27-07-2025

1016CMD303362250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) If force = , then dimension of [αβ] is :-

(1) M3L–3T–3
(2) M3L–2T–3
(3) M3L–5T–2
(4) M2L–3T–2

2) In a particular system the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s
respectively. The unit of force in this system will be equal to

(1) 0.1 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 100 N

3) Two full turns of Screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on main scale. The total number of
circular scale divisions are 100. The measured value of thickness of sheet will be :

(1) 4.555 mm
(2) 4.295 mm
(3) 2.295 mm
(4) 2.245 mm

4) In an experiment the values of two resistances were measured to be R1 = (5.0 ± 0.2) Ω and R2 =
(10.0 ± 0.1) Ω. Then their combined resistance in series will be :-

(1) (15 ± 0.1) Ω

(2) (15 ± 0.2) Ω
(3) (15 ± 2%) Ω
(4) (15 ± 3%) Ω

5) Match the number of significant figures in the given column :

Column-I Column-II
 (a) 0.007 m2 (p) 2

(b) 2.64×1024 kg (q) 1

(c) 0.0021 g cm–3 (r) 4

(d) 0.0006032 J (s) 3

(1) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r
(2) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p
(3) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-r
(4) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s

6) According to Vanderwall's equation pressure(P) volume(V) and Temperature(T) are related as

(V – b) = RT (for 1 mole of gas). Then dimensions of is equivalent to :-

(1) Force
(2) Power
(3) Energy
(4) Pressure

7) In telescope, if the powers of an objective and eye lens are + 1.25 D and + 20 D respectively, then
for relaxed vision, the length of tube and magnification will be :-

(1) 85 cm and 25
(2) 85 cm and 16
(3) 21.25 cm and 16
(4) 21.25 cm and 25

8) A beam of convergent light converges to a point 0.5 m in front of the mirror after reflection at a
convex mirror but in the absence of the mirror the beam converges to a point 0.2 m behind the

mirror. The radius of curvature of the mirror is :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 50 cm
(3) 66.67 cm
(4) 28.57 cm

9) A container is filled with water (µ = 1.33) upto a height of 33.25 cm. A concave mirror is placed
15 cm above the water level and the image of an object placed at the bottom is formed 25 cm below
the water level. The focal length of the mirror is:-

(1) 10cm
(2) 15cm
(3) –18.3cm
(4) 25cm

10) A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm
respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a
distance :-

(1) 37.3 cm
(2) 46.0 cm
(3) 50.0 cm
(4) 54.0 cm

11) Two lenses of power +10D and –5D are placed in contact. Where should an object be held from
the lens, so as to obtain a virtual image of magnification 2 ?

(1) 5 cm
(2) –5cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) –10 cm

12) A ray of light is incident at the glass water, interface at an angle i, it emerges finally parallel to
the surface of water, then the value of refractive index of glass will be :-

(1)
sin i
(2) 1/sin i
(3) 4/3
(4) None
13) A container is filled with water upto height 1m. Find out
diameter of disc at top of water surface from which light is coming out.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

A spherical surface of radius of curvature R separates air (refractive index 1.0) from glass (refractive
index 1.5). The centre of curvature is in the glass. A point object P placed in air is found to have a
real image Q in the glass. The line PQ cuts the surface at point O and PO = OQ. The distance PO is
equal to :

(1) 5 R
(2) 3 R
(3) 2 R
(4) 1.5 R

15) A thin Prism P1 with angle 4° and made from glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another thin Prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without
deviation. The angle of Prism P2 is

(1) 5.33°
(2) 4°
(3) 3°
(4) 2.6°

16) A container of depth H is filled with two immiscible transparent liquids of refractive index µ1 and
µ2 respectively. The depth of each liquid is H/2. When viewed from above the apparent depth of the
vessel is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) A double convex lens made of a material of refractive index µ1, is placed inside two liquids or
refractive indices µ2 & µ3, as shown (µ2 > µ1 > µ3). A wide, parallel beam of light is incident on the

lens from the left. The lens will give rise to :-

(1) A single convergent beam

(2) Two different convergent beam
(3) Two different divergent beam
(4) A convergent and a divergent beam

18) Figure shows graph of angle of deviation v/s angle of incidence for a light ray. Incident ray goes

from medium 1(µ1) to medium 2(µ2). (a) θ1 =

90°
(b) Critical angle 45°
(c) µ1 < µ2
(d) θ2 = 60o
(e) θ3 = 90o
Correct set is :-

(1) abcd
(2) abe
(3) abde
(4) All

19) At a certain point two waves from two coherent monochromatic sources of light are
superimposing. The amplitude of each wave is a0 and the phase difference between the waves at that
point is ϕ. The the amplitude of the resultant wave is :-
(1) 2a0
(2) 2a0 cos ϕ
2a0 cos
(3)

(4)

20) Two coherent light beams of intensity I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum
possible intensities in the resulting beam are :

(1) 5I and 3I
(2) 5I and I
(3) 9I and 3I
(4) 9I and I

21) A glass hemisphere of radius R and material having refractive index 1.5 is silvered on its flat face
as shown in the figure. A small object of height h is located at a distance 2 R from surface of

hemisphere. The final image will form :-

(1) at a distance of R from silvered surface, on right side

(2) on the hemispherical surface
(3) at the plane surface
(4) at a distance of 2 R from the curved surface on left side

22) To demonstrate the phenomena of interference, we require :-

(1) two sources which emit radiation of same frequency

(2) two sources which emit radiation of nearly same frequency
(3) two sources which emit radiation of the same frequency and have a definite phase relationship
(4) two sources which emit radiation of different wavelengths

23) A monochormatic plane wave of speed c and wavelength λ is diffracted at a small aperture. The
diagram illustrates successive wavefronts. After what time will some portion of the wavefront XY

reach P ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Find magnetic field at point 'P' due to current carrying wire in following

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) If magnetic field at point 'O' is zero due to given long current carrying wires then find :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
26) There are two concentric coplaner current carrying loop having common centre 'O'.

If then at 'O' will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

27) A charge of 3.2 × 10–6C has instantaneous velocity in uniform magnetic field

. What is force on charge.

(1) 16 × 10–2 N
(2) 8 × 10–2 N
(3) Zero
(4) 32 × 10–4 N

28) Formula for Lorentz force on moving charge is given by :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

29) If charge q is released in the given region of uniform electric field and magnetic field as shown

in following figure then its path will be :-

(1) Circular
(2) Parabola
(3) Straight line
(4) Charge q does not move

30) A charged particle having charge –q and mass 'm' is revolving around a fixed charge +'q' in a
circular path of radius 'r'. The magnetic field at centre due to –'q' is-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Pick out the correct statement:

(a) The gain in the K.E. of the electron moving at right angles to the magnetic field is zero.
(b) When an electron is shot at right angles to the electric field, it traces a parabolic path.
(c) An electron moving in the direction of the electric field gains K.E.
(d) An electron at rest experiences no force in uniform and constant the magnetic field

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) b, c, d

32) An current element is placed at origin and carries a large current I = 10A as shown in
figure what is magnetic field on y-axis at a distance of 0.5 m. If Δx = 1 cm.

(1) 2 × 10–8 T
(2) 4 × 10–8 T
(3) 6 × 10–6T
(4) 12 × 10–8 T.

33) A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of 500 turns. It carries a current
of 5A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid ?

(1) 4π × 10–4 T
(2) 2π × 10–4 T
(3) 6π × 10–3 T
(4) 2π × 10–3 T

34) A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a current of 50 A in north to south direction.
Give the magnitude and direction of magnetic field at a point 2.5 m east of the wire.

(1) 4 × 10–6 T, vertical down

(2) 2 × 10–6 T, vertical up
(3) 4 × 10–6 T, vertical up
(4) 8 × 10–4 T, vertical down

35) Identify (–q, m), (–3q, 4m), (+q, m) and (+3q, 4m).

Column-1 Column-2

(a) Particle (–q, m) p. w

(b) Particle (–3q, 4m) q. x

(c) Particle (+q, m) r. y

(d) Particle (+3q, 4m) s. z

(1) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s
(2) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
(3) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r
(4) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q

36) A charged particle enters into a uniform magnetic field with velocity V0 perpendicular to it, the

length of magnetic field is x = , where R is the radius of the circular path of the particle in the
field. The magnitude of change in velocity of the particle when it comes out of the field is

(1) 2V0
(2) V0/2

(3)

(4) V0

37) Which of the following statements is false for Helmoltz coils :

(1) In Helmoltz coils, both coils are coaxial

(2) The planes of Helmoltz coils are perpendicular to each other
(3) The distance between the coils is equal to the radius of the coil.
(4) The magnetic field produced in the middle region between the coils is uniform.

38) Magnetic field at P due to given structure is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The magnetic induction at the point O, if the wire carriers a current i, is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)

The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius both are doubled, then :–

(1) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
(2) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
(3) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
(4) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved.
41) A battery has e.m.f. 4 V and internal resistance 'r'. When this battery is connected to an external
resistance of 2 ohms, a current of 1 A flows in the circuit. What current will flow if the terminals of
the battery are connected directly ?

(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 4 A
(4) infinite

42) A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 1022 free electrons per cubic metre. The drift velocity for
free electrons when 10 A current flows through the wire will be (Given, charge on electron = 1.6 ×
10–19 C) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) An unknown resistance R1 is connected in series with a resistance of 10 Ω. This combination is

connected to one gap of a metre bridge while a resistance R2 is connected in the other gap. The
balance point is at 50 cm. Now, when the 10 Ω resistance is removed the balance point shifts to 40
cm. The value of R1 is (in ohms) :–

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 60
(4) 40

44) A galvanometer of 100 Ω resistance yields complete deflection when 10 mA current flows. What
should be the value of shunt so that it can measure currents upto 100 mA ?

(1) 11.11 Ω
(2) 9.9 Ω
(3) 1.1 Ω
(4) 4.4 Ω

45) Two resistances R1 and R2 are made of different materials. The temperature coefficient of the
material of R1 is α and that of the material of R2 is –β. The resistance of the series combination of R1
and R2 does not change with temperature, then the ratio of resistances of the two wires at 0°C will
be :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following relation is true for C molar CH3COOH solution?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Equivalent conductance of saturated BaSO4 is 400 ohm–1cm2eq–1 and specific conductance is 8 x

10–5 ohm–1cm–1. Hence Ksp of BaSO4 is :

(1) 4 × 10–8 M2
(2) 1 × 10–8 M2
(3) 2 × 10–4 M2
(4) 1 × 10–4 M2

3) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
(Substance) (Product after electrolysis)

Aqueous solution of AgNO3 using Oxygen is produced at

A. p.
Ag electrodes anode

Aqueous solution of AgNO3 using Pt Hydrogen is produced at

B. q.
electrodes cathode

Dilute solution of H2SO4 using Pt Silver is deposited at

C. r.
electrodes cathode

Aqueous solution of CuCl2 using Pt Neither O2 nor H2 is

D. s.
electrodes produced
Codes
A B C D
(1) r,q p,q q,s p,s
(2) r,q p,q,s q,s q,r,s
(3) p q r s
(4) r,s r,p p,q s
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Match the column I with column II :

Column I Column II

(A) Cathode in electrolytic cell (P) Positive

(B) Anode in electrolytic cell (Q) Negative

(C) (R)

(D) (S)

(1) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P

(2) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(3) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
(4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q

5) Select the correct statement.

Statement I : Discharging process of lead storage battery based on principle of electro chemical cell
while its charging process based on electrolytic cell.
Statement II : Discharging process of lead storage battery based on principle of electrolytic cell
while its charging process based on electro chemical cell.
Statement III : Discharging process of lead storage battery based on principle of electrolytic cell
while its charging process is also based on electrolytic cell.
Statement IV : Discharging process of lead storage battery based on principle of electro chemical
cell while its charging process is also based on electro chemical cell.

(1) Only I & III correct

(2) Only I & IV correct
(3) Only I, III & IV correct
(4) Only I correct

6) The ratio of weights of hydrogen liberated and magnesium deposited by the same amount of
electricity from aqueous H2SO4 and fused MgSO4 are :

(1) 1 : 8
(2) 1 : 12
(3) 1 : 16
(4) None

7) NaCl fused solution contains 0.2M of the substance. If 9.65 ampere of electric current is passed
for 1000 second, then the amount of sodium deposited on the cathode would be :-
(1) 0.23 gm
(2) 2.3 gm
(3) 23.0 gm
(4) 50 g

8) Which is most reactive towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following compound will not undergo Friedel craft's Reaction :-

(1) Toluene
(2) Cumene
(3) Xylene
(4) Nitro benzene

10) Statement-I : Benzene give Friedel crafts Reaction.

Statement-II : All substituted benzene give Friedel crafts reaction.
Choose the correct statement :

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

11) Major product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
None of these

12) Which of the following is/are activating groups -

(a) – NO2
(b) – COOH

(c)
(d) – CH3
(e) – CCl3

(1) a, b, c, d only
(2) c, d only
(3) b, d, e only
(4) b, c, d, e only

13) Major product of above reaction is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Statement-I : In gatterman koch reaction benzene is treated with CO and HCl in the presence
of anhydrous AlCl3 to get benzaldehyele.
Statement-II : It is an example of electrophilic substitution reaction.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

15)

Which one of the following compounds will be most reactive for SN1 reaction:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) Catalytic hydrogenation of the following compound produced saturated hydrocarbon(s) the

number of stereo isomer(s) formed is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17)
In the above reaction maximum Hoffmann product will be obtained, when X is :-

(1) —I
(2) —Cl
(3) —Br
(4) —F

18) (A) ; Product (A) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
19) Which of the following does not give SN2 reaction easily ?

(1) CH3 – I
(2) CH3 – CH2 – I
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – I

(4)

20) Assertion (A) : Rearrangment of C⊕ does not take place in SN2 reaction.
Reason (R) : Carbocation does not form in SN2.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) Among the following most highly ionised in water is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

22) (Major product)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23)

Which of the following will not give CO2 gas with NaHCO3 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) (a) Ph-NH2 (b) PhCH2NH2 (c)

Correct order of basic strength is :

(1) b > c > a

(2) c > b > a
(3) b > a > c
(4) a > c > b

25) Match the column :

Column –I Column –II

Group donate e– inductively
(A) but does not donate / (p) –OH
withdraw by resonance
Group withdraws
e– inductively but does not
(B) (q) –NO2
donate / withdraw by
resonance
Group withdraws
(C) e– inductively & donate (r) –CH2–CH3
e– by resonance
 Group withdraws
(D) e– inductively & withdraw (s)
e– by resonance.
(1) (A) → r ; (B) → s ; (C) → p ; (D) → q
(2) (A) → s ; (B) → r ; (C) → p ; (D) → q
(3) (A) → p ; (B) → q ; (C) → s ; (D) → r
(4) (A) → p ; (B) → q ; (C) → r ; (D) → s

26)

Correct order of acidic strength of following compound is :-

(1) I > III > IV > II

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) IV > III > I > II

27) Hyperconjugation is shown by :-

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3
(2) CH2 = CH2

(3)

(4)

28) Which one is the most stable free radical ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Which of the following has longest C — O bond?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Assertion :- The pKa of acetic acid is lower than that of phenol.
Reason :- Phenoxide ion is more resonance stabilized then acetate ion.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

31) Statement-I : Enol form of is more stable than its keto form.

Statement-II : is aromatic.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

32) Statement-I : Electromeric effect is a temporary effect.

Statement-II : The organic compounds having a multiple bond show this effect in the presence of
an attacking reagent only.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

33) Assertion (A) : Aniline with its strongly activating substituent des not undergo Friedel craft
reaction while toluene and chlorobenzene undergo these reactions.
Reason (R) : In Aniline due to formation of a complex the activating group convent into a highly
deactivating group while toluene and chlorobenzene does not convert into complex with Lewis acid.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion is True but the Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

34)
Identify product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The major product obtained in the given reaction :- Product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Electrolytic conduction is due to the movement of

(1) molecules
(2) atoms
(3) ions
(4) electrons

37) For cell and Ecell is 1.68 V and 1.72 V respectively then value of
x will be :-
(1) 0.1
(2) 0.01
(3) 0.001
(4) 1

38) Equivalent conductivity of Fe2(SO4)3 is related to molar conductivity by the expression :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Calculate cell potential at 298 K for following galvanic cell

(1) 0.38
(2) – 0.38
(3) 0.36
(4) – 0.36

40) Calculate E° for the reaction

Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq.) → Cu+2(aq.) + 2Ag(s)
If equilibrium constant for the reaction is 4 × 1015 at 298 K

(1) 0.23 V
(2) – 0.46 V
(3) 0.46 V
(4) – 0.23 V

41) On electrolysis of aqueous solution of KI in presence of platinum electrodes :-

(a) Hydrogen gas is released at cathode
(b) Oxygen gas is released at anode
(c) pOH of solution decreases
(d) There is deposition of potassium at cathode
Choose the correct option from following :-

(1) a, b
(2) only a
(3) a, c
(4) c, d
42) Consider the following Galvanic cell :- By what value the
cell voltage changes when concentration of ions in anodic and cathodic compartments both
increased by factor of 10 at 298 K.

(1) +0.0591
(2) –0.0591
(3) –0.1182
(4) 0

43) 10 F of electricity is passed through the solutions of silver nitrate, copper sulphate and ferric
chloride. The amount of metal deposited at cathode in each case respectively are

(1) Ag = 1080 g, Cu = 3175 g, Fe = 186.7 g

(2) Ag = 108 g, Cu = 31.75 g, Fe = 18.67 g
(3) Ag = 1080 g, Cu = 317.5 g, Fe = 186.7 g
(4) Ag = 10.8 g, Cu = 317.5 g, Fe = 186.7 g

44) Match the following columns

Column-II
Column-I (Production (Amount
of elements of charge
from their solution) in
Faraday)

20 g of Ca produce from
(i) (a) 0.5 F
molten CaCl2

1 mole of H2 produce
(ii) (b) 1F
from H2O

1 mole of O2 produce
(iii) (c) 2F
from H2O

0.5 g equivalent Al
(iv) produce from molten (d) 4F
Al2O3
(1) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

45) When 0.1 mole is reduced then quantity of electricity required to reduce to Cr+3
completely is :-
(1) 9650 C
(2) 96500 C
(3) 57900 C
(4) 54900 C

BIOLOGY

1) Jawless fish probably evolved arround

(1) 200 mya

(2) 350 mya
(3) 500 mya
(4) 2 bya

2) Choose wrong statement :

(1) Alfred Wallace is related to Malaya Archipelago

(2) All the existing life forms share similarities and share common ancestors
(3) The geological history of earth closely correlates with the biological history of earth
(4) Maximum fit animals face maximum resistant in environment

3) The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point
and literally radiating to other area of geography (Habitat) is called :

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both (1) and (2)

4) Which of the following is used as an atmospheric pollution indicator?

(1) Lepidoptera
(2) Lichens
(3) Lycopersicon
(4) Lycopodium
5) Identify A, B, C, D

A B C D

(1) Pelycosaur Thecodonts Dinosaurs Mammals

(2) Therapsid Sauropsid Synapsid Mammals

(3) Therapsid Synapsid Sauropsid Mammals

(4) Pelycosaurs Synapsid Sauropsid Birds

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Match the Column-I and Column-II and select the correct option

Column I Column II

Influenced the proponent

(a) Thomas Malthus (i)
of natural selection

Embryological supports
(b) Charles Darwin (ii)
for evolution

(c) Ernst Heckel (iii) Chemical evolution

(d) Oparin (iv) H.M.S beagle

(1) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)
7) Which statement is not true for protobionts?

(1) They were clusters of macromolecules

(2) They were isolated from their environment
(3) They could grow
(4) They could reproduce

8) Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
(A) Neanderthal man existed (i) 18,000 years ago,
(B) Agriculture started (ii) 1,00,000-40,000 years back
(C) Pre-historic cave art developed (iii) About 15 mya
(D) Dryopithecus existed (iv) 10,000 years back
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
(2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv)
(3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii)
(4) (A) - (i), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)

9) In Galapagos island, Darwin found different varieties of finches, originated from a common
ancestor. The original variety of these finches was:-

(1) Insectivorous
(2) Vegetarian
(3) Seed-eating
(4) Cactus eating

10) Biochemical evidance indicates towares :-

(1) Homology
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Common ancestory
(4) All

11) During his journey, Darwin observed a variety of finches on Galapagos island and he conjuctured
that all varieties have evolved on the island itself from the original seed eating features. These
Darwin finches provides best examples of all the following phenomenon except one ?

(1) Allopatric speciation

(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Genetic drift (Founder's effect)
(4) Artificial selection

12) Statement-I : Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism.

Statement-II : Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance
mutation in organisms.
(1) Statement I and II both are correct
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

13) Antibiotic-resistance bacteria appeared due to

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Transduction
(3) Pre-existing variation in the population
(4) Divergent evolution

14) Assertion :- Embryological support for evolution was based upon the observation of certain
features during embryonic life.
Reason :- During embrological life all vertebrates including human develop a row of vestigial gill
slits but it is only functional organ in fish.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) The common ancestory of humans and great apes can be shown by.

(1) Similar blood groups

(2) Similar banding pattern of chromosomes
(3) Similar plasma proteins and hormones
(4) All of these

16) What is the correct arrangement of periods of Palaeozoic era in ascending order in geological
time scale ?

(1) Cambrian → Ordovician → Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferus → Permian

(2) Cambrian → Silurian → Ordovician → Devonian → Carboniferus → Permian
(3) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferus → Permian
(4) Cambrian → Devonian → Ordovician → Silurian → Permian → Carboniferus

17) Seed fern evolved from

(1) Zosterophyllum
(2) Fern
(3) Progymnosperm
(4) Rhinia type plant

18) Identify the type of natural selection shown below as well as the related correct explanation of it,
and select the right option for the two together.

Natural selection Explanation

Stabilising
(1) More individuals acquire mean character value
selection

Directional More individuals acquire peripheral character value at

(2)
selection both ends of the distribution curve

Disruptive More individuals acquire peripheral character value at

(3)
selection both ends of the distribution curve

Disruptive
(4) More individuals acquire mean character value
selection
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Assertion : Fitness, refers ultimately and only to reproductive fitness.

Reason : Fitness enable same to survive better in natural conditions and could outbreed others.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) In the given figure which one of the following represent the correct example of convergent
evolution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) According to Darwin the evolution is :

(1) Slow process
(2) Directional process
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Fast and Random process

22) Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) Sweet potato and potato is an example of homology.

(2) Analogy indicates common ancestry.
(3) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs.
(4) Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution.

23) If 64% of the individuals in a population are homozygous recessive for a character than calculate
the percentage of heterozygous individuals in this population :

(1) 36%
(2) 0.04%
(3) 0.8%
(4) 32%

24) Golden age of fish was :

(1) Devonian period

(2) Silurian period
(3) Triassic period
(4) Cambrian period

25) The main cause for the extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the Lake Victoria in
East Africa was :-

(1) Over-exploitation
(2) Co-extinction
(3) Alien-species invasion
(4) Habitat fragmentation

26) If A represents angiosperm while D represent fungi then C represents :-

(1) Fern & allies

(2) Algae
(3) Lichen
(4) Mosses
27) The highest number of species in the world is represented by :-

(1) Algae
(2) Lichens
(3) Fungi
(4) Mosses

28) Most diverse among vertebrates are :-

(1) Insects
(2) Fishes
(3) Birds
(4) Reptiles

29) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) For many taxonomic groups, species inventories are more complete in tropical than in temperate
countries.
(B) Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identification of microbial species.
(C) Speciation is generally a function of time.
(D) Most important cause of biodiversity loss is co-extinction.

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, C and D
(3) B and C
(4) B, C and D

30) Match the animal given in column-I with their place in column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Dodo (a) Africa

(ii) Quagga (b) Russia

(iii) Thylacine (c) Mauritius

(iv) Steller's sea cow (d) Australia

(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
(2) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(3) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

31)

An ecosystem has high resistance and high resilience for ecological pertubrations. The
characteristics of this ecosystem is/are :
(A) Constant productivity
(B) Small biomass
(C) High species diversity
(D) Niche generalisation
(E) Complex food web

(1) A, B, C and E
(2) A, C, D and E
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) A, C and E

32) Assertion :- Co-extinction is also one of the evil quartet about biodiversity loss.
Reason :- When a species become extinct, the plant and animal species, associated with it in
facultative way also become extinct.

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

33)

Drug obtained from the roots of Rauwolfia vomitoria is

(1) Reserpine
(2) Quinine
(3) Atropine
(4) Nicotine

34) Which among the following are exotic/alien species in India :-

(a) Parthenium hysterophorous
(b) Lantana camara
(c) Eichhornia crassipes
(d) Clarias gariepinus

(1) b,c,d only

(2) a,b,c only
(3) a,c only
(4) a,b,c,d

35) Which climatic factors are most important in regulating decomposition ?

(1) Temperature and soil moisture

(2) Light intensity and pH
(3) Cellulose and Lignin
(4) Cellulose and Nitrogen

36) Species inventories are more complete in which regions ?

(1) Tropical regions

(2) Temperate regions
(3) Desert regions
(4) Polar regions

37) Who estimated the global species diversity to be around 7 million :

(1) Edward wilson

(2) E.P. odum
(3) Robert may
(4) Gregor Mendel

38) Which country, located near the equator, has nearly 1400 species of birds ?

(1) India
(2) Newyork
(3) Colombia
(4) Greenland

39) Which of the following is not part of "The Evil Quartet" causing biodiversity loss ?

(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation

(2) Over exploitation
(3) Allen species invasions
(4) Climate change

40) Initially ______ biodiversity hot spots were identified globally which later increased to ______.

(1) 25, 9
(2) 34, 25
(3) 25, 12
(4) 25, 34

41) Which of the following is a narrowly utilitarin reason for conserving biodiversity ?

(1) Oxygen production

(2) Food and medicine
(3) Pollinators
(4) Aesthetic pleasure

42) The figure given below shows the structure of anther with its wall layers labelled (A), (B), (C)
and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function :-

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) only d

43) At the time of pollination in most of angiosperms :

(1) Pollen grains have two cells i.e., one vegetative cell and one generative cell
(2) Pollen grains have two male gametes
(3) Pollen grains have three cells i.e., one vegetative cell and two male gametes
(4) Pollen grain have one vegetative cell and one male gamete

44) Select the incorrect option ?

(1) A detail study of pollen grains is called palynology

(2) Pollen grains are generally spherical
(3) Diameter of pollen grains are 25-100 µm.
(4) The exine exhibits a fascinating arrays of pattern and designs.

45) Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct option.

List-I List-II

a. Funicle i. Small opening in ovule

b. Integuments ii. Stalk of ovule

c. Chalaza iii. Protective envelopes of ovule

 d. Hilum iv. Place of junction of ovule with stalk

e. Micropyle v. Basal part of ovule

(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - v, d - iv, e - i
(2) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - i, e - iii
(3) a - iii, b - v, c - i, d - ii, e - iv
(4) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - v, e - iv

46) Select the mismatched pair :

(1) Megasporangium - Ovule

(2) Microsporophyll-stamen
(3) Pollen grain - Male gamete
(4) Embryo sac - Female gametophyte

47) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) All the cells of the nucellus are differentiated, homogenous and meristematic
(2) The primary sporogenous cell directly acts as a megaspore mother cell.
(3) In most of the Angiosperm micropylar megaspore remains functional
(4) Seven of eight nuclei are surrounded by new cell walls and organised into cells

48) Identify A, B, C, D and E in given diagram.

A B C D E

Polar Central Antipodal

1 Synergids Egg cell
nuclei cell cells

Polar Central Antipodal

2 Synergids Egg cell
nuclei cell cells

Antipodal Polar Central

3 Egg cell Synergids
cells nuclei cell

Antipodal Polar Central

4 Egg cell Synergids
cells nuclei cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
49) How many meiosis & mitosis are needed for formation of one mature female gametophyte from
megaspore mother cell ?

(1) 1 Meiosis, 2 Mitosis

(2) 2 Meiosis, 2 Mitosis
(3) 2 Meiosis, 3 Mitosis
(4) 1 Meiosis, 3 Mitosis

50) Arrange the following events in correct sequence for the development of male gametophyte in
angiosperms :
(A) Formation of microspore mother cells.
(B) Meiosis to form microspore tetrads.
(C) Pollen grain with two male gametes.
(D) Pollen grain with generative and vegetative cells.
(E) Formation of microsporangium
Options :

(1) E → B → A → D → C
(2) E → A → B → D → C
(3) A → B → C → D → E
(4) D → C → E → B → A

51) In a typical polygonum type of embryo sac, the three antipodals are located at :

(1) Micropylar end

(2) Chalazal end
(3) Centre
(4) Attached to funicle

52) Statement-I :- In most of angiosperms, the embryo sac is formed from a single functional
megaspore.
Statement-II :- All four megaspores formed after meiosis contribute to embryo sac formation.
Options :

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

53) Assertion (A) :- Pollen grains are often preserved as fossils.

Reason (R) :- Pollen grains contain pectin and cellulose in their exine layer.
Options :

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) is correct explaination of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explaination of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
54) A typical angiosperm anther is :

(1) Monothecous and unilobed

(2) Bilobed and monothecous
(3) Bilobed and dithecous
(4) Tetralobed and dithecous

55) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Each pollen sac contains a single microspore mother cell that gives rise to pollen grains.
(B) Tetrad formation occurs during microsporogenesis but not during megasporogenesis.
(C) Megasporogenesis occurs in the nucellus of the ovule.
(D) A single megaspore mother cell is present in each ovule.
Options :

(1) A, B & C are correct

(2) B, C & D are correct
(3) A & B are correct
(4) C & D are correct

56) In cereals like rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within :

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 1 hour
(3) 30 seconds
(4) 30 hours

57) A section of an ovule in early embryo sac development shows four nuclei at each pole. What
process is about to occur ?

(1) First mitotic division

(2) Cell wall formation
(3) Migration of nuclei to centre
(4) Degeneration of antipodals

58) The bottled fruit juices bought from the market are clearer as compared to those made at home,
this is because the bottled juices are clarified by the use of:

(1) Pectinases
(2) Proteases
(3) Streptokinase
(4) Both (1) and (2)

59) Correctly match column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Statins (i) Streptococcus

 (B) Streptokinase (ii) Penicillium notatum

(C) Penicillin (iii) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(D) Ethanol (iv) Monascus purpureus

(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

60) Propionibacterium sharmanii is a prokaryote and it is used for the production of :

(1) Toddy
(2) Swiss cheese
(3) Clot buster
(4) Biogas

61) Match the items in ‘Column-A’ and ‘Column-B’ and choose the correct answer.

Column-A Column-B

(i) Lady bird (A) Methanobacterium

(ii) Mycorrhiza (B) Trichoderma

(iii) Biological control (C) Aphids

(iv) Biogas (D) Glomus

(1) i-B, ii-D, iii-C, iv-A
(2) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A
(3) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C
(4) i -C, ii-B, iii-A, iv-D

62) Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow spectrum applications. They
are employed as:

(1) Biogas production

(2) As Insecticidal in Integrated pest management
(3) Sewage treatment agents
(4) Biofertilizer

63) Assertion :- 'Cyclosporin A' produced by fungus Monascus purpureus is used during organ-
transplantation.
Reason :- Cyclosporin 'A' is a immunosppressive agent.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
64) Statement-I :- Streptokinase produced by the bacterium Staphylococcus and used as blood
'Clot buster'.
Statement-II :- Human beings are able to digest cellulose with the help of methanogens present in
stomach.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

65) Statement-I :- Bacillus thuringiensis is an example of microbial biocontrol agent that can be
used to control butterfly caterpillars.
Statement-II :- Ladybird beetle is an example of microbial biocontrol agent that are useful to get
rid of aphids.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

66) Statement-I : Whisky, brandy and rum are produced by distillation of the fermented broth.
Statement-II : Yeast is used for commercial production of citric acid.
Select the correct answer :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

67) Assertion : 'Swiss Cheese' have large holes.

Reason : During ripening of 'Swiss Cheese' large amount of CO2 is produced by a bacterium named
Propionibacterium Sharmanii.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

68) Maturation of proinsulin into insulin takes place after.

(1) Removal of C-peptide

(2) Removal of disulphide bridge
(3) Addition of C-peptide
(4) Removal of A-peptide

69) First clinical gene therapy was given in ___A___ to a 4-year old girl with __B___ deficiency :-
 A : 1990
(1)
B : Insulin
A : 1990
(2)
B : Adenosine deaminase
A : 2012
(3)
B : Tyrosine
A : 1960
(4)
B : Melanin

70) Given figure represents the maturation of pro-insulin into insulin. Identify the product P.

(1) Polypeptide chain A

(2) Polypeptide chain B
(3) Polypeptide chain C
(4) Polypeptide chain D

71) Read the following statements :-

(a) Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stress such as cold, drought, salt and heat
(b) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides
(c) Helped to reduce post harvest losses
(d) Increased efficiency of mineral uses by plants
How many statement correct for applications of GM crops :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

72) Read the following statements :-

(a) Nematode resistant plant is developed by novel strategy based on process of RNA interference
(RNAi).
(b) RNAi is eukaryotic cellular defence mechanism.
(c) RNAi involves silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary dsRNA.
(d) Transgenic host expressing two non-complementary RNAs that initiated RNAi.
Choose correct statements-

(1) only a, b
(2) only b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d

73) Match the following with their correct functions.

 Down stream It transform normal plant
(a) (i)
processing cells into tumor cells.

Here raw materials

are converted into
Agrobacterium
(b) (ii) specific products & it
tumeficians
provides optimal conditions
for achieving this.

Process includes separation

(c) Biopiracy (iii) & purification before product
is ready for marketing

Use of bioresources without

proper authrisation from
(d) Bioreactors (iv) countries and
people concerned and with
out compensatory payment.
(1) a – iii, b – i, c – iv , d – ii
(2) a – i, b – iii, c – ii , d – iv
(3) a – iii, b – i, c – ii , d – iv
(4) a – iii, b – iv, c – i , d – ii

74) A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule is allowed to hybridise to it
complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using

(1) Polymerase chain reaction

(2) Biolistic or gene gun
(3) Autroradiography
(4) DNA fingerprinting

75) An abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene. It is called :

(1) Gene therapy

(2) Cloning
(3) Mutation
(4) All the above

76) Transgenic animals are produced for which of the following purposes ?
(I) To study normal physiology & development
(II) To study diseases
(III) To obtain useful biological product
(IV) To test vaccine & chemical safety

(1) I and IV only

(2) II and IV only
(3) Only I
(4) All

77) Which of the following is produced by genetic engineered Brassica napus :-

(1) Insulin
(2) Hirudin
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Adenosine deaminase

78) The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of :

(1) IRRI
(2) KVIC
(3) IARI
(4) Both (2) and (3)

79)

Which one is not a biofertilizer ?

(1) Nostoc
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Agrobacterium
(4) Rhizobium

80)

Any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube under sterile, condition in special nutrient
media, is called :

(1) Callus
(2) Clone
(3) Adventitious tissue
(4) Explant

81) Which of the following is incorrect for epithelium ?

(1) Cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix

(2) It is highly vascularised
(3) It provides a covering or a lining for some parts of the body
(4) It helps in secretion and absorption

82) Cuboidal epithelial cells with microvilli are present in :-

(1) PCT of Nephron

(2) Bowman's capsule
(3) Thin part of Henle's loop
(4) Alveoli of lungs

83) Ciliated epithelial cells are known to occur in :-

(1) Eustachian tube and stomach
(2) Fallopian tube and bronchioles
(3) Fallopian tube and urethra
(4) Trachea and oesophagus.

84) Fill up the blanks by choosing correct combination of A, B, C and D :- 1. The ___A____is made
up of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
2. ___B____ gland secrete digestive enzyme
3. ___C____ provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
4. Cell junctions are found in ___D____ and other tissues.

(A)-Cuboidal epithelium, (B)-Endocrine,

(1)
(C)-Columnar epithelium, (D)-Connective tissue
(A)-Squamous epithelium, (B)-Exocrine,
(2)
(C)-Compound epithelium , (D)-Epithelial tissue
(A)-Columnar epithelium, (B)-Liver,
(3)
(C)-Epithelial tissue, (D)-Muscular tissue
(A)-Ciliated epithelium, (B)-Exocrine,
(4)
(C)-Connective tissue, (D)-Nervous tissue

85) Which of the following connective tissue connects skeletal muscles to bones :-

(1) Areolar connective tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

86) Find out incorrectly matched option.

(1) Microvilli – increase surface area for better absorption.

(2) Cilia – Move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium.
Gap junctions – facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm
(3)
of adjoining cells.
(4) Microvilli – Move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium.

87) Statement - A : The intercellular material of bone is hard, non pliable and does not resist
compression.
Statement - B : The intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable and resist compression.

(1) Statement A and B both are correct

(2) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct
(4) Statement A and B both are incorrect

88) Given below are two statements —

Statement I : Adipose tissue serves as a support framework for epithelium.
Statement II : In all connective tissue except blood the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins
called collagen or elastin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both statement - I and statement - II are incorrect

(2) Statement - I is correct but statement - II is incorrect
(3) Statement - I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement - I and statement - II are correct

89) Assertion (A) : Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue.

Reason (R) : Cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a solid ground substance in areolar tissue.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) incorrect.

90) Given below two statement A and R, find out the correct statement.
Assertion (A): Endocrine glands products called hormones and secreted directly into the fluids
bathing the gland.
Reason (R): Endocrine glands does not have ducts.

(1) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect

(2) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
(3) Assertion and Reason both are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are correct and R is not correct explanation of A.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 3 1 4 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 3 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 3 2 4 3 2 4 2 3 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 4 3 4 2 2 1 4 2 2 2 4 1 1 3 4 2 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 4 1 3 2 3 1 4 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 3 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 2 3 1 4 3 3 4 4 4 3 1 4 3 3 3 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 4 1 1 4 1 2 3 3 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 3 4 1 3 4 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 1 2 3 4 3 1 3 1 4 2 4 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 2 2 3 4 1 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
β = density = ML–3

Now, MLT–2 =
Now, [αβ] = M3L–5T–2

2)

n1u1 = n2u2

n1 =

3) Pitch (p) = = 0.5 mm

Least count (LC) =

= = 0.005 mm
In fig (1) – No measurement:
There is a Negative zero error
ZE = – 4, CSD = –4 × 0.005 mm = –0.02 mm
In fig (2) – During measurement :
MSR = 4 pitch = 4 × 0.5 mm = 2 mm
CSR = 55 CSD = 55 × 0.005 mm
= 0.275 mm
Final Reading = 2 mm + 0.275 mm – (–0.02 mm)
= 2.295 mm

4) Rs = R1 + R2
Rs = (R1 + R2) ± (ΔR1 + ΔR2)
Rs = (5 + 10) ± (0.2 + 0.1)
Rs = (15 ± 0.3) Ω
or Rs = (15 ± 2%) Ω
5) (a) The given quantity is 0.007 m2.
Thus, the number of significant figure is 1.
(b) The given quantity is 2.64 × 1024 kg. Thus, the number of significant figure is 3.
(c) The given quantity is 0.0021 g cm–3
Thus, the number of significant figure is 2.
(d) The number of significant figure in the quantity 0.0006032 J is 4.

6)

PV – Pb + = RT

7)

f0 = 80 cm
fe = 5 cm
ℓ = f0 + fe = 85 cm

8)
R = 0.667 m

9)

Apparent depth of the object =

Distance of object from the mirror =

= 40cm
Similarly, distance of image from the mirror

=
For concave mirror, u = –40cm or v = –33.8cm
Applying mirror formula,

=
⇒ f = –18.3 cm

10) Using lens formula for objective lens

0
⇒ = ⇒ v = 50 cm
Tube length ℓ = |v0| + fe = 50 + 4 = 54 cm.

11) Pnet = P1 + P2 = 10 – 5 = 5D

focal length (f) =

m = +2 ; m = ⇒2=
⇒ 40 + 2 u = 20;
⇒ u = –10 cm

12) µ1 sinθ1 = µ2 sinθ2 = µ3 sinθ3

µg sini = µw sinr = µa sin 90°

µg sini = 1 × sin 90° ⇒ µg =

13) Diameter = 2r = m

14)

15) A2 = ; A2 = = 3°

16) Apparent depth

17) µ2 > µ1 the upper half of the lens will become diverging.
µ1 > µ3 the lower half of the lens will become converging.

18)

Theory based

19)
20)

Imax =

=
= 9I

Imin =

=
=I

21) Here, three optical phenomena take place – first refraction, then reflection, and finally
refraction.
For refraction at 1st

⇒v=∞

i.e., rays after refraction get parallel to axis and strike the mirror normally, get retraced back
and the final image is formed at the same place where the object is and of the same size.
Image would be real.

22)

Theory based

23) Distance between successive wave fronts is wavelength λ, so net path difference is 3λ.

Time Taken =

24)

25)

If B0 = 2 then
B1 = B2
26)

⇒
∴ B 1 = B2
so

27)
Here
So, Fm = 0

28)

29)

30)

31)

W.D. = 0
ΔKE. = 0
KE = constant

32) NCERT, Pg. # 144

33)
34)

35)

36)
θ = 60°

= V0

37)

Planes of Helmoltz coils should be perpendicular to each other.

38)

39)

40) Explain question: What will happen to resistance if it's length and radius both will
doubled.
Concept: This question is based on electrical resistance.

Solution: Material same ⇒ r unchanged

, So, option (1)

Final Answer: Option 1 is correct.

41) When battery is connected to external resistance

⇒ r = 2Ω
When terminals of battery are connected directly
i = 4/2 = 2A

42) I = neAVd

Vd =

43) ⇒ R1 + 10 = R2 ....(i)

⇒ 3R1 = 2R2 ....(ii)

R1 + 10 = ⇒ R1 = 20 Ω

44)

100 × 10 = 90 S ⇒ S =

45) R1 = R01 (1+αΔT)

R2 = R02(1 –β.ΔT)
Rseries = R1 + R2
= R01 + (R01α – R02β)ΔT + R02
Not depend on temprature
 R01α – R02β = 0 ⇒

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

48)

A. AgNO₃ (aq) with Ag electrodes

Ag electrodes are reactive (non-inert)
Cathode: Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag (Ag deposited)
Anode: Ag (from electrode) → Ag⁺ + e⁻ (Ag dissolves)
No gas produced
→ Match: r, s
B. AgNO₃ (aq) with Pt electrodes (inert)
Cathode: Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag (Ag deposited)
Anode: NO₃⁻ not discharged easily → H₂O oxidized
2H₂O → O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻ (O₂ formed)
H₂ not produced, O₂ formed
→ Match: r, p
C. Dilute H₂SO₄ with Pt electrodes
Cathode: 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂ (H₂ produced)
Anode: 2H₂O → O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻ (O₂ produced)
→ Match: p, q

D CuCl₂ (aq) with Pt electrodes

Cathode: Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu (Cu deposited)

Anode: Cl⁻ → ½Cl₂ + e⁻ (Cl₂ gas evolved)

No H₂ or O₂
→ Match: s

Correct Matching

A → r, s

B → r, p

C → p, q

D→s
Now check options:Option 4:
A–r,s | B–r,p | C–p,q | D–s D:
Final Answer Option 4

49)

Electrolytic cell and Nernst equation

50)

In lead storage battery principle of discharging is based on electrochemical cell and charging
process is based on principle of electrolytic cell.

51)

second law of Faraday

52) W =

W= =2.3 gm

53)

Rate of ESR ∝ No. of α – H (Hyperconjugation)

54)

Due to deactivating group.

55)

Question Explanation: The question asks to choose the correct statement(s) regarding the
possibility of Friedel-Crafts reactions in benzene and all substituted benzenes.

Concept : Friedel-Crafts Reaction (Alkylation/Acylation), Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution

(EAS), Activating and Deactivating groups, Lewis acid complexation.

Solution : Let's evaluate each statement:

Statement-I : Benzene gives Friedel Craft Reaction.

Correct. Benzene readily undergoes both Friedel-Crafts alkylation and acylation as a suitable
EAS substrate.

Statement-II : All substituted benzene give Friedel Craft reaction.

Incorrect. Friedel-Crafts reactions fail with strongly deactivating groups (e.g., -NO₂) because
 they make the ring too electron-poor. They also fail with very strongly activating groups (e.g., -
NH₂, -OH) due to strong complexation with the Lewis acid (AlCl₃).D)
Final answer : The correct option is 2. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

56) Explain Question – Major product of the reaction is :

Concept – This question based on ESR, chlorination.
Solution –

A. −OCH3 is +M and −CH2CH3 is +H group. −OCH3 is more activating and the incoming
electrophile Cl+ is attached at the ortho position wrt −OCH3 (as para position is occupied).

Final Answer – Option (2)

57) Substituents which make ring more reactive (All +M, +H, +Ι groups) than benzene are
activating groups.

58)

59)
It is electrophilic substitution reaction and is electrophile in this reaction.

60) SN1 reaction rate ∝ stability of carbocation ∝ leaving ability of group

61)
Stereoisomer = 2n–1 + 2n/2 –1
= 22–1 + 22/2 –1
0
= 21 + 2
=2+1=3

62)
F is bad leaving group

63)

Wurtz reaction

64) Steric hindrance in Neo-pentyl halide.

65)

In SN2 reaction, carbocation does not form.

66)

Most highly ionized in water is more acidic.

Acidic strength

67)

68) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about Which of the following not give CO2 gas with NaHCO3 ?

Concept :
This question is based on salt displacement reaction - Strong acid anhydr. displace whether
acid salt. NaHCO3 is react with these acid which are more acidic than H2CO3.
Solution :

(1) * more acidic than H2CO3. * give CO2 gas with NaHCO3.

(2) * less acidic than H2CO3. * not gives CO2 gas with NaHCO3.

(3) * More acidic than H2CO3. * give CO2 gas with NaHCO3

(4) * More acidic than H2CO3. * give CO2 gas with NaHCO3.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

69)

Basic strength : localised > delocalised

order lone pair lone pair

70)

→ If any specie attached directly to a conjugated system contains lone pair then they donate e⁻
s to conjugated system due to Resonance and are called as :- +M groups.
→ If any specie attached directly to conjugated system is in the form of X = Y OR X ≡ Y & E.N
of Y > X then they withdraw e⁻ s from conjugated system and are called as :- -M groups.
→ If any species attached to non conjugated system having E.N greater then carbon then they
are called as :- -I group.
→ If any species attached to non-conjugated system having E.N less then carbon then they are
called as :- +I group.

∴ :- –Ⅰ & + M

:- –Ⅰ & –M
–CH2–CH3 :- +I

:- –I

71) Question Explanation:

Correct order of acidic strength of given compounds.

Concept: Acidic Strength a stabilifyed conjugated base

 Solution:

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

Orthoeffect strongestfied.

Final Answer (2)

72) It have as well as alpha hydrogen.

73)

Stability of free radical ∝ Resonance > +H > +I

74)

Bond length ∝ single bond character

75)

Acidic strength ∝ stability of conjugate base.

A.

B. : equal resonance

C. (phenoxide ion)

D.
E. Unequal resonance in phenoxide ion.
F. So, Acetic acid is more acidic than phenol.
G. Assertion is true & reason is false.
76)

77)

Both correct Statement of E-effect.

78)
Activating group become deactivating group

79)
E, Reaction

80)

NCERT XII Pg. NO # 297

81)

Question Explanation :
Electrolytic conduction is due to movement of which particles.

Concept :
This question is based on Electrolytic conduction.

Solution :
Electrolyte's aq. solution consist of contains and anions charse particles which are free to
more ; so ions are responsible for the electrolytic conduction.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : ions

82) Ecell =

1.72 = 1.68 –
83)

Fe2 (SO4)3 —→ 2Fe+3 +

n-factor = 6

84)

= 0.40 –(0.03 × log 5)

= 0.40 – 0.02
= 0.38

85) E°cell = log K

= log [4 × 1015]
= 0.46 V

86) On electrolysis of KI aqueous solution with Pt. electrode

At cathode
2H2O + 2e⊖ → H2 + OH–
At Anode
2I– → I2 + 2e–
[OH–] increases ∴ pH↑ = pOH↓

87) H2 → 2H° Cl2 → 2Cl–

H2 + Cl2 → 2H+ + 2Cl–

88) Ag+ + → Ag, Cu2+ + → Cu

Fe2+ + → Fe

Gram of Ag liberated =

Gram of Cu liberated =
Gram of Fe liberated =

89)

A. 20 g of Ca from molten CaCl2

A. Molar mass of Ca = 40 g/mol

B. Number of moles of Ca = 20/40 = 0.5 moles

C. Reaction: Ca2++2e−→Ca

D. Charge required = 0.5×2F=1F

E. Matches with (b)

B. 1 mole of H2 from H2O

A. Reaction: 2H2​O+2e−→H2​+2OH−

B. For 1 mole of H2, 2 moles of e– required → Charge = 2F

C. Matches with (c)

C. 1 mole of O2 from H2O

A. Reaction: 2H2​O→O2​+4H++4e−

B. For 1 mole of O2, 4 moles of e– required → Charge = 4F

C. Matches with (d)

D. 0.5 g equivalent Al from Al2O3

A. Equivalent weight of Al = 9 g (as valency = 3, molar mass = 27 g/mol)

B. 0.5 g equivalent Al = (0.5/9) moles

 C. Charge required per equivalent = 1F

D. Charge required = (0.5/9)×9F=0.5F

E. Matches with (a)

Answer Option 1, ( i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a).

90)
Charge required for reduction of 1 mol to Cr+3 is = 6 mol e– = 6F
∴ for 0.1 mol charge required = 0.6 F
= 0.6 × 96500
= 57900 C

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT (XII) Page no. 122

92)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 113

93)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 117

94)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 116

95) NCERT Pg. # 123

96)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 111, 112, 113, 119

97)

Module-7, Page No. 172

98) NCERT Pg # 124, 125

99)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 116

100) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 115

101)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 116, 117

102) NCERT Pg#116

103)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 118

104) NCERT XII Pg # 113

105)

Module-7 ; Page No. # 195

106)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 122, 123

107)

NCERT XII, Pg # 122

108)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 120, 121

109) NCERT Pg. # 113

110) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 118

111)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 119

112) NCERT Pg.# 114-115

113)

NCERT-XII ; Page No. 120, 121

114)

Module-7 ; Page No. 176 (Chart)

115)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 265, 2nd para

116)

NCERT XII Pg. # 260 Figure # 15.1, 218

117)

Explanations : The number of fungi species in the world is more than the combined total
species of Fishes, Amphibia reptiles and mammals.

118)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 218

119) NCERT Pg. # 259, 260, 261

120) NCERT XII Pg. # 263

121)

NCERT Pg. # 221

122)

NCERT-XII Pg#223

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves biodiversity loss and the phenomenon of co-
extinction. The "evil quartet" describes four major causes of biodiversity loss, one of which is
co-extinction-where the extinction of one species leads to the extinction of another species that
depends on it, typically through obligate associations rather than facultative ones.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the "evil quartet" includes habitat destruction, over-exploitation,
invasive species, and co-extinction. Also, understand co-extinction primarily involves obligate
dependent species.
Common Mistakes: Assuming all species related to an extinct species will also go extinct
regardless of dependency type. Confusing facultative relationships with obligate ones.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choosing that both statements are true or that the
reason correctly explains the assertion is wrong because co-extinction involves obligate
relationships, not facultative ones as stated in the reason.

123)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 259

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 223

125) NCERT-XII, Pg # 208

126) NCERT-XII, Pg # 217

127) NCERT-XII, Pg # 217

128) NCERT-XII, Pg # 219

129) NCERT-XII, Pg # 222-223

130) NCERT-XII, Pg # 224

131) NCERT-XII, Pg # 223

132) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 5,6

133) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 7

134) NCERT, Pg. # 7

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 9

136) NCERT, Pg. # 6,9

137) NCERT, Pg. # 9, 10, 11

138) NCERT, Pg. # 10

139)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 9, 10

140) NCERT-XII, Pg # 6, 7

141) NCERT-XII, Pg # 11

142) NCERT-XII, Pg # 10

143) NCERT-XII, Pg # 7

144) NCERT-XII, Pg # 5

145) NCERT-XII, Pg # 5,6,9,10

146) NCERT-XII, Pg # 8

147) NCERT-XII, Pg # 11

148)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 153, Para 8.2.3

149) NCERT-XII, Pg # 182,183

150)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 151, Para 8.1

151)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 186, 187

152)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 157

153) NCERT XII Page No. 153

154)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 153, 155

155) NCERT, Pg. # 157

156) NCERT, Pg. # 152,153

157) NCERT Page No. 181 (E), 199 (H)

158)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182, Figure 10.3

159)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

160)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182, Figure 10.3

161)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how many of the given statements correctly describe
applications of genetically modified (GM) crops. The statements relate to benefits such as
stress tolerance, pest control, post-harvest loss reduction, and nutrient use efficiency.

Underlying Concept: Genetically modified (GM) crops are plants whose genetic material has
been altered using biotechnology to express desirable traits. These traits can improve crop
resilience to environmental stresses, reduce dependency on chemical pesticides, enhance
storage life, and optimize nutrient utilization. Understanding these applications helps assess
the correctness of each statement.

Tips and Tricks: Recall examples of GM crops and their key benefits: Bt cotton for pest
resistance, Golden Rice for nutrient enhancement, and drought-tolerant varieties for stress
tolerance to confirm applicability of each statement.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to assume GM crops only provide pest resistance;
in fact, their applications are broader, including abiotic stress tolerance and nutrient use
efficiency.
 Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: N/A since all statements are correct.

162)

NCERT Pg. # 180

(a) Nematode-resistant plants are developed using RNA interference (RNAi).
(b) RNAi is a eukaryotic cellular defense mechanism.
(c) RNAi silences specific mRNA using complementary dsRNA.

163)

Explanation:

A. (a) Downstream processing: This involves the separation and purification of raw materials
before the product is ready for marketing, which corresponds to (iii),
B. (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens: This bacterium transfers DNA into plant cells and is known for
causing tumors, so it corresponds to (i).
C. (c) Biopiracy: This involves using bioresources without proper authorization from the countries
or people concerned, which corresponds to (iv).
D. (d) Bioreactors: These provide optimal conditions for converting raw materials into specific
products, which corresponds to (ii).

164) Solution:
autoradiography is a technique used to detect radioactive molecules. a single stranded DNA or
RNA molecule, tagged with a radioactive label can be allowed to hybridize (bind) to its
complementary DNA. After this hybridization, autoradiography can be used to visualize and
detect the radioactive signal. This method involves exposing a photographic film or a phosphor
screen to the radioactive sample. The radiation from the radioactive label exposes the film,
producing an image that can be analyzed.

Hence,
Correct option: (3)

165)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

166)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 183, 184, Para 10.3

167)

Module-10, Pg. # 28
The gene encoding hirudin was chemically synthesized and transferred into Brassica napus
where hirudin accumulates in seeds.
168) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 156

169)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 158

170)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 178

171)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

172) NCERT XIth Pg # 101, last para

173) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

174) NCERT (Eng.) Pg. # 101, 102

175) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 102

176) NCERT XI, Page # 101, 102

177) NCERT- Pg. # 104, 105

178)

NCERT-XI Pg#103

179)

NCERT-XI Pg#103

180) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 102