28-01-2025

1001CJM280125EVE JM

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) A uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T acts perpendicular to a circular copper disc 20 cm in radius. The
disc is having a uniform angular velocity of 10 π rad s–1 about an axis through its centre and
perpendicular to the disc. What is the protential difference developed between the axis of the disc
and the rim ? (π = 3.14)

(A) 0.0628 V
(B) 0.5024 V
(C) 0.2512 V
(D) 0.1256 V

2) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1 μF is charged to a potential difference of 20 V. The

distance between plates is 1 μm. The energy density between plates of capacitor is :

(A) 1.8 × 103 J/m3

(B) 2 × 10–4 J/m3
(C) 2 × 102 J/m3
(D) 1.8 × 105 J/m3

3) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
0
(A) Angular Impulse (I) [M L2 T–2]

(B) Latent Heat (II) [M L2 T–3 A–1]

(C) Electrical resistivity (III) [M L2 T–1]

(D) Electromotive force (IV) [M L3 T–3 A–2]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(B) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(C) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(D) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

4) The ratio of vapour densities of two gases at the same temperature is , then the ratio of r.m.s.
velocities will be :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) The kinetic energy of translation of the molecules in 50g of CO2 gas at 17°C is :

(A) 3986.3 J
(B) 4102.8 J
(C) 4205.5 J
(D) 3582.7 J

6) In a long glass tube, mixture of two liquids A and B with refractive indices 1.3 and 1.4
respectively, forms a convex refractive meniscus towards A. If an object placed at 13 cm from the
vertex of the meniscus in A forms an image with a magnification of '–2' then the radius of curvature
of meniscus is :

(A) 1 cm

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) The frequency of revolution of the electron in Bohr's orbit varies with n, the principal quantum
number as

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8) Which of the following phenomena can not be explained by wave theory of light ?

(A) Reflection of light

(B) Diffraction of light
(C) Refraction of light
(D) Compton effect

9) The velocity-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown in figure. What is the
distance covered by the object between t = 0 to t = 4s ?

(A) 30 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 13 m
(D) 11 m

10)
A bar magnet has total length 2ℓ = 20 units and the field point P is at a distance d = 10 units from
the centre of the magnet. If the relative uncertainty of length measurement is 1%, then uncertainty
of the magnetic field at point P is :

(A) 10%
(B) 4%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%

11) Earth has mass 8 times and radius 2 times that of a planet. If the escape velocity from the earth
is 11.2 km/s, the escape velocity in km/s from the planet will be :

(A) 11.2
(B) 5.6
(C) 2.8
(D) 8.4

12) Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Knowing initial position x0 and initial momentum p0 is enough to determine the
position and momentum at any time t for a simple harmonic motion with a given angular frequency
ω.
Reason (R) : The amplitude and phase can be expressed in terms of x0 and p0.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

13) A concave mirror produces an image of an object such that the distance between the object and
image is 20 cm. If the magnification of the image is '–3', then the magnitude of the radius of
curvature of the mirror is :

(A) 3.75 cm
(B) 30 cm
(C) 7.5 cm
(D) 15 cm

14) A body of mass 4 kg is placed on a plane at a point P having coordinate (3, 4) m. Under the

action of force , it moves to a new point Q having coordinates (6, 10)m in 4 sec. The
average power and instantaneous power at the end of 4 sec are in the ratio of :

(A) 13 : 6
(B) 6 : 13
(C) 1 : 2
(D) 4 : 3

15)
In the circuit shown here, assuming threshold voltage of diode is negligibly small, then voltage VAB is
correctly represented by :

(A) VAB would be zero at all times

(B)

(C)

(D)
16)
An infinite wire has a circular bend of radius a, and carrying a current I as shown in figure. The
magnitude of magnetic field at the origin O of the arc is given by :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

17) A uniform rod of mass 250 g having length 100 cm is balanced on a sharp edge at 40 cm mark. A
mass of 400 g is suspended at 10 cm mark. To maintain the balance of the rod, the mass to be
suspended at 90 cm mark, is :-

(A) 300 g
(B) 190 g
(C) 200 g
(D) 290 g

18) a 400 g solid cube having an edge of length 10 cm floats in water. How much volume of the cube
is outside the water ? (Given : density of water = 1000 kg m–3)

(A) 1400 cm3

(B) 4000 cm3
(C) 400 cm3
(D) 600 cm3

19) The magnetic field of an E.M. wave is given by

(S.I. Units)
The corresponding electric field in S.I. units is :

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

20) A balloon and its content having mass M is moving up with an acceleration 'a'. The mass that
must be released from the content so that the balloon starts moving up with an acceleration '3a' will
be : (Take 'g' as acceleration due to gravity)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

SECTION-II

1)
A conducting bar moves on two conducting rails as shown in the figure. A constant magnetic field B
exists into the page. The bar starts to move from the vertex at time t = 0 with a constant velocity. If
the induced EMF is E ∝ tn, then value of n is ___ .

2) An electric dipole of dipole moment 6 × 10–6 Cm is placed in uniform electric field of magnitude
106 V/m. Initially, the dipole moment is parallel to electric field. The work that needs to be done on
the dipole to make its dipole moment opposite to the field, will be _____ J.

3) The volume contraction of a solid copper cube of edge length 10 cm, when subjected to a
hydraulic pressure of 7 × 106 Pa, would be _____ mm3. (Given bulk modulus of copper = 1.4 × 1011
Nm–2)

4) The value of current I in the electrical circuit as given below, when potential at A is equal to the

potential at B, will be __________ A.

5) A thin transparent film with refractive index 1.4, is held on circular ring of radius 1.8 cm. The
fluid in the film evaporates such that transmission through the film at wavelength 560 nm goes to a
minimum every 12 seconds. Assuming that the film is flat on its two sides, the rate of evaporation is
_______π × 10–13 m3/s.

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) Consider the elementary reaction A(g) + B(g) → C(g) + D(g) If the volume of reaction mixture is

suddenly reduced to of its initial volume, the reaction rate will become ‘x’ times of the original
reaction rate. The value of x is :

(A)

(B) 9

(C)

(D) 3

2) The amphoteric oxide among V2O3, V2O4 and V2O5 upon reaction with alkali leads to formation of
an oxide anion. The oxidation state of V in the oxide anion is :

(A) +3
(B) +7
(C) +5
(D) +4

3) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List_II
(Saccharides) (Glycosidic-linkages found)

(A) Sucrose (I) α1–4

(B) Maltose (II) α 1 – 4 and α 1 – 6

(C) Lactose (III) α1–β2

(D) Amylopectin (IV) β1–4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(B) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(C) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(D) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

4) Identify product [A], [B] and [C] in the following reaction sequence :
(A) [A] : CH3–CH=CH2, [B] : CH3CHO, [C] :HCHO

(B)
[A] : CH2=CH2, [B] : , [C] : HCHO
(C) [A] : CH3–CH=CH2, [B] : CH3CHO, [C] : CH3CH2OH
(D) [A] : CH3CH2CH3, [B] : CH3CHO, [C] : HCHO

5) Arrange the following in increasing order of solubility product :

Ca(OH)2, AgBr, PbS, HgS

(A) PbS < HgS < Ca(OH)2 < AgBr

(B) HgS < PbS < AgBr < Ca(OH)2
(C) Ca(OH)2 < AgBr < HgS < PbS
(D) HgS < AgBr < PbS < Ca(OH)2

6) The purification method based on the following physical transformation is :

(A) Sublimation
(B) Distillation
(C) Crystallization
(D) Extraction

7) Identify correct conversion during acidic hydrolysis from the following :

(A) starch gives galactose.
(B) cane sugar gives equal amount of glucose and fructose.
(C) milk sugar gives glucose and galactose.
(D) amylopectin gives glucose and fructose.
(E) amylose gives only glucose.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (C), (D) and (E) only

(B) (A), (B) and (C) only
(C) (B), (C) and (E) only
(D) (B), (C) and (D) only
8)
An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation starting from the point A and coming back to the
same point by tracing the path A→B→C→D→A as shown in the three cases above. Choose the correct
option regarding ΔU.

(A) ΔU (Case-III) > ΔU (Case-II) > ΔU (Case-I)

(B) ΔU (Case-I) > ΔU (Case-II) > ΔU (Case-III)
(C) ΔU (Case-I) > ΔU (Case-III) > ΔU (Case-II)
(D) ΔU (Case-I) = ΔU (Case-II) = ΔU (Case-III)

9) The product B formed in the following reaction sequence is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
10) Concentrated nitric acid is labelled as 75% by mass. The volume in mL of the solution which
contains 30 g of nitric acid is ___________. Given : Density of nitric acid solution is 1.25 g/mL

(A) 45
(B) 55
(C) 32
(D) 40

11) Match List-I with List-II.

List-II
List-I
(Hybridisation of
(Complex)
central metal ion)

(A) [CoF6]3– (I) d2sp3

(B) [NiCl4]2– (II) sp3

(C) [Co(NH3) 6]3+ (III) sp3d2

(D) [Ni(CN) 4]2– (IV) dsp2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(B) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(C) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(D) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

12) The total number of compounds from below when treated with hot KMnO4 giving benzoic acid is
:

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 5

13) The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) 6-Phenylhepta-2,4-diene
(B) 2-Phenylhepta-2,5-diene
(C) 6-Phenylhepta-3,5-diene
(D) 2-Phenylhepta-2,4-diene

14) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : According to the Law of Octaves, the elements were arranged in the increasing
order of their atomic number.
Statement (II) : Meyer observed a periodically repeated pattern upon plotting physical properties
of certain elements against their respective atomic numbers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

15) For bacterial growth in a cell culture, growth law is very similar to the law of radioactive decay.
Which of the following graphs is most suitable to represent bacterial colony growth ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
16) Which of the following is/are not correct with respect to energy of atomic orbitals of hydrogen
atom? (A) 1s < 2p < 3d < 4s (B) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p (C) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p (D) 1s < 2s < 4s
< 3d Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (B) and (D) only

(B) (A) and (C) only
(C) (C) and (D) only
(D) (A) and (B) only

17) Assume a living cell with 0.9% (ω/ω) of glucose solution (aqueous). This cell is immersed in
another solution having equal mole fraction of glucose and water. (Consider the data upto first
decimal place only) The cell will :

(A) shrink since solution is 0.5 % (ω/ω)

shrink since solution is 0.45% (ω/ω) as a result of association of glucose molecules (due to
(B)
hydrogen bonding)
(C) swell up since solution is 1% (ω/ω)
(D) None of these

18) Identify correct statements :

(A) Primary amines do not give diazonium salts when treated with NaNO2 in acidic condition.
(B) Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating with CHCl3 and ethanolic KOH form
carbylamines.
(C) Secondary and tertiary amines also give carbylamine test.
(D) Benzenesulfonyl chloride is known as Hinsberg's reagent.
(E) Tertiary amines reacts with benzenesulfonyl chloride very easily.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (B) and (D) only

(B) (A) and (B) only
(C) (D) and (E) only
(D) (B) and (C) only

19) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : and are isomeric compounds.

Statement (II) : and are functional group

isomers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

20) Identify the inorganic sulphides that are yellow in colour :

(A) (NH4)2S
(B) PbS
(C) CuS
(D) As2S3
(E) As2S5
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (A) and (C) only

(B) (A), (D) and (E) only
(C) (A) and (B) only
(D) (D) and (E) only

SECTION-II

1) The spin only magnetic moment (µ) value (B.M.) of the compound with strongest oxidising power
among Mn2O3, TiO and VO is _______ B.M. (Nearest integer).

2) Consider the following data : Heat of formation of CO2(g) = –393.5 kJ mol–1 Heat of formation of
H2O(l) = – 286.0 kJ mol–1 Heat of combustion of benzene = –3267.0 kJ mol–1 The heat of formation of
benzene is _____ kJ mol–1. (Nearest integer)

3) Electrolysis of 600 mL aqueous solution of NaCl for 5 min changes the pH of the solution to 12.
The current in Amperes used for the given electrolysis is ____. (Nearest integer).

4) A group 15 element forms dπ–dπ bond with transition metals. It also forms hydride, which is a
strongest base among the hydrides of other group members that form dπ–dπ bond. The atomic
number of the element is _____.

5) Total number of molecules/species from following which will be paramagnetic is ______.

, NO, NO2,CO,K2[NiCl4], [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, K2[Ni(CN)4]

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) Bag B1 contains 6 white and 4 blue balls, Bag B2 contains 4 white and 6 blue balls, and Bag B3
contains 5 white and 5 blue balls. One of the bags is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it.
If the ball is white, then the probability, that the ball is drawn from Bag B2, is :

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

2) Let A, B, C be three points in xy-plane, whose position vector are given by , and
respectively with respect to the origin O. If the distance of the point C from the line

bisecting the angle between the vectors and is , then the sum of all the possible values
of a is :

(A) 1

(B)

(C) 0
(D) 2

3) If the components of along and perpendicular to respectively, are

and , then α2 + β2 + γ2 is equal to :

(A) 23
(B) 18
(C) 16
(D) 26

4) If α + iβ and γ + iδ are the roots of x2 –(3–2i)x–(2i–2) = 0, , then αγ + βδ is equal to :

(A) 6
(B) 2
(C) –2
(D) –6

5) If the midpoint of a chord of the ellipse is and the length of the chord is
, then α is :

(A) 18
(B) 22
(C) 26
(D) 20

6) Let S be the set of all the words that can be formed by arranging all the letters of the word
GARDEN. From the set S, one word is selected at random. The probability that the selected word
will NOT have vowels in alphabetical order is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) Let f be a real valued continuous function defined on the positive real axis such that g(x)=

. If g(x3) = x6 + x7, then value of is :

(A) 320
(B) 340
(C) 270
(D) 310

8) The square of the distance of the point from the line in the
direction of the vector is :

(A) 54
(B) 41
(C) 66
(D) 44

9) The area of the region bounded by the curves x(1 + y2) = 1 and y2 = 2x is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10) Let and , θ > 0. If B = PAPT, C = PTB10P and the sum of

the diagonal elements of C is , where gcd(m, n) = 1, then m + n is :

(A) 65
(B) 127
(C) 258
(D) 2049

11) If , f(0) = –6, then f(1) is equal to :

(A) loge2+2
(B) 4(loge2–2)
(C) 2–loge2
(D) 4(loge2+2)

12) Let f : R → R be a twice differentiable function such that f(2) = 1. If F(x) = x f(x) for all x ∈ R,

and , then F ′ (2) + is equal to :

(A) 11
(B) 15
(C) 9
(D) 13

13) For positive integers n, if and , then the value of 507 S2025 is :

(A) 540
(B) 1350
(C) 675
(D) 135

14) Let f : [0, 3] → A be defined by f(x) = 2x3 – 15x2 + 36x + 7 and g : [0, ∞) → B be defined by

. If both the functions are onto and S = {x ∈ Z : x ∈ A or x ∈ B}, then n (S) is equal
to :

(A) 30
(B) 36
(C) 29
(D) 31

15) Let [x] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Then domain of f(x) = sec–1(2[x] + 1) is
:

(A) (–∞, –1] ∪ [0, ∞)

(B) (–∞, –∞)
(C) (–∞, –1] ∪ [1, ∞)
(D) (–∞,∞] – {0}
16) If , a, b ∈ Z, then a2 + b2 is equal to :

(A) 10
(B) 2
(C) 8
(D) 4

17) Two equal sides of an isosceles triangle are along –x + 2y = 4 and x + y = 4. If m is the slope of
its third side, then the sum, of all possible distinct values of m, is :

(A) –6
(B) 12
(C) 6
(D)

18) Let the coefficients of three consecutive terms Tr, Tr+1 and Tr+2 in the binomial expansion of (a +
b)12 be in a G.P. and let p be the number of all possible values of r. Let q be the sum of all rational

terms in the binomial expansion of . Then p + q is equal to :

(A) 283
(B) 295
(C) 287
(D) 299

19) If A and B are the points of intersection of the circle x2 + y2 – 8x = 0 and the hyperbola

and a point P moves on the line 2x – 3y + 4 = 0, then the centroid of ΔPAB lies on the
line :

(A) 4x – 9y = 12
(B) x + 9y = 36
(C) 9x – 9y = 32
(D) 6x – 9y = 20

20) Let f : R – {0} → (–∞, 1) be a polynomial of degree 2, satisfying . If

f(K) = –2K, then the sum of squares of all possible values of K is :

(A) 1
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 9

SECTION-II
1) The number of natural numbers, between 212 and 999, such that the sum of their digits is 15, is
_____.

2) Let . Then is equal to ____.

3) The interior angles of a polygon with n sides, are in an A.P. with common difference 6°. If the
largest interior angle of the polygon is 219°, then n is equal to _____.

4) Let A and B be the two points of intersection of the line y + 5 = 0 and the mirror image of the
parabola y2 = 4x with respect to the line x + y + 4 = 0. If d denotes the distance between A and B,
and a denotes the area of ΔSAB, where S is the focus of the parabola y2 = 4x, then the value of (a +
d) is ____.

5) If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation,

, –2 ≤ x ≤ 2, , then y2(0) is equal to ____.

 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. C A A C B C B D A B,C B D D B D B B D A C

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 1 12 50 2 54

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. B C A A B A C D D C B D D D D C D A B B

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 5 48 2 15 6

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. B A D B B D D C C A B A C A B C C A D B

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 64 1 20 14 4
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1)

B = 0.4 T

r = 20 cm

ω = 10π rad/s

= 0.2512 V

2)

C = 1 μF

V = 20 V

d = 1 μm

Energy density =

U = 1.77 × 103 J/m3

3)

Angular impulse = [M L2 T–1]

0
Latent Heat = [M L2 T–2]

Electrical resistivity = [M L3 T–3 A–2]

Electromotive force = [M L2 T–3 A–1]

4)

Ratio of rms velocities =

5)

(KE)Translational × no. of molecule

No. of molecule =

(KE)Translational = 4108.644 J

6)

7) Frequency of revolution

8)

Comptan effect is based on particle nature of light.

9)

Distance = Area under v v/s t graph

Distance =

10)

Method-1 :

Without considering uncentainity in ℓ.

% uncertainity in B = 3%

Method-2 :

With considering uncentainity in ℓ.

= 1 + 3 × 1 = 4%

% uncertainity in B = 4%

11)

12)

x = A sin(ωt + ϕ)

x0 = A sinϕ …(1)

p = mAω cos(ωt + ϕ)

p0 = mAω cosϕ ….(2)

(2)/(1) ⇒

From (1),

This means we can explain assertion with the given reason.

13)

m = –3 = – and v – u = 20 cm

∴ R = +15

14)

at t = 4 sec =

Note : Given data is not matching.

If then
But Final position given in the question is (6, 10).

15)

V = V0 sinωt

Input
Output

16)

B3 = 0

17)
τNet = 0 ⇒ (400g × 30) = (250g × 10) (mg × 50)

M = 190 g

18)

Mg = FB ⇒ (400 × 10–3) = 103 × Vd

Vd = 400 × 10–6 m3

(Vol.)outside = (10 × 10–2)3 – 400 × 10–6

= 600 × 10–6 m2 = 600 cm3

19)
and E = B0c

Here
E0 = 30c
20)

F – mg = ma

F = ma + mg

F – (m – x)g = (m – x) 3a

Put F

Ma + mg – mg + xg = 3ma – 3xa

21)

E = ℓvB

and x = vt

E ∝ t1

22)

p = 6 × 10–6 Cm

E = 106 v/m

W = ΔU = – pE(cosθf – cosθi)

W = 2pE = 12 J

23)
 ΔV = 50 mm3

24)

VA = VB ⇒ the bridge is balanced

R = 20Ω

25)

Maxima condition

2μt = nλ ⇒ ⇒

Minima condition 2μt = (2n – 1)λ/2

⇒ ⇒

Rate of evaporation = = 54 × 10–13 m3/s

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

26)

R1 = K[A]1 [B]1

R1 = K
R2 =

27)

V2O5 + alkali →

In ion, vanadium is in +5 oxidation state

28)

(A) Sucrose → α1–β2 Glycosidic linkage

(B) Maltose → α 1–4 Glycosidic linkage

(C) Lactose → β 1–4 Glycosidic linkage

(D) Amylopectin → α 1–4 and α 1–6

Glycosidic linkage

A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

29)

30)

Based on the Ksp values and salt analysis cation identification, we can say that order of Ksp
value is:

HgS < PbS < AgBr < Ca(OH)2

Ksp values

HgS → 4 × 10–53

PbS → 8 × 10–28

AgBr → 5 × 10–13

Ca(OH)2 → 5.5 × 10–6

31)
Theory base

32)

(A) Starch Glucose

(B) Cane sugar glucose + fructose

(Sucrose) 50% 50%

(C) Milk sugar glucose + galactose

(Lactose)

(D) Amylopectin Glucose

(E) Amylose Glucose

So, correct options are B, C and E only

33)

As internal energy ‘U’ is a state function, its cyclic integral must be zero in a cyclic process

∴ ΔU case (I) = ΔU case (II) = ΔU case (III)

34)

35)

% w/w of HNO3 = 75%

means 100 gm of solution containing 75 g of HNO3

&
Vml of 100 gm solution =

∵ 75 gm of HNO3 present in ml solution

∴ 30 gm of HNO3 present in

36)

(A) [CoF6]–3

Co3+ → 3d6

(B) [NiCl4]2–

Ni2+ → 3d8

(C) [Co(NH3)6]3+

Co3+ → 3d6

(D) [Ni (CN)4]2–

Ni2+ → 3d8

37) Compounds having at least 1 α–H will react with KMnO4 and give benzoic acid.

Total 5 compounds
38)

39)

Law of octaves was arranged in the increasing order of their atomic weight.

Lothar Meyer plotted the physical properties such as atomic volume , melting point and boiling
point against atomic weight.

40)

Because no. of bacteria initial = N0

and No. of bacteria at any time t = N

Since bacterial growth is given as

N = N0 eKt

Where K = growth constant for bacterial growth

41)

For single electron species energy only depends on 'n' (principal quantum number)

So energy of 2s = 2p

and energy of 3d < 4s

42)
Living cell = 0.9 gm in 100 gm of solution

% w/w = 0.9

Solution is have equal moles of glucose and

water = 0.5

Weight of solution = 0.5 × 180 + 0.5 × 18 = 99 gm

% w/w 90%

Concentrated solution

= Cell will shrink.

43)

(A) R–NH2

(B)

R–NH2 R–NC

(C) Only primary amine gives carbyl amine test

(D) Ph–SO2Cl —→ Hinsberg reagent

Benzene sulphonyl chloride

(E) Tertiary amine do not react with Ph–SO2Cl

So correct options are (B) and (D) only

44)

Statement-I → True

Both are ring chain isomers

Statement-II → True
1° Amine 2° Amine

1° Amine and 2° Amine are different functional groups, hence both are functional group
isomers.

45) (NH4)2S , As2S3 and As2S5 are yellow colour sulphides, PbS is black, CuS is black in colour

46)

Strongest oxidising power among the option is Mn2O3 because of E° value

Mn+3 → d4 configuration

= 4.89 BM

⇒5

47)

ΔHf[CO2(g)] = –393.5 kJ / mole

ΔHf[H2O(ℓ)] = –286.0 kJ / mole

ΔHc[C6H6] = –3267.0 kJ / mole

ΔHf C6H6 = (?)

C6H6 + —→ 6CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)

ΔHR = ΔHC = ΣΔHf(P) – ΣΔHf(R)

–3267 = 6 × (–393.5) + 3(–286) – ΔHf(C6H6)

ΔHf (C6H6) = 48 kJ/mole

48) Electrolysis of NaCl is

NaCl + H2O (aq) → NaOH (aq) +

Since during electrolysis pH changes to 12

So = 10–2 and [H+] = 10–12

So by Faraday law
 Gram amount of substance deposited = Amount of electricity passed

I=
I = 1.93 ampere

So, I = 2 ampere (nearest integer)

49) Phosphorus belongs to 15th group and forms dπ – dπ bond with transition metal and PH3 is
strongest base among the other group members except NH3.

50)

O2 → 2 unpaired electrons according to MOT

O2+ → 1 unpaired electrons according to MOT

O2– → 1 unpaired electrons according to MOT

NO → odd electron species

NO2 → odd electron species

K2[NiCl4] → Ni2+ ⇒ 3d8 weak Ligand, C.N. = 4

⇒ Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic with 2 unpaired electrons

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

51) E1 : Bag B1 is selected

B1 B2 B3
6W 4B 4W 6B 5W 5B
E2 : bag B2 is selected
E3 : Bag B3 is selected
A : Drawn ball is white

We have to find

= =

52) Equation of angle bisector : x – y = 0

 or – 4
Sum = 5 + (–4) = 1

53) Let = component of along

= component of perpendicular to

∴ =

=
=
α=4 β=1 γ = –3
2 2 2
α + β + γ = 16 + 1 + 9 = 26

54) x2 – (3 –2i)x – (2i –2) = 0

⇒ or
⇒ 2 – 2i or 1 + 0i
So αγ + βδ = 2(1) + (–2)(0) = 2

55)

If than equation of of AB is
T = S1
 put in ellipse

So,

x=0&

So y = 2 y=

Length of chord =

= so

56) A, E,G R D N

Probability (P) =
(when A & E are in order)
Total case = 6!
Favourable case = 6C2 . 4!

Probability when not in order =

2
57) g(x) = x +

f(x) =

f(x) = 2 +

f(r3) = 2 +
58)

L=

PQ =

⇒
Since Q lies on line L

So,
⇒ 7λ + 22 = 21 λ + 36
⇒ λ = –1

∴ Point Q

PQ =
PQ =
⇒ (PQ)2 = 66

59) x (1 + y2) = 1 ..... (1)

2
y = 2x ..... (2)
From equation (1) & (2)
x (1 + 2x) = 1 ⇒ 2x2 + x –1 = 0

⇒x= , x = –1 (Reject)

⇒ y2 = 2
⇒ y = ±1

Area bounded =
 =

60)
PTP = I
B = PAPT
Pre multiply by PT ( Given)
PTB = PTP APT = APT
Now post multiply by P
PTBP = APTP = A

So A2 = BP
2 T 2
A =PBP
10 T 10
Similarly A = P B P = C

(Given)

⇒
Similarly check A3 and so on since C = A10

⇒ Sum of diagonal elements of C is

=
g cd(m,n) = 1 (Given)
⇒ m + n = 65

61) let x = t4
dx = 4t3 dt

then

hence f(x) =
f(0) = – 6 ⇒ 2 + 4ℓn + 6 = –6 → C = –8
now f(1) = 4ℓn 2 –8
=

62)

= [∴ f(2) = 2F(2) = 2]

... (1)

⇒ ... (2)

Also
= 4F ′ (2) –2 × 6 = 40
F ′ (2) = 13

∴ F ′ (2) +

63)

= + + ... +

= 675
64) as f(x) is onto hence A is range of f(x)
now f ′ (x) = 6x2 – 30x + 36
= 6 (x – 2) (x – 3)
f(2) = 16 – 60 + 72 + 7 = 35
f(3) = 54 – 135 + 108 + 7 = 34
f(0) = 7
hence range
also for range of g (x)

g (x) =
S = {0, 7,8, .....35} hence n(S) = 30

65) 2[x] + 1 ≤ –1 or 2 [x] + 1 1

⇒
⇒
⇒

66)

=
So a2 + b2 = 8

67)

2m2 – 3m + 1 = m2 + 3m + 2
m2 – 6m –1 = 0
sum of root = 6
sum is 6

68) Tr, Tr+1, Tr+2 → GP

So,
(13 – r) (r + 1) = (12 –r) (r)
– r + 12 r + 13 = 12 r –r2
13 = 0
No value of r possible
So P = 0

Exponent of exponent of term

12 0 27
0 12 256
q = 27 + 256 = 283
p + q = 0 + 283 = 283

69) x2 + y2 –8x = 0, .... (1)

4x2 – 9y2 = 36 ... (2)
Solve (1) & (2)
4x2 –9 (8x –x2) = 36
13x2 –72x –36 = 0
(13x + 6) (x = 6) = 0

(rejected)
y → Imaginary

n = 6,
y2 = 12, y =

P lies on
centroid (h,k) 2x – 3y + y = 0

, α = 3h –12

6h – 2y = 9k –4
6x – 9y = 20

70) As f(x) is a polynomial of degree two let it be

f(x) = ax2 + bx + c (a ≠ 0)
on satisfying given conditions we get
C=1&a=±1
hence f(x) = 1 ± x2
also range hence
2
f(x) = 1 – x
now f(k) = – 2k
1 – k2 = –2k → k2 – 2k – 1 = 0
let roots of this equation be α & β
then α2 + β2 = (α + β)2 –2αβ
= 4 – 2(–1) = 6

71)
Let x = 2 ⇒ y + z = 13
(4,9), (5,8), (6,7), (7,6), (8,5), (9,4), → 6
Let x = 3 → y + z = 12
(3,9), (4,8), ........, (9,3) →7
Let x = 4 → y + z = 11
(2,9), (3,8), ........, (9,1) → 9
Let x = 5 → y + z = 10
(1,9), (2,8), ........, (9,1) → 10
Let x = 6 → y + z = 9
(0,9), (1,8), ........, (9,0) → 9
Let x = 7 → y + z = 8
(0,9), (1,7), ........, (8,0) → 9
Let x = 8 → y + z = 7
(0,7), (1,6), ........, (7,0) → 8
Let x = 9 → y + z = 6
(0,6), (1,5), ........, (6,0) → 7
Total = 6 = 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 + 9 + 8 + 7 = 64

72)

=1

73)
an + 3n2 –3n = (n –2). 180° ...(1)
Now according to question
a + (n –1)6° = 219°
⇒ a = 225° –6n° ...(2)
Putting value of a from equation (2) in (1)
We get
(225n –6n2) + 3n2 –3n = 180n –360
⇒ 2n2 –42n –360 = 0
⇒ n2 –14n –120 = 0
n = 20, –6 (rejected)

74)

Area =
6=4
So a + d = 14

75)

⇒c=0
y (0) = –2