XII – BIO-BOTANY

BOOK BACK QUESTIONS AND ANSWER

ENGLISH MEDIUM
2024-2025

Based on the content of TNSCERT

Compiled by Dr.J. RAJESH, M.Sc., M.Phil.,B.Ed. -P.G Assistant (Botany), GHSS,Velachery,CH-42
Based on the content of TNSCERT
Compiled by Dr.J. RAJESH, M.Sc., M.Phil.,B.Ed. -P.G Assistant (Botany), GHSS,Velachery,CH-42
 CHAPTER PAGE
CONTENTS
NO. NO.
UNIT VI: Reproduction in Plants

Chapter 1 Asexual and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 1-9

UNIT VII: Genetics

Chapter 2 Classical Genetics 10-17
Chapter 3 Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance 18-23

UNIT VIII: Biotechnology

Chapter 4 Principles and Processes of Biotechnology 24-30
Chapter 5 Plant Tissue Culture 31-34

UNIT IX: Plant Ecology

Chapter 6 Principles of Ecology 35-45
Chapter 7 Ecosystem 46-50
Chapter 8 Environmental Issues 51-55

UNIT X: Economic Botany

Chapter 9 Plant Breeding 55-60

Chapter 10 Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial

61-68
Botany

Based on the content of TNSCERT

Compiled by Dr.J. RAJESH, M.Sc., M.Phil.,B.Ed. -P.G Assistant (Botany), GHSS,Velachery,CH-42
Based on the content of TNSCERT
Compiled by Dr.J. RAJESH, M.Sc., M.Phil.,B.Ed. -P.G Assistant (Botany), GHSS,Velachery,CH-42
 1

XII – BIO-BOTANY
Chapter: 1. Asexual and Sexual Reproduction in Plants
1 Mark Questions

1. Choose the correct statement from the following

a) Gametes are involved in asexual reproduction
b) Bacteria reproduce asexually by budding
c) Conidia formation is a method of sexual reproduction
d) Yeast reproduce by budding

2. An eminent Indian embryologist is

a) S.R.Kashyap b) P.Maheswari c) M.S. Swaminathan d) K.C.Mehta

3. Identify the correctly matched pair

a) Tuber - Allium cepa b) Sucker – Pistia c) Rhizome –Musa d) Stolon –Zingiber

4. Size of pollen grain in Myosotis

a) 10 micrometer b) 20 micrometer c) 200 micrometer d) 2000 micrometer

5. First cell of male gametophyte in angiosperm is

a) Microspore b) Megaspore c) Nucleus d) Primary Endosperm Nucleus

6. Match the following

I) External fertilization i) pollen grain
II) Androecium ii) anther wall
III) Male gametophyte iii) algae
IV) Primary parietal layer iv) stamens

a) I-iv;II-i;III-ii;IV–iii b) I-iii;II-iv;III-i;IV-ii
c) I-iii;II-iv;III-ii; IV–I d) I-iii;II-i;III-iv;IV–ii

7. Arrange the layers of anther wall from locus to periphery

a) Epidermis, middle layers, tapetum, endothecium
b) Tapetum, middle layers, epidermis, endothecium
c) Endothecium, epidermis, middlelayers, tapetum
d) Tapetum, middle layers, endothecium, epidermis

8. Identify the incorrect pair

a) sporopollenin - exine of pollen grain
b) tapetum – nutritive tissue for developing microspores
c) Nucellus – nutritive tissue for developing embryo
d) obturator – directs the pollen tube into micropyle
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9. Assertion: Sporopollenin preserves pollen in fossil deposits

Reason: Sporopollenin is resistant to physical and biological decomposition
a) Assertion is true; reason is false b) Assertion is false; reason is true
c) Both Assertion and reason are not true d) Both Assertion and reason are true.

10. Choose the correct statement(s) about tenuinucellate ovule*

a) Sporogenous cell is hypodermal b) Ovules have fairly large nucellus
c) Sporogenous cell is epidermal d) Ovules have single layer of nucellus tissue

11. Which of the following represent megagametophyte

a) Ovule b) Embryo sac
c) Nucellus d) Endosperm

12. In Haplopappus gracilis, number of chromosomes in cells of nucellus is 4.What will be

the chromosome number in Primary endosperm cell?
a) 8 b) 12 c) 6 d) 2

13. Transmitting tissue is found in

a) Micropylar region of ovule b) Pollen tube wall
c) Stylar region of gynoecium d) Integument

14. The scar left by funiculus in the seed is

a) tegmen b) radicle c) epicotyl d) hilum

15. A Plant called X possesses small flower with reduced perianth and versatile anther.
The probable agent for pollination would be
a) water b) air c) butterflies d) beetles

16. Consider the following statement(s)

i) In Protandrous flowers pistil matures earlier
ii) In Protogynous flowers pistil matures earlier
iii) Herkogamy is noticed in unisexual flowers
iv) Distyly is present in Primula
a) i and ii are correct b) ii and iv are correct
c) ii and iii are correct d) i and iv are correct

17. Coleorhiza is found in

a) Paddy b) Bean c) Pea d) Tridax

18. Parthenocarpic fruits lack

a) Endocarp b) Epicarp c) Mesocarp d) Seed

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19. In majority of plants pollen is liberated at

a) 1 celled stage b) 2 celled stage c) 3 celled stage d) 4 celled stage

2, 3 and 5 Mark Questions

20. What is reproduction?
Reproduction is a vital process for the existence of a species and it also brings suitable changes
through variation in the off springs for their survival on earth.

21. List out two sub-aerial stem modifications with example.

Runner - Centella asiatica
Stolon - Mentha and Fragaria
Offset - Pistia and Eichhornia
Sucker – Chrysanthemum.

22. What is layering?

i. Layering is an artificial method of vegetative propagation used in agriculture and horticulture
to propagate plants from their parts.
ii. In this method, the stem of a parent plant is allowed to develop roots while still intact.
iii. When the root develops, the rooted part is cut and planted to grow as a new plant. Examples:
Ixora and Jasminum.

23. What are clones?

The individuals formed by asexual method is morphologically and genetically identical and are
called clones.

24. A detached leaf of Bryophyllum produces new plants. How?

In Bryophyllum, the leaf is succulent and notched on its margin. Adventitious buds develop at
these notches and are called epiphyllous buds. They develop into new plants forming a root
system and become independent plants when the leaf gets decayed.

25. Differentiate Grafting and Layering.

Grafting Layering
In this method two different plants are Only one parent plant is involved
involved
The plant which is in contact with the soil is The stem of a parent plant is allowed to
called stock and the plant used for grafting is develop roots while still intact
called scion
Parts of two different plants are joined so that When the root develops, the rooted part is cut
they continue to grow as one plant and planted to grow as a new plant
Examples: Citrus, Mango and Apple Examples: Ixora and Jasminum

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27. Distinguish mound layering and air layering.

Mound layering Air layering
This method is applied for the plants having In this method the stem is girdled at nodal
flexible branches region
The lower branch with leaves is bent to the The girdled portion is covered with damp or
ground and part of the stem is buried in the moist soil using a polythene sheet
soil
The roots emerge from the part of the stem Hormones are applied to girdled region which
buried in the soil promotes rooting
A cut is made in parent plant so that the Roots emerged branches are removed from
buried part grows into a new plant the parent plant and grown in a separate pot

28. Explain the conventional methods adopted in vegetative propagation of higher plants.
The common methods of conventional propagation are cutting, grafting and layering.
a. Cutting:
i. It is the method of producing a new plant by cutting the plant parts such as root, stem and leaf
from the parent plant.
ii. The cut part is placed in a suitable medium for growth.
iii. It produces root and grows into a new plant.
iv. Depending upon the part used it is called as root cutting (Malus), stem cutting (Hibiscus,
Bougainvillea and Moringa) and leaf cutting (Begonia and Bryophyllum).
b. Grafting:
i. In this method, parts of two different plants are joined so that they continue to grow as one
plant.
ii. Of the two plants, the plant which is in contact with the soil is called stock and the plant used
for grafting is called scion. Examples: Citrus, Mango and Apple.
iii. There are different types of grafting based on the method of uniting the scion and stock.
iv. They are bud grafting, approach grafting, tongue grafting, crown grafting and wedge grafting.
c. Layering:
i. In this method, the stem of a parent plant is allowed to develop roots while still intact.
ii. When the root develops, the rooted part is cut and planted to grow as a new plant. Examples:
Ixora and Jasminum.
iii. Mound layering and Air layering are few types of layering.

29. What is Cantharophily.

Pollination by beetle is called cantharophily.

30. List any two strategy adopted by bisexual flowers to prevent self-pollination.
i. Dichogamy:
In bisexual flowers anther sand stigmas mature at different times, thus checking self-pollination.
It is of two types.

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a. Protandry: The stamens mature earlier than the stigmas of the flowers. Examples: Helianthus
and Clerodendrum.
b.Protogyny: The stigmas mature earlier than the stamens of the flower. Examples:
Scrophularia nodosa and Aristolochia bracteata.
ii. Herkogamy:
a. In bisexual flowers the essential organs, the stamens and stigmas, are arranged in such a way
that self-pollination becomes impossible.
b. For example in Gloriosa superba, the style is reflexed away from the stamens and in Hibiscus
the stigmas project far above the stamens.
iii. Heterostyly:
a. Some plants produce two or three different forms of flowers that are different in their length of
stamens and style.
b. Pollination will take place only between organs of the same length. Examples: Distyly –
Primula, Tristyly - Lythrum
iv. Self - sterility/ Self- incompatibility:
In some plants, when the pollen grain of a flower reaches the stigma of the same, it is unable to
germinate or prevented to germinate on its own stigma. Examples: Abutilon and Passiflora.

31. What is endothelium?

In some species the inner layer of the integument may become specialized to perform the
nutritive function for the embryo sac and is called as endothelium or integumentary tapetum.
Example: Asteraceae.

32. ‘The endosperm of angiosperm is different from gymnosperm’. Do you agree? Justify
your answer.

Endosperm of Angiosperm Endosperm of Gymnosperm

Triploid Haploid
Primary endosperm nucleus is formed by triple fusion Endosperm is formed before fertilization

33. Define the term Diplospory (Generative apospory).

A diploid embryo sac is formed from megaspore mother cell without a regular meiotic division
Example: Aerva.

34. What is polyembryony. How it can commercially exploited.

Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is called polyembryony.
Commercial importance / Significance:
i. The seedlings formed from the nucellar tissue are found better clones for Orchards. Example:
Citrus.
ii. Embryos derived through polyembryony are found virus free.

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35. Why does the zygote divides only after the division of Primary endosperm cell?
i. A mature, fertilized embryo sac offers very little nourishment to the zygote.
ii. Primary Endosperm Cell divides and generates the endosperm tissue which nourishes the
zygote.
iii. It is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the developing embryo.
iv. So, the zygote begins to divide only after the division of Primary Endosperm Cell.

36. What is Mellitophily?

Pollination by bees is called mellitophily.

37. ‘Endothecium is associated with dehiscence of anther’ Justify the statement.

i. Endothecium is generally a single layer of radially elongated cells found below the epidermis
of anther.
ii. The inner wall develops bands of α-cellulose. The cells are hygroscopic.
iii. The cells along the junction of the two sporangia of an anther lobe lack α-cellulose
thickenings. This region is called stomium.
iv. This region along with the hygroscopic nature of endothecium helps in the dehiscence of
anther at maturity.

38. List out the functions of tapetum.

Functions of Tapetum:
i. It supplies nutrition to the developing microspores.
ii. It contributes sporopollenin thus plays an important role in pollen wall formation.
iii. The pollenkitt material is contributed by tapetal cells.
iv. Exine proteins responsible for ‘rejection reaction’. These proteins are derived from tapetal
cells.

39. Write short note on Pollenkitt.

i. It is an oily layer forming a thick viscous coating over pollen surface.
ii. Pollenkitt is contributed by the tapetum and coloured yellow or orange.
iii. It is chiefly made of carotenoids or flavonoids.
iv. It attracts insects and protects damage from UV radiation.

40. Distinguish tenuinucellate and crassinucellate ovules.

Tenuinucellate ovule Crassinucellate ovule
Sporogenous cell is hypodermal Sporogenous cell is subhypodermal
Single layer of nucellar tissue is present Ovules have fairly large nucellus

41. ‘Pollination in Gymnosperms is different from Angiosperms’ – Give reasons.

Pollination in Gymnosperms Pollination in Angiosperms
Direct Indirect
Pollens are deposited directly on the exposed ovules Pollens are deposited on the stigma of the pistil
Pollination by wind only Pollination by wind, water, animals etc.,

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42. Write short note on Heterostyly.

a. Some plants produce two or three different forms of flowers that are different in their length of
stamens and style.
b. Pollination will take place only between organs of the same length. Examples: Distyly –
Primula, Tristyly – Lythrum

43. Enumerate the characteristic features of Entomophilous flowers.

Characteristic features of entomophilous flowers:

i. Flowers are generally large or if small they are aggregated in dense inflorescence.
Example: Asteraceae flowers.
ii. Flowers are brightly coloured. The adjacent parts of the flowers may also be brightly coloured
to attract insect. For example in Poinsettia and Bougainvillea the bracts become coloured.
iii. Flowers are scented and produce nectar.
iv. Flowers in which there is no secretion of nectar, the pollen is either consumed as food or used
in building up of its hive by the honeybees.
v. Flowers pollinated by flies and beetles produce foul odour to attract pollinators.
vi. In some flowers juicy cells are present which are pierced and the contents are sucked by the
insects.

44. Discuss the steps involved in Microsporogenesis.

i. The stages involved in the formation of haploid microspores from diploid microspore mother
cell through meiosis is called Microsporogenesis.
ii. The primary sporogeneous cells directly, or may undergo a few mitotic divisions to form
sporogenous tissue.
iii. The last generation of sporogenous tissue functions as microspore mother cells. Each
microspore mother cell divides meiotically to form a tetrad of four haploid microspores
(microspore tetrad).
iv. The microspore tetrad may be arranged in a tetrahedral, decussate, linear, T shaped or
isobilateral manner.
v. Microspores soon separate from one another and remain free in the anther locule and develop
into pollen grains.
vi. In some plants, all the microspores in a microsporangium remain held together called
pollinium. Example: Calotropis.

45. With a suitable diagram explain the structure of an ovule.

i. Ovule (Megasporangium) is protected by one or two covering called integuments.
ii. A mature ovule consists of a stalk and a body.
iii. The stalk or the funiculus is present at the base and it attaches the ovule to the placenta.
iv. The point of attachment of funicle to the body of the ovule is known as hilum.

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v. In an inverted ovule, the funicle is adnate to the body of the ovule forming a ridge called
raphe. vi. The body of the ovule is made up of a central mass of parenchymatous tissue called
nucellus.vii. Integument encloses the nucellus completely except at the top where it is free and
forms a pore called micropyle.
viii. The basal region of the body of the ovule where the nucellus, the integument and the funicle
meet or merge is called as chalaza.
ix. There is a large, oval, sac-like structure in the nucellus toward the micropylar end called
embryo sac or female gametophyte.
x. Group of cells found at the base of the ovule between the chalaza and embryo sac is called
hypostase.
xi. The thick -walled cells found above the micropylar end is called epistase.

L. S of Ovule

46. Give a concise account on steps involved in fertilization of an angiosperm plant.

i. The fusion of male and female gamete is called fertilization. Fertilization in angiosperms is
double fertilization type.
ii. The stages involved in double fertilization are,
a. Germination of pollen to form pollen tube in the stigma
b. Growth of pollen tube in the style
c. Direction of pollen tube towards the micropyle of the ovule
d. Entry of the pollen tube into one of the synergids of the embryo sac, discharge of male
gametes
e. Syngamy and triple fusion.
iii. In Angiosperms both the male gametes released from a male gametophyte are involved in the
fertilization.
iv. One of the male gametes fuses with the egg nucleus (syngamy) to form Zygote.
v. The second gamete migrates to the central cell where it fuses with the polar nuclei and forms
the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN). So, this phenomenon is called double fertilization.
vi. Since this involves the fusion of three nuclei, this phenomenon is called triple fusion.

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47. What is endosperm? Explain the types.

Endosperm is a nutritive tissue and regulatory structure that nourishes the developing embryo.
The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) divides immediately after fertilization but before the
zygote starts to divide, into an endosperm.

Types of endosperm:
i. Nuclear endosperm:
The Primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) divides into two without any wall formation. The
subsequent division of these two nuclei are free nuclear so that the endosperm consists of only
free nuclei and cytoplasm around them. Examples: Coccinia, Capsella and Arachis.
ii. Cellular endosperm:
The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) divides into 2 nuclei which are immediately
followed by a wall formation. Subsequent divisions are also followed by walls. Examples:
Adoxa, Helianthus and Scoparia.
iii. Helobial endosperm:
The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) moves towards the base of the embryo sac where
it divides into two nuclei. These 2 nuclei are separated by a wall to form a large micropylar
chamber and a small chalazal chamber. The nucleus of the micropylar chamber undergoes
several free nuclear divisions whereas that of the chalazal chamber may or may not divide.
Examples: Hydrilla and Vallisneria

48. Differentiate the structure of Dicot and Monocot seed.

Dicot seed Monocot seed

Two cotyledons One shield-shaped cotyledon known as scutellum
Cotyledons or endosperm contains reserve food
Endosperm contains reserve food materials
materials
Coleorhiza is absent Coleorhiza is present
Coleoptile is absent Coleoptile is present
The outer seed coat is called testa and the inner coat is The seed coat is a brownish, membranous layer closely
called tegmen adhered to the grain
Examples: Pea and Castor Examples: Paddy

49. Give a detailed account on parthenocarpy. Add a note on its significance.

In some plants fruit like structures may develop from the ovary without the act of
fertilization. Such fruits are called parthenocarpic fruits. This phenomenon is called
parthenocarpy.
Significance of parthenocarpy:
i. The seedless fruits have great significancein horticulture.
ii. The seedless fruits have great commercial importance.
iii. Seedless fruits are useful for the preparation of jams, jellies, sauces, fruit drinks etc.
iv. High proportion of edible part is available in parthenocarpic fruits due to the absence of
seeds.
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Chapter: 2. Classical Genetics

1 Mark Questions
1. Extra nuclear inheritance is a consequence of presence of genes in
a) Mitrochondria and chloroplasts b) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitrochondria
c) Ribosomes and chloroplast d) Lysososmes and ribosomes

2. In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having the
genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a plant with the genotype
a) aaBB b) AaBB c) AABB d) aabb

3. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype
AABbCC?
a) Three b) Four c) Nine d) Two

4. Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?

a) Flower colour in Mirabilis Jalapa b) Production of male honey bee
c) Pod shape in garden pea d) Skin Colour in humans

5. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over
wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What
are the expected phenotypes in the F2 generation of the cross RRYY xrryy?
a) Only round seeds with green cotyledons
b) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
c) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
d) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons an wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

6. Test cross involves

a) Crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
b) Crossing between two F1 hybrids
c) Crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
d) Crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait

7. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seed plant is
crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you
expect in F1 generation?
a) 9:1 b) 1:3 b) 3:1 d) 50:50

8. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross
a) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show very few combinations
b) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher combinations
c) Genes far apart on the same chromosomes show very few recombinations
d) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosomes show similar recombinations as the tightly
linked ones

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9. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by across in which the F1 generation resembles both
the parents
a) Incomplete dominance b) Law of dominance
c) Inheritance of one gene d) Co-dominance

10. Fruit colour in squash is an example of

a) Recessive epistatsis b) Dominant epistasis
c) Complementary genes d) Inhibitory genes

11. In his classic experiments on Pea plants, Mendel did not use
a) Flowering position b) Seed colour c) Pod length d) Seed shape

12. The epistatic effect, in which the dihybrid cross 9:3:3:1 between AaBb X Aabb is
modified as
a) Dominance of one allele on another allele of both loci
b) Interaction between two alleles of different loci
c) Dominance of one allele to another alleles of same loci
d) Interaction between two alleles of same loci

13. In a test cross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental type offspring were produced
than the recombination type offspring. This indicates
a) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
b) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
c) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
d) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene

14. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are known to be
located on how many different chromosomes?
a) Seven b) Six c) Five d) Four

15. Which of the following explains how progeny can posses the combinations of traits that
none of the parent possessed?
a) Law of segregation b) Chromosome theory
c) Law of independent assortment d) Polygenic inheritance

16. “Gametes are never hybrid”. This is a statement of

a) Law of dominance b) Law of independent assortment
c) Law of segregation d) Law of random fertilization

17. Gene which suppresses other genes activity but does not lie on the same locus is called
as
a) Epistatic b) Supplement only c) Hypostatic d) Codominant
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18. Pure tall plants are crossed with pure dwarf plants. In the F1 generation, all plants
were tall. These tall plants of F1generation were selfed and the ratio of tall to dwarf plants
obtained was 3:1. This is called
a) Dominance b) Inheritance c) Codominance d) Heredity

19. The dominant epistasis ratio is

a) 9:3:3:1 b) 12:3:1 c) 9:3:4 d) 9:6:1

20. Select the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments

a) 1856 - 1863 b) 1850 – 1870 c) 1857 - 1869 d) 1870 – 1877

21. Among the following characters which one was not considered by Mendel in his
experimentation pea?
a) Stem – Tall or dwarf b) Trichomal glandular or non-glandular
c) Seed – Green or yellow d) Pod – Inflated or constricted

2, 3 and 5 Mark Questions

22. Name the seven contrasting traits of Mendel.

S. No Character Dominant type Recessive type
1. Stem length Tall Dwarf
2. Pod shape Inflated Constricted
3. Seed shape Round Wrinkled
4. Seed colour Yellow Green
5. Flower position Axial Terminal
6. Flower colour Purple White
7. Pod colour Green Yellow

23. What is meant by true breeding or pure breeding lines / strain?

A true breeding lines (Pure-breeding strains) means it has undergone continuous self
pollination having stable trait inheritance from parent to offspring.

24. Give the names of the scientists who rediscovered Mendelism.

In 1900 the work of Mendel’s experiments were rediscovered by three biologists, Hugo
de Vries, Carl Correns and Erich von Tschermak.

25. What is back cross?

Back cross is a cross of F1 hybrid with any one of the parental genotypes.

26. Define Genetics.

Genetics is the branch of biological science which deals with the mechanism of
transmission of characters from parents to offsprings.
Genetics is often described as a science which deals with heredity and variation.

27. What are multiple alleles?

Three or more allelic forms of a gene occupy the same locus in a given pair of
homologous chromosomes are called multiple alleles.
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28. What are the reasons for Mendel’s successes in his breeding experiment?
i. He applied mathematics and statistical methods to biology and laws of probability to his
breeding experiments.
ii. He followed scientific methods and kept accurate and detailed records that include
quantitative data of the outcome of his crosses.
iii. His experiments were carefully planned and he used large samples.
iv. The pairs of contrasting characters which were controlled by factor (genes) were present on
separate chromosomes.
v. The parents selected by Mendel were pure breed lines and the purity was tested by self-
crossing the progeny for many generations.

29. Explain the law of dominance in monohybrid cross.

Monohybrid inheritance is the inheritance of a single character (Example: Plant height).
It involves the inheritance of two alleles of a single gene.
The Law of Dominance:
The characters are controlled by discrete units called factors which occur in pairs. In a
dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair is dominant and the other is recessive.
The Law of Dominance gives an explanation to the monohybrid cross,
i. The expression of only one of the parental characters in F1 generation and
ii. The expression of both in the F2 generation.

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30. Differentiate incomplete dominance and codominance.

Incomplete dominance Codominance
Effect of one of the two alleles is more conspicuous. Effect of both the alleles are equally conspicuous.
It produces a fine mixture of the expression of two There is no mixing of the expression of two alleles.
alleles.
The effect in hybrid is intermediate of the two alleles. Both the alleles produce their effect independently.
The expressed phenomenon is new. It has no allele of The expressed phenotype is combination of two
its own. phenotypes and their alleles.
Example: Mirabilis Jalapa – Flower colour Example: Red and white flowers of Camellia

31. What is meant by cytoplasmic inheritance?

i. Genes located in nuclear chromosomes follow Mendelian inheritance.
ii. But certain traits are governed either by the chloroplast or mitochondrial genes. This
phenomenon is known as extra nuclear inheritance or Cytoplasmic inheritance.
iii. It is a kind of non-Mendelian inheritance.
iv. It is based on independent, self-replicating extra chromosomal unit called plasmogene located
in the cytoplasmic organelles, chloroplast and mitochondrion.

32. Describe dominant epistasis with an example.

Dominant Epistasis is the phenomenon in which dominant alleles of a gene at one locus
interfere and suppress the phenotypic expression of a different pair of alleles of another gene at
another locus. Example: Fruit colour in summer squash
i. When the white fruit (WWgg) is crossed with yellow fruit (wwGG), the F1 plants have white
fruit and are heterozygous (WwGg).
ii. When F1heterozygous plants are crossed they give rise to F2 with the phenotypic ratio of 12
(white) : 3 (yellow) : 1 (green).
iii. ‘W’ allele (White colour) is dominant that masks the expression of allele ‘G’ (Yellow
colour).
iv. Homozygous recessive ‘ww’ genotypes only can give the coloured (Yellow and Green) fruits
(4/16). Double recessive ‘wwgg’ will give green fruit (1/16).
v. Since W is epistatic to the alleles ‘G’ and ‘g’, the white which is dominant, masks the effect of
yellow or green.

Dominant epistasis in summer squash

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33. Explain polygenic inheritance with an example.

i. A group of genes that together determine a characteristic of an organism is called polygenic
inheritance.
ii. Swedish Geneticist, H. Nilsson - Ehle (1909) was demonstrated an experiment on polygenic
inheritance in wheat kernels.
iii. Kernel colour is controlled by two genes each with two alleles, one with red kernel colour
was dominant to white.
iv. He crossed the two pure breeding wheat varieties dark red and a white. Dark red genotypes
R1R1R2R2 and white genotypes are r1r1r2r2.
v. In the F1 generation medium red were obtained with the genotypeR1r1R2r2.
vi. F1 wheat plant produces four types of gametes R1R2, R1r2, r1R2, r1r2.
vii. The intensity of the red colour is determined by the number of R genes in the F2 generation.
viii. Four R genes: A dark red kernel colour is obtained.
Three R genes: Medium – dark red kernel colour is obtained.
Two R genes: Medium-red kernel colour is obtained.
One R gene: Light red kernel colour is obtained.
Absence of R gene: Results in White kernel colour.
ix. Nilsson – Ehle found the ratio of 63 red : 1 white (phenotypic ratio) in F2 generation –1 : 6 :
15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1 (genotypic ratio) in F2 generation.
x. From the above results Nilsson – Ehle showed that the blending inheritance was not taking
place in the kernel of wheat.
xi. The cumulative effect of several pairs of gene interaction gives rise to many shades of kernel
colour.
xii. He hypothesized that the two loci must contribute additively to the kernel colour of wheat.

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34. Differentiate continuous variation with discontinuous variation.

Discontinuous variation Continuous variation

The characteristics are controlled by one or two major The characteristics are controlled by many genes and
genes which may have two or more allelic forms. environmental factors.
In a population most of the characteristics exhibit a
Within a population there are some characteristics which
complete gradation, from one extreme to the other
show a limited form of variation.
without any break.
The phenotypic expression is unaffected by The phenotypic expression is affected by environmental
environmental conditions. conditions.
This is also called as qualitative inheritance. This is also known as quantitative inheritance.
Example: Style length in Primula,
Example: Human height and skin colour.
Plant height of garden pea.

35. Explain with an example how single genes affect multiple traits and alter the phenotype
of an organism.
i. Interactions take place between the alleles of the same gene i.e., alleles at the same locus is
called intragenic or intralocus gene interaction.
ii. The single gene affects multiple traits and alter the phenotype of the organism is called
Pleiotropy.
iii. In pleiotropy, gene which influences a number of characters simultaneously and such genes
are called pleiotropic gene.
iv. Mendel noticed pleiotropy while performing breeding experiment with peas (Pisum sativum).
iv. Peas with purple flowers, brown seeds and dark spot on the axils of the leaves were crossed
with a variety of peas having white flowers, light coloured seeds and no spot on the axils of the
leaves.
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v. He found that the three traits for flower colour, seed colour and a leaf axil spot all were
inherited together as a single unit.
vi. This is due to the pattern of inheritance where the three traits were controlled by a single gene
with dominant and recessive alleles.

36. Bring out the inheritance of chloroplast gene with an example.

i. Cytoplasmic inheritance is based on independent, self-replicating extra chromosomal unit
called plasmogene located in the cytoplasmic organelles, chloroplast and mitochondrion.
ii. Chloroplast Inheritance is found in 4 O’ Clock plant (Mirabilis jalapa).
iii. In this, there are two types of variegated leaves namely dark green leaved plants and pale
green leaved plants.
iv. When the pollen of dark green leaved plant (male) is transferred to the stigma of pale green
leaved plant (female) and pollen of pale green leaved plant is transferred to the stigma of dark
green leaved plant, the F1 generation of both the crosses must be identical as per Mendelian
inheritance.
v. But in the reciprocal cross the F1 plant differs from each other.
vi. In each cross, the F1 plant reveals the character of the plant which is used as female plant.
vii. This inheritance is not through nuclear gene.
viii. It is due to the chloroplast gene found in the ovum of the female plant which contributes the
cytoplasm during fertilization.
ix. The male gamete contributes only the nucleus but not cytoplasm.

Chloroplast inheritance (Mirabilis jalapa)

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Chapter: 3. Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance

1 Mark Questions
1. An allohexaploidy contains
a) Six different genomes
b) Six copies of three different genomes
c) Two copies of three different genomes
d) Six copies of one genome

2. Match list I with list II

List I List II
A. A pair of chromosomes extra with diploid i) monosomy
B. One chromosome extra to the diploid ii) tetrasomy
C. One chromosome loses from diploid iii) trisomy
D. Two individual chromosomes lose from diploid iv) double monosomy

a) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-I

c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv d) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

3. Which of the following sentences are correct?

1. The offspring exhibit only parental combinations due to incomplete linkage
2. The linked genes exhibit some crossing over in complete linkage
3. The separation of two linked genes are possible in incomplete linkage
4. Crossing over is absent in complete linkage

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4

4. Due to incomplete linkage in maize, the ratio of parental and recombinants are
a)50:50 b) 7:1:1:7 c) 96.4: 3.6 d) 1:7:7:1

5. The point mutation sequence for transition, transition, transversion and transversion in
DNA are
a) A to T, T to A, C to G and G to C b) A to G, C to T, C to G and T to A
c) C to G, A to G, T to A and G to A d)G to C, A to T, T to A and C to G

6. If haploid number in a cell is 18. The double monosomic and trisomic number will be
a) 34 and 37 b) 34 and 35 c) 37 and 35 d) 17 and 19

7. Changing the codon AGC to AGA represents

a) missense mutation b) nonsense mutation
c) frameshift mutation d) deletion mutation

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8. Assertion (A): Gamma rays are generally use to induce mutation in wheat varieties.
Reason (R): Because they carry lower energy to non-ionize electrons from atom
a) A and R are correct
b) A is correct. R is wrong
c) A is wrong. R is correct
d) A and R is wrong

2, 3 and 5 Mark Questions

9. When two different genes came from same parent they tend to remain together.
i) What is the name of this phenomenon?
ii) Draw the cross with suitable example.
iii) Write the observed phenotypic ratio.

i. Two different genes came from same parent they tend to remain together is called Linkage.
ii. One such case was reported in Sweet pea (Lathyrus odoratus) by Willium Bateson and
Reginald C. Punnet in 1906.They crossed one homozygous strain of sweet peas having purple
flowers and long pollen grains with another homozygous strain having red flowers and round
pollen grains. The details as follows

iii. The observed phenotypic ratio is 7 : 1 : 1 : 7

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10. What is the difference between missense and nonsense mutation?

i. The mutation where the codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon for another amino
acid is called Missense or non-synonymous mutations.
ii. The mutations where codon for one amino acid is changed into a termination or stop codon is
called Nonsense mutation.

11.
From the above figure identify the type of mutation and explain it.

i. The figure shows Reverse Tandem Duplication is type of structural chromosomal

aberration.
ii. The process of arrangement of the same order of genes repeated more than once in the same
chromosome is known as duplication.
iii. In Reverse Tandem Duplication the duplicated segment is located immediately after the
normal segment but the gene sequence order will be reversed.

12. Write the salient features of Sutton and Boveri concept.

i. Somatic cells of organisms are derived from the zygote by repeated cell division (mitosis).
ii. Somatic cells consist of two identical sets of chromosomes. One set is received from female
parent (maternal) and the other from male parent (paternal). These two chromosomes constitute
the homologous pair.
iii. Chromosomes retain their structural uniqueness and individuality throughout the life cycle of
an organism.
iv. Each chromosome carries specific determiners or Mendelian factors which are now termed as
genes.
v. The behaviour of chromosomes during the gamete formation (meiosis) provides evidence to
the fact that genes or factors are located on chromosomes.

13. Explain the mechanism of crossing over.

Mechanism of Crossing Over:
(i) Synapsis
a. Intimate pairing between two homologous chromosomes is initiated during zygotene stage of
prophase I of meiosis I.
b. Homologous chromosomes are aligned side by side resulting in a pair of homologous
chromosomes called bivalents.
(ii) Tetrad Formation
a. Each homologous chromosome of a bivalent begins to form two identical sister chromatids,
which remain held together by a centromere.
b. At this stage each bivalent has four chromatids. This stage is called tetrad stage.
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(iii) Cross Over

a. The non-sister chromatids of homologous pair make a contact at one or more points.

b. These points of contact between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes are called

Chiasmata (singular-Chiasma).

c. At chiasma, cross-shaped or X-shaped structures are formed, where breaking and rejoining of

two chromatids occur.

(iv) Terminalisation
After crossing over, chiasma starts to move towards the terminal end of chromatids. As a result,
complete separation of homologous chromosomes occurs.

14. How is Nicotiana exhibit self-incompatibility? Explain its mechanism.

i. In plants, multiple alleles have been reported in association with self-sterility or self-
incompatibility.
ii. Self-sterility means that the pollen from a plant is unable to germinate on its own stigma.
iii. East (1925) observed multiple alleles in Nicotiana which are responsible for self-
incompatibility or self-sterility.
iv. The gene for self-incompatibility can be designated as S, which has allelic series S1, S2, S3,
S4, S5and S6.
v. The cross-fertilizing tobacco plants were not always homozygous as S1S1 or S2S2, but all
plants were heterozygous as S1S2, S3S4, S5S6.
vii. When crosses were made between different S1S2 plants, the pollen tube did not develop
normally.
viii. But effective pollen tube development was observed when crossing was made with other
than S1S2 for example S3S4.
ix. When crosses were made between seed parents (Female) with S1S2 and pollen parents
(Male) with S2S3,two kinds of pollen tubes were distinguished.
x. Pollen grains carrying S2 were not effective, but the pollen grains carrying S3 were capable
of fertilization.
xi. Thus, from the cross S1S2XS3S4, all the pollens were effective and four kinds of progeny
resulted: S1S3, S1S4, S2S3 and S2S4.

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15. How sex is determined in monoecious plants. Write their genes involved in it.
i. Zea mays (maize) is an example for sex determination in monoecious, which means male and
female flowers are present on the same plant.
ii. There are two types of inflorescence. The terminal inflorescence which bears staminate florets
develops from shoot apical meristem called tassel. The lateral inflorescence which develop
pistillate florets from axillary bud is called ear or cob.
iii. Unisexuality in maize occurs through the selective abortion of stamens in ear florets and
pistils in tassel florets.
iv. A substitution of two single gene pairs 'ba' for barren plant and 'ts' for tassel seed makes
the difference between monoecious and dioecious (rare) maize plants.
v. The allele for barren plant (ba) when homozygous makes the stalk staminate by
eliminating silk and ears.
vi. The allele for tassel seed (ts) transforms tassel into a pistillate structure that produce no
pollen.
vii. Most of these mutations are shown to be defects in gibberellin biosynthesis.
viii. Gibberellins play an important role in the suppression of stamens in florets on the ears.
Genotype Dominant/recessive Modification Sex
Lacks silk on the stalk,
ba/ba
Double recessive but transformed tassel to Rudimentary female
ts/ts
pistil
ba/ba Recessive and Lacks silk and have
Male
ts+/ts+ dominant tassel
ba+/ba+
Double dominant Have both tassel and cob Monoecious
ts+/ts+
ba+/ba+ Dominant and Bears cob and lacks
Normal female
ts/ts recessive tassel
Sex determination in Maize (Superscript (+) denotes dominant character)

16. What is gene mapping? Write its uses.

The diagrammatic representation of position of genes and related distances between the
adjacent genes is called genetic mapping.
Uses of genetic mapping:
i. It is used to determine gene order, identify the locus of a gene and calculate the distances
between genes.
ii. They are useful in predicting results of dihybrid and trihybrid crosses.
iii. It allows the geneticists to understand the overall genetic complexity of particular organism.

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17. Draw the diagram of different types of aneuploidy.

Types of aneuploidy

18. Mention the name of man-made cereal. How it is formed?

i. Triticale is the successful first man made cereal.
ii. Hexaploidy Triticale hybrid plants demonstrate characteristics of both macaroni wheat and
rye.
iii. They combine the high-protein content of wheat with rye’s high content of the amino acid
lysine, which is low in wheat. It can be explained by chart below

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Chapter: 4. Principles and Processes of Biotechnology

1 Mark Questions
1. Restriction enzymes are
a. Not always required in genetic engineering
b. Essential tools in genetic engineering
c. Nucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites
d. both b and c

2. Plasmids are
a. circular protein molecules
b. required by bacteria
c. tiny bacteria
d. confer resistance to antibiotics

3. EcoRI cleaves DNA at

a. AGGGTT b. GTATATC
c. GAATTC d. TATAGC

4. Genetic engineering is
a. making artificial genes.
b. hybridization of DNA of one organism to that of the others.
c. production of alcohol by using micro-organisms.
d. making artificial limbs, diagnostic instruments such as ECG, EEG etc.,

5. Consider the following statements:

I. Recombinant DNA technology is popularly known as genetic engineering is a stream of
biotechnology which deals with the manipulation of genetic materials by man invitro
II. pBR322 is the first artificial cloning vector developed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez
from E. coli plasmid
III. Restriction enzymes belongs to a class of enzymes called nucleases.
Choose the correct option regarding above statements
a. I & II b. I & III
c. II & III d. I, II & III

6. The process of recombinant DNA technology has the following steps

I. Amplification of the gene
II. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cells
III. Cutting of DNA at specific location using restriction enzyme
IV. Isolation of genetic material (DNA)
Pick out the correct sequence of step for recombinant DNA technology.
a. II, III, IV, I b. IV, II, III, I
c. I, II, III, IV d. IV, III, I, II
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7. Which one of the following palindromic base sequence in DNA can be easily cut at about
the middle by some particular restriction enzymes?
a. 5’ CGTTCG 3’ 3 ATCGTA 5’
b. 5’ GATATG 3’ 3 CTACTA 5’
c. 5’ GAATTC 3’ 3 CTTAAG 5’
d. 5’ CACGTA 3’ 3 CTCAGT 5’

8. pBR 322, BR stands for

a. Plasmid Bacterial Recombination
b. Plasmid Bacterial Replication
c. Plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez
d. Plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez

9. Match the following :

Column A Column B
1. Exonuclease a. add or remove phosphate
2. Endonuclease b. binding the DNA fragments
3. Alkaline Phosphatase c. cut the DNA at terminus
4. Ligase d. cut the DNA at middle
1 2 3 4
A) a b c d
B) c d b a
C) a c b d
D) c d a b

10. In which techniques Ethidium Bromide is used?

a. Southern Blotting techniques
b. Western Blotting techniques
c. Polymerase Chain Reaction
d. Agrose Gel Electroporosis

11. Assertion: Agrobacterium tumifaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this

bacterium is associated with the root nodules of all cereals and pulse crops
Reason: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically
transferred to the cross with which bacterium is associated.
a) Both assertion and reason are true. But reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true. But reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
e) Both assertion and reason are false.
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12. Which one of the following is not correct statement?

a) Ti plasmid causes the bunchy top disease
b) Multiple cloning site is known as Polylinker
c) Non-viral method transfection of Nucleic acid in cell
d) Polylactic acid is a kind of biodegradable and bioactive thermoplastic.

13. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridisation technique does not
use
a) Electrophoresis b) Blotting c) Autoradiography d) Polymerase Chain Reaction

14. An antibiotic gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of

a) Competent cells b) Transformed cells
c) Recombinant cells d) None of the above

15. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are

a) long fibre and resistant to aphids
b) medium yield, long fibre and resistant to beetle pests
c) high yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests.
d) High yield and resistant to ball worms

2, 3 and 5 Mark Questions

16. How do you use the biotechnology in modern practice?

i. Fermentation for production of acids, enzymes, alcohols, antibiotics, fine chemicals, vitamins
and toxins
ii. Biomass for bulk production of single cell protein, alcohol and biofuel
iii. Biofuels for production of hydrogen, alcohol, methane
iv. Plant and animal cell culture for production of secondary metabolites, monoclonal antibodies
v. Recombinant DNA technology for production of fine chemicals, enzymes, vaccines, growth
hormones, antibiotics, and interferon

17. What are the materials used to grow microorganism like Spirulina?
i. Waste water from potato processing plants ii. Straw
iii. Molasses iv. Animal manure v. Sewage

18. You are working in a biotechnology lab with a becterium namely E. coli. How will you
cut the nucleotide sequence? Explain it.
i. The restriction enzymes are called as molecular scissors.
ii. These enzymes exist in many bacteria where they function as a part of their defence
mechanism.

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iii. They recognize and cut DNA within a specific sequence typically consisting of 4-8 bp.
This sequence is referred to as a restriction site and is generally – palindromic
v. For example, EcoRI is from Escherichia coli cut the DNA between Guanine (G) and Adenine
(A) make sticky end.

19. What are the enzymes you can used to cut terminal end and internal phosphodiester
bond of nucleotide sequence?
a. Exonucleases - which remove nucleotides one at a time from the end of a DNA molecule.
Examples: Bal 31 and Exonuclease III.
b. Endonucleases - which break the internal phosphodiester bonds within a DNA molecule.
Examples: Hind II, EcoRI, Pvul, BamHI and TaqI.

20. Name the chemicals used in gene transfer.

i. Polyethylene glycol (PEG) ii. Dextran sulphate

21. What do you know about the word pBR322?

i. pBR 322 Plasmid is a reconstructed plasmid and most widely used as cloning vector.
ii. It contains 4361 base pairs.
iii. In pBR, p denotes plasmid, Band R respectively the names of scientist Boliver and Rodriguez
who developed this plasmid.
iv. The number 322 is the number of plasmid developed from their laboratory.
v. It contains ampR and tetR two different antibiotic resistance genes and recognition sites for
several restriction enzymes.
vi. Rop codes for the proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid.

22. Mention the application of Biotechnology.

i. Biotechnology is one of the most important applied interdisciplinary sciences of the
21stcentury.
ii. It is the trusted area that enables us to find the beneficial way of life.
iii. Biotechnology has wide applications in various sectors like agriculture, medicine,
environment and commercial industries.
iv. This science has an invaluable outcome like transgenic varieties of plants. Example: Bt-cotton
v. The development of transgenics as pesticide resistant, stress resistant and disease resistant
varieties of agricultural crops.
vi. The synthesis of human insulin and blood protein in E. coli and utilized for insulin deficiency
disorder.

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vii. The synthesis of vaccines, enzymes, antibiotics, dairy products and beverages are the
products of biotech industries.
viii. Biochip based biological computer is one of the successes of biotechnology.
ix. Genetic engineering involves genetic manipulation, tissue culture involves aseptic cultivation
of totipotent plant cell into plant clones.
x. Single cell protein from Spirulina is utilized in food industries.
xi. Production of secondary metabolites, biofertilizers, biopesticides and enzymes.
xii. Biomass energy, biofuel, Bioremediation, phytoremediation for environmental
biotechnology.

23. What are restriction enzymes? Mention their type with role in Biotechnology.
i. A restriction enzyme is an enzyme that cleaves DNA into fragments at or near specific
recognition sites within the molecule known as restriction sites.
ii. Based on their mode of action restriction enzymes are classified into Exonucleases and
Endonucleases.
iii. Exonucleases - which remove nucleotides one at a time from the end of a DNA molecule.
Examples: Bal 31 and Exonuclease III.
iv. Endonucleases - which break the internal phosphodiester bonds within a DNA molecule.
Examples: Hind II, EcoRI, Pvul, BamHI and TaqI.

24. Is there any possibilities to transfer a suitable desirable gene to host plant without
vector? Justify your answer.
In the direct gene transfer methods, the foreign gene of interest is delivered into the host
plant without the help of a vector.
i. Chemical mediated gene transfer: Certain chemicals like polyethylene glycol (PEG) and
dextran sulphate induce DNA uptake into plant protoplasts.
ii. Microinjection: The DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of the host cell using fine
tipped glass needle or micro pipette.
iii. Electroporation: A pulse of high voltage is applied to protoplasts, cells or tissues which
makes transient pores in the plasma membrane through which uptake of foreign DNA occurs.
iv. Liposome mediated method: The gene or DNA is transferred from liposome into vacuole of
plant cells. Liposome and tonoplast of vacuole fusion resulted in gene transfer. This process is
called lipofection.
v. Biolistics: The foreign DNA is coated on to the surface of minute gold or tungsten particles
(1-3 μm) and bombarded on to the target tissue or cells using a particle gun.

25. How will you identify a vector?

i. It should be small in size and of low molecular weight, less than 10 Kb (kilo base pair) in size.
ii. Vector must contain an origin of replication so that it can independently replicate within the
host.
iii. It should contain a suitable marker such as antibiotic resistance, to permit its detection in
transformed host cell.
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iv. Vector should have unique target sites for integration with DNA insert.
v. Presence of Multiple Cloning Site (MCS) or polylinker facilitates the use of restriction
enzyme of choice.

26. Compare the various types of Blotting techniques.

27. Write the advantages of herbicide tolerant crops.

i. Weed control improves higher crop yields
ii. Reduces spray of herbicide
iii. Reduces competition between crop plant and weed
iv. Use of low toxicity compounds which do not remain active in the soil
v. The ability to conserve soil structure and microbes.

28. Write the advantages and disadvantages of Bt cotton.

Advantages:
i. Yield of cotton is increased due to effective control of bollworms.
ii. Reduction in insecticide use in the cultivation of Bt cotton
iii. Potential reduction in the cost of cultivation.
Disadvantages:
i. Cost of Bt cotton seed is high.
ii. Effectiveness up to 120 days after that efficiency is reduced
iii. Ineffective against sucking pests like jassids, aphids and whitefly.
iv. Affects pollinating insects and thus yield.

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29. What is bioremediation? Give some examples of bioremediation.

The use of microorganisms or plants to manage environmental pollution is called
bioremediation.

Examples:
i. Phytoremediation - use of plants to bring about remediation of environmental pollutants.
ii. Mycoremediation - use of fungi to bring about remediation of environmental pollutants.
iii. Bioventing - a process that increases the oxygen or air flow to accelerate the degradation of
environmental pollutants.
iv. Bioleaching - a use of microorganisms in solution to recover metal pollutants from
contaminated sites.
v. Bioaugmentation - a addition of selected microbes to speed up degradation process.
vi. Composting - a process by which the solid waste is composted by the use of microbes into
manure which acts as a nutrient for plant growth.
vii. Rhizofiltration - uptake of metals or degradation of organic compounds by rhizosphere
microorganisms.
viii. Rhizostimulation - stimulation of plant growth by the rhizosphere by providing better
growth condition or reduction in toxic materials.

30. Write the benefits and risk of Genetically Modified Foods.

GM Food –Benefits:
i. High yield without pest
ii. 70% reduction of pesticide usage
iii. Reduce soil pollution problem
iv. Conserve microbial population in soil

GM Food – Risks:
i. Affect liver, kidney function and cancer
ii. Hormonal imbalance and physical disorder
iii. Anaphylactic shock and allergies.
iv. Adverse effect in immune system because of bacterial protein.
v. Loss of viability of seeds seen in terminator seed technology of GM crops.

Based on the content of TNSCERT

Compiled by Dr.J. RAJESH, M.Sc., M.Phil.,B.Ed. -P.G Assistant (Botany), GHSS,Velachery,CH-42
 31

Chapter: 5.Plant Tissue Culture

1 Mark Questions
1. Totipotency refers to
a) capacity to generate genetically identical plants
b) capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell / explant
c) capacity to generate hybrid protoplasts
d) recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants

2. Micropropagation involves
a) vegetative multiplication of plants by using microorganisms
b) vegetative multiplication of plants by using small explants
c) vegetative multiplication of plants by using microspores
d) Non-vegetative multiplication of plants by using microspores and megaspores

3. Match the following:

Column A Column B
1) Totipotency A) Reversion of mature cells into meristem
2) Dedifferentiation B) Biochemical and structural changes of cells
3) Explant C) Properties of living cells develops into entire plant
4) Differentiation D) Selected plant tissue transferred to culture medium

1 2 3 4
a) C A D B
b) A C B D
c) B A D C
d) D B C A

4. The time duration for sterilization process by using autoclave is ______ minutes and the
temperature is _______
a) 10 to 30 minutes and 125° C
b) 15 to 30 minutes and 121° C
c) 15 to 20 minutes and 125° C
d) 10 to 20 minutes and 121° C

5. Which of the following statement is correct

a) Agar is not extracted from marine algae such as seaweeds
b) Callus undergoes differentiation and produces somatic embryoids
c) Surface sterilization of explants is done by using mercuric bromide
d) pH of the culture medium is 5.0 to 6.0

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 32

6. Select the incorrect statement from given statement

a) A tonic used for cardiac arrest is obtained from Digitalis purpuria
b) Medicine used to treat Rheumatic pain is extracted from Capsicum annum
c) An anti-malarial drug is isolated from Cinchona officinalis.
d) Anti-carcinogenic property is not seen in Catharanthus roseus.

7. Virus free plants are developed from

a) Organ culture
b) Meristem culture
c) Protoplast culture
d) Cell suspension culture

8. The prevention of large-scale loss of biological integrity

a) Biopatent b) Bioethics c) Biosafety d) Biofuel

9. Cryopreservation means it is a process to preserve plant cells, tissues or organs

a) at very low temperature by using ether.
b) at very high temperature by using liquid nitrogen
c) at very low temperature of -196°C by using liquid nitrogen
d) at very low temperature by using liquid nitrogen

10. Solidifying agent used in plant tissue culture is

a) Nicotinic acid b) Cobaltous chloride c) EDTA d) Agar

2, 3 and 5 Mark Questions

11. What is the name of the process given below? Write its 4 types.

i. The given process is Plant tissue culture technology.

ii. Based on the type of explant plant tissue culture may be classified into Organ culture,
Meristem culture, Protoplast culture and Cell suspension culture.
Based on the content of TNSCERT
Compiled by Dr.J. RAJESH, M.Sc., M.Phil.,B.Ed. -P.G Assistant (Botany), GHSS,Velachery,CH-42
 33

12. How will you avoid the growing of microbes in nutrient medium during culture
process? What are the techniques used to remove the microbes?
Sterilization is the technique employed to get rid of microbes such as bacteria and fungi
in the culture medium, vessels and explants.

Sterilization Techniques:
i. Sterilization of glassware, forceps, scalpels, and all accessories by autoclaving at 15 psi
(121°C)for 15 to 30 minutes or dipping in 70% ethanol followed by flaming and cooling.
ii. Floor and walls are washed first with detergent and then with 2% sodium hypochlorite or 95%
ethanol.
iii. The cabinet of laminar airflow is sterilized by clearing the work surface with 95% ethanol
and then exposure of UV radiation for 15 minutes.
iv. Culture media are dispensed in glass containers, plugged with non-absorbent cotton and then
sterilized using autoclave at15 psi (121°C) for 15 to 30 minutes.
v. The plant extracts, vitamins, amino acids and hormones are sterilized by passing through
Millipore filter with 0.2 mm pore diameter.
vi. The Explant should be surface sterilized by treating with0.1% mercuric chloride, 70% ethanol
under aseptic condition.

13. Write the various steps involved in cell suspension culture.

i. The growing of cells including the culture of single cells or small aggregates of cells in vitro in
liquid medium is known as cell suspension culture.
ii. The cell suspension is prepared by transferring a portion of callus to the liquid medium and
agitated using rotary shaker instrument.
iii. The cells are separated from the callus tissue and used for cell suspension culture.

14. What do you mean Embryoids? Write its application.

The callus cells undergoes differentiation and produces somatic embryos, known as
Embryoids. This process is called Somatic embryogenesis.
Applications:
i. Somatic embryogenesis provides potential plantlets which after hardening period can establish
into plants.
ii. Somatic embryoids can be used for the production of synthetic seeds.
iii. Somatic embryogenesis is now reported in many plants such as Allium sativum, Hordeum
vulgare, Oryza sativa, Zea mays and this possible in any plant.

15. Give the examples for micropropagation performed plants.

Some of the plants that are propagated through micropropagation include pineapple, banana,
strawberry and potato.

16. Explain the basic concepts involved in plant tissue culture.

Basic concepts of plant tissue culture:
i. Totipotency:
The property of live plant cells that they have the genetic potential when cultured in nutrient
medium to give rise to a complete individual plant.
ii. Differentiation
The process of biochemical and structural changes by which cells become specialized in form
and function.
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 34

iii. Redifferentiation
The further differentiation of already differentiated cell into another type of cell. For example,
when the component cells of callus have the ability to form a whole plant in a nutrient medium,
the phenomenon is called redifferentiation.
iv. Dedifferentiation
The phenomenon of the reversion of mature cells to the meristematic state leading to the
formation of callus is called dedifferentiation.

17. Based on the material used, how will you classify the culture technology? Explain it.
i. Based on the type of explant plant tissue culture are classified into Organ culture, Meristem
culture, Protoplast culture and Cell suspension culture.
ii. Organ culture: The culture of embryos, anthers, ovaries, roots, shoots or other organs of plants
on culture media.
iii. Meristem Culture: The culture of any plant meristematic tissue on culture media.
iv. Protoplast Culture: Protoplast is a cell without cell wall, but bound by a cell membrane is
used to regenerate whole plant and also used to develop somatic hybrid.
v. The growing of cells including the culture of single cells or small aggregates of cells in vitro
in liquid medium is known as cell suspension culture.

18. Give an account on Cryopreservation.

i. Cryopreservation or Cryo-conservation, is a process by which protoplasts, cells, tissues,
organelles, organs, extracellular matrix, enzymes or any other biological materials are subjected
to preservation by cooling to very low temperature of –196°Cusing liquid nitrogen.
ii. At this extreme low temperature any enzymatic or chemical activity of the biological material
will be totally stopped and this leads to preservation of material in dormant status.
iii. Later these materials can be activated by bringing to room temperature slowly for any
experimental work.
iv. Protective agents like dimethyl sulphoxide, glycerol or sucrose are added before
cryopreservation process.
v. These protective agents are called cryoprotectants, since they protect the cells, or tissues from
the stress of freezing temperature.

19. What do you know about Germplasm conservation. Describe it.

Germplasm conservation refers to the conservation of living genetic resources like pollen,
seeds or tissue of plant material maintained for the purpose of selective plant breeding,
preservation in live condition and used for many research works.

20. Write the protocol for artificial seed preparation.

i. Artificial seeds or synthetic seeds (synseeds) are produced by using embryoids (somatic
embryos) obtained through in vitro culture.
ii. They may even be derived from single cell that later divide to form cell mass containing dense
cytoplasm, large nucleus, starch grains, proteins, and oils etc.,
iii. To prepare the artificial seeds different inert materials are used for coating the somatic
embryoids like agrose and sodium alginate.
iv. They can potentially stored for long time under cryopreservation method.

Based on the content of TNSCERT

Compiled by Dr.J. RAJESH, M.Sc., M.Phil.,B.Ed. -P.G Assistant (Botany), GHSS,Velachery,CH-42
 35

Chapter: 6. Principles of Ecology

1 Mark Questions
1. Arrange the correct sequence of ecological hierarchy starting from lower to higher level.
a) Individual organism → Population → Landscape → Ecosystem
b) Landscape → Ecosystem → Biome → Biosphere
c) Community → Ecosystem → Landscape → Biome
d) Population → organism → Biome → Landscape

2. Ecology is the study of an individual species is called

i) Community ecology ii) Autecology iii) Species ecology iv) Synecology
a) i only b) ii only c) i and iv only d) ii and iii only

3. A specific place in an ecosystem, where an organism lives and performs its functions is
a) habitat b) niche c) landscape d) biome

4. Read the given statements and select the correct option.

i) Hydrophytes possess aerenchyma to support themselves in water.
ii) Seeds of Viscum are positively photoblastic as they germinate only in presence of light.
iii) Hygroscopic water is the only soil water available to roots of plant growing in soil as it is
present inside the micropores.
iv) High temperature reduces use of water and solute absorption by roots.

a) i, ii, and iii only b) ii, iii and iv c) ii and iii only d) i and ii only

5. Which of the given plant produces cardiac glycosides?

a) Calotropis b) Acacia c) Nepenthes d) Utricularia

6. Read the given statements and select the correct option.

i) Loamy soil is best suited for plant growth as it contains a mixture of silt, sand and clay.
ii) The process of humification is slow in case of organic remains containing a large amount
of lignin and cellulose.
iii) Capillary water is the only water available to plant roots as it is present inside the
micropores.
iv) Leaves of shade plant have more total chlorophyll per reaction centre, low ratio of chl a
and chl b are usually thinner leaves.
a) i, ii and iii only b) ii, iii and iv only c) i, ii and iv only d) ii and iii only

7. Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: Cattle do not graze on weeds of Calotropis.
Statement B: Calotropis have thorns and spines, as defense against herbivores.
a) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
b) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.
c) Both statements A and B are correct but statement B is not the correct explanation of
statement A.
d) Both statements A and B are correct and statement B is the correct explanation of statement A.
Based on the content of TNSCERT
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 36

8. In soil water available for plants is

a) gravitational water b) chemically bound water c) capillary water d) hygroscopic water

9. Read the following statements and fill up the blanks with correct option.
i) Total soil water content in soil is called ________________
ii) Soil water not available to plants is called ______________
iii) Soil water available to plants is called ________________
(i) (ii) (iii)
(a) Holard Echard Chresard
(b) Echard Holard Chresard
(c) Chresard Echard Holard
(d) Holard Chresard Echard

10. Column I represent the size of the soil particles and Column II represents type of soil
components. Which of the following is correct match for the Column I and Column IL
Column - I Column - II
I). 0.2 to 2.00 mm i) Slit soil
II) Less than 0.002 mm ii) Clayey soil
III) 0.002 to 0.02 mm iii) Sandy soil
IV) 0.002 to 0.2 mm iv) Loamy soil
I II III IV
(a) ii iii iv i
(b) iv i iii ii
(c) iii ii i iv
(d) None of the above

11. The plant of this group are adapted to live partly in water and partly above substratum
and free from water
a) Xerophytes b) Mesophytes c) Hydrophytes d) Halophytes

12. Identify the A, B, C and D in the given table

Interaction Effects on species X Effects on species Y
Mutualism A (+)
B (+) (-)
Competition (-) C
D (-) 0

A B C D
(a) (+) Parasitism (-) Amensalism
(b) (-) Mutalism (+) Competition
(c) (+) Competition 0 Mutalism
(d) 0 Amensalism (+) Parasitism
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 37

13. Ophrys an orchid resembling the female of an insect so as to able to get pollinated is due
to phenomenon of
a) Myrmecophily b) Ecological equivalents c) Mimicry d) None of these

14. A free living nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association
with the water fern Azolla
a) Nostoc b) Anabaena c) Chlorella d) Rhizobium

15. Pedogenesis refers to

a) Fossils b) Water c) Population d) Soil

16. Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by

a) Serving as a plant growth regulators b) Absorbing inorganic ions from soil
c) Helping the plant in utilizing atmospheric nitrogen d) Protecting the plant from infection

17. In a fresh water environment like pond, rooted autotrophs are

a) Nymphaea and Typha b) Ceratophyllum and Utricularia
c) Wolffia and Pistia d) Azolla and Lemna

18. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below:

Column I Column II
(Interaction) (Examples)
I. Mutualism i) Trichoderma and Penicillium
II. Commensalism ii) Balanophora, Orobanche
III. Parasitism iii) Orchids and Ferns
IV. Predation iv) Lichen and Mycorrhiza
V. Amensalism v)Nepenthes and Diaonaea

I II III IV V
(a) i ii iii iv v
(b) ii iii iv v i
(c) iii iv v i ii
(d) iv iii ii v i

19. Sticky glands of Boerhaavia and Cleome support

a) Anemochory b) Zoochory c) Autochory d) Hydrochory

Based on the content of TNSCERT

Compiled by Dr.J. RAJESH, M.Sc., M.Phil.,B.Ed. -P.G Assistant (Botany), GHSS,Velachery,CH-42
 38

2, 3 and 5 Mark Questions

20. Define ecology.
“The study of living organisms, both plants and animals, in their natural habitats or
homes.” - Reiter
“Ecology is the study of the reciprocal relationship between living organisms and their
environment.” - Earnest Haeckel

21. What is ecological hierarchy? Name the levels of ecological hierarchy.

The interaction of organisms with their environment results in the establishment of
grouping of organisms which is called ecological hierarchy or ecological levels of organization.
Levels of ecological hierarchy:

22. What are ecological equivalents? Give one example.

Taxonomically different species occupying similar habitats (Niches) in different
geographical regions are called Ecological equivalents.
Examples:
i. Certain species of epiphytic orchids of Western Ghats (India) differ from the epiphytic orchids
of South America. But they are epiphytes.
ii. Species of the grass lands of Western Ghats (India) differ from the grass species of temperate
grass lands of Steppe in North America. But they are all ecologically primary producers and
fulfilling similar roles in their respective communities.

23. Distinguish habitat and niche.

Habitat Niche
A specific physical space occupied by an A functional space occupied by an organism in
organism the same eco-system
Same habitat may be shared by many
A single niche is occupied by a single species
organisms
Habitat specificity is exhibited by Organisms may change their niche with time and
organism. season.
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 39

24. Why are some organisms called as eurythermal and some others as stenohaline?
i. Eurythermal: Organisms which can tolerate a wide range of temperature fluctuations. Example:
Zostera and Artemisia tridentata.
ii. Stenohaline: Organisms which can withstand only small range of salinity. Example: Plants of
estuaries.

25. ‘Green algae are not likely to be found in the deepest strata of the ocean’. Give at least
one reason.
In deep sea (>500m), the environment is dark and sufficient sun light is not available for
photosynthesis of green algae. So, green algae are not likely to be found in the deepest strata of
the ocean.

26. What is Phytoremediation?

Use of certain plants to remove contaminants or pollutants from the environment is
known as Phytoremediation.
Example: Some plants are used to remove cadmium from contaminated soil.

27. What is Albedo effect and write their effects?

Aerosols with small particles is reflecting the solar radiation entering the atmosphere.
This is known as Albedo effect.

Effects:
i. It reduces the temperature (cooling) limits, photosynthesis and respiration.
ii. The sulphur compounds are responsible for acid rain due to acidification of rain water and
destroy the ozone.

28. The organic horizon is generally absent from agricultural soils because tilling, e.g.,
plowing, buries organic matter. Why is an organic horizon generally absent in desert soils?
i. Organic horizon consists of fresh or partially decomposed organic matter such as fallen leaves,
twigs, flowers, fruits,dead plants, animals and their excreta.
ii. Usually it is absent in desert soil, because desert soil is driest soil and it consist of mostly
sandy particle.

29. Soil formation can be initiated by biological organisms. Explain how?

i. Soil formation is initiated by the weathering process.
ii. Biological weathering takes place when organisms like bacteria, fungi, lichens and plants help
in the breakdown of rocks through the production of acids and certain chemical substances.

30. Sandy soil is not suitable for cultivation. Explain why?

i. Sandy soil is not suitable for cultivation because, it cannot hold the water and it has big soil
particles (0.2 to 2 mm).
ii. Soil productivity and soil fertility of sandy soil is very low.
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 40

31. Describe the mutual relationship between the fig and wasp and comment on the
phenomenon that operates in this relationship.
i. Mutualism is an interaction between two species of organisms in which both are benefitted
from the obligate association.
ii. The mutual relationship between the fig and wasp is an example for mutualism.
iii. The wasp lays its eggs inside the inflorescence and also pollinates the flowers.
iv. Fig provides shelter to wasp for laying eggs and also allows its larva to feed on seeds.

32. Lichen is considered as a good example of obligate mutualism. Explain.

i. Mutualism is an interaction between two species of organisms in which both are benefitted
from the obligate association.
ii. Lichen is a good example of obligate mutualism in which mutual association between an alga
and a fungus.
iii. Algae provide nutrition for fungal partner and fungi provide protection and also help to fix
the thallus to the substratum through rhizinae.

33. What is mutualism? Mention any two examples where the organisms involved are
commercially exploited in modern agriculture.
Mutualism is an interaction between two species of organisms in which both are
benefitted from the obligate association.
Examples:
i. Water fern (Azolla) and Nitrogen fixing Cyanobacterium (Anabaena).
ii. Roots of terrestrial plants and fungal hyphae- Mycorrhiza

34. List any two adaptive features evolved in parasites enabling them to live successfully on
their host?
i. The parasitic plants produce the haustorial roots inside the host plant to absorb nutrients
from the vascular tissues of host plants.
ii. Some parasitic plants gets flower inducing hormone from its host plant. Example: Cuscuta.

35. Mention any two significant roles of predation plays in nature.

i. Many herbivores are predators. Cattles, Camels, Goats etc., frequently browse on the tender
shoots of herbs, shrubs and trees.
ii. Grazing and browsing may cause remarkable changes in vegetation.
iii. Nearly 25 percent of all insects are known as phytophagous (feeds on plant sap and other
parts of plant).

36. How does an orchid Ophrys ensures its pollination by bees?

Ophrys an orchid, the flower looks like a female insect to attract the male insect to get
pollinated by the male insect and it is otherwise called ‘floral mimicry’.

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 41

37. Water is very essential for life. Write any three features for plants which enable them to
survive in water scarce environment.
i. Root system is well developed and is greater than that of shoot system.
ii. The stems and leaves are covered with wax coating or covered with dense hairs.
iii. In some xerophytes all the internodes in the stem are modified into a fleshy leaf structure
called phylloclade. Example: Opuntia
iv. In some xerophytes single or occasionally two internodes modified into fleshy green structure
called cladode Example: Asparagus
v. In some the petiole is modified into a fleshy leaf like structure called phyllode. Example:
Acacia melanoxylon.
vi. The entire leaves are modified into spines (Opuntia) or reduced to scales (Asparagus).

38. Why do submerged plants receive weak illumination than exposed floating plants in a
lake?
i. Submerged plants receive weak illumination because these plants are completely immersed in
water and not contact with air.
ii. This happens because of refraction of light through different layers of water.
iii. Thus, floating plants get plenty of sunlight but submerged plants get weaker illumination.

39. What is vivipary? Name a plant group which exhibits vivipary.

i. Seeds or embryos begin to develop before they detach from the parent plant is called vivipary.
ii. Vivipary mode of seed germination is found in halophytes.

40. What is thermal stratification? Mention their types.

The change in the temperature profile with increasing depth in a water body is called
thermal stratification.
Types of thermal stratifications:
i. Epilimniotn – The upper layer of warmer water.
ii. Metalimnion – The middle layer with a zone of gradual decrease in temperature.
iii. Hypolimnion - The bottom layer of colder water.

41. How is rhytidome act as the structural defence by plants against fire?
i. The outer bark of trees which extends to the last formed periderm is called Rhytidome.
ii. Rhytidome is the structural defence by plants against fire.
iii. It is composed of multiple layers of suberized periderm, cortical and phloem tissues.
iv. It protects the stem against fire, water loss, invasion of insects and prevents infections by
microorganisms.

42. What is myrmecophily?

i. Sometimes, ants act as body guards of the plants against any disturbing agent and the plants in
turn provide food and shelter to these ants.
ii. This phenomenon is known as Myrmecophily. Example: Acacia and acacia ants.
Based on the content of TNSCERT
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 42

43. What is seed ball?

Seed ball is an ancient Japanese technique of encasing seeds in a mixture of clay and soil
humus (also in cow dung) and scattering them on to suitable ground, not planting of trees
manually.

44. How is anemochory differ from zoochory?

Anemochory Zoochory
The individual seeds or the whole fruit may be Birds, mammals and human beings play an efficient
modified to help for the dispersal by wind. and important role in the dispersal of fruit and seeds.
Seeds are minute or winged and seeds may have
Hooked fruit or sticky fruits and seeds
feathery appendages.
In some plants seed dispersed by censor mechanism. Some fleshy fruits are dispersed by human beings.
Examples: Aristolochia and Poppy. Examples: Mango and Diplocyclos.

45. What is Co - evolution?

i. The interaction between organisms, when continues for generations, involves reciprocal
changes in genetic and morphological characters of both organisms is called Co-evolution.
ii. It is a kind of co- adaptation and mutual change among interactive species.
iii. Example: Corolla length and proboscis length of butterflies and moths (Habenaria and
Moth).

46. Explain Raunkiaer classification in the world’s vegetation based on the temperature.
i. Raunkiaer classified the world’s vegetation into four types, megatherms, mesotherms,
microtherms and hekistotherms.
ii. Megatherms: Where high temperature prevails throughout the year and the dominant
vegetation is tropical rain forest (Temperature more than 24oC).
iii. Mesotherms: Where high temperature alternates with low temperature and the dominant
vegetation is tropical deciduous forest (Temperature ranges between 17oC to 24oC).
iv. Microtherms: Where low temperature prevails and the dominant vegetation is mixed
coniferous forest (Temperature ranges between 7oC to 17oC).
v. Hekistotherms: Where very low temperature prevails and the dominant vegetation is alpine
vegetation (Temperature less than 7oC).

47. List out the effects of fire to plants.

Effects of fire on plants:
i. Fire has a direct lethal effect on plants
ii. Burning scars are the suitable places for the entry of parasitic fungi and insects.
iii. It brings out the alteration of light, rainfall, nutrient cycle, fertility of soil, pH, soil flora and
fauna.
iv. Some fungi which grow in soil of burnt areas called pyrophilous. Example: Pyronema
confluens.
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 43

48. What is soil profile? Explain the characters of different soil horizons.
Soil is commonly stratified into horizons at different depth. These layers differ in their
physical, chemical and biological properties. This succession of super-imposed horizons is called
soil profile.
Characters of different soil horizons:
i. O - Horizon (Organic horizon): It consists of fresh or partially decomposed organic matter.
Usually absent in agricultural and deserts.
ii. A - Horizon (Leached horizon): It consists of top soil with humus, living creatures and in-
organic minerals.
iii. B - Horizon (Accumulation horizon): It consists of iron, aluminium and silica rich clay
organic compounds.
iv. C - Horizon (Partially weathered horizon): It consists of parent materials of soil, composed of
little amount of organic matters without life forms.
v. R - Horizon (Parent material): It is a parent bed rock upon which underground water is found.

49. Give an account of various types of parasitism with examples.

Parasitism is an interaction between two different species in which the smaller partner
(parasite) obtains food from the larger partner (host or plant). So, the parasitic species is
benefited while the host species is harmed.
Types of Parasitism:
i. Holoparasites (Total parasites): The organisms which are dependent upon the host plants for
their entire nutrition.
Examples: Cuscuta- total stem parasite, Balanophora, Orobanche and Refflesia - total root
parasites.
ii. Hemiparasites (Partial parasites): The organisms which derive only water and minerals from
their host plant while synthesizing their own food by photosynthesis.
Examples: Viscum and Loranthus- Partial stem parasites, Santalum (Sandal Wood) - Partial root
parasite.

50. Explain different types of hydrophytes with examples.

The plants which are living in water or wet places are called hydrophytes.
Types of hydrophytes:
i. Free floating hydrophytes:
These plants float freely on the surface of water. They remain in contact with water and
air, but not with soil. Examples: Eichhornia, Pistia and Wolffia.

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ii. Rooted floating hydrophytes:

In these plants, the roots are fixed in mud, but their leaves and flowers are floating on the
surface of water. These plants are in contact with soil, water and air. Examples: Nelumbo,
Nymphaea, Potomogeton and Marsilea.
iii. Submerged floating hydrophytes:
These plants are completely submerged in water and not in contact with soil and air.
Examples: Ceratophyllum and Utricularia.
iv. Rooted- submerged hydrophytes:
These plants are completely submerged in water and rooted in soil and not in contact with
air. Examples: Hydrilla, Vallisneria and Isoetes.
v. Amphibious hydrophytes (Rooted emergent hydrophytes):
These plants are adapted to both aquatic and terrestrial modes of life. They grow in
shallow water. Examples: Ranunculus, Typha and Sagittaria.

51. Enumerate the anatomical adaptations of xerophytes.

Anatomical adaptations of xerophytes:
i. Presence of multi-layered epidermis with heavy cuticle to prevent water loss due to
transpiration.
ii. Hypodermis is well developed with sclerenchymatous tissues.
iii. Sunken shaped stomata are present only in the lower epidermis with hairs in the sunken pits.
iv. Scotoactive type of stomata found in succulent plants.
v. Vascular bundles are well developed with several layered bundle sheath.
vi. Mesophyll is well differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
vii. In succulents the stem possesses a water storage region.

52. List out any five morphological adaptations of halophytes.

Morphological adaptations of halophytes:
i. The temperate halophytes are herbaceous but the tropical halophytes are mostly bushy.
ii. In addition to the normal roots, many stilt roots are developed.
iii. A special type of negatively geotropic roots called pneumatophores with pneumathodes to get
sufficient aeration are also present. They are called breathing roots. Example: Avicennia
iv. Presence of thick cuticle on the aerial parts of the plant body.

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v. Leaves are thick, entire, succulent and glossy. Some species are aphyllous (without leaves).
vi. Vivipary mode of seed germination is found in halophytes.

53. What are the advantages of seed dispersal?

Advantages of seed dispersal:

i. Seeds escape from mortality near the parent plants due to predation by animals

ii. Seeds also escape from getting diseases and avoiding competition.
iii. Dispersal gives a chance to occupy favourable sites for growth.
iv. It is an important process in the movement of plant genes particularly for self-fertilized
flowers.
v. Seed dispersal by animals help in conservation of many species even inhuman altered
ecosystems.
vi. Understanding of fruits and seed dispersal acts as a key for proper functioning and
establishment of many ecosystems.
vii. Seed dispersal helps also for the maintenance of biodiversity conservation and restoration of
ecosystems.

54. Describe dispersal of fruit and seeds by animals.

i. The dispersal of fruit and seeds by birds and mammals, including human beings is called
Zoochory.
ii. The plants have the following devices for the dispersal of fruit and seeds.
iii. The surface of the fruit or seeds have hooks (Xanthium), barbs (Andropogon),spines
(Aristida) by means of which they adhereto the body of animals or clothes of human beings and
get dispersed.
iv. Some fruits have sticky glandular hairs by which they adhere to the fur of grazing animals.
Examples: Boerhaavia and Cleome.
v. Some fruits have viscid layer which adhere to the beak of the bird which eat them and when
they rub them on to the branch of the tree, they disperse and germinate. Examples: Cordia and
Alangium.
vi. Some fleshy fruits are dispersed by human beings to distant places after consumption.
Examples: Mango and Diplocyclos.

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Chapter: 7. Ecosystem
1 Mark Questions

1. Which of the following is not a abiotic component of the ecosystem?

a) Bacteria b) Humus c) Organic compounds d) Inorganic compounds

2. Which of the following is / are not a natural ecosystem?

a) Forest ecosystem b) Rice field c) Grassland ecosystem d) Desert ecosystem

3. Pond is a type of
a) forest ecosystem b) grassland ecosystem
c) marine ecosystem d) fresh water ecosystem

4. Pond ecosystem is
a) not self sufficient and self regulating b) partially self sufficient and self regulating
c) self sufficient and not self regulating d) self sufficient and self regulating

5. Profundal zone is predominated by heterotrophs in a pond ecosystem, because of

a) with effective light penetration b) no effective light penetration
c) complete absence of light d) a and b

6. Solar energy used by green plants for photosynthesis is only

a) 2 – 8% b) 2 – 10% c) 3 – 10% d) 2 – 9%

7. Which of the following ecosystem has the highest primary productivity?

a) Pond ecosystem b) Lake ecosystem
c) Grassland ecosystem d) Forest ecosystem

8. Ecosystem consists of
a) decomposers b) producers c) consumers d) all of the above

9. Which one is in descending order of a food chain

a) Producers Secondary consumers Primary consumers Tertiary consumers
b) Tertiary consumers Primary consumers Secondary consumers Producers
c) Tertiary consumers Secondary consumers Primary consumers Producers
d) Tertiary consumers Producers Primary consumers Secondary consumers

10. Significance of food web is / are

a) it does not maintain stability in nature b) it shows patterns of energy transfer
c) it explains species interaction d) b and c

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11. The following diagram represents

a) pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem

b) pyramid of number in a pond ecosystem
c) pyramid of number in a forest ecosystem
d) pyramid of biomass in a pond ecosystem

12. Which of the following is / are not the mechanism of decomposition

a) Eluviation b) Catabolism c) Anabolism d) Fragmentation

13. Which of the following is not a sedimentary cycle

a) Nitrogen cycle b) Phosphorous cycle c) Sulphur cycle d) Calcium cycle

14. Which of the following are not regulating services of ecosystem services
i) Genetic resources ii) Recreation and aesthetic values
iii) Invasion resistance iv) Climatic regulation
a) i and iii b) ii and iv c) i and ii d) i and i

2, 3 and 5 Mark Questions

15. Productivity of profundal zone will be low. Why?
The deeper region of a pond below the limnetic zone is called profundal zone with no
effective light penetration and predominance of heterotrophs. So the productivity of profundal
zone will be low.

16. Discuss the gross primary productivity is more efficient than net primary productivity.
i. The total amount of food energy or organic matter or biomass produced in an ecosystem by
autotrophs through the process of photosynthesis is called gross primary productivity.
ii. The proportion of energy which remains after respiration loss in the plant is called net primary
productivity. NPP = GPP – Respiration
iii. Thus the gross primary productivity is more efficient than net primary productivity.

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17. Pyramid of energy is always upright. Give reasons.

There is a gradual decrease in energy transfer at successive tropic levels from producers to the
upper levels. Therefore, the pyramid of energy is always upright.

18. What will happen if all producers are removed from ecosystem?
i. Producers are the autotrophs which occupy the first tropic level in an ecosystem.
ii. The energy produced by them is utilized by the herbivores and then by carnivores there by
maintaining the stability of ecosystem.
iii. If all producers are removed from ecosystem it would lead to starvation and death of
herbivores and carnivores, thus terminating the entire food wed.

19. Construct the food chain with the following data.

Hawk, plants, frog, snake, grasshopper

20. Name of the food chain which is generally present in all type of ecosystem. Explain and
write their significance.
i. Detritus food chain is the type of food chain which present in all ecosystems.
ii. The transfer of energy from the dead organic matter is transferred through a series of
organisms called detritus food chain.
Significance:
i. This type of food chain begins with dead organic matter which is an important source of
energy.
ii. A large amount of organic matter is derived from the dead plants, animals and their excreta.

21. Shape of pyramid in a particular ecosystem is always different in shape. Explain with
example.
i. In a forest ecosystem the pyramid of number is spindle shaped.
ii. Because the base (T1) of the pyramid occupies large sized trees (Producer) which are lesser in
number.
iii. Herbivores (T2) (Fruit eating birds, elephant, deer) occupying second trophic level, are more
in number than the producers.
iv. In final trophic level (T4), tertiary consumers (lion) are lesser in number than the secondary
consumer (T3) (fox and snake).

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22. Generally human activities are against to the ecosystem, where as you a student how
will you help to protect ecosystem?
i. Buy and use only eco-friendly products and recycle them.
ii. Grow more trees
iii. Choose sustained farm products (vegetables, fruits, greens, etc.)
iv. Reduce the use of natural resources.
v. Recycle the waste and reduce the amount of waste.
vi. Reduce consumption of water and electricity.
vii. Reduce or eliminate the use of house-hold chemicals and pesticides.
viii. Maintain cars and vehicles properly.
ix. Create awareness and educate about ecosystem protection among friends and family
members.

23. Generally in summer the forest are affected by natural fire. Over a period of time it
recovers itself by the process of successions. Find out the types of succession and explain.
i. The development of a plant community in an area where an already developed community has
been destroyed by some natural disturbance such as fire, flood, human activity is known as
secondary succession.
ii. Generally, this succession takes less time than the time taken for primary succession.
iii. The forest destroyed by fire may be re-occupied by herbs over period of times.

24. Draw a pyramid from following details and explain in brief.

Quantities of organisms are given:
Hawks-50, Plants-1000, Rabbit and Mouse-250 +250, Pythons and Lizard- 100 + 50
respectively
i. There is a gradual decrease in the number of organisms in each trophic level from producers to
primary consumers and then to secondary consumers, and finally to tertiary consumers.
ii. Therefore, pyramids of number in grassland ecosystem is always upright.

Pyramids of number in grassland ecosystem

(T1– Producers, T2– Herbivores, T3 - Secondary consumers and T4 - Tertiary consumers)

25. Various stages of succession are given bellow. From that rearrange them accordingly.
Find out the type of succession and explain in detail.
Reed-swamp stage, phytoplankton stage, shrub stage, submerged plant stage, forest stage,
submerged free floating stage, marsh meadow stage.
i. The succession in a freshwater ecosystem is also referred to as hydrosere.
ii. Succession in a pond, begins with colonization of the pioneers like phytoplankton and finally
ends with the formation of climax community like forest stage.
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Stages of Hydrosere:
I. Phytoplankton stage
i. It is the first stage of succession consisting of the pioneer community like blue green algae,
green algae, diatoms, bacteria, etc.,
ii. The colonization of these organisms enrich the amount of organic matter and nutrients of
pond.
II. Submerged plant stage
i. As the result of death and decomposition of planktons, silt brought from land by rain water,
lead to a loose mud formation at the bottom of the pond.
ii. Hence, the rooted submerged hydrophytes begin to appear on the new substratum. Example:
Chara, Utricularia, Vallisneria and Hydrilla etc.
iii. The death and decay of these plants will build up the substratum of pond to become shallow.
iv. Therefore, this habitat now replaces another group of plants which are of floating type.
III. Submerged free floating stage
i. During this stage, the depth of the pond will become almost 2-5 feet.
ii. Hence, the rooted hydrophytic plants and with floating large leaves start colonising the pond.
Example: Rooted floating plants like Nelumbo, Nymphaea and Trapa.
iii. Some free floating species like Azolla, Lemna, Wolffia andPistia are also present in this stage.
iv. By death and decomposition of these plants, further the pond becomes more shallow.
v. Due to this reason, floating plant species is gradually replaced by another species which makes
new seral stage.
IV. Reed-swamp stage
i. It is also called an amphibious stage.
ii. During this stage, rooted floating plants are replaced by plants which can live successfully in
aquatic as well as aerial environment. Example: Typha, Phragmites, Sagittaria and Scirpus etc.
iii. At the end of this stage, water level is very much reduced, making it unsuitable for the
continuous growth of amphibious plants.
V. Marsh meadow stage
i. When the pond becomes swallowed due to decreasing water level, species of Cyperaceae and
Poaceae such as Carex, Juncus, Cyperus and Eleocharis colonise the area.
ii. They form a mat-like vegetation with the help of their much branched root system.
iii. This leads to an absorption and loss of large quantity of water.
iv. At the end of this stage, the soil becomes dry and the marshy vegetation disappears gradually
and leads to shrub stage.
VI. Shrub stage
i. As the disappearance of marshy vegetation continues, soil becomes dry.
ii. Hence, these areas are now invaded by terrestrial plants like shrubs (Salix and Cornus) and
trees (Populus and Alnus).
iii. These plants absorb large quantity of water and make the habitat dry.
iv. Further, the accumulation of humus with a rich flora of microorganisms produce minerals in
the soil, ultimately favouring the arrival of new tree species in the area.
VII. Forest stage
i. It is the climax community of hydrosere.
ii. A variety of trees invade the area and develop any one of the diverse type of vegetation.
Example: Temperate mixed forest (Ulmus, Acer and Quercus), Tropical rain forest (Artocarpus
and Cinnamomum) and Tropical deciduous forest (Bamboo and Tectona).
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Chapter: 8.Environmental Issues

1 Mark Questions

1. Which of the following would most likely help to slow down the greenhouse effect.
a) Converting tropical forests into grazing land for cattle.
b) Ensuring that all excess paper packaging is buried to ashes.
c) Redesigning landfill dumps to allow methane to be collected.
d) Promoting the use of private rather than public transport.

2. With respect to Eichhornia

Statement A: It drains off oxygen from water and is seen growing in standing water.
Statement B: It is an indigenous species of our country.
a) Statement A is correct and Statement B is wrong.
b) Both Statements A and B are correct.
c) Statement A is wrong and Statement B is correct.
d) Both statements A and B are wrong.

3. Find the wrongly matched pair.

a) Endemism - Species confined to a region and not found anywhere else.
b) Hotspots - Western Ghats
c) Ex-situ Conservation - Zoological parks
d) Sacred groves – Saintri hills of Rajasthan
e) Alien sp. of India - Water hyacinth

4. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin
cancer?
a) Ammonia b) Methane c) Nitrous oxide d) Ozone

5. One greenhouse gas contributes 20% of total global warming and another contributes
60%. These are respectively identified as
a) N2O and CO2 b) CFCs and N2O c) CH4 and CO2 d) CH4 and CFCS

6. One of the chief reasons among the following for the depletion in the number of species
making endangered is
a) over hunting and poaching b) greenhouse effect
c) competition and predation d) habitat destruction

7. Deforestation means
a) growing plants and trees in an area where there is no forest
b) growing plants and trees in an area where the forest is removed
c) growing plants and trees in a pond
d) removal of plants and trees
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8. Deforestation does not lead to

a) Quick nutrient cycling b) soil erosion
c) alternation of local weather conditions d) Destruction of natural habitat weather conditions

9. The unit for measuring ozone thickness

a) Joule b) Kilos c) Dobson d) Watt

10. People’s movement for the protection of environment in Sirsi of Karnataka is

a) Chipko movement b) Amirtha Devi Bishwas movement
c) Appiko movement d) None of the above

11. The plants which are grown in silvopasture system are

a) Sesbania and Acacia b) Solanum and Crotalaria
c) Clitoria and Begonia d) Teak and sandal

2, 3 and 5 Mark Questions

12. What is ozone hole?
i. The decline in the thickness of the ozone layer over restricted area is called Ozone hole.
ii. The ozone shield is being damaged by chemicals released on the Earth’s surface.

13. Give four examples of plants cultivated in commercial agroforestry.

Some of the major species cultivated in commercial agroforestry include Casuarina, Eucalyptus,
Malai Vembu, Teak and Kadambu.

14. Expand / Explain: CCS

i. Carbon capture and storage is a technology of capturing carbondioxide and injects it deep into
the underground rocks to a depth of 1 km or more.
ii. It is an approach to mitigate global warming by capturing CO 2 from large point sources such
as industries and power plants and subsequently storing it instead of releasing it into the
atmosphere.
iii. Various safe sites have been selected for permanent storage in various deep geological
formations.
iv. Liquid storage in the Ocean and solid storage by reduction of CO 2 with metal oxide to
produce stable carbonates.
v. It is also known as Geological sequestration which involves injecting CO 2 directly into the
underground geological formations.

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15. How do forests help in maintaining the climate?

i. Increasing the forest cover by growing more trees reduce global warming.
ii. Agroforestry is one of the solution for soil and water conservation and also to stabilise the
soil, reduce landslide and water run-off problem.
iii. Trees provide micro climate for crops and maintain O 2and CO2 level, atmospheric temperature
and relative humidity.
iv. To increase forest cover, planting more trees, increases O 2 production and air quality.
v. Terrestrial Carbon sequestration occurs naturally by forest.

16. How do sacred groves help in the conservation of biodiversity?

i. Sacred groves are the patches or grove of cultivated trees which are community protected.
ii. These are based on strong religious belief systems which usually have a significant religious
connotation for protecting community.
iii. Each grove is an abode of a deity mostly village God or Goddesses like Aiyanar or Amman.
iv. These groves provide a number of ecosystem services to the neighbourhood like protecting
watershed, fodder, medicinal plants and micro climate control.

17. Which one gas is most abundant out of the four commonest greenhouse gases?
Discuss the effect of this gas on the growth of plants?
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere.
Effects on Plants:
i. Low agricultural productivity in tropics
ii. Frequent heat waves (Weeds, pests, fungi need warmer temperature)
iii. Increase of vectors and epidemics
iv. Strong storms and intense flood damage
v. Water crisis and decreased irrigation
vi. Change in flowering seasons and pollinators
vii. Change in Species distributional ranges
viii. Species extinction

18. Suggest a solution to water crisis and explain its advantages.

i. Rainwater harvesting is one of the major solution for water crisis.
ii. The accumulation and storage of rain water for reuse in-site rather than allowing it to run off
is called Rainwater harvesting.
iii. Rainwater can be collected from rivers, roof tops and the water collected is directed to a deep
pit.
Advantages of Rain Water Harvesting:
i. Promotes adequacy of underground water and water conservation.
ii. Mitigates the effect of drought.
iii. Reduces soil erosion as surface run-off is reduced.
iv. Reduces flood hazards.
v. Improves groundwater quality and water table / decreases salinity.
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vi. Avoid land wastage for storage purpose and no population displacement is involved.
vii. Stores water underground as an eco-friendly measure and is a part of sustainable water
storage strategy for local communities.

19. Explain afforestation with case studies.

i. Afforestation is planting of trees where there was no previous tree coverage and the conversion
of non-forested lands into forests by planting suitable trees to retrieve the vegetation.
ii. Example: Slopes of dams afforested to reduce water run-off, erosion and siltation.
Case study - The Man who Single - Handedly Created a Dense Forest:
i. Jadav "Molai" Payeng (born 1963) is an environmental activist has single-handedly planted a
forest in the middle of a barren wasteland.
ii. He transformed the world’s largest river island, Majuli, located on Brahmaputra, into a dense
forest.
iii. Former vice-chancellor of Jawahar Lal Nehru University, Sudhir Kumar Sopory named Jadav
Payeng as ‘Forest Man of India’.
iv. He was honoured at the ‘Indian Institute of Forest Management’ during their annual event
‘Coalescence’.
v. In 2015, he was honoured with Padma Shri, the fourth highest civilian award in India.
vi. He received honorary doctorate degree from ‘Assam Agricultural University’ and ‘Kaziranga
University’ for his contributions.

20. What are the effects of deforestation and benefits of agroforestry?

Effects of Deforestation:
i. Burning of forest wood release stored carbon, a negative impact just opposite of carbon
sequestration.
ii. Trees and plants bind the soil particles. The removal of forest cover increases soil erosion and
decreases soil fertility.
iii. Deforestation in dry areas leads to the formation of deserts.
iv. The amount of runoff water increases soil erosion and also creates flash flooding, thus
reducing moisture and humidity.
v. The alteration of local precipitation patterns leading to drought conditions in many regions.
vi. It triggers adverse climatic conditions and alters water cycle in ecosystem.

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vii. It decreases the bio-diversity significantly as their habitats are disturbed and disruption of
natural cycles.
viii. Loss of livelihood for forest dwellers and rural people.
ix. Increased global warming and account for one-third of total CO2 emission.
x. Loss of life support resources, fuel, medicinal herbs and wild edible fruits.
Benefits of Agroforestry:
i. It is an answer to the problem of soil and water conservation and also to stabilise the soil,
reduce landslide and water run-off problem.
ii. Nutrient cycling between species improves and organic matter is maintained.
iii. Trees provide micro climate for crops and maintain O2 - CO2 balanced, atmospheric
temperature and relative humidity.
iv. Suitable for dry land where rainfall is minimum and hence it is a good system for alternate
land use pattern.
v. Multipurpose tree varieties like Acacia are used for wood pulp, tanning, paper and firewood
industries.
vi. It can be used as Farm Forestry for the extension of forests, mixed forestry, shelter belts and
linear strip plantation.

Chapter: 9. Plant Breeding

1 Mark Questions
1. Assertion: Genetic variation provides the raw material for selection
Reason: Genetic variations are differences in genotypes of the individuals.
a) Assertion is right and reason is wrong.
b) Assertion is wrong and reason is right.
c) Both reason and assertion is right.
d) Both reason and assertion is wrong.

2. While studying the history of domestication of various cultivated plants ___ were
recognized earlier
a) Centres of origin b) Centres of domestication c) Centres of hybrid d) Centres of variation

3. Pick out the odd pair.

a) Mass selection - Morphological characters
b) Purline selection - Repeated self pollination
c) Clonal selection - Sexually propagated
d) Natural selection - Involves nature

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4. Match Column I with Column II

Column I Column II
i) William S. Gaud I) Heterosis
ii) Shull II) Mutation breeding
iii) Cotton Mather III) Green revolution
iv) Muller and Stadler IV) Natural hybridization
a) i – I, ii – II, iii – III, iv – IV
b) i – III, ii – I, iii – IV, iv – II
c) i – IV, ii – II, iii – I, iv – IV
d) i – II, ii – IV, iii – III, iv – I

5. The quickest method of plant breeding is

a) Introduction b) Selection c) Hybridization d) Mutation breeding

6. Desired improved variety of economically useful crops are raised by

a) Natural Selection b) hybridization c) mutation d) biofertilisers

7. Plants having similar genotypes produced by plant breeding are called

a) clone b) haploid c) autopolyploid d) genome

8. Importing better varieties and plants from outside and acclimatising them to local
environment is called
a) cloning b) heterosis c) selection d) introduction

9. Dwarfing gene of wheat is

a) pal 1 b) Atomita 1 c) Norin 10 d) pelita 2

10. Crosses between the plants of the same variety are called
a) inter specific b) inter varietal c) intra varietal d) inter generic

11. Progeny obtained as a result of repeat self pollination a cross pollinated crop to called
a) pure line b) pedigree line c) inbreed line d) heterosis
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12. Jaya and Ratna are the semi dwarf varieties of

a) wheat b) rice c) cowpea d) mustard

13. Which one of the following are the species that are crossed to give sugarcane varieties
with high sugar, high yield, thick stems and ability to grow in the sugarcane belt of North
India?
a) Saccharum robustum and Saccharum officinarum
b) Saccharum barberi and Saccharum officinarum
c) Saccharum sinense and Saccharum officinarum
d) Saccharum barberi and Saccharum robustum

14. Match column I (crop) with column II (Corresponding disease resistant variety) and
select the correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
I) Cowpea i) Himgiri
II) Wheat ii) Pusa komal
III) Chilli iii) Pusa Sadabahar
IV) Brassica iv) Pusa Swarnim

I II III IV
a) iv iii ii i
b) ii i iii iv
c) ii iv i iii
d) i iii iv ii

15. A wheat variety, Atlas 66 which has been used as a donor for improving cultivated
wheat, which is rich in
a) iron b) carbohydrates c) proteins d) vitamins

16. Which one of the following crop varieties correct matches with its resistance to a
disease?
Variety Resistance to disease
a) Pusa Komal Bacterial blight
b) Pusa Sadabahar White rust
c) Pusa Shubhra Chilli mosaic virus
d) Brassica Pusa swarnim

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17. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

a) Wheat - Himgiri
b) Milch breed - Sahiwal
c) Rice - Ratna
d) Pusa Komal - Brassica

18. Match list I with list II

List I List II
Biofertilizer Organisms
i) Free living N2 a) Aspergillus
ii) Symbiotic N2 b) Amanita
iii) P Solubilizing c) Anabaena azollae
iv) P Mobilizing d) Azotobactor

a) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

b) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
c) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
d) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
2, 3 and 5 Mark Questions
19. Differentiate primary introduction from secondary introduction.
i. Primary introduction - When the introduced variety is well adapted to the new environment
without any alternation to the original genotype.
ii. Secondary introduction - When the introduced variety is subjected to selection to isolate a
superior variety and hybridized with a local variety to transfer one or a few characters to them.

20. How are microbial innoculants used to increase the soil fertility?
i. Microbial inoculants are efficient in fixing nitrogen, solubilising phosphate and decomposing
cellulose.
ii. They are designed to improve the soil fertility, plant growth, and also the number and
biological activity of beneficial microorganisms in the soil.
iii. They are eco-friendly organic agro inputs and are more efficient and cost effective than
chemical fertilizers.
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21. What are the different types of hybridization?

Types of Hybridization
According to the relationship between plants, the hybridization is divided into -
i.Intravarietal hybridization, ii. Intervarietal hybridization, iii. Interspecific hybridization and
iv.Intergeneric hybridization
i. Intravarietal hybridization - The cross between the plants of same variety. Such crosses are
useful only in self-pollinated crops.
ii. Intervarietal hybridization - The cross between the plants belonging to two different varietie
s of the same species and is also known as intraspecific hybridization. This technique has been
the basis of improving self-pollinated as well as cross pollinated crops
iii. Interspecific hybridization - The cross between the plants belonging to different species
belonging to the same genus is also called intragenic hybridization. It is commonly used for
transferring the genes of disease, insect, pest and drought resistance from one species to another.
Example: Gossypium hirsutum x Gossypium arboreum – Deviraj.
iv. Intergeneric hybridization – The crosses are made between the plants belonging to two
different genera. The disadvantages are hybrid sterility, time consuming and expensive
procedure. Example: Raphanobrassica, Triticale.

22. Explain the best suited type followed by plant breeders at present?
i. Conventional plant breeding methods resulting in hybrid varieties had a tremendous impact on
agricultural productivity over the last decades.
ii. It develops new plant varieties by the process of selection and seeks to achieve expression of
genetic material which is already present within the species.
Types of Conventional plant breeding methods:
i. Plant introduction - the introduction of genotypes from a place where it is normally grown to
a new place or environment.
ii. Selection - the choice of certain individuals from a mixed population for a one or more
desirable traits.
iii. Hybridization - the method of producing new crop varieties in which two or more plants of
unlike genetically constitution all crossed together that result in a progeny called hybrid.
iv. Heterosis or hybrid vigour - The superiority of the F1 hybrid in performance over its
parents.

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v. Mutation Breeding - the sudden heritable changes in the genotype or phenotype of an

organism is called Mutation. Gene mutations are importance in plant breeding as they provide
essential inputs for evolution, re-combination and selection.
vi. Polyploid Breeding - a major force in the evolution of both wild and cultivated plants.
vii. Green revolution - the cumulative result of a series of research, development, innovation
and technology transfer initiatives.

23. Write a note on heterosis.

i. The superiority of the F1 hybrid in performance over its parents is called heterosis or hybrid
vigour.
ii. Vigour refers to increase in growth, yield, greater adaptability of resistance to diseases, pest
and drought.
iii. Vegetative propagation is the best suited measure for maintaining hybrid vigour, since the
desired characters are not lost and can persist over a period of time.
iv. Many breeders believe that the magnitude of heterosis is directly related to the degree of
genetic diversity between the two parents.

24. List out the new breeding techniques involved in developing new traits in plant

breeding.

i. New Breeding Techniques (NBT) are a collection of methods that could increase and
accelerate the development of new traits in plant breeding.
ii. These techniques often involve genome editing, to modify DNA at specific locations within
the plants to produce new traits in crop plants.
The various methods of achieving changes in traits as follows:

i. Cutting and modifying the genome during the repair process by tools like CRISPR / Cas.

ii. Genome editing to introduce changes in few base pairs using a technique called
Oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis (ODM).
iii. Transferring a gene from an identical or closely related species (cisgenesis)

iv. Organising processes that alter gene activity without altering the DNA itself (epigenetic
methods).

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Compiled by Dr.J. RAJESH, M.Sc., M.Phil.,B.Ed. -P.G Assistant (Botany), GHSS,Velachery,CH-42
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Chapter: 10. Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial Botany

1 Mark Questions
1. Consider the following statements and choose the right option.
i) Cereals are members of grass family.
ii) Most of the food grains come from monocotyledon.
a) (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (i) is wrong and (ii) is correct d) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong

2. Assertion: Vegetables are important part of healthy eating.

Reason: Vegetables are succulent structures of plants with pleasant aroma and flavours.
a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
b) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
c) Both are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
d) Both are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.

3. Groundnut is native of ______

a) Philippines b) India c) North America d) Brazil

4. Statement A: Coffee contains caffeine

Statement B: Drinking coffee enhances cancer
a) A is correct, B is wrong b) A and B – Both are correct
c) A is wrong, B is correct d) A and B – Both are wrong

5. Tectona grandis is coming under family

a) Lamiaceae b) Fabaceae c) Dipterocaipaceae e) Ebenaceae

6. Tamarindus indica is indigenous to

a) Tropical African region b) South India, Sri Lanka
c) South America, Greece d) India alone

7. New world species of cotton

a) Gossipium arboretum b) G. herbaceum c) Both a and b d) G. barbadense

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8. Assertion: Turmeric fights various kinds of cancer

Reason: Curcumin is an anti-oxidant present in turmeric
a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong b) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
c) Both are correct d) Both are wrong

9. Find out the correctly matched pair.

a) Rubber - Shorea robusta
b) Dye - Indigofera annecta
c) Timber - Cyperus papyrus
d) Pulp - Hevea brasiliensis

10. Observe the following statements and pick out the right option from the following:
Statement I – Perfumes are manufactured from essential oils.
Statement II – Essential oils are formed at different parts of the plants.
a) Statement I is correct b) Statement II is correct
c) Both statements are correct d) Both statements are wrong

11. Observe the following statements and pick out the right option from the following:
Statement I: The drug sources of Siddha include plants, animal parts, ores and minerals.
Statement II: Minerals are used for preparing drugs with long shelf-life.

a) Statement I is correct b) Statement II is correct

c) Both statements are correct d) Both statements are wrong

12. The active principle trans-tetra hydro canabial is present in

a) Opium b) Curcuma c) Marijuana d) Andrographis

13. Which one of the following matches is correct?

a) Palmyra - Native of Brazil
b) Saccharun - Abundant in Kanyakumari
c) Steveocide - Natural sweetener
d) Palmyra sap - Fermented to give ethanol

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2, 3 and 5 Mark Questions

14. Write the cosmetic uses of Aloe.
Cosmetic uses of Aloe:
i. ‘Aloin’ (a mixture of glucosides) and its gel are used as skin tonic.
ii. It has a cooling effect and moisturizing characteristics.
iii. Used in preparation of creams, lotions, shampoos, shaving creams, after shave lotions and
allied products.
iv. It is used in gerontological applications for rejuvenation of aging skin.
v. Products prepared from aloe leaves have multiple properties such as emollient, antibacterial,
antioxidant, antifungal and antiseptic.
vi. Aloe vera gel is used in skin care cosmetics.

15. What is pseudo cereal? Give an example.

The term pseudo-cereal is used to describe foods that are prepared and eaten as a whole
grain, but are botanical outliers from grasses. Example: Quinoa (Chenopodium quinoa)

16. Discuss which wood is better for making furniture.

i. Teak (Tectona grandis) wood is better for making furniture because it is one of best timbers of
the world.
ii. The heartwood is golden yellow to golden brown when freshly sawn, turning darker when
exposed to light.
iii. Known for its durability as it is immune to the attack of termites and fungi.
iv. The wood does not split or crack and is a carpenter friendly wood.
v. It was the chief railway carriage and wagon wood in India.
vi. Ship building and bridge-building depends on teakwood.
vii. It is also used in making boats, toys, plywood, door frames and doors.

17. A person got irritation while applying chemical dye. What would be your suggestion for
alternative?
i. An orange dye ‘Henna’ is obtained from the leaves and young shoots of Lawsonia inermis.
ii. The principal colouring matter of leaves ‘lacosone” is harmless and causes no irritation to the
skin.

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 64

iii. This dye has long been used to dye skin, hair and finger nails.
iv. It is used for colouring leather, for the tails of horses and in hair-dyes.

18. Name the humors that are responsible for the health of human beings.
According to Siddha system of medicine three humors namely Vātam, Pittam and Kapam
that are responsible for the health of human beings.

19. Give definitions for organic farming?

Organic farming is an alternative agricultural system in which plants/crops are cultivated
in natural ways by using biological inputs to maintain soil fertility and ecological balance
thereby minimizing pollution and wastage.

20. Which is called as the “King of Bitters”? Mention their medicinal importance.
Nilavembu, (Andrographis paniculata) known as the King of Bitters.
Medicinal importance of Nilavembu:
i. It is a potent hepatoprotective and is widely used to treat liver disorders.
ii. Concoction of Nilavembu and eight other herbs (Nilavembu Kudineer) is effectively used to
treat malaria and dengue.

21. Differentiate bio-medicines and botanical medicines.

Biomedicines Botanical medicines
Medicinally useful molecules obtained from Medicinal plants which are marketed as
plants that are marketed as drugs powders or in other modified forms

22. Write the origin and area of cultivation of green gram and red gram.
Origin and Area of cultivation - Green gram (Vigna radiata):
i. Green gram is a native of India and the earliest archaeological evidences are found in the state
of Maharashtra.
ii. It is cultivated in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Origin and Area of cultivation - Red gram / Pigeon pea (Cajanus cajan):
i. It is the only pulse native to Southern India.
ii. It is mainly grown in the states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka
and Gujarat.
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23. What are millets? What are its types? Give example for each type.
i. The term millet is applied to a variety of very small seeds originally cultivated by ancient
people in Africa and Asia.
ii. They are gluten free and have less glycemic index.
A. Millets (Siru Thaniyangal)
i. Finger Millet / Ragi (Eleusine coracana)
ii. Sorghum (Sorghum vulgare)
B. Minor Millets
i. Foxtail Millet (Setaria italic)
ii. Kodo Millet (Paspalum scrobiculatum)

24. If a person drinks a cup of coffee daily it will help him for his health. Is this correct? If
it is correct, list out the benefits.
Yes, a person drinks a cup of coffee daily it will help him for his health.
Health benefits of Coffee:
i. Caffeine enhances release of acetylcholine in brain, which in turn enhances efficiency.
ii. It can lower the incidence of fatty liver diseases, cirrhosis and cancer.
iii. It may reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.

25. Enumerate the uses of turmeric.

i. Turmeric is used traditionally over thousands of years for culinary, cosmetic, dyeing and for
medicinal purposes.
ii. It is an important constituent of curry powders.
iii. It is used as a colouring agent in pharmacy, confectionery and food industry.
iv. Rice coloured with turmeric (yellow) is considered sacred and auspicious which is used in
ceremonies.
v. It is also used for dyeing leather, fibre, paper and toys.
vi. Curcumin extracted from turmeric is a very good anti-oxidant which may help fight various
kinds of cancer.
vii. It has anti-inflammatory, anti-diabetic, anti-bacterial, anti-fungal and anti-viral activities.
viii. It stops platelets from clotting in arteries, which leads to heart attack.

26. What is TSM? How does it classified and what does it focuses on?
i. TSM - Traditional Systems of Medicines.
ii. TSM in India can be broadly classified into institutionalized or documented (Siddha and
Ayurveda) and non-institutionalized or oral traditions (Practiced by rural and tribal peoples).
iii. The TSM focus on healthy lifestyle and healthy diet for maintaining good health and disease
reversal.

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27. Write the uses of nuts you have studied.

Uses of Cashew nut (Anacardium occidentale):
i. Cashews are commonly used for garnishing sweets or curries.
ii. It also ground into a paste that forms a base of sauces for curries or some sweets.
iii. Roasted and raw kernels are used as snacks.

28. Give an account on the role of Jasminum in perfuming.

Role of Jasminum in perfuming:
i. Jasmine flowers have been used since ancient times in India for worship, ceremonial purposes,
incense and fumigants
ii. It also used for making perfumed hair oils, cosmetics and soaps.
iii. Jasmine oil is an essential oil that is valued for its soothing, relaxing, antidepressant qualities.
iv. Jasmine blends well with other perfumes.
v. It is much used in modern perfumery and cosmetics.
vi. It has become popular in air freshners, anti-perspirants, talcum powders, shampoos and
deodorants.

29. Give an account of active principle and medicinal values of any two plants you have
studied.
S. Botanical name /
Active principle Medicinal importance
No Common Name
i. It is a well-known hepato-protective
plant.
Phyllanthus amarus ii. Used for the treatment of Jaundice.
1. Phyllanthin
(Keezhanelli) iii. The extract of P. amarus is effective
against hepatitis B virus.
i. It is a potent hepatoprotective.
ii. It is widely used to treat liver
disorders.
Andrographis paniculata
2. Andrographolides iii. Concoction of Nilavembu and eight
(Nilavembu)
other herbs (Nilavembu Kudineer) is
effectively used to treat malaria and
dengue.

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30. Write the economic importance of rice.

Economic importance of rice:
i. Rice is the easily digestible calorie rich cereal food.
ii. It is used as a staple food in Southern and North East India.
iii. Various rice products such as Flaked rice (Aval), Puffed rice / parched rice (Pori) are used as
breakfast cereal or as snack food.
iv. Rice bran oil obtained from the rice bran is used in culinary and industrial purposes.
v. Husks are used as fuel, and in the manufacture of packing material and fertilizer

31. Which TSM is widely practiced and culturally accepted in Tamil Nadu? - explain.
i. Siddha is the most popular, widely practiced and culturally accepted system in Tamil Nadu.
ii. It is based on the texts written by 18 Siddhars.
iii. There are different opinions on the constitution of 18 Siddhars.
iv. The Siddhars are not only from Tamil Nadu, but have also come from other countries.
v. The entire knowledge is documented in the form of poems in Tamil.
vi. Siddha is principally based on the Pancabūta philosophy.
vii. According to this system three humors namely Vātam, Pittam and Kapam that are
responsible for the health of human beings.
viii. Any disturbance in the equilibrium of these humors result in ill health.
ix. The drug sources of Siddha include plants, animal parts, marine products and minerals.
x. This system specializes in using minerals for preparing drugs with the long shelf-life.
xi. This system uses about 800 herbs as source of drugs.
xii. Great stress is laid on disease prevention, health promotion, rejuvenation and cure.

32. What are psychoactive drugs? Add a note on Marijuana and Opium.
Phytochemicals or drugs from some of the plants alter an individual’s perceptions of
mind by producing hallucination are known as psychoactive drugs.
A. Opium poppy (Papaver somniferum)
i. Opium is derived from the exudates of fruits of poppy plants.
ii. It was traditionally used to induce sleep and for relieving pain.
iii. Opium yields Morphine, a strong analgesic which is used in surgery.
B. Cannabis / Marijuana (Cannabis sativa)
i. The active principle is trans-tetrahydrocanabinal (THC).
ii. It is an effective pain reliever and reduces hypertension.
iii. THC is used in treating Glaucoma a condition in which pressure develops in the eyes.
iv. It is also used in reducing nausea of cancer patients undergoing radiation and chemotherapy.
v. It provides relief to bronchial disorders, especially asthma as it dilates bronchial vessels.

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33. What are the King and Queen of spices? Explain about them and their uses.
Black Pepper (Piper nigrum) is called as “King of Spices”.
Uses:
i. It is used for flavouring in the preparation of sauces, soups, curry powder and pickles.
ii. It is used in medicine as an aromatic stimulant for enhancing salivary and gastric secretions
and also as a stomachic.
iii. Pepper also enhances the bio-absorption of medicines.
Cardamom (Elettaria cardamomum) is called as “Queen of Spices”.
Uses:
i. The seeds have a pleasing aroma and a characteristic warm, slightly pungent taste.
ii. It is used for flavouring confectionaries, bakery products and beverages.
iii. The seeds are used in the preparation of curry powder, pickles and cakes.
iv. Medicinally, it is employed as a stimulant and carminative.
v. It is also chewed as a mouth freshener.

34. How will you prepare an organic pesticide for your home garden with the vegetables
available from your kitchen?
Steps involved in the preparation of organic pesticide:
i. Mix 120g of hot chillies with 110 g of garlic or onion and chop them thoroughly.
ii. Blend the vegetables together manually or using an electric grinder until it forms a thick paste.
iii. Add the vegetable paste to 500 ml of warm water then mix them together.
iv. Pour the solution into a glass container and leave it undisturbed for 24 hours in a warm place.
v. Pour the solution through a strainer, and collect the vegetable-infused water. This filtrate is the
pesticide.
vi. Pour the pesticide into a squirt bottle using a funnel and replace the nozzle.
vii. Treat the infected plants every 4 to 5 days with the solution. After 3 or 4 treatments, the pest
will be eliminated.

Based on the content of TNSCERT

Compiled by Dr.J. RAJESH, M.Sc., M.Phil.,B.Ed. -P.G Assistant (Botany), GHSS,Velachery,CH-42