing?

A. Non-uniform load distribution
B. Less local memory requirement in distributed computing
C. Synchronization among threads in shared memory computing
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

Systems that do not have parallel processing capabilities are?

A. SISD
B. SIMD
C. MIMD
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A

How does the number of transistors per chip increase according to

Moore ´s law?
A. Quadratically
B. Linearly
C. Cubicly
D. Exponentially
ANSWER: D

Parallel processing may occur?

A. in the instruction stream
B. in the data stream
C. both[A] and [B]
D. none of the above
ANSWER: C
To which class of systems does the von Neumann computer belong?
A. SIMD (Single Instruction Multiple Data)
B. MIMD (Multiple Instruction Multiple Data)
C. MISD (Multiple Instruction Single Data)
D. SISD (Single Instruction Single Data)
ANSWER: D

Fine-grain threading is considered as a ______ threading?

A. Instruction-level
B. Loop level
C. Task-level
D. Function-level
ANSWER: A

Multiprocessor is systems with multiple CPUs, which are capable of

independently executing different tasks in parallel. In this
category every processor and memory module has similar access time?
A. UMA
B. Microprocessor
C. Multiprocessor
D. NUMA
ANSWER: A

For inter processor communication the miss arises are called?

A. hit rate
B. coherence misses
C. comitt misses
D. parallel processing
ANSWER: B

NUMA architecture uses _______in design?

A. cache
B. shared memory
C. message passing
D. distributed memory
ANSWER: D

A multiprocessor machine which is capable of executing multiple

instructions on multiple data sets?
A. SISD
B. SIMD
C. MIMD
D. MISD
ANSWER: C

In message passing, send and receive message between?

A. Task or processes
B. Task and Execution
C. Processor and Instruction
D. Instruction and decode
ANSWER: A

The First step in developing a parallel algorithm is_________?

A. To Decompose the problem into tasks that can be executed
concurrently
B. Execute directly
C. Execute indirectly
D. None of Above
ANSWER: A

The number of tasks into which a problem is decomposed determines

its?
A. Granularity
B. Priority
C. Modernity
D. None of above
ANSWER: A

The length of the longest path in a task dependency graph is called?

A. the critical path length
B. the critical data length
C. the critical bit length
D. None of above
ANSWER: A

The graph of tasks (nodes) and their interactions/data exchange

(edges)?
A. Is referred to as a task interaction graph
B. Is referred to as a task Communication graph
C. Is referred to as a task interface graph
D. None of Above
ANSWER: A

Mappings are determined by?

A. task dependency
B. task interaction graphs
C. Both A and B
D. None of Above
ANSWER: C

Decomposition Techniques are?

A. recursive decomposition
B. data decomposition
C. exploratory decomposition
D. All of Above
ANSWER: D

The Owner Computes Rule generally states that the process assigned a
particular data item is responsible for?
A. All computation associated with it
B. Only one computation
C. Only two computation
D. Only occasionally computation
ANSWER: A

A simple application of exploratory decomposition is_?

A. The solution to a 15 puzzle
B. The solution to 20 puzzle
C. The solution to any puzzle
D. None of Above
ANSWER: A

Speculative Decomposition consist of _?

A. conservative approaches
B. optimistic approaches
C. Both A and B
D. Only B
ANSWER: C

task characteristics include?

A. Task generation.
B. Task sizes.
C. Size of data associated with tasks.
D. All of Above
ANSWER: D

Writing parallel programs is referred to as?

A. Parallel computation
B. Parallel processes
C. Parallel development
D. Parallel programming
ANSWER: D

Parallel Algorithm Models?

A. Data parallel model
B. Bit model
C. Data model
D. network model
ANSWER: A

The number and size of tasks into which a problem is decomposed

determines the?
A. fine-granularity
B. coarse-granularity
C. sub Task
D. granularity
ANSWER: A

A feature of a task-dependency graph that determines the average

degree of concurrency for a given granularity is its ___________
path?
A. critical
B. easy
C. difficult
D. ambiguous
ANSWER: A

The pattern of___________ among tasks is captured by what is known

as a task-interaction graph?
A. Interaction
B. communication
C. optmization
D. flow
ANSWER: A

Interaction overheads can be minimized by____?

A. Maximize Data Locality
B. Maximize Volume of data exchange
C. Increase Bandwidth
D. Minimize social media contents
ANSWER: A

Type of parallelism that is naturally expressed by independent tasks

in a task-dependency graph is called _______ parallelism?
A. Task
B. Instruction
C. Data
D. Program
ANSWER: A

Speed up is defined as a ratio of?

A. s=Ts/Tp
B. S= Tp/Ts
C. Ts=S/Tp
D. Tp=S /Ts
ANSWER: A

Parallel computing means to divide the job into several __________?

A. Bit
B. Data
C. Instruction
D. Task
ANSWER: D

_________ is a method for inducing concurrency in problems that can

be solved using the divide-and-conquer strategy?
A. exploratory decomposition
B. speculative decomposition
C. data-decomposition
D. Recursive decomposition
ANSWER: C

The___ time collectively spent by all the processing elements Tall =

p TP?
A. total
B. Average
C. mean
D. sum
ANSWER: A

Group communication operations are built using point-to-point

messaging primitives?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A
Communicating a message of size m over an uncongested network takes
time ts + tmw?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

The dual of one-to-all broadcast is ?

A. All-to-one reduction
B. All-to-one receiver
C. All-to-one Sum
D. None of Above
ANSWER: A

A hypercube has?
A. 2d nodes
B. 2d nodes
C. 2n Nodes
D. N Nodes
ANSWER: A

A binary tree in which processors are (logically) at the leaves and

internal nodes are routing nodes?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

In All-to-All Broadcast each processor is thesource as well as

destination?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

The Prefix Sum Operation can be implemented using the ?

A. All-to-all broadcast kernel.
B. All-to-one broadcast kernel.
C. One-to-all broadcast Kernel
D. Scatter Kernel
ANSWER: A

In the scatter operation ?

A. Single node send a unique message of size m to every other node
B. Single node send a same message of size m to every other node
C. Single node send a unique message of size m to next node
D. None of Above
ANSWER: A

The gather operation is exactly the inverse of the ?

A. Scatter operation
B. Broadcast operation
C. Prefix Sum
D. Reduction operation
ANSWER: A

In All-to-All Personalized Communication Each node has a distinct

message of size m for every other node ?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

Parallel algorithms often require a single process to send identical

data to all other processes or to a subset of them. This operation
is known as _________?
A. one-to-all broadcast
B. All to one broadcast
C. one-to-all reduction
D. all to one reduction
ANSWER: A

In which of the following operation, a single node sends a unique

message of size m to every other node?
A. Gather
B. Scatter
C. One to all personalized communication
D. Both A and C
ANSWER: D

Gather operation is also known as ________?

A. One to all personalized communication
B. One to all broadcast
C. All to one reduction
D. All to All broadcast
ANSWER: A

one-to-all personalized communication does not involve any

duplication of data?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

Gather operation, or concatenation, in which a single node collects

a unique message from each node?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

Conventional architectures coarsely comprise of a?

A. A processor
B. Memory system
C. Data path.
D. All of Above
ANSWER: D

Data intensive applications utilize?

A. High aggregate throughput
B. High aggregate network bandwidth
C. High processing and memory system performance.
D. None of above
ANSWER: A
A pipeline is like?
A. Overlaps various stages of instruction execution to achieve
performance.
B. House pipeline
C. Both a and b
D. A gas line
ANSWER: A

Scheduling of instructions is determined?

A. True Data Dependency
B. Resource Dependency
C. Branch Dependency
D. All of above
ANSWER: D

VLIW processors rely on?

A. Compile time analysis
B. Initial time analysis
C. Final time analysis
D. Mid time analysis
ANSWER: A

Memory system performance is largely captured by?

A. Latency
B. Bandwidth
C. Both a and b
D. none of above
ANSWER: C

The fraction of data references satisfied by the cache is called?

A. Cache hit ratio
B. Cache fit ratio
C. Cache best ratio
D. none of above
ANSWER: A

A single control unit that dispatches the same Instruction to

various processors is?
A. SIMD
B. SPMD
C. MIMD
D. None of above
ANSWER: A

The primary forms of data exchange between parallel tasks are?

A. Accessing a shared data space
B. Exchanging messages.
C. Both A and B
D. None of Above
ANSWER: C

Switches map a fixed number of inputs to outputs?

A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

The First step in developing a parallel algorithm is?

A. To Decompose the problem into tasks that can be executed
concurrently
B. Execute directly
C. Execute indirectly
D. None of Above
ANSWER: A

The number of tasks into which a problem is decomposed determines

its?
A. Granularity
B. Priority
C. Modernity
D. None of above
ANSWER: A

The length of the longest path in a task dependency graph is called?

A. the critical path length
B. the critical data length
C. the critical bit length
D. None of above
ANSWER: A

The graph of tasks (nodes) and their interactions/data exchange

(edges)?
A. Is referred to as a task interaction graph
B. Is referred to as a task Communication graph
C. Is referred to as a task interface graph
D. None of Above
ANSWER: A

Mappings are determined by?

A. task dependency
B. task interaction graphs
C. Both A and B
D. None of Above
ANSWER: C

Decomposition Techniques are?

A. recursive decomposition
B. data decomposition
C. exploratory decomposition
D. All of Above
ANSWER: D

The Owner Computes Rule generally states that the process assigned a
particular data item are responsible for?
A. All computation associated with it
B. Only one computation
C. Only two computation
D. Only occasionally computation
ANSWER: A

A simple application of exploratory decomposition is?

A. The solution to a 15 puzzle
B. The solution to 20 puzzle
C. The solution to any puzzle
D. None of Above
ANSWER: A

Speculative Decomposition consist of ?

A. conservative approaches
B. optimistic approaches
C. Both A and B
D. Only B
ANSWER: C

Task characteristics include?

A. Task generation.
B. Task sizes.
C. Size of data associated with tasks.
D. All of Above.
ANSWER: D

Group communication operations are built using point-to-point

messaging primitives?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

Communicating a message of size m over an uncongested network takes

time ts + tmw?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

The dual of one-to-all broadcast is?

A. All-to-one reduction
B. All-to-one receiver
C. All-to-one Sum
D. None of Above
ANSWER: A

A hypercube has?
A. 2d nodes
B. 3d nodes
C. 2n Nodes
D. N Nodes
ANSWER: A

A binary tree in which processors are (logically) at the leaves and

internal nodes are routing nodes?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A
In All-to-All Broadcast each processor is the source as well as
destination?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

The Prefix Sum Operation can be implemented using the?

A. All-to-all broadcast kernel.
B. All-to-one broadcast kernel.
C. One-to-all broadcast Kernel
D. Scatter Kernel
ANSWER: A

In the scatter operation?

A. Single node send a unique message of size m to every other node
B. Single node send a same message of size m to every other node
C. Single node send a unique message of size m to next node
D. None of Above
ANSWER: A

The gather operation is exactly the inverse of the?

A. Scatter operation
B. Broadcast operation
C. Prefix Sum
D. Reduction operation
ANSWER: A

In All-to-All Personalized Communication Each node has a distinct

message of size m for every other node?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

Computer system of a parallel computer is capable of?

A. Decentralized computing
B. Parallel computing
C. Centralized computing
D. Decentralized computing
E. Distributed computing
ANSWER: A

Writing parallel programs is referred to as?

A. Parallel computation
B. Parallel processes
C. Parallel development
D. Parallel programming
ANSWER: D

Simplifies applications of three-tier architecture is ____________?

A. Maintenance
B. Initiation
C. Implementation
D. Deployment
ANSWER: D

Dynamic networks of networks, is a dynamic connection that grows is

called?
A. Multithreading
B. Cyber cycle
C. Internet of things
D. Cyber-physical system
ANSWER: C

In which application system Distributed systems can run well?

A. HPC
D. HTC
C. HRC
D. Both A and B
ANSWER: D

In which systems desire HPC and HTC?

A. Adaptivity
B. Transparency
C. Dependency
D. Secretive
ANSWER: B

No special machines manage the network of architecture in which

resources are known as?
A. Peer-to-Peer
B. Space based
C. Tightly coupled
D. Loosely coupled
ANSWER: A

Significant characteristics of Distributed systems have of ?

A. 5 types
B. 2 types
C. 3 types
D. 4 types
ANSWER: C

Built of Peer machines are over?

A. Many Server machines
B. 1 Server machine
C. 1 Client machine
D. Many Client machines
ANSWER: D

Type HTC applications are?

A. Business
B. Engineering
C. Science
D. Media mass
ANSWER: A

Virtualization that creates one single address space architecture

that of, is called?
A. Loosely coupled
B. Peer-to-Peer
C. Space-based
D. Tightly coupled
ANSWER: C

We have an internet cloud of resources In cloud computing to form?

A. Centralized computing
B. Decentralized computing
C. Parallel computing
D. All of these
ANSWER: D

Data access and storage are elements of Job throughput, of

__________?
A. Flexibility
B. Adaptation
C. Efficiency
D. Dependability
ANSWER: C

Billions of job requests is over massive data sets, ability to

support known as?
A. Efficiency
B. Dependability
C. Adaptation
D. Flexibility
ANSWER: C

Broader concept offers Cloud computing .to select which of the

following?
A. Parallel computing
B. Centralized computing
C. Utility computing
D. Decentralized computing
ANSWER: C

Resources and clients transparency that allows movement within a

system is called?
A. Mobility transparency
B. Concurrency transparency
C. Performance transparency
D. Replication transparency
ANSWER: A

Distributed program in a distributed computer running a is known as?

A. Distributed process
B. Distributed program
C. Distributed application
D. Distributed computing
ANSWER: B

Uniprocessor computing devices is called__________?

A. Grid computing
B. Centralized computing
C. Parallel computing
D. Distributed computing
ANSWER: B

Utility computing focuses on a______________ model?

A. Data
B. Cloud
C. Scalable
D. Business
ANSWER: D

What is a CPS merges technologies?

A. 5C
B. 2C
C. 3C
D. 4C
ANSWER: C

Aberration of HPC?
A. High-peak computing
B. High-peripheral computing
C. High-performance computing
D. Highly-parallel computing
ANSWER: C

Peer-to-Peer leads to the development of technologies like?

A. Norming grids
B. Data grids
C. Computational grids
D. Both A and B
ANSWER: D

Type of HPC applications of?

A. Management
B. Media mass
C. Business
D. Science
ANSWER: D

The development generations of Computer technology has gone through?

A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER: D

Utilization rate of resources in an execution model is known to be

its?
A. Adaptation
B. Efficiency
C. Dependability
D. Flexibility
ANSWER: B

Even under failure conditions Providing Quality of Service (QoS)

assurance is the responsibility of?
A. Dependability
B. Adaptation
C. Flexibility
D. Efficiency
ANSWER: A

Interprocessor communication that takes place?

A. Centralized memory
B. Shared memory
C. Message passing
D. Both A and B
ANSWER: D

Data centers and centralized computing covers many and?

A. Microcomputers
B. Minicomputers
C. Mainframe computers
D. Supercomputers
ANSWER: D

Which of the following is an primary goal of HTC

paradigm___________?
A. High ratio Identification
B. Low-flux computing
C. High-flux computing
D. Computer utilities
ANSWER: C

The high-throughput service provided is measures taken by

A. Flexibility
B. Efficiency
C. Dependability
D. Adaptation
ANSWER: D

What are the sources of overhead?

A. Essential /Excess Computation
B. Inter-process Communication
C. Idling
D. All above
ANSWER: D

Which are the performance metrics for parallel systems?

A. Execution Time
B. Total Parallel Overhead
C. Speedup
D. All above
ANSWER: D

The efficiency of a parallel program can be written as: E = Ts /

pTp. True or False?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A

The important feature of the VLIW is ______?

A. ILP
B. Performance
C. Cost effectiveness
D. delay
ANSWER: A
Software Quality Assurance MCQ

1 .Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: d

2 . Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?

a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans :b

4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
Ans : a

6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?

a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
Ans: c
7. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c

8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that
they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

9. What is not included in prevention costs?

a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans: d

10. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True
b) False
Ans : a

11. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as

a) SQA
b) SQM
c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
Ans: a

12. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
d) All of the mentioned
Ans : d

13. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?

a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Ans: a

14. What is Six Sigma?

a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to
six standard deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection
Ans: c

15. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?

a) Define
b) Control
c) Measure
d) Analyse
Ans: b

16. Non-conformance to software requirements is known as

a) Software availability
b) Software reliability
c) Software failure
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : c

17. Software safety is equivalent to software reliability.

a) True
b) False
Ans: b

18. Misinterpretation of customer communication is a sample of possible cause defects.

a) True
b) False
Ans: a

19. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Ans: b
20. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as
a) Quality of design
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality of testing
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

21. Quality of design encompasses requirements and specifications of the system.

a) True
b) False
Ans : a

22. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility?
a) Process control
b) Document control
c) Control of nonconforming products
d) Servicing
Ans : a

23. Alpha testing is done at

a) Developer‟s end
b) User‟s end
c) Developer‟s & User‟s end
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

24. Boundary value analysis belong to?

a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

25. What are the various Testing Levels?

a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

26. Which of the following is/are White box technique?

a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

27. Exhaustive testing is

a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
Ans :c

28. White Box techniques are also classified as

a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : b

29. Which of the following term describes testing?

a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

30. The testing in which code is checked

a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
Ans :b

31. Acceptance testing is also known as

a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
Ans : d

32. Which of the following is non-functional testing?

a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : b

33. Beta testing is done at

a) User‟s end
b) Developer‟s end
c) User‟s & Developer‟s end
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : a

34. Unit testing is done by

a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : b

35. Behavioral testing is

a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : b

36. Which of the following is black box testing

a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : b

37. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific
function.
a) True
b) False
Ans : b

38. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?

a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta
Ans : d
39. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped”
software products are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing
Ans : c

40. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step

a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing
Ans : b

41. What is the main purpose of integration testing?

a) Design errors
b) Interface errors
c) Procedure errors
d) None of the above
Ans : b

42. Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under which type of testing?
a) Integration testing
b) Validation testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the above
Ans : c

43. _____ is a white-box testing technique first proposed by Tom McCabe.

a) Equivalence Partitioning
b) Basis Path Testing
c.) Boundary Value Analysis
d) None of the above.
Ans : b.

44. When the Testing Principles are useful while building the Software Product?

a) During testing
b) During execution
c) During review
d) Throughout life-cycle
Ans : d
45. When different combination of input requires different combination of actions,Which of the
following technique is used in such situation?
a) Boundary Value Analysis
b) Equivalence Partition
c) Decision Table
d) Decision Coverage
Ans : c

46. Which of the following is not a part of Performance Testing?

a) Measuring Transaction Rate.
b) Measuring Response Time.
c) Measuring the LOC.
d) None of the above
Ans : c

47. Finding Defect is not a major goal of Acceptance Testing.

a) True
b) False

ANSWER: True

48. Which of the following is the form of Alpha and Beta Testing?

a) Acceptance Testing
b) System Testing
c) Unit Testing
d) Integration Testing
Ans : a

49. Which of the following is a myth in testing?

a) Tester can find bugs
b) Any user can test software
c) Missed defects are not due to testers
d) Complete testing is not possible
Ans : b

50. SDLC stands for ________

a) Software development life cycle
b) System development life cycle
c) Software design life cycle
d) System design life cycle
Ans : a

51. Which of the following divides the input domain into classes containing data?
a) Equivalent partitioning
b) Environment partitioning
c) Procedure division
d) Compilation division
Ans : a

52. -------- is not a Test Document.

a)Test Policy

b)Test Case

c) PIN ( Project Initiation Note)

d)RTM (requirement Traceability matrix)

Ans : c

53.Continual (Continuous) improvement cycle is based on systematic sequence of --------------

activities.
a) SDLC
b) PDCA
c) waterfall model
Ans : b.

54. ----------- is the application of quality principles to all facets and business process of an
organization.
a) TQM
b) Software Testing
c) Software tools
Ans : a

55. The cost incurred in first time reviews and testing is called ---------
a) Red money
b) Green money
c) Blue money
Ans : c

56.Innovation is the ---------------activity leading to changes.

a) Planned
b) Accidental
c) virtual
Ans : a.

57. Inventions may leads to major changes in technology , way of doing work.
a) true
b) false
Ans : true

58. „Q‟ organizations are less quality conscious organizations.

a) true
b) false
Ans: false

59. Quality management system of a organization based on which pillars

a) Test plans, Test conditions & decisions
b) Quality processes, Guidelines and standards & Formats and templates
c) Quality police, objectives and manuals
Ans : b

60. Requirement Traceability Matrix is a way of doing complete mapping of software

a)true
b)false
Ans : true

61. V- model uses -------- test models

a) Component testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing
b) alpha testing, beta testing , acceptance testing and user testing
c) black box testing, white box testing and gray box testing
Ans : a
 marks question A B C D ans
From the
following which Performance testing
0 1 one is non- Performance testing Black Box testing Regression testing Unit testing is a non-functional
functional testing
testing?
One of the
following test is Closed box testing
1 1 not known as Closed box testing Glass box testing Open-box testing Clear box testing is not known as
White Box White Box Testing
Testing
Requirement
specification, Requirement
Planning, Test specification,
case design, Planning, Test case
Execution, Bug design, Execution,
2 1 reporting, STLC SDLC SQLC BLC Bug reporting,
Maintenance- Maintenance- these
these phases phases come under
come under STLC testing
which testing model
model?
The planning phase
The Planning
Selecting people in testing includes
phase in testing Explaining the
3 1 and assigning them Doing followups Arranging meetings selecting people
includes the objectives
roles and assigning them
following
roles
Which are the
Boundary value
ones that are Boundary value
4 1 Statement testing Desicion testing Condition coverage analysis is not a
not white box analysis
white box testing
testing
What type of
All the testing
testing is
5 1 All Bottom-up testing Top-down testing Big bang testing mentioned here are
Integration
integration testing
testing?
Which one of
the following is Static Analysis
Array bound Before defining a
6 1 unrecognized Memory leak None cannot find memory
violations variable, using it
by Static leaks
Analysis?
Which testing
It is White Box
is it when you
7 1 White-box testing Black box testing Unit testing Regression testing Testing when you
go through the
go through the code
code?
The statement
For Spiral Risk analysis is which is not true for
Refining text We need to iterate
Model which present in all the The risk analysis spiral model is
execution plan uses the whole cycle if
8 1 one of the cycles of the phase is present Refining text
a series of we want to make
following is not development only in this model. execution plan uses
prototypes. changes.
true? process. a series of
prototypes.
Focus Testing Focus Testing is a
Performance
9 2 is a part of Usability Testing Acceptance Testing Component Testing part of Usability
Testing
______. Testing
 marks question A B C D ans
What non-
functional Usability Testing is
software the non-functional
testing is software testing is
10 2 known to Usability testing Security testing Unit testing White Box testing known to check if
check if the the product
product interface is user-
interface is friendly.
user-friendly?
What does Confidence tesing
11 2 confidence Smoke testing Re-testing Regression testing All refers to smoke
tesing refer to? tesing
The testing that
Ad Hoc testing is
is done without
the testing that is
any planning
12 2 Ad hoc testing Unit testing Regression testing Functional testing done without any
and
planning and
documentation
documentation
is known as:
Functional and
What is the
behavioral is the
end result of
Functional and Architectural and Usability and Algorithmic and end result of
13 2 software
behavioral Structural reliability data structure software
requirement
requirement
analysis?
analysis
Running the
same test by Running the same
giving the test by giving the
14 2 number of Retesting Regression testing Ad hoc testing Sanity testing number of inputs on
inputs on the the same build is
same build is known as Retesting
known as:
This one is not Decision is not a
a part of part of
15 2 Decision Decision Tables Use Case Testing Use Case Testing
Specification Specification
Testing Testing
When you
When you inform
inform the
the developer to fix
developer to
16 2 Priority Severity Fixability Traceability the one bug the
fix the one bug
earliest is known as
the earliest is
priority
known as
We should not raise
We should not
Improvements incidents against
17 2 raise incidents Documentation Test cases Requirement
suggested by users improvements
against this one
suggested by users
White Box White box testing is
Design related Experienced related
18 3 Testing named Structural tesing Smoke testing sometimes known
tesing testing
as as Srucural testing
Static Analysis is
Static Analysis Analysis of Reviewing test Analysis of batch Use of Black Box
19 3 known as analysis
is known as program code plans programs testing
of program code
 marks question A B C D ans
To analyse if
To analyse if we are
we are
developing the right
developing the
product according
right product
20 3 Validation Verification Quality assurance Quality control to the industry
according to
requirements is
the industry
known as
requirements is
Validation.
known as
The person
The person who
who finds out
finds out issues and
21 3 issues and Scribe Manager Author Moderator
makes note of it is a
makes note of
scribe
it is known as
Which is the
Process is the first
22 3 first component Process Flow Entity Level
component of DFD
of DFD?
If the bug is not
Why do bug Maybe there is an
Maybe the bug is Maybe the bug is Maybe the priority reported the bug
23 3 status get immediate release
not reported not that effective is low status get
postponed? date
postponed
Which model
of the following V Model is related
24 3 V Model RAD Model Waterfall Model Spiral Model
is related to to STLC model
STLC model?
Out of the
following which
V model is not an
25 3 one is not an V model Incremental RAD Spiral Model
Iterative Model
Iterative
Model?
An exhaustive
Is exhaustive
testing or complete
26 3 tesing Yes possible Not possible Can't say None
testing is not
possible?
possible
In test
In which phase
Evaluating exit implementation and
of testing the Test implementation Test analysis and Test closure
27 3 criteria and execuion phase
review of test and execution design activities
reporting review of test basis
basis is done?
is done
Which testing Static testing is
28 3 is performed Static testing White box testing Dynamic tesing Black box testing performed before
before all all other testing
Stress testing is
What is known
done when the
by testing
29 3 Stress testing Performance testing Load testing All tesing process
beyond normal
takes place beyond
capacity?
the normal limits
What per cent
40-50 per cent of
of software
software
development
30 1 40-50 30-40 80-90 20-30 development cost
cost includes
includes software
software
testing
testing?
 marks question A B C D ans
Acceptance Acceptance testing
31 1 testing is Beta Testing Gray Box testing Test Automation White-box testing is known as Beta
known as Testing
A test plan is
A test plan is
32 1 Project plan Business plan Support plan None inspired by the
inspired by
project plan
When an
When an unexpected result is
We may not able to We'll face difficulty We cannot
unexpected That test cannot be not specified, then
33 1 identify if we pass in running the test automate what the
result is not performed we may not able to
the test or not once again user data is
specified, then identify if we pass
the test or not
Full form of SPICE
Software Process Software Process Software Process Software Process
is Software Process
Full form of Improvement and Improvement and Invention and Improvement and
34 1 Improvement and
SPICE Capability Compatibility Compatibility Control
Capability
Determination Determination Determination Determination
Determination
Quality
Quality assurance
assurance
methods are usually
35 1 methods are Preventive Corrective Defective Proactive
considered as
usually
Preventive
considered as
This one is not Statement testing is
36 1 Security testing Functional testing Statement testing Database testing
a test type not a test type
From the
following list
Robustness is not a
37 1 which one is Robustness Portability Simplicity Operability
part of testability
not a part of
Testability?
Management Management and
and measurement will
38 1 measurement CMM Level 4 CMM Level 2 CMM Level 3 CMM Level 1 fall under the
will fall under category of CMM
the category of Level 4
This one is not RTM
PIN (Project PIN is not a test
39 2 a test Test case Test policy (Requirements
Initiation Note) document
document Traceability Matrix)
Deliverable base-
This is not a
lining is not a part
part of Defect Deliverable base- Management
40 2 Defect prevention None of Defect
Management lining reporting
Management
Process
Process
Who does the A developer does
41 2 Developer Test Engineer User Customers
Unit Testing? Unit Testing
A regression testing
Will allow that the Will allow that the
will allow that the
software will have Software will have
Will only perform software will have
A regression the areas unaffected Will always be the areas
42 2 during user the areas unaffected
test that have not automated unaffected that
acceptance testing that have not
undergone any have undergone
undergone any
changes changes
changes
 marks question A B C D ans
10. To
To overcome risk,
overcome risk,
43 2 Mitigation plan Master plan Maintenance plan Migration plan we perform a
which plan will
Mitigation Plan
you look for?
This one is not
Test closure is not a
a Software Requirement
44 2 Test closure Test planning Testing software test life
Test Life Cycle collection
cycle phase
phase
TQM stands for
8. TQM stands Test Quality Tool Quality Total Quality Total Quality
45 2 Test Quality
for Management Management Management Manager
Management
When we start
When we start the
the process
process with the
with the Bottom-up Top-down
46 2 Module integration None terminal module, it
terminal integration integration
is called Bottom-up
module, it is
integration
called
Which one of
the following is Boundary value
Boundary value
47 2 a form of Performance testing Usability testing Security testing analysis is a form of
analysis
functional functional testing
testing?
This one is not Functional testing is
48 3 Functional testing Acceptance testing System testing Integration testing
a test level not a test level
Which from the
Dataflow is not a
49 3 list is not a Dataflow analysis Walkthrough Error guessing Inspection
static testing
static testing
Test cases are
Test cases are Test cases are
designed
50 3 Test specifications designed during this Test configuration Test planning designed during test
during this
phase specification
phase
Sanity testing is a
Sanity testing is Test design
51 3 type of test Test type Test execution level Test level
a type of technique
execution level
Verification is to
To check if we are
To check whether It is performed by To check that the check if we are
developing the
52 3 Verification is we are developing a separate test product will satisfy developing the
system in the right
the right system team the user needs system in the right
way
way
Who will
User will perform
53 3 perform the User Developer Manager Tester
the Beta testing
Beta testing?
Function/ Test
Function/ Test
Project status matrix is a type of
54 3 matrix is a type Final test report Interim test report Management report
report Project status
of
report
When you
When you execute
execute the
the same test on a
55 3 same test on a Regression Testing Retesting Ad hoc Testing Sanity Testing
build, it is known as
build, it is
Regression Testing
known as
 marks question A B C D ans
How well the
user interacts How well the user
with the system interacts with the
User acceptance
56 3 is determined Usability testing Alpha testing Beta testing system is
testing
using this test. determined using
Which one is Usability testing
it?
Expected results
Useful when
Expected Used only in Never come in Important only in are useful when
57 3 specified in
results are component testing advance system testing specified in
advance
advance
Writing code of a
16. This one is
software is a
58 3 a mandatory Able to write code Being diplomatic Being attentive Trustworthy
mandatory skill of a
skill of a tester
tester
\nThis type of
testing is done
Regression testing
to make sure
is done to make
that if we make
sure that if we
59 3 any changes, Regression testing Black box testing Recursive testing Unit testing
make any changes,
then it will not
then it will not affect
affect the
the existing features
existing
features \n\n
A _____
A test framework
allows us to
60 1 Test framework Test case Testing tool None allows us to write
write and run a
and run a test easily
test easily
Which one is
the reputed ISO is a reputed
61 1 ISO QAI M bridge awards Microsoft
testing testing standard
standard?
QTP is a tool used
QTP is a tool
62 1 Performance testing Load testing UI testing Web testing in performance
used in
testing
A software
A software having
having high
Difficult to write the high cyclomatic
63 1 cyclomatic Difficult to test Large in size Small in size
code complexity is
complexity
difficult to test
tends to be
Which one of
the following Capture or
tools are playback is
64 1 Capture/ playback Output comparator Boundary tester Data tester
involved in the involved in
automation regression testing.
regression test?
A/B Testing deals
with marketing
A/B Testing Same two products
Five different analysis of same
deals with with just one varied Two different types
65 1 products with None two products with
marketing property with the of product
different features just one varied
analysis of other
property with the
other
 marks question A B C D ans
From the given
options which
Simulating many Recovery testing is
one is not a Measuring Calculating
66 1 Recovery testing users and generating not a part of
part of transaction rates response time
many transactions performance testing
performance
testing?
Which names
A point to note
are used to
here is that when
identify the
you are iterating
status of your
over a specific
67 1 application Initial condition Static state End condition Done condition
business process
before and
the initial and end
after your
conditions should
automated test
be same.
executes?
You cannot insert
Which
any type of
QuickTest
Cannot insert a checkpoint on a
operation can Cannot be used in Cannot insert an Cannot use object
68 1 standard virtual object, or
not be expert view image checkpoint spy
checkpoint use the Object Spy
performed on a
to view its
virtual object?
properties
You ran a test
scenario with
10 iterations.
The summary The summary The summary
What does the
The summary reports PASS reports FAIL reports the status
Test Results The summary
69 1 reports the status because more because all for each iteration in
Summary reports DONE
for each iteration iterations passed iterations did not the test result
report if 8
than failed pass summary page.
iterations pass
and 2 iterations
fail?
If the code of
the script is not
If the code of the
written in a
script is not written
______ way, it
70 2 Testable Stable Proper None in a testable way, it
would be
would be difficult to
difficult to
automate the test
automate the
test
Beta testing is
Beta testing is User and
71 2 User Developer None performed at the
performed by developer both
user's end.
Microsoft Coded
UI allows UI
Microsoft automation for
Coded UI Windows Android Windows and other
72 2 iOS applications None
allows UI applications applications Microsoft
automation for applications such as
WPF, WCF,
Silverlight, etc.
 marks question A B C D ans
You are
creating a
recovery
scenario to Keyboard or
handle a pop- mouse operation is
Keyboard or Close application Restart Microsoft
73 2 up message Function call the appropriate
mouse operation process Windows
box with OK recovery operation
Button. Which to be used.
recovery
option should
you select?
SoapUI is a HTTP,
HTTP, API Performance
74 2 SoapUI is a UI automation tool None API automation
automation tool automation tool
tool
Developers
Unit testing is
75 2 Developers Testers Managers Customers perform the unit
done by
testing
Why would a To
To make it easier to
tester use the To bypass the programmatically To data-drive To avoid the object
retrieve child
Description object repository modify a test logical names and repository when
76 2 objects using the
object in the when identifying an object's definition make the test more identifying an object
ChildObjects
Expert View of object at runtime directly in the generic at runtime
method
a test? object repository
Which is the
automation tool Capture/Playback
that takes part is used for
77 2 Capture/Playback Output comparator Boundary tester Data tester
in regression automation of
automation Regression testing
testing?
A variable should
not begin with a
How can you numeric character
declare a Dim MyVar, and should not
78 2 Dim MyVar Dim 123MyVar Dim My.Var
variable in 123MyVar contain an
UFT? embedded period.
So it will be Dim
MyVar
When we
When we develop
develop and
and the test before
the test before
or simultaneously
or
with the tested
79 3 simultaneously Progression testing Load testing Regression testing Performance testing
functionality, the
with the tested
process is known
functionality,
as progression
the process is
testing
known as
Graphics for
Graphics for word
80 3 word Clipart Peripheral Highlight Execute
processor is Clipart
processor is
 marks question A B C D ans
Tools that
requires more Tools that requires
coding and Requirement more coding and
81 3 Versatile Hard to use All
programming specific programming skills,
skills, are more are more versatile
________
Which of the
Only the file name
following file is
ActionTemplate.mst
82 3 recognized as ActionTemplate.mst ActionTemplate.mts ActionTemplate.qsr ActionTemplate.tmp
is recognized as an
an action
action template.
template?
JUnit and
TestNG are the JUnit and TestNG
83 3 test unit Java Perl Ruby C# are the test unit
framework for framework for Java
this language
Error guessing is a
Test data Test control
Error guessing Test verification Test execution test data
84 3 management management
is a technique technique management
technique technique
technique
Selenium IDE Selenium IDE is a
85 3 Plug-in Framework Test case All
is a Plug-in
When you test Beta testing is the
actual data in type of testing that
86 3 an actual Beta testing Regression testing Alpha testing None you perform using
environment, it actual data in an
means actual environment.
Appium is an
Appium helps in UI
extension of
automation for
Selenium Web
87 3 Mobile applications Web applications Test application All Mobile applications
Driver, that
such as Android,
helps in UI
iOS, Windows, etc.
automation for
________ is a None of the above
word is a word
88 3 processing None MS-Access MS-Excel MS-Office processing
application of application of
Microsoft Microsoft
Monkey Testing
"Monkey Hitting every nook Hitting every nook Check for the
refers to hitting
89 3 Testing" refers and corner and corner with exact location and None
every nook and
to unknowingly proper knowledge find out the issue
corner unknowingly
Which of the
following is not All these options
considered Failure mode will be considered
90 1 None Repair Rework
while counting analysis while counting the
the failure failure cost.
cost?
 marks question A B C D ans
Which of the
following Amount of technical
Documents that we
doesn't come Amount of technical The overall work doesn't come
91 1 Audits and reviews have to produce by
under the SQA work evaluation under the SQA
the SQA group
plan for a plan for a project.
project?
Which of the
Uncovering bugs in
following are
Uncover bugs in Determining who Allow all the senior software work
aspects of Assess programmer
92 1 software work introduced an error staff members to products are
formal productivity
products into a code correct errors. aspects of formal
technical
technical reviews.
reviews?
Which of the
Error handling and
following
Execution paths are
process, we Algorithmic
93 1 Error handling Code stability Execution paths need to be
need to assess performance
assessed before the
before the Unit
Unit testing phase
testing phase?
External failure
Which of the
costs will be
following After we send he When the product Before Simultaneously
calculated after the
94 1 doesn't come product to manufacturing goes manufacturing the when the product is
product has been
with external customer on product under manufacturing
dispatched to the
failure cost?
customer.
What are the A review summary
A review What was
defects found, Terminate project, report answers
summary reviewed, who
What caused the replace producer, what was reviewed,
95 1 report answers reviewed it, what None
defects, who was request time who reviewed it,
these three are the things they
responsible for extension what were the
questions found
defects things they found
Statistical quality
Tracing each defect Tracing each defect assurance involves
Surveying
Statistical to its underlying to its underlying tracing each defect
customers to find Using sampling in
quality cause, isolating the causes and using to its underlying
96 1 out their opinions place of exhaustive
assurance "vital few" causes, the Pareto principle cause, isolating the
about product testing software
involves and moving to to correct each "vital few" causes,
quality
correct them problem found and moving to
correct them
Which of the Acting as a whole
following Review software team and not taking
Act as a team for
activities are engineering Report troubles to Prepare SQA plan part in the team
97 1 any software
prohibited by activities to verify higher authority for the project meetings is not
developed
the SQA process compliance recommended by
group? SQA group.
Deep structure
testing is not meant
Deep structure Practice structure Practice
Practice object Examine object for practice
98 1 testing is not observable by the communication
dependencies behaviours structure
meant for user mechanism
observable by the
user
 marks question A B C D ans
Which
requirements Software coding is
are the fundamental when
99 1 fundamentals Software coding Software Hardware None measuring the
through which quality of a
quality is product.
measured?
Which of the
Quality planning is
following is not
Inter process not considered as
100 2 considered as Quality planning Maintenance Testing
inspection an appraisal cost in
an appraisal
SQA
cost in SQA?
The level of
All the above
review
options are
formality is Amount of
101 2 All Reviewer follow-up Structure of review determined by the
determined by preparation
level of review
which of the
formality.
following?
Quality cost may be
Quality cost
Prevention, Customer, divided with the
may be divided People, process
102 2 appraisal, and developer, All costs of prevention,
with the costs and product
failure maintenance appraisal, and
of the following
failure
Six sigma
Six sigma methodology
methodology Define, measure, Analyse, design, Analyse, improve, Define, measure, involves three core
103 2
involves three analyse verify control control steps, they are
core steps define, measure,
analyse
Out of the
External failure
following which
costs are the most
104 2 one is the most External failure cost Appraisal cost Internal failure cost Prevention costs
expensive cost of
expensive cost
quality
of quality?
Variation
control in the Variation control in
context of the context of
software Expended Product quality software
105 2 All Applied process
engineering resources attributes engineering involves
involves which all the options
of the mentioned above.
following?
The ISO
The ISO quality
quality
assurance standard
assurance
applying to
106 2 standard ISO 9001 ISO 9000 ISO 9002 ISO 9003
software
applying to
engineering is ISO
software
9001
engineering is
 marks question A B C D ans
Functionality,
Which of the Portability and
following is not Reliability are ISO
107 2 an ISO 9126 Visual appeal Portability Reliability Functionality 9126 software
software quality factors.
quality factors? Visual appealing is
not
Out of the
following,
Budget is not a
which one is
108 2 Budget Documentation Reviews and audits Test standard for SQA
not a standard
plans by IEEE
of SQA plans
by IEEE?
Bottom-up
Bottom-up
integration testing
integration Major decision
No stubs need to No drivers need to Regression testing is has it's major
109 2 testing has it's points are tested
be installed be installed not needed advantages that no
major early
stubs need to be
advantages that
installed
Acceptance Acceptance are
110 3 are conducted End users Developers Test team System engineers conducted by the
by the end users
Out of the
following,
Performance issues
which one is Adding value for
Creating Satisfy stakeholder is not one of the
111 3 not one of the Performance issues developers and
infrastructure requirements attributes of
attributes of users
software quality
software
quality?
Which of the All the decisions
following mentioned here are
management Risk-oriented Scheduling the most effective
112 3 All Estimation decisions
decisions can decisions decisions management
affect software decisions of
quality? software quality.
A key concept of
A key concept
Have measured Delivered right on Tested thoroughly quality control have
of quality Have complete
113 3 specifications for time within the before sending it to measured
control documentation
outputs budget the customer specifications for
___________
outputs
Which of the
Equipment
following
Equipment calibration and
doesn't come Formal technical
114 3 calibration and Test equipment Quality planning maintenance don’t
under reviews
maintenance come under
prevention
prevention cost.
cost?
The project
The project plan
plan techniques
115 3 Change Quality Cost Error techniques for
for ______
Change and Quality
and _______
 marks question A B C D ans
Smoke testing
Smoke testing Bullet-proofing Testing that hides
Rolling integration Unit testing for small sometimes known
116 3 sometimes shrink-wrapping implementation
testing programs as rolling integration
known as software errors
testing
Who checks all None of them that
the documents are mentioned here
and measures if takes part in
117 3 the issues have None Project team SQA group Project manager documents
been rectified checking and
to the verifying if the
software? issues are rectified.
Software Software protection
protection is a is a quality
quality Prevent profitable Affect the reliability assurance activity
May cause an May result from
118 3 assurance marketing of the of a software that focuses on
entire system to fail user input errors
activity that final product component issues that prevent
focuses on profitable marketing
issues that of the final product
The OO Testing
The OO Single operations
Operator integration strategy
Testing Groups or classes as they are added
programme derived involves testing
119 3 integration that communicate in to the evolving None
from use-case groups or classes
strategy some ways class
scenarios that communicate in
involves testing implementation
some ways
Low cost, with
Low cost, with
more quantity items
120 1 more quantity Little inspection No inspection Intensive inspection 100% inspection
require little
items require
inspection
Out of the
Reporting functions
following,
and Auditing
which one is
functions are
related to the
related to the
function of
121 1 Reporting functions Auditing functions Analysis function All function of
management
management when
when it comes
it comes to
to software
software quality
quality
assurance
assurance?
The mean of
The mean of sampling
Equal to mean of More than mean of Less than mean of
122 1 sampling None distribution is equal
process distribution process distribution process distribution
distribution is to mean of process
distribution
A six sigma
process has A six sigma process
defect level has defect level
123 1 below _____ 3.4 6.7 5.6 None below 3.4 defects
defects per per million
million opportunities
opportunities
 marks question A B C D ans
It is a systematic
It is a degree to QA is the process
process to check It is a corrective It is the process of
124 1 What is QA? which the product to check the quality
the quality in the tool finding out defects
satisfies the need in the product
product
Process Process control
After production
125 1 control is During production Before production All takes place during
control
carried out the production
From inventory From inventory
record file, we record file, we
126 1 Lot size Customer name Machine details None
come to know come to know
this about lot size
Which of the
following
QC may be a part
options is QC is an integral QA is an integral QA and QC are QC is an integral
127 1 of QA or may not
correct part of QA part of QC separate part part of QA
be
regarding QA
and QC?
Manufacturing Manufacturing just
just in time in time process
128 1 Inventory Profit Manpower Manufacturing
process focuses on
focuses on inventory
Out of the
following, Equipment
which one Equipment calibration and
Formal technical Test equipment Quality planning
129 1 doesn't come calibration and maintenance
reviews reviews reviews
under maintenance doesn't come under
prevention prevention cost
cost?
Forecasting is used
Forecasting is Dependent demand
130 2 Individual items Both None for individual
used for items
demand items
In which test
activity you can Check exit criteria In planning, you can
131 2 Planning Design Execution
easily find promotion easily find issues
issues
To measure the
fraction of Mean chart is used
defective items to measure the
132 2 C-chart P-chart Mean chart Range chart
in a sample, fraction of defective
this control items in a sample
chart is used
Out of the
following,
Quality planning is
which one is Inter-process
133 2 Quality planning Maintenance Testing not an appraisal in
not an inspection
SQA
appraisal in
SQA?
 marks question A B C D ans
"Process
capabilities should
When it comes Generally many
Process capabilities Measuring be monitored on
to QA and QA depends on the inspections are
should be equipment should intermittent basis"
134 2 QC, the activities of the done during the
monitored on have a calibration this statement is not
following are entire company process
intermittent basis certificate correct when it
not correct manufacturing
comes to QA and
QC
PMTS
(Predetermined PMTS includes all
MTM (Method WFS (Work BMTS (Basic
135 2 Motion Time All the mentioned
Time Measurement) Factor Systems) Motion Time Study)
System) options
includes
The first step of
The first step Identification of Development of
136 2 Servicing Material control QA is identification
of QA is customer need standards
of customer need
To measure the
C-chart is used to
number of
measure the
137 2 defects per unit C-chart P-chart Mean chart Range chart
number of defects
by using this
per unit
control chart
To monitor the P-chart is used to
138 2 attributes, this P-chart Mean chart Range chart All monitor the
chart is used attributes
Which one is
the primary
objective of Errors are the
formal primary objective
technical of formal technical
review to review to check for,
139 2 check for, so Error Faults Failure None so that there will be
that there will no technical issues
be no technical after delivering the
issues after product to the
delivering the customer.
product to the
customer?
All of the
This process is
mentioned
included in
140 3 All Simple loops Nested loops Concatenated loops processes are
Loop testing
included in Loop
methodology
testing
Developing
MTM is used for all
MTM is used Create time Improve already methods prior to the
141 3 All the mentioned
for standards existing methods beginning of the
options
production
High cost, but low
High cost, but
in volume items
142 3 low in volume Intensive inspection 100% inspection No inspection Little inspection
require Intensive
items require
inspection
This one is an Verification is an
143 3 Verification Software testing Validation Documentation
example of QA example of QA
 marks question A B C D ans
QA and QC stand
What does QA Quality adjustment
Quality assurance Quality adjustment Quality assurance for Quality
144 3 and QC stand and Quality
and Quality control and queuing control and Queuing control assurance and
for? completion
Quality control
Who checks
SQA team checks
the documents
the documents and
145 3 and verifies the SQA team Project team Project manager All
verifies the validity
validity of the
of the software
software?
When you use
When you use the
the degree of
degree of the
the design
design specification
specification Quality of
146 3 Quality control Quality assurance None and manufacture a
and conformance
product, it comes
manufacture a
under Quality of
product, it
conformance
comes under
Which of the
following Quality control
options deals Development of Development of deals with material
147 3 Quality control Feedback
with material standards specifications and component
and component control
control?
Out of the
following,
Complaint Testing is not an
148 3 which one is Testing Helpline support Warranty work
resolution External failure cost
not an External
failure cost?
To monitor the
Range chart is used
variables, this
149 3 Range chart C-chart P-chart All to monitor the
control chart is
variables
used
 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

1. which is not a Selenium Component ?

 Maven
 Selenium IDE
 Selenium Grid
 WebDriver

View Answer
Maven is not a Selenium Component.

2. who doesn’t support programming ?

 Selenium WebDriver
 Selenium Grid
 Selenium RC
 Selenium IDE

View Answer
Selenium IDE doesn’t support programming.

3. Which programming languages does not Selenium allow to use?

 Python, C-Sharp
 JavaScript, Ruby
 PHP, Java
 C++, C

View Answer
Selenium does not allow to use C++, C programming languages.

4. By which browser Selenium IDE is supported ?

 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

 Safari
 Internet Explorer
 Google Chrome
 Mozilla Firefox

View Answer
Selenium IDE is supported by Mozilla Firefox

5. In WebDriver__________command can be used to enter values onto

text boxes?

 selenium.type()
 type()
 sendKeys("text")
 driver.type("text")

View Answer
In WebDriver sendKeys("text") command can be used to enter values
onto text boxes.

6. SelectAllOptions() is a valid command In webdriver -

 True
 False

View Answer
False

7. which method closes the open browser In webdriver ?

 quit()
 terminate()
 close()
 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

 shutdown()

View Answer
In webdriver close() method closes the open browser.

8. Which is the most common way to find an element on a page?

 Id
 Xpath
 CSS Selector
 Name

View Answer
the most common way to find an element on a page is Id.

9. ....................... is the best call for finding multiple elements using XPath.

 findElementByXpath
 findElementsByXpath
 findElementByCssSelector
 2&3

View Answer
findElementsByXPath is the best call for finding multiple elements
using XPath.

10. ....................... is the best call for finding multiple elements using XPath.

 findElementByXpath
 findElementsByXpath
 findElementByCssSelector
 2&3

View Answer
 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

findElementsByXPath is the best call for finding multiple elements

using XPath.

11. The expression is used for "anything" is -

 .*
 **
 *+
 *.

View Answer
The expression is used for "anything" is .*

12. Which is the odd one using in Selenium ?

 Id
 Pattern Matching
 XPath
 CSS selector

View Answer
Pattern Matching is the odd one using in Selenium.

13. The following language not supported by Selenium is -

 PHP
 Java
 C#
 ASP

View Answer
ASP language is not supported by Selenium.
 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

14. What is the full form of Selenium IDE ?

 Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

 Selenium Intialization Development Environment
 Selenium Information Development Environment
 Selenium Integrated Development Environment

View Answer
the full form of Selenium IDE is Selenium Integrated Development
Environment .

15. The Web driver is used for -

 To design a test using Selenese

 To quickly create tests
 To execute tests on the HtmlUnit browser.
 To test a web application against Firefox only.

View Answer
The Web driver is used for To execute tests on the HtmlUnit browser.

16. The command which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE.

 Verify
 Assert
 WaitFor
 Wait

View Answer
Wait command is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE.

17. Selenium.....................component supports All Operating System.

 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

 IDE
 WebDriver
 Generator
 None of the mentioned

View Answer
Selenium WebDriver supports All Operating System

18. TestNG stands for -

 TestNextGenerations
 TestNextGeneration
 TestNewGeneration
 TestNewGenerlization

View Answer
TestNG stands for TestNextGeneration.

19. Selenium tests ........................

 GUI applications
 Browser-based applications
 DOS applications
 None of the above

View Answer
Selenium tests Browser-based applications.

20. which of the following one is Selenium IDE ?

 Flash Plug-in
 Firefox Plug-in
 Windows Software
 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

 Java Software

View Answer
The Selenium IDE is Firefox Plug-in.

1) Selenium doesn’t support __________ to write

programs (Test Scripts)
a) Java

b) Perl

c) VBScript

d) Python

2) _______ is not a Selenium Component.

a) Selenium IDE

b) Maven

c) Selenium Grid

d) WebDriver

3) __________ doesn’t support Test design

(Creating test Cases)
a) Selenium IDE

b) Selenium RC

c) Selenium WebDriver

d) Selenium Grid

4) ________ doesn’t support programming.

a) Selenium IDE

b) Selenium RC

c) Selenium WebDriver

d) Selenium Grid
 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

5) What is TestNG?
a) Programming Language

b) Test Tool

c) Build Automation Tool

d) Testing Framework

6) What is Maven?
a) Programming Language

b) Test Tool

c) Build Automation Tool

d) Testing Framework

7) _________ supports Parallel Test Execution

a) Selenium IDE

b) Selenium RC

c) Selenium WebDriver

d) Selenium Grid

8) Selenium IDE supports__________Browser

only to create and execute Test Cases.
a) Google Chrome

b) Internet Explorer

c) Mozilla Firefox

d) Opera

9) What is Jenkins?
a) Continuous Integration Tool

b) Functional & Regression Test Tool

c) Mobile Test Tool

d) Testing Framework
 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

10) _________ is the use of Firebug in Selenium?

a) Programming

b) Inspecting Elements

c) Parallel Testing

d) Cross Browser Testing

11) __________ is an Advantage of Selenium

WebDriver?
a) Supports Web based Applications only

b) No built-in Result Reporting facility

c) Open Source

d) No IDE

12) __________ is a Disadvantage of Selenium

WebDriver?
a) Cross-platform

b) Open Source

c) Parallel Test execution

d) Supports Web based Applications only

13) Selenium supports Computer Web Applications

and _____________
a) Desktop Applications

b) Mobile Native Applications

c) Mobile Web Applications

d) Mobile Hybrid Applications

14) Selenium IDE doesn’t support_______

a) Recording

b) Batch Testing

c) Programming

d) Test Execution
 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

15) Selenium WebDriver doesn’t support_______

a) Recording

b) Batch Testing

c) Programming

d) Test Execution

16) ___________ is the built-in feature of Mozilla

Firefox Browser to inspect elements?
a) Firebug

b) Firepath

c) Page Inspector

d) POM (Page Object Model)

17) ______________ is not for Functional Test

Automation?
a) Selenium

b) UFT/QTP

c) SilkTest

d) RPT

18) ______________ is not a Performance Test

Tool?
a) LoadRunner

b) UFT/QTP

c) SilkPerformer

d) RPT

19) ______________ is not a Bug Tracking Tool?

a) Bugzilla

b) Mantis

c) Cucumber

d) BugHost
 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

20) ______________ is not a Mobile Test Tool?

a) Appium

b) Mantis

c) Silk Mobile

d) Ranorex

21) ______________ is not a Test Management

Tool?
a) HP ALM

b) Jira

c) TestLink

d) Sahi

22) Selenium supports ____________Testing

Level
a) Unit Testing

b) Integration Testing

c) System Testing

d) Acceptance Testing

Answers:
1) c (VBScript)
2) b (Maven)
3) d (Selenium Grid)
4) a (Selenium IDE)
5) d (Testing Framework)
6) c (Build Automation Tool)
7) d (Selenium Grid)
8) c (Mozilla Firefox)
9) a (Continuous Integration Tool)
10) b (Inspecting Elements)
11) c (Open Source)
12) d (Supports Web based Applications only)
13) c (Mobile Web Applications)
14) c (Programming)
15) a (Recording)
16) c (Page Inspector)
17) d (RPT)
 SUB : 410245(B) STQA

18) b (UFT/QTP)
19) c (Cucumber)
20) b (Mantis)
21) d (Sahi)
22) c (System Testing)
 Software Testing and Quality Assurance MCQ with Answers

1. When there are disagreements between the phase project manager and overall project manager, the matter
should be escalated to the ____.
a. Top-level Managers
b. Upper Management
c. Change Control Board
d. CEO

2. Which of the following is a snapshot of the project that gives a concise summary of the current condition of a
project?
a. Six Sigma
b. Earned Value Analysis
c. Software Metric
d. Project Status Report

3. The objective of ____ is to find problems and fix them to improve quality of a project.
a. Software bug
b. Software complexity
c. Software testing
d. Software development

4. Which type of testing process will create test scripts that will run automatically, repetitively and through
much iteration?
a. White Box Testing
b. Black Box Testing
c. Manual Testing
d. Automated Testing

5. Unit testing is to test the ____ of the units.

a. Performance
b. System issues
c. Functionality
d. Hardware failure

6. At the integration level, achieving the desired goal may be prevented in ____ testing if the test cases and
results are not recorded properly.
a. Bottom-Up
b. Big Bang
c. Top-Down
d. System

7. Which is an example of an indicator?

a. Number of tests
b. Number of staff-hours
c. Actual versus planned task completions
d. Defects per thousand lines of code

8. Which of the following is used to collect direct measures of software engineering output and also its quality?
a. Indirect measure
b. Direct measure
c. Function-oriented metrics
d. Size-oriented metrics
1
9. In ____, there are three characteristics that serve as a guide for the evaluation of a good design.
a. Design and software quality
b. Design concept
c. Software design
d. Modular design

10. Which of the following defines the relationship between major structural elements of the software?
a. Data design
b. Linked list
c. Cohesion
d. Architectural design

11. Cleanroom software engineering is an approach that emphasises the need to build ____ into software as it is
being developed.
a. Defects
b. Debugging
c. Correctness
d. Unit testing

12. The projected usage of the software is analysed and a suite of test cases that exercise____ of usage are
planned and designed.
a. An error record
b. A statistical quality control
c. Certification
d. Probability distribution

13. Which of the following is a non-profit organisation and is also the world's leading professional association
for the advancement of technology?
a. IEEE
b. ANSI
c. CMMI
d. NDIA

14. In which level of organisational maturity, conditions are not stable for the development of quality software?
a. Optimising
b. Defined
c. Initial
d. Repeatable

15. ____ products are capable of being used to generate entire applications from design specifications.
a. CASE
b. I-CASE
c. Rapid Prototyping
d. Repository

16. The primary objective for tools in this category is to represent business data objects flow between different
business areas within a company. Which category is this?
a. Process Modeling & Management Tools
b. Project Planning Tools
c. Business Process Engineering Tools
d. Risk Analysis Tools

2
17. A ____ is a collection of objects or elements and is used as a cornerstone of formal methods.
a. Set Operators
b. Signature
c. Set
d. Union operator

18. Which formal specification language can be used to describe the syntax of the programming language?
a. Formal grammar
b. Semantic domain
c. Syntactic domain
d. Sequence

19. Software re-engineering can be defined as ____.

a. The top level process of engineering and a system to meet overall requirements.
b. The examination and alteration of an existing subject system to reconstitute it in a new form.
c. The engineering process of understanding, analysing, and abstracting the system to a new form at a higher
abstraction level.
d. The set of engineering activities that consumes the products and artifacts derived from legacy software and
new requirements to produce a new target system.

20. A maintenance organisation's short term goal is to clear the growing backlog of maintenance demands and
the long term goal is to support change at ____.
a. Higher level
b. Low level
c. Requirements level
d. Code-level

21. Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. A phase project manager monitors the overall project and is responsible to monitor the work of a project
manager.
2. Phase project managers and overall project managers are together responsible for the contingency plans.
State True or False:
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-False, 2-True
d. 1-True, 2-False

22. Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. White box testing technique guarantees that all independent paths within a module has been exercised at least
once.
2. White box testing technique executes only one loop at their boundaries and within their operational bounds.
State True or False:
a. 1-True, 2-False
b. 1-False, 2-True
c. 1-True, 2-True
d. 1-False, 2-False

23. Cutting out unnecessary requirements is called ____.

A) Requirements Scrubbing
B) Requirements Planning
C) Requirements Scheduling
D) Requirements Engineering

3
24. Consider the below mentioned statements:
1. Metrics do not establish a baseline from which improvements can be measured.
2. Metrics allow an organisation to identify the causes of defects which have the greatest effect on software
development.
State True or False:
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-False, 2-True
d. 1-True, 2-False

25. Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. Control hierarchy, also called program structure, represents the organisation of program components
(modules) and implies a hierarchy of control.
2. Control hierarchy represents procedural aspects of software such as sequence of processes, occurrence or
order of decisions or repetition of operations.
State True or False:
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-False, 2-True
d. 1-True, 2-False

26. Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. In Cleanroom software engineering, the serious hazards can be related to human safety, economic loss or
effective operation of business and societal infrastructure.
2. The Cleanroom approach makes use of an outdated version of the incremental software model.
State True or False:
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-True, 2-False
d. 1-False, 2-True

27. Consider the following statements:

1. there is a strong correlation between ISO 9001 and the CMMI.
2. ISO 9001 addresses the minimum criteria for an acceptable quality system.
State True or False.
a. 1- True, 2- False
b. 1- False, 2- True
c. 1- True, 2- True
d. 1- False, 2- False

28. An integrated CASE environment should provide the following:

1. Provide a mechanism for sharing software engineering information among all tools contained in the
environment.
2. Enable a change to one item of information to be tracked to other related information items.
State True or False.
a. 1- True, 2- False
b. 1- True, 2- True
c. 1- False, 2- False
d. 1- False, 2- True

4
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Thou shall not compromise thy quality standards: Expert training and ongoing consulting is essential for
success when formal methods are used for the first time.
2. Thou shall document sufficiently: Formal methods provide a concise, unambiguous and consistent method for
documenting system requirements.
State True or False:
a. 1- True, 2- True
b. 1- True, 2- False
c. 1- False, 2- False
d. 1- False, 2 - True

30. Which of the following statements hold true:

1. Tools that support BPR include process modelers that allow organisations to run what-if scenarios on their
key business processes.
2. BPR tools enables an organisation to set goals and gather information about defined and developed processes.
a. 1-True, 2-True
b. 1-False, 2- False
c. 1- False, 2- True
d. 1-True, 2-False

31. Identify the correct statements regarding project metrics.

1. Project metrics and the indicators derived from them are used by a project manager and a software team to
adapt project work flow and technical activities.
2. The first application of project metrics on most software projects occurs during the testing of the developed
product.
3. Metrics collected from past projects are used as a basis from which effort and time estimates are made for
current software work
4. Results of metrics can be used to provide an indication of the usefulness of work products as they flow from
one frame work activity to the next.
a. 1, 2 & 3
b. 1, 2 & 4
c. 2, 3 & 4
d. 1, 3 & 4

32. For every software organization, the key element is ____.

A) People
B) Project
C) Process
D) Product

33. SEI stands for ____.

A) System Engineering Institute
B) Software Engineering Institute
C) Software Engineers Institute
D) System Engineers Institute

34. PM-CMM stands for ____.

A) Process Management Capability Maturity Model
B) Product Management Capability Maturity Model
C) People Management Capability Maturity Model
D) Project Management Capability Maturity Model

5
35. PM-CMM was developed by ____.
A) IBM
B) IEEE
C) Microsoft
D) SEI

36. ____ is responsible for total project management.

A) Project Manager
B) Project Developer
C) Programmer
D) System Manager

37. PMI stands for ____.

A) Process Management Institute
B) Project Management Institute
C) Project Mapping Institute
D) Process Mapping Institute

38. DIN (Deutsches Institute for Normung) is a ____ organization.

A) Process Management
B) Product Management
C) Standardization
D) Software Development

39. ____ consists of measuring and correcting activities to ensure that the goals are achieved.
A) Staffing
B) Quality Management
C) Reporting Progress
D) Controlling

40. Analyzing progress compared to the baseline is known as ____ value management.
A) Earned
B) Spent
C) Cost
D) Time

41. Creating a ____ is the first thing you need to do when undertaking any kind of project.
A) Cost Estimation
B) Project Plan
C) Time Estimation
D) Resources Estimation

42. PERT stands for ____.

A) Program Extraction and Review Technique
B) Process Evaluation and Review Technique
C) Program Evaluation and Reversing Technique
D) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

43. The bulk of the cost of software development is due to the ____ needed.
A) Human Resources
B) Software Resources
C) Hardware Resources
D) Machinery Resources
6
44. Software Project Management begins with a set of activities that are collectively called ____.
A) Cost Estimation
B) Project Planning
C) Time Estimation
D) Resources Estimation

45. The statement „Estimating is as much art as it is science‟ is quoted by ____.

A) Charles Babbage
B) Pascal
C) Frederick Brooks
D) Von Neumann

46. ____ model produce a software cost estimate as a function of a number of variables which relate to some
software metric and cost drivers.
A) Expert Judgment
B) Analogy Estimation
C) Top-Down Estimation
D) Algorithmic

47. A ____ consists of a list of a project’s terminal elements with intended start and finish dates.
A) Schedule
B) Plan
C) Prototype
D) Estimation

48. ____ can provide a graphical representation of a project schedule.

A) Pie chart
B) Gantt chart
C) XY chart
D) Bar chart

49. The purpose of ____ is to plan how the activities in part or all of a project will be performed over a period of
time.
A) Analyzing
B) Budgeting
C) Scheduling
D) Prototyping

50. While scheduling, the activities to be performed are defined in ____.

A) Project Plan
B) Cost Plan
C) Activity Plan
D) Work Breakdown Structure

51. ____ is an attempt to minimize the chances of failure caused by unplanned events.
A) Risk Management
B) Project Management
C) Cost Management
D) Quality Management

7
52. Risk is the possibility of ____.
A) Gain
B) Loss
C) Profit
D) Credit

53. There are ____ stages in the process of project risk management.
A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) Five

54. ____ risks threaten the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced.
A) Project
B) Business
C) System
D) Technical

55. ____ is an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software process.
A) Configuration Management
B) Requirements Planning
C) Requirements Scheduling
D) Requirements Engineering

56. ____ is a set of software engineering activities that occur after software has been delivered to the customer.
A) Analysis
B) Support
C) Implementation
D) Testing

57. ____ is a methodology to control and manage a software development project.

A) Version Control
B) Change Control
C) SCM
D) Configuration Audit

58. WBS stands for ____.

A) Work Breakdown System
B) Work By Standard
C) Work Breakdown Structure
D) Work By System

59. Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. While conducting unit testing, the local data structure is examined to ensure that the temporarily stored data
maintains its integrity during all the steps in an algorithm's execution.
2. Black box testing is an effective technique for uncovering a broad array of path errors.
State True or False:
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-True, 2-False
d. 1-False, 2-True

8
60. ____ principle must be followed throughout the software development.
A) Re-allotment
B) Incrementality
C) Decrementality
D) Reworking

61. The aim of an organizational structure is to facilitate cooperation towards a common ____.
A) Philosophy
B) Business
C) Goal
D) Requirement

62. The task of organizing can be viewed as building a ____.

A) Project
B) Business
C) Process
D) Team

63. ____ is an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software process.
A) Software Quality Assurance
B) Software Quality Management
C) Software Quality Testing
D) Software Quality Engineering

64. The goal of software assurance is to reduce ____.

A) Cost
B) Risks
C) Time
D) Quality

65. FTR stands for ____.

A) File Transfer
B) Formal Telephonic Review
C) Formal Technical Review
D) Formal Telegraphic Review

66. ____ is a method used to identify defects in an artifact before progressing to the next stage of development.
A) Testing
B) Debugging
C) Process
D) Formal Technical Review

67. ____ analysis is a golden opportunity for process improvement that should not be missed.
A) Project Closure
B) Project Estimation
C) Project Cost
D) Project Schedule

68. The data obtained during the closure analysis are used to populate the ____.
A) Project Database
B) Process Database (PDB)
C) Database
D) Records
9
69. Many projects use the ____ method for estimation.
A) Top-down
B) Incremental
C) Bottom-up
D) Spiral

70. The productivity of a project is measured in terms of ____ per person-month.

A) Testing
B) Debugging
C) Codes Produced
D) Function Points

71. ____ provides a framework, from which, a comprehensive plan for software development can be
established.
A) Product
B) Process
C) People
D) Project

72. ____ is a collection of tasks handled in a planned and systematic order.

A) Plan
B) Product
C) Process
D) Project

73. The factors influencing project management is/are ____.

A) Time
B) Cost
C) Scope
D) All of the above

74. ____ stage determines the nature and scope of the development.
A) Planning
B) Design
C) Implementation
D) Initiation

75. The items that comprise all information produced as part of the software process are collectively called a
____.
A) Software Process
B) Software Project
C) System Specification
D) Software Configuration

10
 STQA MCQ QUESTIONS (50)

1.1 What is software testing?

(a) It is the process of demonstrating that errors are not present.
(b) It is the process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed to do.
(c) It is the process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors.
(d) It is the process of showing the correctness of a program.

1.2 Why should testing be done?

(a) To ensure the correctness of a program
(b) To find errors in a program
(c) To establish the reliability of a program
(d) To certify the effectiveness of a program

1.3 Which phase consumes maximum effort to fix an error?

(a) Requirements analysis and specifications
(b) Design phase
(c) Coding phase
(d) Feasibility study phase

1.4 Which objective is most difficult to achieve?

(a) Execute every statement of a program at least once
(b) Execute every branch statement of a program at least once
(c) Execute every path of a program at least once
(d) Execute every condition of a branch statement of a program at least once

1.5 Software errors during coding are known as:

(a) Bugs
(b) Defects
(c) Failures
(d) Mistakes

1.6 The cost of fixing an error is:

(a) More in requirements analysis and specification phase than coding phase
(b) More in coding phase than requirements analysis and specification phase
(c) Same in all phases of a software development life cycle
(d) Negligible in all phases

1.7 Beta testing is done by:

(a) Developers
(b) Testers
(c) Potential customers
(d) Requirements writers

1.8 Alpha testing is carried out at the:

(a) Developer’s site in a controlled environment
(b) Developer’s site in a free environment
(c) Customer’s site in a controlled environment
(d) Customer’s site in a free environment

1.9 The purpose of acceptance testing is:

(a) To perform testing from the business perspective
(b) To find faults in the software
(c) To test the software with associated hardware
(d) To perform feasibility study

1.10 Acceptance testing is done by:

(a) Developers
(b) Customers
(c) Testers
(d) All of the above

1.11 Program is:

(a) Subset of software
(b) Superset of software
(c) Set of software
(d) Union of software

1.12 Which is not an infrastructure software?

(a) Compiler
(b) Operating system
(c) Testing tools
(d) Result Management Software

1.13 Software should have:

(a) Program + operating system + compiler
(b) Set of programs + operating system
(c) Programs + documentation + operating procedures
(d) None of the above

1.14 Concepts of software testing are applicable to:

(a) Procedural programming languages
(b) Object oriented programming languages
(c) ‘C’, ‘C++’ and Java programming languages
(d) All of the above

1.15 CASE Tool is:

(a) Computer Aided Software Engineering Tool
(b) Component Aided Software Engineering Tool
(c) Constructive Aided Software Engineering Tool
(d) Complete Analysis Software Enterprise Tool

1.16 One fault may lead to:

(a) One failure
(b) Many failures
(c) No failure
(d) All of the above

1.17 Test suite of a program is a:

(a) Set of test cases
(b) Set of inputs with pre-conditions
(c) Set of outputs with post-conditions
(d) Set of testing strategies

1.18 Alpha and Beta testing techniques are related to:

(a) Unit testing
(b) Integration testing
(c) System testing
(d) Testing by Customer

1.19 Testing a software is primarily focused on:

(a) Verification activities only
(b) Validation activities only
(c) Verification and validation activities
(d) None of the above

1.20 Testing a software with real data in real environment is known as:
(a) Alpha testing
(b) Beta testing
(c) System testing
(d) Integration testing

1.21 Verification activities are:

(a) Performed manually
(b) Related to reviewing the documents and source code
(c) Known as static testing
(d) All of the above

1.22 Validation activities are:

(a) Dynamic activities and require program execution
(b) Related to inspecting the source code
(c) Related to static testing
(d) Related to source code design and documentation

1.23 When the output of a program is different from the expected output, it is known as:
(a) A fault
(b) An error
(c) A failure
(d) A mistake

1.24 Software testing activities should be started:

(a) After the completion of source code
(b) After the completion of design phase
(c) As early as possible in the software development life cycle
(d) After the completion of software requirements and analysis phase

1.25 Software testing activities are important in:

(a) Every phase of the software development life cycle
(b) The last few phases of the software development life cycle
(c) The software requirements and analysis phase
(d) All of the above

1.26 The focus of acceptance testing is:

(a) To find faults
(b) To ensure correctness of software
(c) To test integration related issues
(d) To test from the user’s perspective

1.27 A reliable software is one which is:

(a) Liked by its users
(b) Delivered on time and with budget
(c) Unlikely to cause failures
(d) Very easy to use

1.28 When to stop testing and release the software to customers should be decided on the basis of:
(a) Market conditions
(b) Budget and availability of resources
(c) Test metrics
(d) Capabilities of the testing persons

1.29 What are the good software testing practices?

(a) Involve testing persons as early as possible in the software development life cycle
(b) Apply effective verification techniques
(c) Enforce inspections and reviews after every phase of the software development life cycle
(d) All of the above

1.30 What is a test case?

(a) Input(s), expected output(s), pre-condition(s) and post-condition(s)
(b) Steps of execution
(c) A list of activities which can be tested
(d) None of the above

1.31 You cannot control what you cannot :

(a) Define
(b) Measure
(c) Improve
(d) Change

1.32 What is the major benefit of verifications in the early phases of the software development life
cycle?
(a) It identifies changes in the SRS
(b) It reduces defect multiplication
(c) It allows involvement of testing persons
(d) It improves discipline in the various development activities

1.33 Behavioural specifications are required for:

(a) Modelling
(b) Verification
(c) Validation
(d) Testing

1.34 Which, in general, is the least expected skill of a testing person?

(a) Diplomatic
(b) Reliable
(c) Having good attention to detail
(d) Good developer

1.35 Debugging of a program is

(a) The process of executing the program
(b) The process of identifying a fault and removing it from the program
(c) The process of experiencing a failure
(d) The process of improving the quality of the program

1.36 All validation activities come under the category of:

(a) Dynamic testing
(b) Static testing
(c) Source code design
(d) None of the above

1.37 All verification activities come under the category of:

(a) Dynamic testing
(b) Static testing
(c) Source code design
(d) None of the above

1.38 Which is not a factor of software quality?

(a) Reliability
(b) Portability
(c) Efficiency
(d) Functionality

1.39 Which is the most important factor of software quality?

(a) Reliability
(b) Understandability
(c) Efficiency
(d) Consistency

1.40 Quality assurance activities concentrate on

(a) Software design
(b) Software performance
(c) Software products
(d) Software processes

1.41 Which is not the quality of a testing person?

(a) Cautious
(b) Curious
(c) Judgmental
(d) Critical

1.42 What should be the best possible objective for testing?

(a) Execute every statement at least once
(b) Execute every path at least once
(c) Execute every branch statement at least once
(d) Execute every condition of a branch statement at least once

1.43 Which is not a user manual?

(a) Reference guide
(b) Beginner’s guide
(c) Sequence diagrams
(d) System overview

1.44 Which is not a documentation manual?

(a) SRS document
(b) SDD document
(c) Source code
(d) Installation guide

1.45 Which is not the limitation of testing?

(a) Difficult to measure the progress of testing
(b) Availability of testing tools
(c) Input domain is too large to test
(d) Too many paths in the program

1.46 How much percentage of cost is generally consumed in software testing with reference to
software development cost?
(a) 10 – 20
(b) 40 – 50
(c) 80 – 90
(d) 70 – 80

1.47 How much testing is enough?

(a) Not easy to decide
(b) Depends on complexity and criticality
(c) Depends on abilities of testing persons
(d) Depends on maturity of developers

1.48 If an expected output is not specified then:

(a) We cannot execute the test case
(b) We may not be able to repeat the test
(c) We may not be able to decide if the test has passed or failed
(d) We may not be able to automate the testing activity

1.49 Which of the following is a reason for a software failure?

(a) Testing fault
(b) Software Fault
(c) Design Fault
(d) Requirement Fault 34 Software Testing

1.50 Why is it impossible to test a program completely?

(a) Input domain is too large to test
(b) Good testers are not available
(c) Efficient testing tools are not available
(d) None of the above
 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 2. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance
Q.no 3. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 4. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 5. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 6. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 7. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 8. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 9. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 10. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts
performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 11. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 12. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 14. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or
not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 15. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 16. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 17. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing
Q.no 18. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 19. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards
and the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 20. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 21. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 22. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity
D : Testing

Q.no 23. Select the operating system which is NOT supported by Selenium IDE.

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaris

Q.no 24. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 25. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 26. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 27. Select the command in Selenium IDE used to open a page using the URL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open
C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 28. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 29. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 30. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 31. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 32. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier
A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 34. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 35. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing
Q.no 37. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 39. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 40. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 41. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer
D : Scribe

Q.no 42. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 45. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls
D : Penetration

Q.no 47. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 48. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking

B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 49. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 50. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 51. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing
B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 52. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 53. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 54. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 55. When you are recording the application, the test script is automatically
generatecThe test script used in SilkTest is called

A : Silk Test

B : 4Test

C : Test Suite

D : Recording
Q.no 56. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface

A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation

Q.no 57. Which type is used for Firebug in Selenium

A : Inspecting Elements

B : Parallel Testing

C : Programming

D : Cross Browser Testing

Q.no 58. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 59. In CMMI model the life cycle activities of requirements analysis design
code and test are described in

A : Software Product Engineering

B : Software Quality Assurance

C : Software Subcontract Management

D : Software Quality Management

Q.no 60. A logical collection of test cases which naturally work together is called
as

A : Test procedure

B : Test log

C : Test Suite
D : Test data
Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 2. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 4. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 5. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 6. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 7. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 8. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 9. What is the order in which test levels are performed

A : Unit testing then Integration testing then System testing then and Acceptance
testing

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : Unit testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing then System testing

D : It depends on nature of a project

Q.no 10. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 11. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 12. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 13. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 14. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 15. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 16. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 17. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 18. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 19. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 20. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 21. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 22. Select the operating system which is NOT supported by Selenium IDE.

A : Unix

B : Linux
C : Windows

D : Solaris

Q.no 23. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 24. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 25. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 27. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning
B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 28. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 29. Select the command in Selenium IDE used to open a page using the URL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 30. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 31. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 32. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions
A : Defect Tracking

B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 33. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 34. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 35. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 36. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 38. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 39. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 40. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 41. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage
C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 42. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 43. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 44. Which structured approach is not used in business driven or multi
dimensional in a Six Sigma

A : Reducing process variability

B : Increasing customer satisfaction

C : Identifying Defects

D : Improving Processes

Q.no 45. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 46. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director
B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 47. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 50. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 51. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 52. Which is not an important goal of a walk through

A : Knowledge transfer

B : Gather information

C : Discuss alternatives

D : Find defects

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

B : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

C : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

D : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

Q.no 54. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 55. Which object is within an Object Oriented System is used to design tests
that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs

A : Fault based testing

B : Integration testing

C : Use based testing

D : Scenario based testing

Q.no 56. The most important thing about early test design is that it
A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 57. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 58. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 59. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 60. A logical collection of test cases which naturally work together is called
as

A : Test procedure

B : Test log

C : Test Suite

D : Test data
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without

regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 2. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 3. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 4. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 6. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 7. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation
Q.no 8. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 9. What is the order in which test levels are performed

A : Unit testing then Integration testing then System testing then and Acceptance
testing

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : Unit testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing then System testing

D : It depends on nature of a project

Q.no 10. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 11. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 12. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User
Q.no 13. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 14. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 15. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not a part of defect management process

A : Defect reporting

B : Defect prevention

C : Requirement baselining

D : Procedure defect
Q.no 18. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 19. Select the operating system which is NOT supported by Selenium IDE.

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaris

Q.no 20. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 21. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 22. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards
and the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect
Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 24. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts
performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 25. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 26. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 27. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 29. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 31. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 32. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 33. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 34. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 35. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system
B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 38. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 39. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 40. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 41. Which structured approach is not used in business driven or multi
dimensional in a Six Sigma

A : Reducing process variability

B : Increasing customer satisfaction

C : Identifying Defects

D : Improving Processes

Q.no 42. Who leads a walk through

A : Author
B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 43. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 44. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 45. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 46. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe
Q.no 47. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 48. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 49. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 50. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 51. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 52. What types of errors are not done by Black Box Testing and can be
uncovered by White Box Testing

A : Logic errors

B : Performance errors

C : Behavioral errors

D : Control Errors

Q.no 53. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 54. Which is not an important goal of a walk through

A : Knowledge transfer

B : Gather information

C : Discuss alternatives

D : Find defects

Q.no 55. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 56. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 57. A logical collection of test cases which naturally work together is called
as

A : Test procedure

B : Test log

C : Test Suite

D : Test data

Q.no 58. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 59. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 60. Which type is used for Firebug in Selenium

A : Inspecting Elements

B : Parallel Testing

C : Programming

D : Cross Browser Testing

Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of

regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 2. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 3. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 4. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 5. Select the operating system which is NOT supported by Selenium IDE.

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaris

Q.no 6. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 7. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis
D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 8. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 10. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 11. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 12. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards
and the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect
D : Proper defect

Q.no 13. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 14. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 15. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 16. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 17. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 18. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 19. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 20. What is Quality Assurance

A : It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

B : Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

C : Process of identifying defects

D : It is a corrective tool

Q.no 21. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 22. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or
not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 23. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 24. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 25. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 26. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 27. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan
C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 28. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 29. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 30. Select the command in Selenium IDE used to open a page using the URL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 32. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 36. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 37. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 38. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 39. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 40. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication
B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 43. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 44. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 45. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 46. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 47. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to
characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 48. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 49. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 50. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 51. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 52. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 53. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 54. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 55. What types of errors are not done by Black Box Testing and can be
uncovered by White Box Testing

A : Logic errors

B : Performance errors

C : Behavioral errors

D : Control Errors

Q.no 56. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect
A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 57. Which type is used for Firebug in Selenium

A : Inspecting Elements

B : Parallel Testing

C : Programming

D : Cross Browser Testing

Q.no 58. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 59. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 60. A logical collection of test cases which naturally work together is called
as

A : Test procedure

B : Test log

C : Test Suite

D : Test data
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 2. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing
Q.no 3. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 4. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 5. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 6. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 7. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 8. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 10. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 11. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 12. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a part of defect management process

A : Defect reporting

B : Defect prevention

C : Requirement baselining

D : Procedure defect

Q.no 14. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 15. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 16. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 17. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User
Q.no 18. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts
performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 19. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or
not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 20. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 21. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards
and the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 22. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 23. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 24. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 25. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 26. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 27. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 28. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 29. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking

B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 30. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 32. Who leads a walk through

A : Author
B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 33. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 34. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 35. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 36. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 37. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 38. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 39. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 40. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls
D : Penetration

Q.no 42. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 43. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 44. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 46. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 48. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 49. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 51. When you are recording the application, the test script is automatically
generatecThe test script used in SilkTest is called

A : Silk Test

B : 4Test
C : Test Suite

D : Recording

Q.no 52. Which is not an important goal of a walk through

A : Knowledge transfer

B : Gather information

C : Discuss alternatives

D : Find defects

Q.no 53. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 54. In CMMI model the life cycle activities of requirements analysis design
code and test are described in

A : Software Product Engineering

B : Software Quality Assurance

C : Software Subcontract Management

D : Software Quality Management

Q.no 55. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 56. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 57. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 58. Which object is within an Object Oriented System is used to design tests
that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs

A : Fault based testing

B : Integration testing

C : Use based testing

D : Scenario based testing

Q.no 59. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 60. Which type is used for Firebug in Selenium

A : Inspecting Elements

B : Parallel Testing

C : Programming

D : Cross Browser Testing

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 2. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 3. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 4. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 5. Software Quality Metrics

A : Planning in the organization

B : Manage the the organization

C : Proper planning and execution in the organization

D : Measurement enables the organization

Q.no 6. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 7. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 8. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 9. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 10. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards
and the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 11. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 12. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 13. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 14. What is Quality Assurance

A : It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

B : Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

C : Process of identifying defects

D : It is a corrective tool

Q.no 15. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 16. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not a part of defect management process

A : Defect reporting

B : Defect prevention

C : Requirement baselining
D : Procedure defect

Q.no 18. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 20. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or
not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 21. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 22. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design
C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 23. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 24. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 25. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts
performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 26. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 27. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing
B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 28. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 29. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 30. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 31. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?
A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 33. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 34. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 35. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 37. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software
A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 38. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 39. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 41. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 42. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 44. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking

B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 45. Which structured approach is not used in business driven or multi
dimensional in a Six Sigma

A : Reducing process variability

B : Increasing customer satisfaction

C : Identifying Defects

D : Improving Processes

Q.no 46. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager
C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 47. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 48. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 49. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 50. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 51. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called
A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

B : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

C : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

D : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

Q.no 53. Which is not an important goal of a walk through

A : Knowledge transfer

B : Gather information

C : Discuss alternatives

D : Find defects

Q.no 54. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface

A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation

Q.no 55. Which object is within an Object Oriented System is used to design tests
that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs

A : Fault based testing

B : Integration testing

C : Use based testing

D : Scenario based testing

Q.no 56. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 57. When you are recording the application, the test script is automatically
generatecThe test script used in SilkTest is called

A : Silk Test

B : 4Test

C : Test Suite

D : Recording

Q.no 58. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 59. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 60. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is c

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 2. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 3. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 4. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without

regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 5. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 6. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 7. Software Quality Metrics

A : Planning in the organization

B : Manage the the organization

C : Proper planning and execution in the organization

D : Measurement enables the organization

Q.no 8. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 9. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts

performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 10. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 11. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 12. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 13. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 14. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 15. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 16. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or
not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 17. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 18. What is Quality Assurance

A : It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

B : Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

C : Process of identifying defects

D : It is a corrective tool

Q.no 19. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 21. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 22. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a part of defect management process

A : Defect reporting

B : Defect prevention

C : Requirement baselining

D : Procedure defect

Q.no 24. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 26. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 27. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing
C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 28. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 29. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 30. Which structured approach is not used in business driven or multi
dimensional in a Six Sigma

A : Reducing process variability

B : Increasing customer satisfaction

C : Identifying Defects

D : Improving Processes

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 32. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 33. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 35. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 36. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 37. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 39. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 40. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 41. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?
A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 43. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking

B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 44. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 45. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 46. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics
Q.no 47. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 48. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 49. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 50. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

B : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing
C : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

D : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

Q.no 52. Which type is used for Firebug in Selenium

A : Inspecting Elements

B : Parallel Testing

C : Programming

D : Cross Browser Testing

Q.no 53. What types of errors are not done by Black Box Testing and can be
uncovered by White Box Testing

A : Logic errors

B : Performance errors

C : Behavioral errors

D : Control Errors

Q.no 54. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface

A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation

Q.no 55. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 56. When you are recording the application, the test script is automatically
generatecThe test script used in SilkTest is called

A : Silk Test
B : 4Test

C : Test Suite

D : Recording

Q.no 57. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 58. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 59. Which object is within an Object Oriented System is used to design tests
that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs

A : Fault based testing

B : Integration testing

C : Use based testing

D : Scenario based testing

Q.no 60. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts

performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 2. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing
Q.no 3. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 4. Software Quality Metrics

A : Planning in the organization

B : Manage the the organization

C : Proper planning and execution in the organization

D : Measurement enables the organization

Q.no 5. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 6. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 7. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 8. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 9. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 10. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 11. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 12. What is Quality Assurance

A : It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

B : Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

C : Process of identifying defects

D : It is a corrective tool
Q.no 13. Select the operating system which is NOT supported by Selenium IDE.

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaris

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a part of defect management process

A : Defect reporting

B : Defect prevention

C : Requirement baselining

D : Procedure defect

Q.no 15. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 16. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 17. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 19. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 20. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 21. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 22. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer
D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 23. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 25. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or
not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 26. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 27. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing
C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 28. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 29. Select the command in Selenium IDE used to open a page using the URL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 30. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 31. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 32. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process
A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 33. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 34. Which structured approach is not used in business driven or multi
dimensional in a Six Sigma

A : Reducing process variability

B : Increasing customer satisfaction

C : Identifying Defects

D : Improving Processes

Q.no 35. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 36. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification
Q.no 37. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 38. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking

B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 39. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 40. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 41. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer
D : Scribe

Q.no 42. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 43. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 44. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 46. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 47. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 49. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 51. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance
C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 52. Which type of testing is done to ensure that whether your software works
on different operating systems or not?

A : Interoperability Testing

B : Portability Testing

C : Usability Testing

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 53. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

B : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

C : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

D : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

Q.no 55. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 56. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 57. What types of errors are not done by Black Box Testing and can be
uncovered by White Box Testing

A : Logic errors

B : Performance errors

C : Behavioral errors

D : Control Errors

Q.no 58. In CMMI model the life cycle activities of requirements analysis design
code and test are described in

A : Software Product Engineering

B : Software Quality Assurance

C : Software Subcontract Management

D : Software Quality Management

Q.no 59. Which object is within an Object Oriented System is used to design tests
that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs

A : Fault based testing

B : Integration testing

C : Use based testing

D : Scenario based testing

Q.no 60. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing
Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 2. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 3. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 5. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 6. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 7. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 8. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 9. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 10. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 11. Software Quality Metrics

A : Planning in the organization

B : Manage the the organization

C : Proper planning and execution in the organization

D : Measurement enables the organization

Q.no 12. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation
Q.no 13. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 14. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards
and the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 15. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 17. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or
not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 18. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 20. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts
performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 21. What is the order in which test levels are performed

A : Unit testing then Integration testing then System testing then and Acceptance
testing

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : Unit testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing then System testing

D : It depends on nature of a project

Q.no 22. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox
C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 23. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 24. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 25. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 26. Which structured approach is not used in business driven or multi
dimensional in a Six Sigma

A : Reducing process variability

B : Increasing customer satisfaction

C : Identifying Defects

D : Improving Processes

Q.no 27. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality
A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 28. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 29. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 31. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 32. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver
A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 33. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 34. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 35. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 36. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan
Q.no 37. Select the command in Selenium IDE used to open a page using the URL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 38. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 39. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 40. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT
Q.no 42. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 43. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 44. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 45. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 47. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 48. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 51. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

B : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

C : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

D : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

Q.no 53. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 54. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 55. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 56. In CMMI model the life cycle activities of requirements analysis design
code and test are described in

A : Software Product Engineering

B : Software Quality Assurance

C : Software Subcontract Management

D : Software Quality Management

Q.no 57. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface

A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation

Q.no 58. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 59. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 60. Which type is used for Firebug in Selenium

A : Inspecting Elements

B : Parallel Testing

C : Programming

D : Cross Browser Testing

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 2. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 3. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity
A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 4. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 5. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 6. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing
Q.no 8. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 9. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 10. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 11. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 12. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 13. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 14. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 15. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 16. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing
D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 18. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 19. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards
and the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 20. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 21. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 22. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing
C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 23. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 24. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 25. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 26. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 27. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 28. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 29. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 30. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 32. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking

B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 34. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 35. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 36. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 37. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 38. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 40. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 41. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator
C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 43. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 44. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 46. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 47. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 48. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 49. Select the command in Selenium IDE used to open a page using the URL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 50. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 51. When you are recording the application, the test script is automatically
generatecThe test script used in SilkTest is called

A : Silk Test
B : 4Test

C : Test Suite

D : Recording

Q.no 52. In CMMI model the life cycle activities of requirements analysis design
code and test are described in

A : Software Product Engineering

B : Software Quality Assurance

C : Software Subcontract Management

D : Software Quality Management

Q.no 53. What types of errors are not done by Black Box Testing and can be
uncovered by White Box Testing

A : Logic errors

B : Performance errors

C : Behavioral errors

D : Control Errors

Q.no 54. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface

A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation

Q.no 55. A logical collection of test cases which naturally work together is called
as

A : Test procedure

B : Test log

C : Test Suite

D : Test data
Q.no 56. Which object is within an Object Oriented System is used to design tests
that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs

A : Fault based testing

B : Integration testing

C : Use based testing

D : Scenario based testing

Q.no 57. Which type of testing is done to ensure that whether your software works
on different operating systems or not?

A : Interoperability Testing

B : Portability Testing

C : Usability Testing

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 58. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 59. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 60. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control
B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 2. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 3. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 4. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 5. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 6. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 7. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 8. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 10. Which of the following is not a part of defect management process

A : Defect reporting

B : Defect prevention

C : Requirement baselining

D : Procedure defect

Q.no 11. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 12. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 13. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 14. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 15. Select the operating system which is NOT supported by Selenium IDE.

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaris

Q.no 16. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 17. What is the order in which test levels are performed

A : Unit testing then Integration testing then System testing then and Acceptance
testing

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : Unit testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing then System testing

D : It depends on nature of a project

Q.no 18. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 19. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or
not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 21. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 22. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer
D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 24. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 25. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 27. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator
C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 29. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 30. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 31. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 32. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting
B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 33. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 34. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 36. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 37. Which structured approach is not used in business driven or multi
dimensional in a Six Sigma
A : Reducing process variability

B : Increasing customer satisfaction

C : Identifying Defects

D : Improving Processes

Q.no 38. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 39. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 40. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 41. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault
Q.no 42. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 43. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 44. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 45. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 48. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 50. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

B : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

C : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

D : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

Q.no 52. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 53. Which type of testing is done to ensure that whether your software works
on different operating systems or not?

A : Interoperability Testing

B : Portability Testing

C : Usability Testing

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 54. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 55. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 56. Which object is within an Object Oriented System is used to design tests
that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs

A : Fault based testing

B : Integration testing
C : Use based testing

D : Scenario based testing

Q.no 57. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 58. What types of errors are not done by Black Box Testing and can be
uncovered by White Box Testing

A : Logic errors

B : Performance errors

C : Behavioral errors

D : Control Errors

Q.no 59. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface

A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation

Q.no 60. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without

regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 2. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation
Q.no 3. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 4. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 5. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 6. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts

performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 7. What is the order in which test levels are performed

A : Unit testing then Integration testing then System testing then and Acceptance
testing

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : Unit testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing then System testing
D : It depends on nature of a project

Q.no 8. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards and
the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 9. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 10. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 11. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 12. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 13. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 14. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 15. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 16. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 17. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing
C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 18. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a part of defect management process

A : Defect reporting

B : Defect prevention

C : Requirement baselining

D : Procedure defect

Q.no 20. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 21. Software Quality Metrics

A : Planning in the organization

B : Manage the the organization

C : Proper planning and execution in the organization

D : Measurement enables the organization

Q.no 22. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester
C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 23. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 24. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 25. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 26. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system
B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 28. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 29. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 30. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 31. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group
Q.no 32. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 33. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 35. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 36. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking

B : Defect Prevention
C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 37. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 38. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 39. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 41. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.
A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 42. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 44. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 45. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification
Q.no 46. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 47. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 48. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 51. Which is not an important goal of a walk through

A : Knowledge transfer

B : Gather information

C : Discuss alternatives

D : Find defects

Q.no 52. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 53. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface

A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

B : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

C : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

D : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

Q.no 55. What types of errors are not done by Black Box Testing and can be
uncovered by White Box Testing

A : Logic errors

B : Performance errors

C : Behavioral errors
D : Control Errors

Q.no 56. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 57. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 58. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 59. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 60. Which type of testing is done to ensure that whether your software works
on different operating systems or not?

A : Interoperability Testing
B : Portability Testing

C : Usability Testing

D : Performance Testing
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 2. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 3. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards and
the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 5. Software Quality Metrics

A : Planning in the organization

B : Manage the the organization

C : Proper planning and execution in the organization

D : Measurement enables the organization

Q.no 6. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 7. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 8. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 9. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 10. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 11. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 12. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback
Q.no 13. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts
performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 14. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 15. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 17. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning
D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 18. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 19. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 20. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or
not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 22. Select the operating system which is NOT supported by Selenium IDE.

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows
D : Solaris

Q.no 23. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 24. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 25. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 27. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 28. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 29. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 30. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 31. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking

B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 32. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 34. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 35. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 37. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator
C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 38. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 39. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 40. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 41. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 42. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process
A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 43. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 44. Which structured approach is not used in business driven or multi
dimensional in a Six Sigma

A : Reducing process variability

B : Increasing customer satisfaction

C : Identifying Defects

D : Improving Processes

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 46. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol
Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 49. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 50. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 51. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing
D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 52. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 53. Which object is within an Object Oriented System is used to design tests
that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs

A : Fault based testing

B : Integration testing

C : Use based testing

D : Scenario based testing

Q.no 54. When you are recording the application, the test script is automatically
generatecThe test script used in SilkTest is called

A : Silk Test

B : 4Test

C : Test Suite

D : Recording

Q.no 55. A logical collection of test cases which naturally work together is called
as

A : Test procedure

B : Test log

C : Test Suite

D : Test data

Q.no 56. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called
A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 57. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 58. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 59. Which type is used for Firebug in Selenium

A : Inspecting Elements

B : Parallel Testing

C : Programming

D : Cross Browser Testing

Q.no 60. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface

A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 2. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer
Q.no 3. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 4. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 5. Software Quality Metrics

A : Planning in the organization

B : Manage the the organization

C : Proper planning and execution in the organization

D : Measurement enables the organization

Q.no 6. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 7. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing
Q.no 8. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 9. What is the order in which test levels are performed

A : Unit testing then Integration testing then System testing then and Acceptance
testing

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : Unit testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing then System testing

D : It depends on nature of a project

Q.no 10. What is Quality Assurance

A : It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

B : Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

C : Process of identifying defects

D : It is a corrective tool

Q.no 11. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 12. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity
D : Testing

Q.no 13. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 14. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts
performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 15. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 16. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 17. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester
C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 18. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 19. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 20. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 21. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 22. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 23. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 24. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 25. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 26. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 27. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them
A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 30. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 31. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 32. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 33. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 34. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 35. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 36. Select the command in Selenium IDE used to open a page using the URL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable
Q.no 37. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 39. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 40. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking

B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 41. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 42. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 43. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 44. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 45. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 46. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 47. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 49. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 50. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 51. Which type is used for Firebug in Selenium

A : Inspecting Elements
B : Parallel Testing

C : Programming

D : Cross Browser Testing

Q.no 52. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 53. Which object is within an Object Oriented System is used to design tests
that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs

A : Fault based testing

B : Integration testing

C : Use based testing

D : Scenario based testing

Q.no 54. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 55. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case
A : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

B : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

C : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

D : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

Q.no 57. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 58. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 59. Which type of testing is done to ensure that whether your software works
on different operating systems or not?

A : Interoperability Testing

B : Portability Testing

C : Usability Testing

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 60. Which is not an important goal of a walk through

A : Knowledge transfer

B : Gather information

C : Discuss alternatives
D : Find defects
Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 2. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 3. What is the order in which test levels are performed

A : Unit testing then Integration testing then System testing then and Acceptance
testing

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : Unit testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing then System testing

D : It depends on nature of a project

Q.no 4. What is Quality Assurance

A : It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

B : Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

C : Process of identifying defects

D : It is a corrective tool

Q.no 5. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards and
the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 6. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 7. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 8. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 9. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 10. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 11. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 12. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity
D : Testing

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 14. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 16. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 17. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester
C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 18. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 19. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 20. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 21. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 22. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation
C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 24. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 25. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 27. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 28. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 29. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 30. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 31. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 32. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning
B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 33. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 34. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 35. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 36. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 37. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 38. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 39. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 40. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 41. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan
D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 42. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 43. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 45. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 46. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density
D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 47. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 48. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 49. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 51. When you are recording the application, the test script is automatically
generatecThe test script used in SilkTest is called

A : Silk Test
B : 4Test

C : Test Suite

D : Recording

Q.no 52. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 53. In CMMI model the life cycle activities of requirements analysis design
code and test are described in

A : Software Product Engineering

B : Software Quality Assurance

C : Software Subcontract Management

D : Software Quality Management

Q.no 54. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 55. Which type of testing is done to ensure that whether your software works
on different operating systems or not?

A : Interoperability Testing

B : Portability Testing

C : Usability Testing

D : Performance Testing
Q.no 56. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 57. A logical collection of test cases which naturally work together is called
as

A : Test procedure

B : Test log

C : Test Suite

D : Test data

Q.no 58. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 59. Which is not an important goal of a walk through

A : Knowledge transfer

B : Gather information

C : Discuss alternatives

D : Find defects

Q.no 60. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing
D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is c

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 2. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 3. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 4. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 5. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 6. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 7. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 8. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 9. What is the order in which test levels are performed

A : Unit testing then Integration testing then System testing then and Acceptance
testing

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : Unit testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing then System testing

D : It depends on nature of a project

Q.no 10. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 11. Software Quality Metrics

A : Planning in the organization

B : Manage the the organization

C : Proper planning and execution in the organization

D : Measurement enables the organization

Q.no 12. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 13. What is Quality Assurance

A : It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

B : Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

C : Process of identifying defects

D : It is a corrective tool

Q.no 14. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 15. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 16. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 17. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts
performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 18. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity
A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 19. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 20. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 22. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 23. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 24. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 25. Select the operating system which is NOT supported by Selenium IDE.

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaris

Q.no 26. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 29. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 30. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 31. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 32. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 33. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 34. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 36. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 37. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 38. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 40. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 41. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 42. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 43. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 44. Select the command in Selenium IDE used to open a page using the URL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 46. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 47. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 48. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 49. Which structured approach is not used in business driven or multi
dimensional in a Six Sigma

A : Reducing process variability

B : Increasing customer satisfaction

C : Identifying Defects

D : Improving Processes

Q.no 50. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 51. In CMMI model the life cycle activities of requirements analysis design
code and test are described in

A : Software Product Engineering

B : Software Quality Assurance

C : Software Subcontract Management

D : Software Quality Management

Q.no 52. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 53. When you are recording the application, the test script is automatically
generatecThe test script used in SilkTest is called

A : Silk Test

B : 4Test

C : Test Suite

D : Recording

Q.no 54. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 55. Which is not an important goal of a walk through

A : Knowledge transfer

B : Gather information

C : Discuss alternatives

D : Find defects

Q.no 56. What types of errors are not done by Black Box Testing and can be
uncovered by White Box Testing

A : Logic errors

B : Performance errors

C : Behavioral errors
D : Control Errors

Q.no 57. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 58. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface

A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation

Q.no 59. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 60. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 2. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 3. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 4. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 5. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 6. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 7. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 8. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 9. What is Quality Assurance

A : It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

B : Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

C : Process of identifying defects

D : It is a corrective tool

Q.no 10. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 11. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 12. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User
Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 14. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 15. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a part of defect management process

A : Defect reporting

B : Defect prevention

C : Requirement baselining

D : Procedure defect

Q.no 17. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback
Q.no 18. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 19. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 20. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 21. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 22. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis
D : specification

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 24. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 25. What is the order in which test levels are performed

A : Unit testing then Integration testing then System testing then and Acceptance
testing

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : Unit testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing then System testing

D : It depends on nature of a project

Q.no 26. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 27. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 28. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 29. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 30. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 31. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 32. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through
B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 33. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 34. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 37. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 38. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 40. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification
early in the life cycle

A : It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

B : It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

C : It reduces defect multiplication

D : It allows testers to become involved early in the project

Q.no 41. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group
Q.no 42. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 43. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 44. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 45. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption
C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 47. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 48. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 49. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 50. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 51. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 52. Which type of testing is done to ensure that whether your software works
on different operating systems or not?

A : Interoperability Testing

B : Portability Testing

C : Usability Testing

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 53. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software
testing is organised

A : integration testing then system testing then unit testing and validation testing

B : unit testing then validation testing then system testing and integration testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : validation testing then system testing then unit testing and integration testing

Q.no 54. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 55. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 56. Which is not an important goal of a walk through

A : Knowledge transfer
B : Gather information

C : Discuss alternatives

D : Find defects

Q.no 57. In CMMI model the life cycle activities of requirements analysis design
code and test are described in

A : Software Product Engineering

B : Software Quality Assurance

C : Software Subcontract Management

D : Software Quality Management

Q.no 58. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 59. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 60. Which type is used for Firebug in Selenium

A : Inspecting Elements

B : Parallel Testing

C : Programming

D : Cross Browser Testing

Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not a part of defect management process

A : Defect reporting

B : Defect prevention

C : Requirement baselining

D : Procedure defect

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 3. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 4. Select the operating system which is NOT supported by Selenium IDE.

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaris

Q.no 5. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards and
the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 6. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 7. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET
Q.no 8. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 9. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 10. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 11. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 12. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini
D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 13. What is Quality Assurance

A : It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

B : Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

C : Process of identifying defects

D : It is a corrective tool

Q.no 14. Software Quality Metrics

A : Planning in the organization

B : Manage the the organization

C : Proper planning and execution in the organization

D : Measurement enables the organization

Q.no 15. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 16. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer

D : End User

Q.no 17. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability
D : Traceability

Q.no 18. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts
performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 19. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 20. What is the order in which test levels are performed

A : Unit testing then Integration testing then System testing then and Acceptance
testing

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : Unit testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing then System testing

D : It depends on nature of a project

Q.no 21. Requirement Engineering is not concern with

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 22. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 23. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or
not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 24. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 26. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 27. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking
B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 28. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 30. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 31. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 32. The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric

A : Defect removal rate

B : Mean time to failure

C : Defect density

D : Coverage metrics

Q.no 33. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 35. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan

Q.no 36. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 37. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 38. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 39. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 40. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 41. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 42. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 43. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 44. Select the command in Selenium IDE used to open a page using the URL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 45. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 46. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 47. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 48. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 50. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 51. A logical collection of test cases which naturally work together is called
as

A : Test procedure

B : Test log

C : Test Suite
D : Test data

Q.no 52. The most important thing about early test design is that it

A : makes test preparation easier.

B : means inspections are not required.

C : can prevent fault multiplication.

D : will find all faults

Q.no 53. Which type of testing is done to ensure that whether your software works
on different operating systems or not?

A : Interoperability Testing

B : Portability Testing

C : Usability Testing

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 54. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 55. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the
product is called

A : Quality Control

B : Quality of conformance

C : Quality Assurance

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 56. In CMMI model the life cycle activities of requirements analysis design
code and test are described in

A : Software Product Engineering

B : Software Quality Assurance

C : Software Subcontract Management

D : Software Quality Management

Q.no 57. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 58. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface

A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation

Q.no 59. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 60. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Boundary Value Analysis comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 2. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 3. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 4. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 5. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term

A : Train manual testers and start automation

B : Enforce manual testers to start automation

C : Associate with the developers to start automation

D : Build a team with members having development skills

Q.no 6. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of

regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 7. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 8. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 9. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards and
the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 10. Arrange software Test levels in proper order

A : It depends on nature of a project

B : Unit testing then System testing then Integration testing then Acceptance testing

C : unit testing then integration testing then validation testing and system testing

D : Unit testing then Integration testign then System testing and Acceptance testing

Q.no 11. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 12. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 13. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 14. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 15. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 16. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 17. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 18. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 20. What is the objective of integration testing

A : To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B : To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C : To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D : To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

Q.no 21. Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing

A : White Box Testing

B : Black Box Testing

C : Grey Box Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 22. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing
D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 23. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 24. Which tests are designed to validate functional requirements without
regard to the internal working of program

A : White box test

B : Control Structure Test

C : Black box test

D : Gray box test

Q.no 25. What is uality Control

A : maintaining standards

B : maintained and improved and reduce errors

C : focus on manufacturing

D : focus on designing

Q.no 26. Which model uis used for identifying the organizational processes
required to ensure software process quality

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : open-source development model

D : personal software process model

Q.no 27. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking
B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 30. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 31. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function

A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 32. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?
A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 33. Why will you do automation testing

A : It increases defect detection ratio

B : It improves the efficiency of testing

C : It reduces the cost of testing

D : It improves the quality of production code

Q.no 34. Which structured approach is not used in business driven or multi
dimensional in a Six Sigma

A : Reducing process variability

B : Increasing customer satisfaction

C : Identifying Defects

D : Improving Processes

Q.no 35. What is involved in a system level test plan

A : Subsystem Verification and Validation

B : Development Testing

C : System Verification and Validation

D : Subsystem and System Testing

Q.no 36. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 39. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 40. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage

C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 41. Test plans are based on

A : Project Plan

B : Business Plan

C : Support Plan

D : Aanalysis Plan
Q.no 42. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in
software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 43. Which level of software testing verify the functionality of software
components and identify defect in them

A : Integration Testing

B : Acceptance Testing

C : Unit Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 45. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 46. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 47. Who identifies then documents and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software

A : Managing director

B : Project manager

C : Project team

D : SQA group

Q.no 48. Select the command in Selenium IDE used to open a page using the URL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 49. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 50. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 51. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 52. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 53. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 54. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 55. A logical collection of test cases which naturally work together is called
as

A : Test procedure

B : Test log

C : Test Suite

D : Test data

Q.no 56. What technique involves having an experienced evaluator apply a set of
guidelines or principles in examining an interface
A : Experience Summary

B : Cognitive Walkthrough

C : Usability Test

D : Heuristic Evaluation

Q.no 57. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

B : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

C : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

D : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

Q.no 59. Which type of testing is done to ensure that whether your software works
on different operating systems or not?

A : Interoperability Testing

B : Portability Testing

C : Usability Testing

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 60. In CMMI model the life cycle activities of requirements analysis design
code and test are described in

A : Software Product Engineering

B : Software Quality Assurance

C : Software Subcontract Management

D : Software Quality Management

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

 Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

12144_SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCS

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What is static analysis

A : The analysis of batch programs

B : The reviewing of test plans

C : The analysis of program code

D : The use of black box testing

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : Evaluations to be performed

B : Amount of technical work

C : Audits and reviews to be performed

D : Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 3. Which test cases are like a green light for the application and help to
determine whether or not the application should go into production

A : System

B : Acceptance

C : Critical

D : Performance

Q.no 4. Which techniques we called sometimes as a glass box testing

A : White box testing

B : Control structure testing

C : Black box testing

D : Gray box testing

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test case

A : The test will need to be executed once but with a large set of data

B : The test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually

C : The test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing

D : The test is important for the business and typical use case for testing

Q.no 6. Faults are found most cost effectively in which test activity

A : design

B : Execution

C : Planning

D : Check Exit criteria completion

Q.no 7. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project

A : A. evaluations to be performed

B : amount of technical work

C : audits and reviews to be performed

D : documents to be produced by the SQA group

Q.no 8. During which activity tester decides if extra test cases are required or not

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test planning and control

C : Test analysis and design

D : Evaluating exit criteria

Q.no 9. What is defined as a set of development and quality assurance efforts

performed to achieve a common goal, based on the release timeline

A : Test Set

B : Requirement

C : Test Plan

D : Cycle

Q.no 10. Which steps refers to the set of tasks that ensures the software correctly
implements a specific function

A : Verification

B : Validation

C : Modularity

D : Testing

Q.no 11. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A : Severity

B : Priority

C : Fixability

D : Traceability

Q.no 12. Component testing is performed by whom

A : Developer

B : Software Tester

C : Designer
D : End User

Q.no 13. Software Quality Metrics

A : Planning in the organization

B : Manage the the organization

C : Proper planning and execution in the organization

D : Measurement enables the organization

Q.no 14. Which test language is usually used in Selenium?

A : PHP

B : Python

C : JavaScript

D : ASP DotNET

Q.no 15. Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Mozilla Firefox

C : Opera mini

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 16. Which of the following is largest bug producer

A : code

B : design

C : analysis

D : specification

Q.no 17. Which one is best suitable example of Load Testing

A : Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously

B : Refering many sites on the internet

C : playing game with graphics

D : Printing a document using printer from remote computer

Q.no 18. Verification and Validation uses for

A : Internal and External resources respectively

B : Internal resources only

C : External resources only

D : External and Internal resources respectively

Q.no 19. Black Box Testing is also known as

A : Behavioral Testing

B : Flow Testing

C : Data Testing

D : Control structure testing

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not a part of defect management process

A : Defect reporting

B : Defect prevention

C : Requirement baselining

D : Procedure defect

Q.no 21. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of
regression test?

A : Output comparator

B : Boundary tester

C : Data transfer

D : Capture or Playback

Q.no 22. What is Quality Assurance

A : It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

B : Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

C : Process of identifying defects

D : It is a corrective tool

Q.no 23. Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and
Documentation?

A : Retesting

B : Unit testing

C : Ad Hoc Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 24. Deferred status in bug life cycle means

A : Developer feels that the bug is not genuine

B : Bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug

C : The bug is expected to be fixed in next releases

D : It is not bug at all

Q.no 25. In a company if the test plan is not written according to the standards
and the category of defect will it be classified into

A : Process defect

B : Product defect

C : Procedure defect

D : Proper defect

Q.no 26. Which is not true regarding Spiral Model

A : Risk analysis is involved in every cycle of development

B : Uses series of prototype for refining test execution plan

C : For any change we need to iterate the whole cycle

D : Only this model has the risk analysis phase

Q.no 27. Three simple steps below refer 1 Analyze defects or errors to trace the
root causes 2 Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes 3
Implement the preventive actions

A : Defect Tracking
B : Defect Prevention

C : Defect Age

D : Defect Risks

Q.no 28. Who leads a formal review process

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 29. The Selenium is refer as

A : Provides professional customer support

B : Test Reports are generated automatically

C : Comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a testable web application element?

A : Authentication

B : Encryption

C : Firewalls

D : Penetration

Q.no 31. The acceptance test engineer created which document to communicate
the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier

A : Acceptance Caution Change

B : Acceptance Test Change

C : Acceptance Criteria Change

D : Acceptance Execute Change

Q.no 32. which black box techquice divides the input domain into classes of data
that are likely to exercise specific software function
A : Boundary value analysis

B : Graph based testing

C : Equivalence partitioning

D : loop testing

Q.no 33. Entry criteria is determined during which phase

A : Planning

B : Follow up

C : Preparation

D : Review meeting

Q.no 34. Select the language which is supported by The Selenium Web Driver

A : Perl

B : SQL

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a prereq for automation testing

A : Ready Test Scripts

B : Ready Test Suite

C : Stable code and application

D : Skilled and experienced resources

Q.no 36. In which situations Regression Testing is not performed

A : When project manger asks to perform

B : When new functionality is introduced

C : When database system is changed

D : When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously

tested

Q.no 37. Test cases are designed during

A : test recording

B : test planning

C : test configuration

D : test specification

Q.no 38. Which model is a multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization
software development process

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 39. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during
the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software

A : errors

B : equivalent faults

C : failure cause

D : fault

Q.no 40. Which of the following is true of the V model

A : It states that modules are tested against user requirements

B : It only models the testing phase

C : It specifies the test techniques to be used

D : It includes the verification of designs.

Q.no 41. Whai is to be refer that often disappointing lack of improvement in

software development productivity despite the application of powerful new
development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.

A : system dynamics model

B : capability maturity model

C : personal software process model

D : open-source development model

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a white box technique

A : State Transition Teting

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 43. Who leads a walk through

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 44. Regression testing should be tightly linked to the testing and be built
from the successful test cases developed and used in

A : Retesting

B : Functional Testing

C : End to End Testing

D : System Testing

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Alpha Testing

A : Simulated environment is created at developers site and user tests the system

B : System is installed at user organization and user tests the system

C : Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing

D : Alpha testing is performed by tetsers who are employees of organization

Q.no 46. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by
users during which of the testing process

A : Final stage

B : First stage
C : All stages but after first stage

D : All stage

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a method of Dynamic Testing

A : System Testing

B : Inspection

C : Unit Testing

D : UAT

Q.no 48. Which is a formal review technique

A : Walk through

B : peer to peer review

C : Inspection

D : review

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA

A : inter process inspection

B : maintenance

C : quality planning

D : testing

Q.no 50. Which test case design technique is not appropriate for web application
component level testing?

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Performance Testing

Q.no 51. What types of errors are not done by Black Box Testing and can be
uncovered by White Box Testing

A : Logic errors
B : Performance errors

C : Behavioral errors

D : Control Errors

Q.no 52. During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects

A : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

B : Test closure activity

C : Test implementation and execution

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 53. Which white-box testing technique is firstly proposed by Tom McCabe

A : Equivalence Partitioning

B : Basis Path Testing

C : Boundary Value Analysis

D : Branch Coverage

Q.no 54. Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not become
the defect

A : fault

B : error

C : failure

D : accuracy

Q.no 55. Which is not an important goal of a walk through

A : Knowledge transfer

B : Gather information

C : Discuss alternatives

D : Find defects

Q.no 56. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test
A : To find faults in the software

B : To assess whether the software is ready for release

C : To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work

D : To prove that the software is correct

Q.no 57. Which of these activities is not one of the recommended activity to be
performed by independent SQA group

A : Prepare SQAplan for the project

B : review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C : report any evidence of non compliance to senior manager

D : serve as the sole test team for any software produced

Q.no 58. When you are recording the application, the test script is automatically
generatecThe test script used in SilkTest is called

A : Silk Test

B : 4Test

C : Test Suite

D : Recording

Q.no 59. Which object is within an Object Oriented System is used to design tests
that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs

A : Fault based testing

B : Integration testing

C : Use based testing

D : Scenario based testing

Q.no 60. Which type is used for Firebug in Selenium

A : Inspecting Elements

B : Parallel Testing

C : Programming

D : Cross Browser Testing

Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

 Questions
Marking
QN Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Marks Unit No. Scheme

Select the component which is NOT part of Selenium a) Selenium IDE b) Selenium RC c) SeleniumGrid d) Selenium Web Correct
Q1 suite. 1 4 Answer-1M
Select the language which is NOT supported by the a) ASP b) JAVA c) C# d) PHP Correct
Q2 Selenium RC. 1 4 Answer-1M
Select the name which is NOT the type of the locaters. a) ID b) Name c) Password d) Link Test Correct
Q3 1 4 Answer-1M
Is Web Driver a component of the Selenium? a) No b) Yes Correct
Q4 1 4 Answer-1M
Selenium IDE stands for a) Selenium b) Selenium c) Selenium d) Selenium
Intialization Interrelated Integrated Information Correct
Q5 Development Development Development Development 1 4 Answer-1M
Environment Environment Environment Environment
Select the Browser which is supported by Selenium a)Google chrome b)Opera mini c) Mozilla Firefox d)Internet Explorer Correct
Q6 IDE 1 4 Answer-1M
Select the operating system which is NOT supported by a) Unix b) Linux c) Windows d) Solaris Correct
Q7 Selenium IDE. 1 4 Answer-1M
The Web driver is used a)To execute tests on b)To quickly create c)To design a test d)To test a web Correct
Q8 the HtmlUnit browser. tests using Selenese application against 1 4 Answer-1M
The Selenium IDE is used a)To create b)To deploy your tests c)To test with Firefox only
d)To test a web
customized test across multiple HTMLUnit application against Correct
Q9 results. environments using Firefox only. 1 4 Answer-1M
Selenium Grid
The Selenium RC is used a)To run your test b)To create tests with c)To test a web d)To run a huge test
against different little or no prior application against suite, that can be Correct
Q10 browsers (except knowledge in Firefox only. executed on multiple 1 4 Answer-1M
HtmlUnit) on different programming. machines.
operating systems.
The Selenium can a) access controls b)both web and c)only test web d) none of above Correct
Q11 within the desktop desktop applications applications 1 4 Answer-1M
The Selenium a)Provides b)Test Reports are c)Comes with a d)Cannot access
professional customer generated built-in object elements outside of Correct
Q12 support automatically repository the web application 1 4 Answer-1M
under test
Who is developed by selenium a) Jason Huggins b) Paul Hammant c) Patrick Lightbody d) Shinya Kasatani Correct
Q13 1 4 Answer-1M
Who is developed by selenium RC a) Jason Huggins b) Paul Hammant c) Patrick Lightbody d) Shinya Kasatani Correct
Q14 1 4 Answer-1M
Who is developed by selenium Grid a) Jason Huggins b) Paul Hammant c) Patrick Lightbody d) Shinya Kasatani Correct
Q15 1 4 Answer-1M
Who is developed by selenium IDE a) Jason Huggins b) Paul Hammant c) Patrick Lightbody d) Shinya Kasatani Correct
Q16 1 4 Answer-1M
Who is developed by selenium Web Driver a) Jason Huggins b) Paul Hammant c) Patrick Lightbody d) Simon Stewart Correct
Q17 1 4 Answer-1M
Select the language which is supported by the a) JAVA b) C# c) PHP d) All of above Correct
Q18 Selenium. 1 4 Answer-1M
Selenium can test a) Only Desktop b) Only Web c) Desktop and web d) none of above Correct
Q19 Application Application application 1 4 Answer-1M
QTP can test a) Only Desktop b) Only Web c) Desktop and web d) none of above Correct
Q20 Application Application application 1 4 Answer-1M
Which of the following is not included in failure costs? a)rework b)repair c) failure mode d)none of the Correct
Q21 analysis mentioned 1 5 Answer-1M
Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project? a)evaluations to be b)amount of technical c)audits and reviews d) documents to be Correct
Q22 performed work to be performed produced by the SQA 1 5 Answer-1M
Degree to which design specifications are followed in a)Quality Control b)Quality of c)Quality Assurance group
d)None of the Correct
Q23 manufacturing the product is called conformance mentioned 1 5 Answer-1M
Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA? a)inter-process b)maintenance c) quality planning d)testing Correct
Q24 inspection 1 5 Answer-1M
Who identifies, documents, and verifies that a) Project manager b)Project team c)SQA group d)All of the Correct
Q25 corrections have been made to the software? mentioned 1 5 Answer-1M
The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to a)errors b)equivalent faults c)failure cause d)none of the Correct
Q26 find _________ during the process so that they do not mentioned 1 5 Answer-1M
become defects after release of the software
What is not included in prevention costs? a) quality planning b) formal technical c) test equipment d) equipment Correct
Q27 reviews calibration and 1 5 Answer-1M
Select which option is not true about SQA…? a)Audits and reviews b)Amount of technical c)Evaluations to be maintenance that are
d)Documents Correct
Q28 to be performed by work to be performed performed produced by the SQA 1 5 Answer-1M
the team team.
Which of the following is not included in prevention a)equipment b)formal technical c)test equipment d)quality planning Correct
Q29 cost? calibration and reviews reviews reviews 1 5 Answer-1M
maintenance
Select the people who identify the document and a)Project manager b)SQA team c)Project team d)All of the Correct
Q30 verifies the correctness of the software… mentioned 1 5 Answer-1M
What happened if an expected result is not specified a)we cannot run the b)we cannot automate c)it may be difficult to d)it may difficult to
then test the user input values determine if the test repeat the test Correct
Q31 has passed or failed 1 5 Answer-1M

Faults are found most cost-effectively in which test a)design b)execution c)planning d)Check Exit criteria Correct
Q32 activity? completion 1 5 Answer-1M
Quality Management in software engineering is also a)SQA b)SQM c)SQI d)SQA & SQM Correct
Q33 known as 1 5 Answer-1M
Quality also can be looked at in terms of user a)A compliant product b)Good quality output c)Delivery within d)All of the Correct
Q34 satisfaction which includes budget and schedule mentioned 1 5 Answer-1M
What is Six Sigma? a)It is the most widely b)The “Six Sigma” c)It is the most widely d)A Formal Technical
used strategy for refers to six standard used strategy for Review(FTR)
statistical quality deviations statistical quality guideline for quality Correct
Q35 assurance assurance AND The walkthrough or 1 5 Answer-1M
“Six Sigma” refers to inspection
six standard
deviations
Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma? a)Define b)Control c)Measure d)Analyse Correct
Q36 1 5 Answer-1M
According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes a)Process control b)Document control c)Control of d)Servicing Correct
Q37 under which management responsibility? nonconforming 1 5 Answer-1M
products
Alpha Testing Done at a)Developer‟s end b)User End c)Developer‟s & d)none of the Correct
Q38 User‟s end mentioned 1 5 Answer-1M
Beta testing is done at a)Developer‟s end b)User End c)Developer‟s & d)none of the Correct
Q39 User‟s end mentioned 1 5 Answer-1M
V-model uses --------test models a)Component testing, b)alpha testing, beta c)black box testing, d)none of the
integration testing, testing , acceptance white box testing mentioned Correct
Q40 system testing and testing and user and gray box testing 1 5 Answer-1M
acceptance testing testing
 Histogram is used for a)graph for showing b)graph that shows c)Graphs pairs of d)Graph used to
frequency which factors are numerical data, one study how a process Correct
Q41 distributions more significant. variable on each axis, changes over time. 1 6 Answer-1M
to look for a
relationship.
Control chart is used for a)graph for showing b)graph that shows c)Graphs pairs of d)Graph used to
frequency which factors are numerical data, one study how a process Correct
Q42 distributions more significant. variable on each axis, changes over time. 1 6 Answer-1M
to look for a
relationship.
Scatter Diagram used for a)graph for showing b)graph that shows c)Graphs pairs of d)Graph used to
frequency which factors are numerical data, one study how a process Correct
Q43 distributions more significant. variable on each axis, changes over time. 1 6 Answer-1M
to look for a
relationship.
Pareto chart used for a)graph for showing b)graph that shows c)Graphs pairs of d)Graph used to
frequency which factors are numerical data, one study how a process Correct
Q44 distributions more significant. variable on each axis, changes over time. 1 6 Answer-1M
to look for a
relationship.
Stratification is Technique a)for showing b) that shows which c)pairs of numerical d) separates data
frequency factors are more data, one variable on gathered from a Correct
Q45 distributions significant. each axis, to look for a variety of sources so 1 6 Answer-1M
relationship. that patterns can be
seen
Cause-and-effect diagram a)graph for showing b)dentifies many c)Graphs pairs of d)Graph used to
frequency possible causes for an numerical data, one study how a process Correct
Q46 distributions effect or problem and variable on each axis, changes over time. 1 6 Answer-1M
sorts ideas into useful to look for a
categories. relationship.
Check List is a)A structured, b)dentifies many c)Graphs pairs of d)Graph used to
prepared form for possible causes for an numerical data, one study how a process Correct
Q47 collecting and effect or problem and variable on each axis, changes over time. 1 6 Answer-1M
analyzing data sorts ideas into useful to look for a
categories. relationship.
seven basic tools of quality, first emphasized by a) Kaoru Ishikawa b) Paul Hammant c) Patrick Lightbody d) Shinya Kasatani Correct
Q48 1 6 Answer-1M
Cause-and-effect diagram also called as a)Ishikawa diagram b) fishbone diagram c) both a & b d) none of above Correct
Q49 1 6 Answer-1M
Cause and Effect Diagram a)Uncovering the b)Problem-solving; c)During group d) All of above
relationships between finding root causes of brainstorming Correct
Q50 different causes a problem sessions to gather 1 6 Answer-1M
leading to a problem different perspectives
on the matter
Scatter Diagram a) validate the b)Problem-solving; c)During group d) All of above
relationship between finding root causes of brainstorming Correct
Q51 causes and effects a problem sessions to gather 1 6 Answer-1M
different perspectives
on the matter
Check Sheets a)check the shape of b)quantify defects by c)keep track of the d) All of above
the probability type, by location or by completion of steps in Correct
Q52 distribution of a cause a multistep procedure 1 6 Answer-1M
process (as a checklist)
a)manufacturing b) process c)stock trading d) All of above
improvement algorithms. Correct
Q53 Control charts are generally used in methodologies like six 1 6 Answer-1M
sigma
Pareto chart a)identify the relative b)quantify defects by c)keep track of the a) validate the Correct
Q54 importance of the type, by location or by completion of steps in relationship between 1 6 Answer-1M
A graphical technique for finding if changes and causes of a problem
a)DRE (Defect cause
b)Function points ac)Control
multistep procedure
Chart causes
d)All ofand
the effects Correct
Q55 variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as Removal Efficiency) analysis mentioned 1 6 Answer-1M
Product Quality Metrics include a)Mean Time to b)Defect Density c)Customer Problems d)All of the Correct
Q56 Failure & Satifation mentioned 1 6 Answer-1M
In-process Quality Metrics a)Defect density b)Defect arrival c)Phase-based defect d)All of the
during machine pattern during removal pattern mentioned Correct
Q57 testing machine testing 1 6 Answer-1M

Backlog Management Index (BMI) is used a)manage the backlog b)Fix backlog and c)fixes for reported d)provide meaningful
of open and backlog management problems become information for Correct
Q58 unresolved problems. index available. managing the 1 6 Answer-1M
maintenance process
Percent Delinquent Fixes a)manage the backlog b)Number of fixes that c)fixes for reported d)provide meaningful
of open and exceeded the problems become information for
unresolved problems. response time criteria available. managing the Correct
Q59 by ceverity level maintenance process 1 6 Answer-1M
Number of fixes
Delivered in a
specified time
Defect removal effectiveness a)It is called early b)Number of fixes that c)fixes for reported d)provide meaningful
defect removal when exceeded the problems become information for
used for the front-end response time criteria available. managing the Correct
Q60 and phase by ceverity level maintenance process 1 6 Answer-1M
effectiveness for Number of fixes
specific phases. Delivered in a
specified time