Level-1

Level-1
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Multiple-Choice Questions

1.​ What is the primary objective of the SDLC?​

a) Deliver software quickly regardless of quality​
b) Provide a systematic approach to developing high-quality software​
c) Eliminate the need for testing​
d) Avoid stakeholder involvement in development
2.​ Which phase of SDLC involves defining the scope, objectives, and
feasibility of the project?​
a) Design Phase​
b) Planning Phase​
c) Testing Phase​
d) Deployment Phase
3.​ What type of feasibility assesses whether the software will work
effectively in its intended operational environment?​
a) Technical Feasibility​
b) Economic Feasibility​
c) Operational Feasibility​
d) Legal Feasibility
4.​ What does the "V-Model" in SDLC emphasize?​
a) Iterative and incremental development​
b) Verification and validation at each stage​
c) Quick prototyping​
d) Continuous integration and delivery
5.​ Which architecture pattern divides an application into layers like
Presentation, Business Logic, and Data Access?​
a) Microservices Architecture​
b) Event-Driven Architecture​
c) Layered (N-Tier) Architecture​
d) Monolithic Architecture
6.​ Which Agile framework is characterized by time-boxed iterations and
roles like Scrum Master and Product Owner?​
a) Kanban​
b) Spiral​
c) Scrum​
d) Waterfall
 7.​ What is the primary focus of functional testing?​
a) System scalability and performance​
b) Security vulnerabilities​
c) Verification of features as per requirements​
d) Hardware compatibility
8.​ Which tool is commonly used for performance testing?​
a) Selenium​
b) JIRA​
c) JMeter​
d) OWASP ZAP
9.​ What does the principle of "Least Privilege" refer to in Security by
Design?​
a) Allowing maximum user access by default​
b) Restricting access to only necessary resources​
c) Avoiding role-based access control​
d) Using open network configurations
10.​Which SDLC model combines iterative development with risk
management?​
a) Agile​
b) Waterfall​
c) Spiral​
d) Iterative

Answers

1.​ b) Provide a systematic approach to developing high-quality software

2.​ b) Planning Phase
3.​ c) Operational Feasibility
4.​ b) Verification and validation at each stage
5.​ c) Layered (N-Tier) Architecture
6.​ c) Scrum
7.​ c) Verification of features as per requirements
8.​ c) JMeter
9.​ b) Restricting access to only necessary resources
10.​c) Spiral
Level-2
Level-2
1.​ Which document is created during the Requirement Analysis phase to detail
functional and non-functional requirements?​
a) Feasibility Report​
b) Software Requirements Specification (SRS)​
c) Design Document​
d) Risk Management Plan
2.​ What is the primary goal of the Risk Management process in project
management?​
a) Minimize project scope​
b) Identify and mitigate potential challenges​
c) Reduce project budget​
d) Optimize team performance
3.​ Which of the following testing types ensures that changes or updates have not
introduced new defects?​
a) Smoke Testing​
b) Integration Testing​
c) Regression Testing​
d) Usability Testing
4.​ In the Design Phase of SDLC, what is the focus of Low-Level Design (LLD)?​
a) Establishing system architecture and module roles​
b) Defining the database schema​
c) Outlining detailed algorithms and class diagrams​
d) High-level system interactions
5.​ What type of testing focuses on evaluating attributes like speed, scalability,
and stability under load?​
a) Security Testing​
b) Performance Testing​
c) Usability Testing​
d) Compatibility Testing
6.​ What is a characteristic advantage of the Microservices Architecture pattern?​
a) All features are built into a single codebase​
b) Services are independent and can scale separately​
c) Real-time processing is streamlined​
d) High dependency among modules
7.​ What is the purpose of Continuous Integration (CI) in a DevOps pipeline?​
a) Automate deployment to production​
b) Merge code changes into a shared repository frequently​
c) Eliminate the need for testing​
d) Monitor application performance in real time
8.​ Which tool is commonly used for version control in software development?​
a) Jenkins​
b) Docker​
c) Git​
d) JIRA
 9.​ Which phase of SDLC involves migrating data and ensuring environment
configurations are ready for production?​
a) Testing​
b) Design​
c) Deployment​
d) Planning
10.​What is the purpose of a RACI matrix in stakeholder management?​
a) Identifying risks and mitigation strategies​
b) Mapping project dependencies​
c) Defining roles and responsibilities of stakeholders​
d) Scheduling project timelines

Answers

1.​ b) Software Requirements Specification (SRS)

2.​ b) Identify and mitigate potential challenges
3.​ c) Regression Testing
4.​ c) Outlining detailed algorithms and class diagrams
5.​ b) Performance Testing
6.​ b) Services are independent and can scale separately
7.​ b) Merge code changes into a shared repository frequently
8.​ c) Git
9.​ c) Deployment
10.​c) Defining roles and responsibilities of stakeholders

Quality Assurance (QA)

1.​ What is the primary focus of Quality Assurance (QA)?​

a) Detecting and fixing defects in finished products​
b) Preventing defects by improving processes​
c) Speeding up the development lifecycle​
d) Reducing the cost of hardware
2.​ Which QA activity involves regular evaluations of processes and outcomes to
identify bottlenecks?​
a) Monitoring​
b) Implementation​
c) Testing​
d) Debugging
3.​ What is the difference between QA and QC (Quality Control)?​
a) QA is product-oriented, while QC is process-oriented​
b) QA involves preventing defects, while QC focuses on detecting defects​
c) QA is only performed after development, while QC happens during design​
d) There is no difference; they are synonymous
 4.​ Which type of QA testing focuses on evaluating documentation and code
without execution?​
a) Manual Testing​
b) Static Testing​
c) Automated Testing​
d) Dynamic Testing
5.​ What is a common tool used for automated QA testing?​
a) JIRA​
b) Selenium​
c) Git​
d) Jenkins

Network Management

6.​ Which protocol is commonly used for network monitoring and management?​
a) FTP​
b) SNMP​
c) HTTP​
d) POP3
7.​ What is the primary goal of network management?​
a) To deploy hardware across multiple locations​
b) To ensure reliable and secure operation of a network​
c) To manage user accounts and permissions​
d) To provide encryption services for emails
8.​ Which network management function involves analyzing network traffic to
detect anomalies?​
a) Configuration Management​
b) Fault Management​
c) Performance Management​
d) Security Management
9.​ What tool is commonly used for monitoring and managing network
performance?​
a) Nagios​
b) Docker​
c) Selenium​
d) Visual Studio
10.​What does the term "bandwidth utilization" refer to in network management?​
a) The total storage capacity of a network​
b) The speed of file downloads on a network​
c) The amount of data transmitted over the network in a given time​
d) The number of devices connected to the network
Cybersecurity

11.​What is the principle of "Defense in Depth"?​

a) Using multiple layers of security to protect a system​
b) Keeping all systems offline for safety​
c) Relying only on encryption to secure data​
d) Using one strong firewall as the sole defense
12.​What is the purpose of a firewall in a network?​
a) To monitor and block unauthorized access​
b) To increase the speed of data transmission​
c) To reduce the cost of network management​
d) To store user credentials securely
13.​Which cybersecurity practice helps minimize the risk of privilege escalation
attacks?​
a) Using default system accounts​
b) Granting least privilege to users​
c) Allowing unrestricted file access​
d) Disabling multi-factor authentication
14.​Which attack exploits vulnerabilities in software to gain unauthorized access to
a system?​
a) Phishing​
b) SQL Injection​
c) DDoS​
d) Spoofing
15.​What is a common tool used for penetration testing in cybersecurity?​
a) JMeter​
b) OWASP ZAP​
c) GitLab​
d) Ansible

Answers

Quality Assurance (QA)

1.​ b) Preventing defects by improving processes

2.​ a) Monitoring
3.​ b) QA involves preventing defects, while QC focuses on detecting defects
4.​ b) Static Testing
5.​ b) Selenium
6.​ b) SNMP
7.​ b) To ensure reliable and secure operation of a network
8.​ c) Performance Management
9.​ a) Nagios
10.​ c) The amount of data transmitted over the network in a given time
11.​ a) Using multiple layers of security to protect a system
12.​a) To monitor and block unauthorized access
13.​ b) Granting least privilege to users
14.​ b) SQL Injection
15.​ b) OWASP ZAP
Level-3
Level-3
1.​ What is the primary purpose of the Planning phase in SDLC?​
a) Writing code for the software​
b) Defining project scope, objectives, and feasibility​
c) Creating architectural diagrams​
d) Executing the test cases
2.​ Which SDLC model is best suited for projects with rapidly changing
requirements?​
a) Waterfall Model​
b) V-Model​
c) Agile Model​
d) Spiral Model
3.​ What is a key benefit of prototyping during Requirement Analysis?​
a) Reduces the need for documentation​
b) Avoids stakeholder involvement​
c) Provides early visualization of the system​
d) Simplifies the testing phase
4.​ In which phase of the SDLC is a Feasibility Report typically prepared?​
a) Design Phase​
b) Implementation Phase​
c) Planning Phase​
d) Maintenance Phase
5.​ Which of the following is a non-functional requirement?​
a) The system must generate monthly sales reports.​
b) The application must encrypt data during transmission.​
c) Users must be able to log in with a username and password.​
d) The application must allow report generation.
6.​ What is the main advantage of using Microservices Architecture?​
a) Centralized deployment and scaling​
b) Independent development and deployment of services​
c) Reduced infrastructure requirements​
d) Simplified database design
7.​ Which design phase focuses on detailed algorithms and class diagrams?​
a) High-Level Design (HLD)​
b) Low-Level Design (LLD)​
c) Architectural Design​
d) Feasibility Analysis
8.​ Which architecture pattern is ideal for applications requiring real-time event
processing?​
a) Layered Architecture​
b) Monolithic Architecture​
c) Event-Driven Architecture​
d) Client-Server Architecture
9.​ What is a key principle of Security by Design?​
a) Delaying security implementations until deployment​
b) Using a single layer of defense for simplicity​
c) Embedding security measures throughout the SDLC​
d) Relying solely on penetration testing
10.​Which UI/UX design component helps guide user focus?​
a) Typography​
b) Interactive Elements​
c) Visual Hierarchy​
d) Color Palette
11.​What is the purpose of a Requirement Traceability Matrix (RTM)?​
a) Map requirements to design elements​
b) Track requirements throughout the SDLC​
c) Identify risks in the design phase​
d) Document test execution outcomes
12.​Which type of testing ensures the system is user-friendly and intuitive?​
a) Security Testing​
b) Regression Testing​
c) Usability Testing​
d) Compatibility Testing
13.​What is the main advantage of automated regression testing?​
a) Eliminates the need for functional testing​
b) Speeds up repetitive test execution​
c) Reduces the need for a testing environment​
d) Avoids the need for detailed test plans
14.​Which QA testing type focuses on evaluating documentation and code without
execution?​
a) Dynamic Testing​
b) Static Testing​
c) Manual Testing​
d) Black Box Testing
15.​What is the primary objective of risk-based testing?​
a) Ensure maximum test coverage​
b) Prioritize testing for high-impact areas​
c) Test all functionalities equally​
d) Eliminate the need for defect tracking
16.​What is the purpose of Earned Value Management (EVM) in project
management?​
a) Tracking project scope changes​
b) Measuring project performance against cost and schedule​
c) Identifying stakeholder roles and responsibilities​
d) Ensuring risk-free project execution
17.​Which protocol is widely used for monitoring and managing network
performance?​
a) SNMP​
b) FTP​
c) SMTP​
d) TCP
 18.​What does the term "bandwidth utilization" refer to?​
a) The number of devices connected to the network​
b) The amount of data transmitted over a network in a given time​
c) The capacity of network storage systems​
d) The speed of internet access
19.​Which network management function involves identifying and resolving
network faults?​
a) Performance Management​
b) Fault Management​
c) Security Management​
d) Configuration Management
20.​What is a critical component of a disaster recovery plan in network
management?​
a) Automated bug fixing​
b) Backup and restore systems​
c) Continuous integration pipelines​
d) Manual deployment processes

Answers

1.​ b) Defining project scope, objectives, and feasibility

2.​ c) Agile Model
3.​ c) Provides early visualization of the system
4.​ c) Planning Phase
5.​ b) The application must encrypt data during transmission
6.​ b) Independent development and deployment of services
7.​ b) Low-Level Design (LLD)
8.​ c) Event-Driven Architecture
9.​ c) Embedding security measures throughout the SDLC
10.​c) Visual Hierarchy
11.​b) Track requirements throughout the SDLC
12.​c) Usability Testing
13.​b) Speeds up repetitive test execution
14.​b) Static Testing
15.​b) Prioritize testing for high-impact areas
16.​b) Measuring project performance against cost and schedule
17.​a) SNMP
18.​b) The amount of data transmitted over a network in a given time
19.​b) Fault Management
20.​b) Backup and restore systems