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Hrd Multiple Choice Question

1. External forces impacting employee behavior include all of the following except?
a. KSA's
b. Technology developments
c. Government laws
d. Economic conditions

2. Internal forces impacting employee behavior include all of the following except?
a. Supervisors
b. Co-workers
c. Global influences
d. The organizational reward structure

3. Downsizing.
a. Is not very common among large companies
b. Was a trend of the 1950's but not seen often today
c. Usually causes a large jump in profits and stock price
d. Is a voluntary reduction in the overall size of the workforce

4. A personal outcome of employee behavior would include:

a. Downsizing
b. Pay and recognition
c. Teamwork
d. Productivity

5. An organizational outcome of employee behavior would include:

a. Downsizing
b. Pay
c. Productivity
d. Recognition

6. In expectancy theory, the importance that an individual places upon a particular outcome is
called a(n):
a. instrumentality
b. valence
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c. expectancy
d. extrinsic motivation

7. According to social learning theory, self-efficacy is defined as a person's beliefs:

a. about their ability to successfully perform a particular task or activity
b. about their overall worth or sense of value
c. that performing a particular task will lead to a given outcome
d. that the cause of their behavior is something external to themselves

8. Which motivation theory suggests that people compare the outcomes they received to the
outcomes received by others?
a. equity theory
b. attribution theory
c. goal-setting theory
d. expectancy theory

9. A person's general feeling of favorableness or unfavorable toward some object is the

definition of a(n):
a. ability
b. outcome
c. motivation
d. attitude

10. The motivational theories by Maslow and Alderfer are examples of what type of motivational
approach?
a. cognitive
b. meta-analytic
c. non-cognitive
d. need-based

11. The idea that a supervisor's (or trainer's) expectations for an employee (or trainee) can
influence the employee's (or trainee's) behavior is referred to as the:
a. Pygmalion effect
b. vertical-dyad-linkage theory
c. path-goal theory
d. Groupthink theory

12. The following are factors in the work environment that affect an employee's behavior
EXCEPT:
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a. supervision
b. coworkers
c. organizational design
d. outcomes

13. Organizational Citizenship Behaviors (OCB) is:

a. Also called task performance
b. Never a job-related behavior
c. Required behavior by most organizations
d. Contribute to organizational effectiveness

14. According to the text an organization can influence employee behavior in the following ways
EXCEPT:
a. bonus pay
b. culture
c. laws and regulations
d. job design

15. Behavior modification principles suggest four choices for controlling an employee's
behavior. These include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. positive reinforcement
b. termination
c. extinction
d. negative reinforcement

16. In terms of salesperson's knowledge, skills and abilities, which of the following task would
be considered ability?
a. technical troubleshooting
b. "cold calling"
c. developing relationships
d. audiovisual expertise

17. Internal forces that impact employee behavior:

a. Organizational culture
b. Performance expectations
c. Job design
d. All of the above impact employee behavior

18. Downsizing is:

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a. When one company buys another

b. When two companies merge their operations
c. When an employees work load is reduced by hiring more employees
d. When a company reduced the size of the work force

19. Employee behavior at work is not influenced by:

a. Coworkers
b. Political issues outside work
c. The organization reward structure
d. The supervisor one works for

20. Reinforcement theory deals mainly with:

a. Trainability
b. Reward and punishment
c. Intrinsic motivation
d. The need of social belonging

21. The concept of the self-fulfilling prophecy is also called:

a. Pygmalion effect
b. Self efficacy
c. Instrumentality
d. Valence

22. The self-fulfilling prophecy means that:

a. What you see is what you get
b. A picture is worth 1000 words
c. If you value the reward you will work hard
d. The supervisors expectations can impact employee behavior

23. The organization impacts employee behaviors based on:

a. The type, distribution and criteria for rewarding people
b. How much money a person makes compared to others
c. Whether or not there is a bonus
d. Pay has not impact on employee behaviors

24. According to path-goal theory of leadership motivation and job satisfaction will be high if:
a. The leader identifies the goals and clarifies the paths employees can take to reach these
goals.
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b. The leader identifies the goals and lets the employees seek their own path to reach these
goals.
c. The leader lets the employee identify their own goals and then ignores their efforts
d. None of the above are true

25. Organization culture is:

a. Illegal to talk about
b. Of no interest to training and development
c. A set of values, beliefs and patterns of behaviors that are shared by members of the
organization
d. A factor only for management level employees

26. Job design is:

a. Not important in the way employees behave
b. A function of the tasks one performs and the scope of responsibilities
c. Done by HR Designers only once each year
d. The way the employee performs the job

27. Groupthink means that:

a. People are grouped at work by their IQ
b. People in groups usually seek unanimity
c. Groups spend more time thinking than doing
d. It actually does not exist as a concept

28. Organizational rewards:

a. Includes only things like pay and benefits
b. Has no impact on employee behavior
c. Includes pay and intangible things like recognition.
d. Work most effectively when they are used as control mechanisms

29. A norm is best defined as:

a. A part of company policy
b. An informal rule for appropriate behavior with a group
c. A written policy for behavior
d. Something each employees makes up for themselves

30. Social loafing:

a. Increases as group size increases
b. Goes down as the group gets smaller
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c. Is a tendency of members to reduce performance

d. All of the above are true

31. Maslow's need theory of motivation:

a. Contains 2 factors
b. Contains 5 categories of needs
c. Focuses on existence, relatedness and growth
d. None of the above are true

32. Herzberg's theory of motivation:

a. Contains 2 factors - hygiene and motivator factors
b. Contains 5 categories of needs
c. Focuses on existence, relatedness and growth
d. None of the above are true

33. Alderfer's theory of motivation:

a. Contains 2 factors - hygiene and motivator factors
b. Contains 5 categories of needs
c. Focuses on existence, relatedness and growth
d. None of the above are true

34. Motivation focuses on all of the following processes affecting behavior except:
a. Energizing
b. Direction
c. Cohesiveness
d. Persistence

35. Goals setting theory:

a. Is well supported by research
b. Works only for some employees
c. Has no role in training
d. Works only if the goals are easy to achieve

36. According to Social Learning Theory a person's self-efficacy expectations will determine:
a. Whether or not they will do the task correctly
b. How much effort a person will spend on a task
c. The size of the reward they expect
d. Whether or not they like doing the task
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37. Which is the correct sequence of events according to Behavior modeling theory?
a. Let them see a model, tell the trainee what to do practice, feedback and social
reinforcement
b. Tell the trainee what to do, let them see a model, practice, feedback and social
reinforcement
c. Tell the trainee what to do, let them see a model, feedback, practice and social
reinforcement
d. Tell the trainee what to do, let them see a model, social reinforcement, practice and
feedback

38. The behavioral intentions model:

a. Explains why attitudes always predict actual behaviors
b. Impact behavior only to the extent that they influence one's intentions
c. Is the best way to evaluate a training program
d. Has no link to employee's intentions to use what they learn during a training program.

39. Abilities
a. Are a combination of what you can do and what you have learned over time
b. Reflects what you have been trained to do
c. Are an understanding you have of a particular subject
d. Are a general capacity to perform a task

40. A major goal of HRD efforts includes all except:

a. Stay within budget
b. Help employees attain their goals
c. Improve organizational performance
d. Change employee behavior
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1) A set of systematic and planned activities designed by an organization to provide its

members with the necessary skills to meet current and future job demands is:
a) Organization design
b) Organization development
c) Human resource development
d) Human resource planning

2) What do most HRD efforts focus on?

a) recruitment
b) learning
c) communication
d) policy and procedure

3) The largest HRD professional organization is:

a) IPMA
b) TDAPHR
c) SHRM
d) ATD

4) The origins of HRD can be traced to which of the following?

a) factory schools
b) universities
c) apprenticeship training programs
d) Boston's first technical school

5) A 'yeomen' is a person who:

a) sails a ship
b) has not been admitted to an apprentice program as yet
c) has mastered a few skills
d) has mastered all the apprentice skills

6) The first privately funded vocational school in the U.S. was founded by:
a) Jon Werner
b) DeWitt Clinton
c) George Washington
d) Donald Kirkpatrick

7) The first privately funded vocational school in the U.S. was founded to:
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a) train university graduates in a skill

b) train the sons of wealthy people
c) train new managers in machine operation
d) provide occupational training to young people who were unemployed or had criminal
records

8) A main distinction between training and development is that developmental activities are
generally:
a) more focused on specific job skills
b) less expensive than training activities
c) becoming less common as organizations deal with their changing business environment
d) more focused on long-term or future responsibilities

9) OJT stands for

a) On the job training
b) On the job technique
c) On the job technology
d) Off the job training

10) The role of the HRD professional involved in an organizational development intervention is
generally to function as a (n):______________
a) observer
b) change agent
c) evaluator
d) administrator

11) Supervisors play________________

a) a critical role in implementing HRD programs and processes
b) no role in implementing HRD programs and processes
c) least important role in implementing HRD programs and processes
d) none of above

12) In need assessment, trainer should know:

a) Where training is needed
b) What kinds of training are needed
c) Who needs to be trained
d) All of theses

13) Setting objective of HRD program must includes_____________________

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a) Performance, conditions and criteria

b) Performance, conditions and trainer
c) Performance, disorders and criteria
d) None of these

14) Setting objective of HRD program includes all of the following except:
a) Performance
b) Conditions
c) Competitors
d) Criteria

15) A need can be either:

a) a current deficiency, or a new challenge
b) a future deficiency, or new challenge
c) a past deficiency, or new challenge
d) none of above

16) Identifying needs involves examining______________

a) the organization
b) its environment
c) job tasks, and employee performance
d) all of above

17) Need assessment information can be used to:

a) Establish priorities for expanding HRD efforts
b) Define specific training and HRD objectives
c) Establish evaluation criteria
d) All of above

18) Less plan for HRD program is developed at:

a) Need assessment phase
b) Design phase
c) Implementation phase
d) Evaluation phase

19) The objectives of HRD program are defined at:

a) Need assessment phase
b) Design phase
c) Implementation phase
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d) Evaluation phase

20) Trainer to deliver HRD program is selected at:

a) Need assessment phase
b) Design phase
c) Implementation phase
d) Evaluation phase

21) Appropriate method to deliver HRD program is selected at:

a) Need assessment phase
b) Design phase
c) Implementation phase
d) Evaluation phase

22) The scheduling of HRD program is performed at:

a) Need assessment phase
b) Design phase
c) Implementation phase
d) Evaluation phase

23) Factors to consider before purchasing an HRD program include all of the following except:
a) Level of expertise available/required
b) Timeliness
c) Number of trainees and cost
d) Competitors

24) When a trainer is selected to deliver HRD program, following characteristic(s) must be
focused:
a) Training competencies and Subject Matter Expertise
b) Training competencies and age
c) Training competencies and educational background
d) Training competencies and gender

25) If no subject-matter experts are available, then____________

a) Use a team to train
b) Use programmed instruction or CBT
c) Train your trainers
d) All of above
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26) While selecting training methods, following should be considered except:

a) Program objectives and resources availability
b) Time and money available
c) Trainee characteristics and preferences
d) The gender of trainer

27) Training Materials include:

a) Program announcements and program outlines
b) Training manuals and textbooks
c) Training aids
d) All of above

28) Scheduling of training must be done in conjunction with:

a) Production schedulers
b) Shift supervisors and work supervisors
c) Trainees
d) All of above

29) Active practice suggests that:

a) Learners should be given an opportunity to repeatedly perform the task or use the knowledge
learned.
b) Learners should not be given an opportunity to repeatedly perform the task or use the
knowledge learned.
c) Learners should be given an opportunity to perform the task or use the knowledge learned
only once.
d) None of above

30) Over-learning is:

a) Practicing beyond the point at which the material or task is mastered.
b) Practicing less the learned material or task
c) Practicing regularly the learned material or task
d) None of above.

31) Over-learning:
a) Increases tension
b) Increases retention
c) Decreases retention
d) All of above
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32) Knowledge of results, or feedback, provides:

a) objective information regarding employee performance
b) subjective information regarding employee performance
c) information regarding employee personal life
d) none of above

33) Factors from the work environment influence the employee behavior include all of the
following except:
a) Outcomes
b) Supervisions and coworkers
c) Organization
d) Economics conditions

34) Organizational culture is an example of _________________ that influences employee

behavior.
a) Factor in the work environment
b) Factor in the external environment
c) Employee related factor
d) None of above

35) The field of HRD has a strong focus on:

a) Employee attitude
b) Employee personality
c) Employee behavior
d) Employee emotions

36) Downsizing refers to actions on the part of organizations

a) to increase the overall size of their workforce
b) to reduce the overall size of their workforce
c) to hire the new employees
d) to send the employees on a foreign assignment

37) Factors from the external environment include all of the following except:
a) Organizational polices
b) The general state of the economy
c) Governmental laws and regulations
d) Technological issues

38) Maslow’s need hierarchy lists:

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a) Two levels of needs

b) Three levels of needs
c) Four levels of needs
d) Five levels of needs

39) Herzberg’s two factor theory stats that people have_______________________

a) two sets of basic needs
b) three sets of basic needs
c) four sets of basic needs
d) five sets of basic needs

40) Which of the following is a need based theory?

a) Expectancy theory
b) ERG Theory
c) Equity theory
d) None of the above

41) What does "E", "R" and "G" stand for in the ERG theory?
a) Export, Risk and Guarantee
b) Exponential, Reliability and Growth
c) Existence, Relatedness and Growth
d) None of the above

42) Which of the following is a cognitive process theory?

a) Expectancy theory
b) ERG Theory
c) Two-factor theory
d) None of the above

43) Which of the following is a non-cognitive theory?

a) Expectancy theory
b) ERG theory
c) Reinforcement theory
d) None of the above

44) Attitudes tend to be

a) Unstable over time and are easy to change.
b) Stable over time and are difficult to change.
c) Stable over time and are ease to change.
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d) None of the above

45) KSA refers to:

a) Knowledge, Skills, and Abilities
b) Knowledge, Service, and Abilities
c) Knowledge, Strengths, and Abilities
d) Knowledge, Support, and Abilities

46) Needs Analysis is performed at ____________ levels.

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

47) ______analysis reveal where the organization training is needed and under what conditions it
will occur.
a) Industry
b) Task
c) Strategic/organizational
d) Person

48) ______analysis explains what must be done to perform a job or complete a process
successfully.
a) Strategic/organizational
b) Task
c) Person
d) Industry

49) _____analysis reveals who needs to be trained, and what kind of training he/she need.
a) Strategic/organizational
b) Task
c) Person
d) Industry

50) A job analysis is a __________ study of a job to identify its major components.
a) General
b) Descriptive
c) Qualitative
d) Systematic
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51) The most popular and influential framework for evaluating training was developed by:
a) Goldstein
b) Kirkpatrick
c) Phillips
d) Brinkerhoff

52) Content to be covered, activity sequence, training media, exercises, and the timing of each
activity are considered parts of a:
a) training outline
b) training schedule
c) evaluation plan
d) lesson plan

53) All of the following are factors to consider before purchasing an HRD program EXCEPT:
a) registration issues
b) expertise
c) subject matter
d) cost

54) Which of the following is NOT a key activity in designing an HRD program?
a) Setting objectives
b) Developing a lesson plan
c) Selecting the trainer
d) Determining a budget

55) When scheduling an HRD program during work hours trainers should consider which of the
following:
a) the day of week
b) the time of day
c) peak work hours constraints
d) all of the above

56) In expectancy theory, the importance that an individual places upon a particular outcome is
called
a) Expectancy
b) Valance
c) Instrumentality
d) Valance and instrumentality
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57) According to social learning theory, self-efficacy is defined as a person's beliefs about
________
a) Their ability to perform a job
b) Others ability to perform a job
c) Group ability to perform a job
d) World

58) A personal outcome of employee behavior would include:

a) Downsizing
b) Pay and recognition
c) Teamwork
d) Productivity

59) An organizational outcome of employee behavior would include:

a) Downsizing
b) Pay
c) Productivity
d) Recognition

60) Which motivation theory suggests that people compare the outcomes they received to the
outcomes received by others?
a) equity theory
b) attribution theory
c) goal-setting theory
d) expectancy theory

61) Reinforcement theory deals mainly with:

a) trainability
b) rewards and punishment
c) intrinsic motivation
d) the need for social belonging

62) A person's general feeling of favorableness or unfavorable toward some object is the
definition of a(n):
a) ability
b) outcome
c) motivation
d) attitude
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63) The motivational theories by Maslow and Alderfer are examples of what type of motivational
approach?
a) cognitive
b) meta-analytic
c) non-cognitive
d) need-based

64) The idea that expectations of a supervisor (or trainer) for an employee (or trainee) can
influence the behavior of employee (or trainee) is referred to as the:
a) Pygmalion effect
b) vertical-dyad-linkage theory
c) path-goal theory
d) Groupthink theory

65) The following are factors in the work environment that affect the behavior of an employee
EXCEPT:
a) supervision
b) coworkers
c) organizational design
d) outcomes

66) The concept of the self-fulfilling prophecy is also called:

a) Pygmalion effect
b) Self -efficacy
c) Instrumentality
d) Valence

67) Organization culture is:

a) Illegal to talk about
b) Of no interest to training and development
c) A set of values, beliefs and patterns of behaviors that are shared by members of the
organization
d) A factor only for management level employees

68) Motivation focuses on all of the following processes affecting behavior except:
a) Energizing
b) Direction
c) Cohesiveness
d) Persistence
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69) Dynamic media would include:

a) Overheads.
b) CD-ROMs.
c) Handouts.
d) Power points

70) A common example of self-paced training is:

a) Listening to a lecture.
b) Driving a car.
c) Flying an airplane.
d) Computer training.

71) Which of the following is true about on the job training (OJT)?
a) It is rarely used.
b) It involves going to an off work location.
c) It is done only by professional trainers.
d) It involves training at a trainee's regular work station.

72) Trainee characteristics and preferences include:

a) Trainee educational level.
b) Trainee readiness and target population diversity.
c) Trainee motivation to learn.
d) Trainee interest in the program.

73) Classroom training contains the following components EXCEPT:

a) coaching/ mentoring
b) discussion
c) lecture
d) Audiovisual media

74) Job rotation is frequently used to train:

a) highly skilled production workers
b) entry-level managers
c) top executives
d) workers with limited skills

75) Behavior modeling does not include:

a) Observing a model of performance.
b) Discussing the model.
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c) Practicing the behavior.

d) Listening to a lecture on how to do something.

76) Coaching typically involves:

a) The learner and his/her supervisor
b) A classroom setting
c) A form of OJT
d) A senior executive

77) Mentoring involves:

a) The learner and his/her supervisor
b) A classroom setting
c) A form of OJT
d) A senior executive

78) JIT stands for:

a) Just in time training
b) Just intuition training
c) Job intuition training
d) Job instruction training

79) an organization is only as good as it

a) people
b) image
c) building
d) none of above

80) _________________ is at the core of all HRD efforts

a) Creativity
b) Innovation
c) Learning
d) Stress

81) The origins of HRD can be traced to _______________

a) apprenticeship training programs in the 17th century
b) apprenticeship training programs in the 16th century
c) apprenticeship training programs in the 20th century
d) apprenticeship training programs in the 18th century
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82) Apprentices who mastered all the necessary skills were considered as:
a) Students
b) Interns
c) Yeomen
d) Trainee

83) To address a growing number of yeomen, master craftsmen formed a network of private:
a) Private shops
b) Franchises
c) Private schools
d) All of above

84) Yeomanries were the forerunners of_________________

a) modern labor unions
b) modern associations
c) cartels
d) none of above

85) First vocational school, also referred to as a manual school, was established in
a) Tokyo
b) London
c) New York City
d) Beijing

86) Factories made it possible to______________

a) Decrease the production
b) Increase the production
c) Stagnant the production
d) All of above

87) To meet the demand for skilled workers, factories created mechanical and machinist training
programs, which were referred to as:
a) factory schools
b) factory centers
c) factory department
d) factory outlets

88) Model T(car) was introduced by

a) Henry John Kaiser
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b) Edsel Bryant Ford

c) Henry M. Rowan
d) Henry Ford

89) The Model T was the first car to be mass-produced using an assembly line, in which
production required only the training of____________
a) semiskilled workers to perform several task
b) skilled workers to perform several task
c) unskilled workers to perform several task
d) all of above

90) One of the undesirable by products of the factory system was

a) frequent abuse of semiskilled workers
b) frequent abuse of unskilled workers
c) frequent abuse of skilled workers
d) frequent abuse of both skilled and unskilled workers

91) The human relations movement highlighted the importance of___________

a) Factories for society
b) Vocational training for workers
c) Work life balance
d) Human behavior on the job

92) Abraham Maslow published his theory on ______

a) human need
b) human emotions
c) perception
d) personality

93) human needs are arranged in terms of______________________

a) greater to medium to lesser potency
b) greater to lesser potency
c) lesser to medium to greater potency
d) lesser to greater potency

94) Three primary functions of HRD are:

a) training and development, organization development, and career development
b) training and development, organization development, and HRM
c) training and development, organization development, and team development
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d) training and development, organization development, and employee development

95) In contrast to training, developmental activities have a___________________

a) Medium and short-term focus
b) short-term focus
c) long-term focus
d) medium-term focus

96) Training process is

a) Short term
b) Medium term
c) Long term
d) None of these

97) A needs assessment is often not conducted for which of the following reasons?
a) It can be difficult and time consuming to do
b) Line managers prefer action to research
c) There is lack of support from management for this step
d) All of the above are true

98) Compliance needs are those:

a) Mandated by law
b) Focused on what prevents performance
c) That identify new ways to perform tasks
d) None of the above are correct

99) In needs assessment, a focus on environmental constraints would occur as part of which
analysis
a) person
b) strategic/organizational
c) task
d) ergonomic

100) The knowledge, skills, abilities, and other requirements (KSAOs) needed to perform a
task or job are spelled out in the:
a) job specification
b) job design
c) skills inventory
d) organizational climate index
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101) Which of the following could be used to conduct an organizational needs analysis?
a) Exit interviews
b) Customer complaints
c) Data such as turnover and absenteeism
d) All of the above could be used

102) Which of the following is not a source of data for a task needs analysis?
a) Job descriptions
b) Job specifications
c) Corporate Mission statement
d) Observing people actually performing the job

103) When an effort is made to discover the reasons for an employee's work performance, this
is referred to as:
a) psychoanalysis
b) card sort analysis
c) summary person analysis
d) diagnostic person analysis

104) Which of the following is not a method of task identification?

a) Simultaneous repository file
b) Time sampling
c) Critical incident technique
d) Job inventory

105) The instrument developed by the Center for Creative Leadership to identify the
developmental needs of managers is called:
a) Strategic Analysis
b) Benchmarks
c) Ballparks
d) Human Resource Information System

106) The most common source of information for person analysis is:
a) critical incidents
b) the performance appraisal
c) diaries
d) assessment centers

107) A major advantage of using a questionnaire to gather data about training needs is that:
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a) it is fast and easy to gather a lot of data

b) it is always unbiased
c) it is completed by the supervisor
d) it involves a two way dialogue

108) Which method of task identification asks people familiar with the job to record behaviors
that are particularly effective or ineffective for performing that job?
a) job inventory questionnaire
b) time sampling
c) critical incident method
d) card sort

109) In "The Attack on ISD" which charge or complaint was raised by some leaders in the
HRD leaders against the process or systems model of HRD used in the text?
a) it focuses too heavily on the end results of training
b) it focuses too heavily on attitudes and emotions
c) it is too slow and clumsy to meet today's training/HRD needs
d) it works best with jobs that are rapidly changing and at high organizational levels

110) Which of the following is NOT a barrier to conducting HRD needs assessment?
a) assessment can be difficult
b) research is valued over action
c) information already exist that identifies organizational needs
d) there is a lack of support for needs assessment

111) The type of HRD need that identifies new or better ways to perform tasks is known as a:
a) democratic need
b) diagnostic need
c) analytic need
d) compliance need

112) There are several data sources recommended for strategic/organizational needs analysis.
Which of the following is (are) NOT one of the recommended sources?
a) organizational goals and objectives
b) skills inventory
c) exit interviews
d) performance appraisals
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113) The systematic collection of data about a specific job or group of jobs used to determine
what an employee should be taught to achieve optimal performance is called:
a) position summary analysis
b) diagnostic analysis
c) task analysis
d) job review

114) The process of identifying personal development needs that involves the feedback of
peers, subordinates and superiors is known as:
a) performance appraisal
b) 360 degree feedback
c) peer review
d) progressive action feedback

115) A gap can be identified by:

a) Subtracting what is known from what should be known
b) Adding what is known to what should be known
c) Subtracting what is should be known from what is known
d) Subtracting what is known from what we already do know

116) A task analysis is best defined as:

a) A systematic collection of data about every jobs in the company
b) A systematic collection of data about specific jobs or groups of job
c) Asking the people who do the job to describe what they do all day long to justify their
pay checks
d) A systematic collection of information on how people think their jobs should be
performed

117) Having a trained observer watch an employee perform a task and note the nature and
frequency of activities is an example of which method of task identification?
a) Critical incident
b) Time sampling
c) Job inventory questionnaire
d) Stimulus-response-feedback

118) People familiar with a job record incidents of particularly effective and ineffective
behavior in which method of task identification?
a) Critical incident
b) Time sampling
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c) Job inventory questionnaire

d) Stimulus-response-feedback

119) Supervisors and job incumbents evaluate a task list in terms of its importance and time
spent performing it in which method of task identification?
a) Critical incident
b) Time sampling
c) Job inventory questionnaire
d) Stimulus-response-feedback

120) Which of the following is true about a 360 degree performance appraisal?
a) Only the employee's supervisor rates the employee's performance
b) Multiple people will rate each employee's performance
c) Very few companies currently use this method of evaluation
d) It focuses on only one or two perspectives of an employee's job

121) All of the following are ways HRD seeks to improve organizational effectiveness except:
a) Preventing anticipated problems
b) Including those groups and individual that can benefit the most
c) Hiring better people
d) Solving current problems

122) A needs assessment can identify:

a) Gaps between employees current skills and those skills needed for the current job
b) The conditions under which the HRD activity will occur
c) Gaps between employees current skills and those skills needed for the future job
d) All the above are things that a needs assessment can identify

123) Which of the following is correct?

a) Compliance needs are mandated by law
b) Diagnostic needs focus on better ways to do a job
c) Analytic needs focus on preventing problems
d) None of the above are correct

124) A trap to avoid when doing needs assessments is:

a) Focusing on organizational performance
b) Use both hard and soft data
c) Doing multiple methods in addition to questionnaires
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d) Use hard data only

125) When assessing needs using organizational goals:

a) Focus on individual performance first
b) Examine areas where goals are not being met
c) Look only at goals that are met
d) Goals only matter if they are accomplished each year

126) In 1998 the US Supreme Court decided that supervisory training for sexual harassment
was:
a) Unimportant
b) Adequate in both cases
c) Important but not necessary
d) Inadequate in both cases

127) Linking the organizations strategic plan to HRD activities for operating managers:
a) May increase support for HRD programs
b) Will lower motivation of trainees
c) Should not be done
d) Does not matter

128) MBO or work planning and review systems are useful tools for assessing needs because:
a) They provide performance review data
b) They provide baseline performance data
c) They provide long-term business objectives
d) All the above are true

129) Which of the following is not a component in the stimulus-response-feedback method of

task identification?
a) The ego identifier
b) The response or behavior
c) The stimulus or cue
d) Feedback

130) A diagnostic person analysis looks at:

a) A classification of an employee as a successful or unsuccessful employee
b) An overall evaluation of an employee
c) A global analysis of employee performance
d) Why an employee behaves the way they do
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131) Self-ratings of training needs:

a) Are useful when combined with multiple sources
b) No information is available on their value
c) Are never useful
d) Are proven to be totally accurate