21-07-2025

1001CMD303001250053 MD

PHYSICS

1) The equation of a projectile is The angle of projection and range is :-

(1)
30°,

(2)
60°,

(3)
45°,
(4) none

2) A ball is dropped from a height and falls due to gravity and wind simultaneously imparts it a
uniform horizontal acceleration. Which one of the following figures best represents its path?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A particle has initial velocity, and a constant force acts on the particle.
The path of the particle is :

(1) straight line

(2) parabolic
(3) circular
(4) elliptical

4) For a particle, velocity-position graph is given, find acceleration at x = 3m.

(1) 75 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 150 m/s2

5) A particle has its co-ordinates x = t2, y = t – ; where, t is time in second and x, y are in m. Find
the magnitude of displacement of particle (in m) from t = 0 to t = 3 sec.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) An object moves through points A,B,C,D,E and F as shown below.

(a) Find the distance covered by the moving object.

(b) Find the magnitude of displacement of object.

(1) 6.5 km, 6.5 km

(2) 2.5 km, 2.5 km
(3) 3 km, 6 km
(4) 6.5 km, 2.5 km

7) Assertion(A) : The average and instantaneous velocities are same in a uniform motion.
Reason(R) : In uniform motion, the velocity of an object increases uniformly.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true

8) For the shown motion, calculate the ratio of average speed to magnitude of average velocity for
path ABCB :-

(1) 5 : 13
(2) 5 : 1
(3) 13 : 5
(4) 1 : 1

9) A particle covers first one fourth distance with speed V1 and next three fourth distance with speed
V2. Find average speed.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The position of a particle is given by x = (4t2 – 2t + 3) m, then the average acceleration during
the interval t = 0 to t = 2 sec will be –

(1) 14 m/s2
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 7 m/s2

11) The figure shows the velocity and the acceleration of a point like body at the initial moment of its
motion. The direction and the absolute value of the acceleration remain constant. Find the time
when the speed becomes minimum.

(Given : a = 4 m/s , V = 40 m/s, ϕ = 143°)

2

(1) 8s
(2) 6s
(3) 10s
(4) 16s

12) If the displacement of a particle varies with time as , then

(1) The velocity of the particle is inversely porportional to t

(2) The velocity of the particle is directly proportional to t2
(3) The velocity of the particle is proportional to
(4) The particle moves with a constant acceleration

13) If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where A and B are constants, then the distance
travelled by it between 2s and 3s is :-

(1)

(2) 3A + 9B

(3)

(4)

14) The engine of a motorcycle can produce a maximum acceleration 5 m/s2. Its brakes can produce
a maximum retardation 10 m/s2. What is the minimum time in which it can cover a distance of 1.5 km
?

(1) 30 sec
(2) 15 sec
(3) 10 sec
(4) 5 sec

15) A particle stars from the origin with a velocity of 10 m/s and moves with a constant acceleration
till the velocity increases to 50 m/s. At that instant, the acceleration is suddenly reversed. What will
be the velocity of the particle, when it returns to the starting point?

(1) zero
(2) 10m/s
(3) 50m/s
(4) 70m/s

16) A police jeep moving with a velocity of 45 km/h is chasing a thief in another jeep moving with
velocity 153 km/h. Police fires a bullet with muzzle velocity of 180 m/s. The velocity it will strike the
car of the thief, is :-

(1) 150 m/s

(2) 27 m/s
(3) 450 m/s
(4) 250 m/s

17) A body A starts from rest with an acceleration a1. After 3 sec another body B starts from rest
with an acceleration a2. If they cover equal distances in 6th second after the start of A, then the ratio
a1 : a2 is equal to :

(1) 5 : 9
(2) 5 : 11
(3) 11 : 5
(4) 9 : 5

18) A particle is dropped from top of a tower of height h. If it covers height in last second of
motion, then find out height of the tower.

(1) 45 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 125 m
(4) 180 m

19) Water droplets are falling in a regular interval of time from a tap held at a height of 18m from
ground. When the first drop reaches ground the fourth drop is just leaving tap. Find the height of
second drop from ground at this instant.

(1) 5 m
(2) 15 m
(3) 25 m
(4) 10 m

20) Four marbles are dropped from the top of a tower one after the other with an interval of one
second. The first one reaches the ground after 4 seconds. When the first one reaches the ground, the
distances between the first and second, the second and third and the third and fourth will be
respectively :

(1) 35, 25 and 15 m

(2) 30, 20 and 10 m
(3) 20, 10 and 5 m
(4) 40, 30 and 20 m

21) Which of the following options is correct for the object having a straight line motion represented

by the following graph ?

The object moves with constantly increasing velocity from O to A and then it moves with
(1)
constant velocity.
(2) Velocity of the object increases uniformly
(3) Average velocity of object is zero
(4) The graph shown is impossible

22) A physics professor leaves her house and walks along the sidewalk towards campus. After 5min,
it starts to rain and she returns home. Her distance from her house as a function of time is shown in
figure. At which point velocity is decreasing ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

23) A bird flies for 4s with a velocity of |t – 2| m/s in a straight line, where t is time in seconds. It
covers a distance of :

(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 8 m

24) The velocity–time graphs of four particles A, B, C and D moving along a straight line are shown
are follows:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

If vA, vB, vC and vD be the respective average velocities of the four particles, then:

(1) vD > vA > vB > vC

(2) vD > vB > vA > vC
(3) vD > vC > vA > vB
(4) vA = vB = vC < vD

25)

If initial speed of particle is 2m/s, the speed of the particle at x = 6m will be :

(1) m/s
(2) m/s
(3) m/s
(4) 20 m/s

26) Velocity v/s time graph of a particle starting from origin is given below. Choose the correct

option for corresponding acceleration and displacement graphs :-

(1) II, I
(2) III, I
(3) II, IV
(4) III, IV

27)

Three projectiles A, B and C are thrown from the same point in the same plane. Their trajectories
are shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is true ?

(1) The time of flight is the same for all the three.
(2) The launch speed is largest for particle C.
(3) The horizontal velocity component is largest for particle C.
(4) All of the above

28)

A boy throws a ball upwards with velocity v0 = 20 m/s. The wind imparts a horizontal acceleration of
4 m/s2 to the ball. The angle θ from vertical at which the ball must be thrown so that the ball returns
to the boy's hand is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) tan–1 (1.2)

(2) tan–1 (0.2)
(3) tan–1 (2)
(4) tan–1 (0.4)

29) A projectile passes two points A and B at same height after 2 s and 6 s of its projection.
Horizontal separation between the points A and B is 120 m. The horizontal range is closest to [g =
10 m/s2]

(1) 180 m
(2) 200 m
(3) 240 m
(4) 260 m

30) A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of
flight in the two cases, then the product of two times of flight is :–

2
(1) t1t2 ∝ R
(2) t1t2 ∝ R

(3)

(4)

31) A particle is projected at an angle of 45° from 8m before the foot of a wall, just touches the top
of the wall and falls on the ground on the opposite side at a distance 4 m from it.The height of wall
is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A body is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with initial velocity 18 ms–1. It hits the
ground at angle 45º. What is the vertical component of velocity, when it strikes the ground?

(1) 10ms–1
(2) 18 ms–1
(3) 6ms–1
(4) 9 ms–1

33) A ball rolls off the top of a staircase with a horizontal velocity u m/s. If the steps are h metre high
and b metre wide, the ball will hit the edge of the nth step, if:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A ball is thrown from the roof of a building of height 44 m with speed v0 at an angle θ below the

horizontal. It lands 2 seconds later at a point 30 m from the base of the building. If then,
find the value of x (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5

35) A hose lying on the ground shoots a stream of water upward at an angle of 60o to the horizontal
with a velocity of 16 ms–1. The height at which the water strikes the wall 8m away is :

(1) 8.96m
(2) 10.96m
(3) 12.96m
(4) 6.96m
36) A ball is projected horizontally such that it hits the plane shown in figure perpendicularly. Find

the speed by which ball strikes with the plane.

(1) 40 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

37) A thief is running away on a straight road in a jeep moving with a speed of 9 ms–1. A policeman
chases him on a motor cycle moving at a speed of 10 ms–1. If the instantaneous separation of the jeep
from the motorcycle is 100 m, how long will it take for the policeman to catch the thief ?

(1) 1s
(2) 19s
(3) 90s
(4) 100s

38) A coin is released inside a lift at a height of 4 m from the floor of the lift. The height of the lift is
10 m. The lift is moving with an acceleration of 12 m/s2 downwards. The time after which the coin
will strike the lift is :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) sec
(3) sec
(4) sec

39) Two particle A and B are projected simultaneously from ground towards each other (as shown).
If they collide in mid air then, the height above the ground where they collide is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 75m
(2) 25m
(3) 125m
(4) 375m

40) Two particles A and B are projected in air. A is thrown with 30 m/s and B with 40 m/s (as shown).
Then the separation between them after 1 sec is :-

(1) 40m
(2) 50m
(3) 60m
(4) 70m

41) A man running at a speed of 5 km/h finds that the rain is falling vertically. When he stops
running, he finds that the rain is falling at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. The velocity of rain
with respect to running man is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A man is moving down an incline with a speed v. He meets rain with the same speed but

horizontally. The speed of rain is :-

(1) v
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Velocity of the boat with respect to river is 10 m/s. From point A it is steered in the direction
shown to reach point C. Find the time of the trip and distance between B and C.
(1) 6s, 66 m
(2) 3s, 66 m
(3) 3s, 33 m
(4) 6s, 33 m

44) A block B moves with a velocity U relative to the wedge A. If the velocity of the wedge is V (as

shown in figure), for the block to move vertically up relative to ground, θ is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Two marbles A & B roll along two horizontal tracks with same initial speed. A moves on the
tracks which has a dip and B moves on the track which has a bump of the same shape. Which marble

wins? (Assume no marble leaves contact at any point.)

(1) B
(2) A
(3) Both will reach at the same time
(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY
1) The radius of third shell of Be+3 ion is R then radius of its 6th shell will be :-

(1) 2R

(2)

(3) 4R

(4)

2) The angular momentum of electron in an excited H-atom is the kinetic energy of electron will
be

(1) + 13.6 eV
(2) + 3.4 eV
(3) + 0.85 eV
(4) + 0.54 eV

3) Match the list I and list II and pick the correct matching from the code given below :-

List I List II

A Isotope a

B Isobar b

C Isotone c

D Isosters d

E Isodiapheres e CO2 & N2O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct codes given below :-

List-I List-II

Orbital angular
A a
momentum
 No. of orbitals in a
B b n
sub-shells

No. of sub-shells in
C c 2ℓ + 1
a shell

Codes :
A B C

(1) a c b

(2) b c a

(3) a b c

(4) c a b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Match column A & column B.

Column - A Column - B

(i) Radius of nth orbit (in Å) (P)

–13.6 ×

(ii) Angular momentum in nth orbit (Q) 2.18 × 106 × z/n

(iii) Energy in nth orbit (eV/atom) (R)

(iv) Velocity in nth orbit (in m/s) (S)

0.529 ×

Correct match will be :

(1) (i) – P, (ii) – Q, (iii) – R, (iv) – S
(2) (i) – S, (ii) – R, (iii) – P, (iv) – Q
(3) (i) – S, (ii) – R, (iii) – Q, (iv) – P
(4) (i) – Q, (ii) – P, (iii) – S, (iv) – R

6) The work function for metals A, B & C are respectively 1.92eV, 2.0 eV and 5.0 eV. According to
Einstein's equation, the metal which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å
is/are-

(1) A only
(2) A & B only
(3) A, B & C
(4) A & C only
7) Assertion : The 19th electron in potassium atom enters into 4s-orbital and not the 3d-orbital.
Reason : (n + ) rule is followed for determining the orbital of the lowest energy state.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

8) A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be : (h = 6.6 ×
10–34 Js)

(1) 6.6 × 10–32 m

(2) 6.6 × 10–34 m
(3) 1.0 × 10–35 m
(4) 1.0 × 10–32 m

9) Which of the following is/are true for cathode rays

(a) In absence of electric or magnetic field, it travels in straight line.
(b) Charge to mass ratio doesn't depend upon nature of gas.
(c) It travels from anode to cathode.
(d) Charge to mass ratio depend upon nature of gas.

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, d

10) Which one is incorrect statement according to Rutherford's model:

(i) Most of the α-particles passed through gold foil undeflected.
(ii) All α-particles deflected by small angles.
(iii) Most of the space in atom is empty.
(iv) Radius of nucleus (r) = R0. A1/3. were R0 = Rutherford constant

(1) i, iii
(2) only ii
(3) ii, iii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv

11)

The correct expression derived for the energy of an electron in the nth energy level for H-atom is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

12) The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that of the first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen
atom

(1) He+ (n = 2)
(2) Li2+ (n = 2)
(3) Li2+ (n = 3)
(4) Be3+ (n = 2)

13) The KE of electron in He+ will be maximum in ?

(1) 3rd orbit

(2) 2nd orbit
(3) 1st orbit
(4) n = ∞

14) Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function Ψ320 :-

(1) 3dxy
(2) 3dxz
2
(3) 3dz
(4) 3dyz

15) Time taken by an electron to complete one revolution in the Bohr orbit of H-atom is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The correct order of total number of nodes of atomic orbitals is :-

(1) 4ƒ > 6s > 5d

(2) 6s > 5d > 4ƒ
(3) 4ƒ > 5d > 6s
(4) 5d > 4ƒ > 6s

17) Which of the following orbitals are degenerate ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None

18) If the value of n + ℓ is more than 3 and less than 6, what will be the possible number of orbitals ?

(1) 10
(2) 11
(3) 13
(4) 6

19) Energy of electron in a shell of hydrogen atom is given En = –1311.8/n2kJmol–1. Ionisation energy
of hydrogen atom is -

(1) 1311.8 kJmol–1

(2) –327.9 kJ mol–1
(3) 145.7 kJ mol–1
(4) –1311.8 kJ mol–1

20) For two atoms and

we have : M1– Z1= M2 – Z2 & M1 ≠ M2 , Z1 ≠ Z2
The species would be called:

(1) Isotopes
(2) Isotones
(3) Isobars
(4) Isoelectronic

21) A 100 watt Bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 400 nm. Calculate the number of
Photons emitted per second by the Bulb :

(1) 4 × 1020
(2) 3 × 1020
(3) 2 × 1020
(4) 8 × 1020

22) Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?

(1) H+
(2) Li+
(3) Na+
(4) Mg2+
23) The atomic weight of an element is 39. In its nucleus, the number of neutron is one more than
the number of proton, then find out the number of proton, electron and neutrons :

(1) 19, 20, 19

(2) 19, 19, 20
(3) 20, 19, 19
(4) 20, 19, 20

24) Assertion (A) : The value of for 3p-orbital is one.

Reason (R) : Value of can be given by (n - 2).

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

25) The angular momentum of an electron in a given orbit is J, Its kinetic energy will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Assertion : The energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom has a negative sign for all possible
orbits.
Reason : The negative sign in energy means that the energy of the electron in the atom is lower
than the energy of a free electron at rest.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) The difference between the wave number of 1st line of Balmer series and last line of paschen
series for Li2+ ion is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 4R

(4)
28) If ionization potential of a hypothetical species is 16 V, then the first excitation potential will be :
(Assume atom follow Bohr model)

(1) 10
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 14

29) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Splitting of spectral lines in electric field is called Stark effect.

Frequency of emitted radiation from a black body goes from a lower wavelength to higher
(2)
wavelength as the temperature increases.
(3) Photon has momentum as well as wavelength.
(4) Rydberg constant has unit of energy.

30) Average Atomic mass of mixture of X30 and X32 is 30.80. % Abundance of X30 is –

(1) 75%
(2) 60%
(3) 40%
(4) 80%

31) Assertion : According to Dalton's theory, Atom is an ultimate particle of matter.

Reason : Dalton's Atomic theory is based on law of mass conservation and law of constant
proportion.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

32) Assertion : ratio of anode rays is found different for different gases.
Reason : Proton is the fundamental particle present in anode rays for all gases.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

33) According to dual behaviour of matter concept by de-Broglie, the correct graph between
wavelength of electron (λ) and momentum of electron (P) will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) For the given diagram e– revolve in which orbit according to De-Broglie's wave theory ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

35) Suppose that a hypothetical atom gives a red, green, blue and violet line spectrum. Which jump

according to figure would give the red spectral line.

(1) 3 → 1
(2) 2 → 1
(3) 4 → 1
(4) 3 → 2

36) If the total energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom in excited state is –3.4 eV, then the de-
Broglie wavelength of the electron is
(1) 3.3 × 10–8 cm
(2) 6.6 × 10–10 cm
(3) 3.3 × 10–10 cm
(4) 6.64 × 10–8 cm

37) Calculate uncertainity in velocity of a particle of mass 2 kg having uncertainity in position is 100
A°.

(1) 2.63 × 10–27 m s–1

(2) 3.73 × 10–22 m s–1
(3) 8.32 × 10–25 m s–1
(4) 4.21 × 10–30 m s–1

38) Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(a) When electron in an atom moves from n = 4 to n = 2, it gains energy.
(b) An electron in a 3p orbital would have less energy than e– in a 2p orbital.
(c) A 3s-sub-shell has a maximum of 2 electrons
(d) A 3rd orbit may contain a maximum of 10 electrons.

(1) a, b and c
(2) a and c
(3) b and d
(4) Only c

39) In which of the following electron distribution in ground state, only Hund's rule is violated ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Which graph represent 4s orbital ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Maximum number of spectral lines in infrared region when electrons of a sample of hydrogen
atom in 5th excited state return to their ground state–

(1) 15
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 10

42) How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 4 and ms =

(1) 32
(2) 18
(3) 19
(4) 16

43) Which quantum number is not related with Schrodinger equation :-

(1) Principal
(2) Azimuthal
(3) Magnetic
(4) Spin

44) Half filled configuration is more stable than nearest configuration (d5 > d4) :-

(1) due to higher exchange energy in half filled configuration.

(2) due to symmetrical electronic distribution in half filled configuration.
(3) due to less shielding effect.
(4) All of the above
45) If mass of neutron is doubled, mass of proton is halved and mass of electron is doubled, find out
the % change in atomic weight of C12

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 60%
(4) 75%

BIOLOGY

1) The name Echinodermata refers.

(1) Spiny skin

(2) Water vascular system.
(3) Symmetry
(4) Development

2) Which of the following is the correct match of animal with it's common name ?

(1) Ophiura - Brittle star

(2) Antedon - Sea urchin
(3) Asterias - Sea-lily
(4) Echinus - Star fish

3) In the members of class Aves :

(1) Skin is moist without glands.

(2) Skin is dry without glands.
(3) Skin is moist with glands.
(4) Skin is dry with glands.

4) Choose the correct statement from the following :

(1) All the members of Aves can fly.

(2) Aves have their hind limb modified into wings.
(3) The hind limbs generally have scales and are modified for walking.
(4) Their skin is moist without glands.

5) Which of the following group of animals exhibit only sexual reproduction ?

(1) Spongilla and Sycan

(2) Adamsia and Obelia
(3) Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana
(4) Hydra and Adamsia

6) Match list I with List II

 List -I List-II

A Annelida I Malpighian tubules

B Arthropoda II Nephridia

C Mollusca III Spiny bodied

D Echinodermata IV Soft bodied

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A - VI, B - II, C - III, D - I
(2) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(3) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
(4) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

7) Match list I with list II

List-I List-II

A Hemichordate I Water vascular system

B Echinodermata II Worm-like animals

C Porifera III Radula

D Mollusca IV Water canal system

(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(2) A - II, B - I,C - IV, D - III
(3) A - II, B - I,C - III,D - IV
(4) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

8) The following are the statements about chordates.

A-Post anal tail present.
B-Dorsal rod like notochord present.
C-Dorsal tubular nerve cord is present
D-Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) A & C only

(2) A,B, and D only
(3) A, B, C and D all
(4) B, C, and D only

9) Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Aves.

(i) No. of cranial nerves present in birds are 10 pairs.
(ii) Birds are monodelphic
(iii) Hind limbs are modified into wings which help in flying.
(iv) Skull is dicondylic.

(1) Only ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) ii and iv
(4) i, iii and iv

10) Which of the following is not true for roundworms?

(1) Complete alimentary canal

(2) Well developed muscular pharynx
(3) Both longitudinal and circular muscles present
(4) Sexual dimorphism

11) Assertion : Both vertebral column and notochord is present in Petromyzon.

Reason : Notochord is partially replaced by cartilaginous vertebral column in chonrichthyes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) "VENOUS-HEART" is present in which CLASS ?

(1) Amphibia
(2) Pisces
(3) Reptile
(4) Aves

13) Identify deuterostomiat animal –

(1) Pila
(2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Ascaris
(4) Amphioxus

14) Which of the following group has variable body temperature –

(1) Reptiles, amphibians, Pisces

(2) Aves and mammals
(3) Aves and reptiles
(4) Pisces, Aves and mammals

15) Which group of phylum arthropoda has maximum number of species.

(1) Insecta
(2) Arachnida
(3) Crustacea
(4) Merostomata
16) Which bird is connecting link between reptile and birds.

(1) Kiwi
(2) Ostrich
(3) Dodo
(4) Archiopterix

17) Chordata animals are –

(1) Echinodermata, Ctenophore, Annelida

(2) Echinodermata, Mollusca, Arthropoda
(3) Echinodermata, amphibia, Reptilia
(4) Cyclostomataus, Chondricthyes, Osteichthyes

18) Given below are two statements.

Statement I :- Feather like gills of mollusca have only respiratory function.
Statement II :- In AVES pneumatic bones are present.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.

19) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Ancylostoma (i) Sea pen

(b) Pheretima (ii) Hook worm

(c) Taenia (iii) Earthworm

(d) Pennatula (iv) Tape worm

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

20) Identify the correct match :-

Hippocampus → 3 chambered heart,

(1)
→ Incomplete double circulation
Psittacula → 4 chambered heart
(2)
→ Incomplete double circulation
Cuttle fish → 2 chambered heart
(3)
→ Single circulation
 Calotes → 3 chambered heart
(4)
→ Incomplete double circulation

21)

Select correct statements :-

(A) Flatworms are radial symmetrical
(B) Fertilization in ctenophora is both external and internal
(C) Molusca are usually dioecious
(D) Fertilization in echinodermates is usually external

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) Only A
(4) C and D

22)

Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Biolumine scence (I) Pila

(B) Muscular pharynx (II) Physalia

(C) Radula (III) Ascaris

(D) Chidoblast (IV) Pleurobrachia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A(IV), B(III), C(I), D(II)
(2) A(IV), B(II), C(III), D(I)
(3) A(IV), B(III), C(II), D(I)
(4) A(IV), B(I), C(III), D(I)

23) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Contractile vacuole (I) Pheretima

(B) Water vascular system (II) Amoeba

(C) Canal system (III) Star fish

(D) Nephridia (IV) Fresh water sponge

(1) A (II), B (I), C (III), D (IV)
(2) A (I), B (III), C (I), D (IV)
(3) A (I), B (IV), C (III), D (I)
(4) A (II), B (III), C (IV), D (I)
24) Choose the group of features that evolved firstly in annelids :-

(1) Bilateral symmetry, organ-system level of organisation, Triploblastic

(2) Triploblastic, Coelomate, Closed circulatory system
(3) Metameric segmentation, coelomate closed circulatory system
(4) Bilateral symmetry, Coelomate, Locomotory organs.

25) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Radula (I) Pleurobrachia

(B) Parapodia (II) Aplysia

(C) Gastro-vascular cavity (III) Adamsia

(D) Bioluminescence (IV) Nereis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

26) Select the incorrect statements :-

(A) In echinoderms sexes are separate, reproduction is sexual and fertilisation is usually internal.
(B) Hemichordates are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(C) In cephalochordata, notochord is present only in the larval tail, while in urac hardatia it extends
from head to tail.
(D) Reptiles are mostly aquatic animals and their body is covered by placoid, cycloid and ctenoid
type scales.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) A, (C) and (D) only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, B C and D all

27) Match the List-I with List - II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Corvus (I) Scales and paired fins absent

Pneumatic bones, air

(B) Crocodile (II)
sacs connected to lungs

Four chambered
(C) Ichthyophis (III)
heart, Urinary bladder absent
 Limbless amphibia
(D) Petromyzon (IV)
external fertilisation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A - I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

28)
A = Metamerism
B = Water transport system
C = Alternation of generation
D = Water vascular system
Select the correct option :-

(1) (i)-Physalia, (ii)-Sycon, (iii)-Hirudinaria, (iv)-Euspongia

(i)-Physalia, (ii)-Sycon, (iii)-Pila,
(2)
(iv)-Echinus
(i)-Obelia, (ii)-Echinus, (iii)-Nereis,
(3)
(iv)-Sycon
(4) (i)-Obelia, (ii)-Euspongia, (iii)-Pheretima, (iv)-Asterias

29) Find out incorrect statement :

(1) Reptiles are poikilothermal animal.

(2) Birds are able to change their body temperature.
(3) In cartilage fish claspers is present.
(4) Bony fish have cycloid scales

30) Statement-I : Reptiles skin is dry, non-glandular and have epidermal scales.
Statement-II : Amphians skin is moist and glandular.

(1) Statement I is incorrect.

(2) Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both statements are incorrect.
(4) Both statement are correct.

31) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Presence or absence of a cavity between the body wall and the gut wall is very
important in animal classification.
Statement-II : Hemichordata was earlier considered as a subphylum under phylum chordata.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the given below :
(1) Both statement I is true but statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.

32) Consider the following statements :

(A) The body of the aschelminthes is circular in cross section.
(B) Aschelminthes are true coelomates.
(C) Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates.
(D) Annelids are acoelomates.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B only
(2) A only
(3) C only
(4) D only

33) Match list I with list II :

List I List II

(A) Bioluminescence (I) Aschelminthes

(B) Roundworms (II) Ctenophora

(C) Parapodia (III) Chondrichthyes

(D) Claspers (IV) Annelida

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-II ,C-III, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I ,C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-IV ,C-I, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-III ,C-II, D-I

34) Find out how many statements are not incorrect :

(A) Ancylostoma is a Aschelminthes.
(B) In Bombyx excretion takes place by nephridia.
(C) In Branchiostoma the notochord is present only in larval stage.
(D) Fishes are poikilothermous animals

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

35) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) All bilaterally symmetrical animals have organ system level of organisation.
(2) Excretory organ of Pavo, Naja and Lamprey is kidney.
(3) Cloaca is present in Rana, Corvus and Naja.
(4) Ctenoplana, Bufo and Balanoglossus have external fertilisation.

36) How many of the following animals exihibit bilateral symmetry and blind sac body plan ?
Fasciola, Adamsia, Earthworm, Ascaris, Planaria, Hirudinaria.

(1) Only one

(2) Only three
(3) Only four
(4) Only two

37) Which of the following animals respire through gills ?

(1) Dog fish

(2) Jelly fish
(3) Silver fish
(4) All of the above

38) Match the list-I with list-II.

S.No. List-I List-II

(a) Arthropoda (i) Comb plates

(b) Annelida (ii) Muscular pharynx

(c) Ctenophora (iii) Nephridia

(d) Aschelminthes (iv) Malpighian tubules

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

39) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- The body cavity which is lined by mesoderm is called coelom.
Reason (R) :- Animals in which the body cavity is absent are called pseudo coelomates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation of A.

40) Given below are some statements :-

Statement-I :- Phylum chordata is divided into three subphyla : urochordata, cephalochordata and
vertebrata.
Statement-II :- In mollusca, the mouth contains a file like rasping organ for feeding, called Radula.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

41) Identify phylum according to given diagram ?

(1) A = Aschelminthes, B = Echinodermata, C = Mollusca, D = Ctenophora

A = Annelida, B = Mollusca,
(2)
C = Arthropoda, D = Hemichordata
A = Chordata, B = Ctenophora,
(3)
C = Echinodermata, D = Porifera
A = Chordata, B = Echinodermata,
(4)
C = Arthropoda, D = Cnidaria

42) Statement-I :- Hemichordata have a rudimentary structure in the collar region called
notochord.
Statement-II :- All chordates are vertebrates but all vertebrates are not chordates.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II in correct.
(3) Both statement are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

43)

Match the column-I with column-II and select correct answer about them.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Scoliodon (i) Hairs, Pinnae and Mammary glands present

(b) Petromyzon (ii) Cold blooded and three chambered heart

(c) Hemidactylus (iii) 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration

(d) Pteropus (iv) Notochord is persistent throughout life

(a) (b) (c) (d)

 (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Statement-I :- The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of water transport
system which helps in locomotion, capture and transport of food and respiration
Statement-II :- In molluscs the body is covered by a calcareous shell and segmented with a distinct
head, muscular foot and viseral hump.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

45) Read the following statements :-

(a) Though all members of animalia are multicellular, all of them do not exhibit the same pattern of
organisation of cells.
(b) Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod-like structure found on the ventral side of body.
(c) In sponges, fertilisation is external and development is indirect.
(d) In birds the skin is moist and glandular with sweat glands.
(e) In molluscs the mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding called stomochord or buccal
diverticulum.
How many of the above statements are not correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All

46) "The Darwin of 20th century is :

(1) Huxley
(2) Hutchinson
(3) Ernst Haeckel
(4) Ernst Mayr

47) Among the following, select the correct statements.

A. In majority of higher plants & animals, growth & reproduction are mutually exclusive event.
B. In non living objects growth is by accumulation of material on the surface.
C. An isolated metabolic reaction outside the body of an organism performed in a test tube is neither
living nor non-living.
D. All organisms from prokaryotes to eukaryotes can sense and respond to environmental cues.

(1) B, C, D only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) A, D, C only
(4) A, B, C, D

48) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) In plants, growth by cell division occurs only up to a certain age.

(2) Growth can be taken as a defining property of living organisms.
(3) The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all easily multiply by fragmentation.
(4) Non-living object exhibits metabolism.

49)

Study the four statement (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:
(A) Species is the unit of classification
(B) Photoperiod does not affect reproduction of seasonal breeders in animals
(C) Binomial nomenclature system was given by R.H. Whittaker
(D) In unicellular organism, reproduction is synonymous with growth

(1) B and C
(2) C and D
(3) A and D
(4) A and B

50) Artificial classification was not acceptable :

(1) They bought together closely related species

(2) They are based on gross superficially morphological characters
(3) They gave equal weighted to both vegetative and reproductive characters
(4) Reproductive characters are given more weightage

51) Similarity among characters of different organisms is determined by using various statistical
formula by computers in :

(1) Chemotaxonomy
(2) Numerical taxonomy
(3) Cytotaxonomy
(4) Karyotaxonomy

52) Which of the following classification is a natural classification ?

(1) Plant classification given by Carolus Linnaeus

(2) Plant classification given by Aristotle
(3) Plant classification given by Bentham and Hooker
(4) Two kingdom classification given by Whittaker

53) Floral features are commonly used for identification of angiosperms because :-

(1) Reproductive parts are more conservative

(2) Flowers can be safely preserved
(3) Flowers are attractive in colour
(4) Flowers have various colours and scents.

54) A is the branch of science which deals with diversity of organisms and the B relationship
amongst them.
Complete the above statements why choosing correct option for A and B.

(1) A – Taxonomy, B – Reproductive

(2) A – Systematics, B – Evolutionary
(3) A – Classification, B – Evolutionary
(4) A – Identification, B – Evolutionary

55)

Which is correct in nomenclature :

(1) Both genus and specific epithet are printed in italics

(2) Genus & specific epithet may be same words in ICBN
(3) Both in genus and specific epithet the first letter is capital
(4) Genus is written after the name of specific epithet

56) Which of the following statements is incorrect

(1) The number of species that are known and described range between 1.7 – 1.8 Million
(2) Each scientific name has two components the Generic name and specific epithet.
(3) Bionomial system Given by Linnaeus.
(4) Scientific name ensure that each organism has more than one name.

57) Which of the following is a wrong statement regarding the universal rules of nomenclature?

(1) Biological names are in Latin language

(2) Both the words of biological name when handwritten must be separately underlined
(3) The second component denotes Generic name
(4) The specific epithet starts with a small letter

58) Which of the following option is correct ?

(A) Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison
to species of other genera.
(B) Classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called order.
(C) As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common characters goes on decreasing.
(D) Museum have collections of preserved plants and animal specimens for study and reference.
(E) Separate taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category for identification purposes.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C, D and E
(4) A, B, C, D and E

59) In the names Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum and Panthera leo, the words indica,
tuberosum and leo represent :-

(1) Generic name

(2) Generic epithet
(3) Name of order
(4) Specific epithet

60) The correct sequence in the biological name of an organism is

(1) Author citation + Generic name + Specific epithet

(2) Specific epithet + Generic name + Author Citation
(3) Generic name + Specific epithet + Author citation
(4) Generic name + Author citation + Specific epithet

61) The lowest common taxonomic categories of Wheat and Mango is

(1) Division
(2) Class
(3) Family
(4) Order

62) As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common

characteristics:-

(1) Will decrease

(2) Will increase
(3) Remain same
(4) May increase or decrease

63) How many of the following statement (s) is/are true ?

(A) Hominidae and Felidae are included in order Carnivora
(B) Species is the smallest obligate taxonomic category
(C) As we move from species to kingdom, number of individuals are gradually decreased.
(D) Species is a group of individuals with fundamental similarity.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

64) Which one of the following categories contains the least similar characteristic ?

(1) Class
(2) Order
(3) Family
(4) Division

65) Which one of the following taxonomic categories can categorise rest all other?

(1) Family
(2) Genus
(3) Class
(4) Order

66) Family Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae belongs to order :

(1) Polymoniales
(2) Rosales
(3) Parietales
(4) Poales

67) Some characters are given below. Which of them are true for the cyanobacteria ?
(a) Oxygenic photosynthesis
(b) Non-oxygenic photosynthesis
(c) Oxygenic Chemotropism
(d) Ability of N2 fixation

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a and d
(4) b and d

68) Sexual classification of plants is given by :-

(1) Aristotle
(2) Theophrastus
(3) Linnaeus
(4) Oswald

69) Two kingdom classification of Linnaeus was mainly based on :-

(1) Mode of Nutrition

(2) Mode of reproduction
(3) Type of cell
(4) Presence or absence of cell wall

70) In two kingdom system of classification Amoeba and Paramoecium are classified in
kingdom.........A.......and Chlorella and Chlamydomonas are classified in......B.........kingdom. What are
A and B respectively ?

(1) Animalia and Plantae

(2) Animalia and Algae
(3) Protista and Protista
(4) Protozoa and Algae

71) 16S r-RNA sequence is basis of classification in :

(1) 5 kingdom system

(2) 3 kingdom system
(3) 4 kingdom system
(4) 3 domain system

72) In Carl Woese's classification system, the Domain that includes fungus-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Eukarya
(3) Monera
(4) Archaea

73) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option with respect to characteristics of the five
kingdom :-

Characters
Kingdom
Cell wall Cell type

Monera Non-cellulosic A

Fungi B Eukaryotic

Animalia C D
(1) A-Prokaryotic, B-Chitin & Polysaccharide
(2) C-Chitin, D-Eukaryotic
(3) A-Prokaryotic, C-Cellulosic
(4) B-Absent, D-Prokaryotic

74) Which kingdom includes all three i.e., producers, consumers, and decomposers according to
R.H. Whittaker's five kingdom classification ?

(1) Plantae
(2) Fungi
(3) Protista
(4) Animalia

75) What is common among Cyanobacteria, Halophilic bacteria, Thermoacidophilic bacteria,

Methanogenic bacteria, and Eubacteria ?

(1) They all are included in same domain according to three domains of life
(2) Their cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan
(3) They belong to same kingdom according to R.H. Whittaker
(4) All can perform oxygenic photosynthesis

76) Which of the following statement is not correct for longer pili ?

(1) Longer pili occurs in only male bacteria

(2) Longer pili helps in conjugation
(3) Longer pili are absent in recipient bacteria
(4) Longer pili are found only in pathogenic bacteria

77) Bacterial Mesosome is made up of :-

(1) Amino acid + polysaccharide

(2) Lipid + protein
(3) Lipid + polysaccharide
(4) Phospholipid

78) Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(A) Archaebacteria include methanogens halophiles and thermoacidophiles
(B) Bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic diversity
(C) Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll 'a' similar to green plants. (D) Mycoplasma can survive without
oxygen.

(1) Statements B, C and D only

(2) Statements A, C only
(3) Statements B, D only
(4) Statements A,B,C and D

79) Match the following Column -

Column-I Column-II

(A) Mycoplasma (i) Survival in extreme condition

(B) Eubacteria (ii) Heterocysts.

(C) Cyano bacteria (iii) Smallest living cells

(D) Archae bacteria (iv) F-Plasmid.

(1) A – i, B – iv, C – ii, D – iii
(2) B – iii, A – i, D – iv, C – ii
(3) B – i, A – iv, C – ii, D – iii
(4) D – i, C – ii, B – iv, A – iii

80) Which of the following is not a character of Protista ?

(1) Protists are prokaryotic

(2) Some protists have cell walls
(3) Mode of nutrition is both autorophic and heterotrophic
(4) Body organisation is cellular

81) Red tide is caused by :-

(1) Excessive growth of a red alga

(2) Excessive growth of a blue green alga
(3) Excessive growth of a protist
(4) Excessive growth of a red bacterium

82) Diatomaceous earth(kieselgurh) is formed by deposition of :-

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Diatoms
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Physarum

83) The body of Euglena is flexible due to the presence of-

(1) Cell wall rich in polypeptide

(2) Protein rich layer called pellicle
(3) Cilia all around the cell envelope
(4) Protein less plasma membrane

84) Which one of the following diagrams represents the slime mould :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

85) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Chief producers of the ocean - Diatoms

(2) Saprophytic protists - Slime moulds
(3) Mostly marine and photosynthetic - Euglenoids
(4) Heterotrophs and predators or parasites - Protozoans

86) Statement- I : In the classification of living organism, the taxonomic category known as 'order'
consists of a group of related family that have more charactors in common with each other than with
family of other order and is ranked above the family and below the class in the hierarchy of
biological classification.
Statement-II : The study of diversity of life forms and their evolutionary relationships is known as
taxonomy, which uses information from various branches of biology to classify organisms into taxa
based on their evolutionary history.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

87) Which of the following lists contains examples of essential taxonomic categories in the correct
ascending hierarchial order?

(1) Subspecies, Species, Genus, Super Family, Family order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom
(2) Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Sub kingdom, Kingdom, Domain
(3) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
(4) Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom

88) Which of the following options is correct match with the labelling of diagram given below:

(1) A-Flagella, B- Spore, C - Mucilagenous sheath, D- Heterocyst , E-DNA, F-Cell membrane

A - Cilia, B- Heterocyst, C-Spore,
(2)
D-Mucilagenous sheath, E- Cell wall, F-DNA
(3) A-Spore, B-Flagella, C-Heterocyst, D-Mucilagenous sheath, E-DNA, F-Cell wall
(4) A-Spore, B-Flagella, C-Heterocyst, D-Mucilagenous sheath, E-Cell wall, F-DNA

89) A researcher isolates three unicellular organisms organism X is multicellular, nonmotile and
absorbs nutrients from decaying matter, Organism Y lacks a defined nucleus and has a cell wall
containing peptidoglycan and organism Z has a defined nucleus is photosynthetic and moves using
flagella with 9 + 2 arrangement. Based on whittaker's five kingdom classification assign each
organism to the correct kingdom.

(1) X : Monera, Y : Fungi, Z : Plantae

(2) X : Fungi, Y : Protista, Z : Animalia
(3) X : Protist, Y : Monera, Z : Fungi
(4) X : Fungi, Y : Monera, Z : Protista

90) Assertion : R.H. Whittaker's five kingdom classification system significantly improved upon
earlier models by integration crieteria like cellular organisation, nutritional modes and phylogenetic
relationships , enabling a more holistic grouping of prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Reason : Kingdom monera exhibits saprophytic nutrition by decomposing dead organic matter. They
lack cell wall and in them extracellular enzyme secretion allow efficient absorption of nutrients from
non-living substrates, fulfilling a unique ecological role as decomposers in nutrient cycles.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 3 1 2 1 4 1 1 4 1 2 1 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 1 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 3 2 2 4 4 3 3 1 2 1 3 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 2 3 1 1 4 3 2 2 2 3 1 3 4 4 1 4 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 4 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 2 4 1 1 4 4 3 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 4 3 2 2 4 4 2 4 4 2 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 2 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 1 4 3 1 3 3 4 1 4 2 1 3 3 4 2 4 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 2 1 3 1 4 4 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) y =

y=

Compare with , y = x tanθ

tanθ = ⇒ θ = 60°

R=

2) If initial velocity is zero then particle moves along the direction of total acceleration.

3) For constant acceleration if initial velocity makes an oblique angle with acceleration then
path will be parabolic.

4) a =
= 15 (5) = 75 m/s2

5)
x0 = 0 y0 = 0

x3 = 9 y3 = 3 – =–6

6) (a) Distance = 3 + 1 + 1.5 + 0.5 + 0.5 = 6.5 km

(b) AF2 = AH2 + HF2
= (0.5 × 4)2 + (0.5 × 3)2 = 6.25 km
Magnitude of displacement = AF = 2.5 km

7) An object is said to be in uniform motion if it undergoes equal displacement in equal

intervals of time.

and
Thus, in uniform motion, average and instantaneous velocities have same value.

8) For path ABCB,

9) Vav = = =

10) x = 4t2 – 2t + 3

⇒ V= = 8t – 2
Velocity at t = 0 ⇒ V1 = 8(0) – 2
⇒ V1 = –2 m/s
Velocity at t = 2 ⇒ V2 = 8(2) – 2
⇒ V2 = 14 m/s

aavg = =

= = = 8 m/s2

11)

12)

=t+7
x = (t + 7)2 = t2 + 49 + 14t

v= = 2t + 14
a=2
13) v = At + Bt2

⇒s= =

14) If a body starts from rest with acceleration a and then retards with retardation b and
comes to rest. The total time taken for this journey is t and distance covered is S then

⇒ .

15) 2ax = (502) – (10)2

and 2(–a)(–x)=v2 – (50)2
This gives; v2 – (50)2 = (50)2 – (10)2
i.e. v = 70m/s

16) Effective speed of the bullet = speed of bullet + speed of police jeep
= 180 m/s + 45 km/h = (180 + 12.5)m/s
= 192.5 m/s
Speed of thief's jeep = 153 km/h = 42.5 m/s
Velocity of bullet w.r.t thief's jeep
= 192.5 – 42.5 = 150 m/s

17)

For body A ⇒ n = 6th sec.

For body B ⇒ n = 3rd sec.

Snth =
Snth for A = Snth for B

18) t = 0, u = 0, a = g (const)
1 : 3 : 5:...... (Ratio of distance in nth sec)

t = 3 sec & h = = 45 m
19)
9x = 18
x = 2m
height of second drop = 5x
= 5 × 2 = 10 m

20)

For first marble, h1 =

For second marble, h2 =

For third marble, h3 =

For fourth marble, h4 =

∴ h1 – h2 = 8g – 4.5g = 3.5g = 35 m
h2 – h3 = 4.5g – 2g = 2.5g = 25 m
and h3 – h4 = 2g – 0.5g = 1.5g = 15 m

21) Slope of s-t graph ⇒ velocity

* Slope is constant from O to A
* Net displacement = 0,
therefore average velocity = 0

22) At point C, slope is positive but decreasing.

23)

The velocity time graph for given problem is shown in the figure.
 Distance travelled,
S = Area under curve = 2 + 2 = 4m

24)

Velocity =

25)

Area = 8 + 6 + 4 = 18

∴
⇒v= m/s

26)

Slope of displacement-time graph will be positive, first decreases then increases.

Slope of v-t graph i.e. acceleration is constant but initially negative then positive.

27)

Range = UxT

28)
The ball returns back to boy's hand only if the path of the ball is a straight line. Hence initial
velocity and net acceleration must be along the same line. Hence
29) Time of flight, Tf = 2 + 6 = 8 sec.
For horizontal motion A to B : ΔT = 4 sec.

so ux =
Horizontal range, R = ux.Tf = 240 m

30) The horizontal range is the same for the angles of projection θ and (90º – θ)

=
Hence, t1t2 ∝ R (as g is constant)

31)
θ = 45°
tan θ = tan α + tan β

3h = 8

32) tan45° = ⇒vy = vx = 18m/s

33) If the ball hits the nth step, then horizontal distance traversed = nb. Vertical distance
traversed = nh.
Here, velocity along horizontal direction = u.
Initial velocity along vertical direction = 0.
∴ nb = ut ____(i)

____(ii)

From eqn. (i),

34)
x = v0 cosθ t
⇒ 30 = (v0cosθ) × 2
∴ v0 cos θ = 15

∴ Sy = uyt +

∴ 44 = v sin θ × 2 +
0
× 10 × (2)2
∴ v0 sin θ = 12

So, tan θ = = ∴x=8

35) uH = 16 cos60o = 8ms–1

Time taken to reach the wall =

Now, uV = 16sin60o =

= 8.956 8.96m
36)
v cos 60° = 20

37)

So, time taken, t = = = 100 sec.

38)

6 = 0 + (2)t2
t= sec

39)

40) After 1 sec :

Separation, S =
S = 50 m

41)

VR = velocity of rain
VRM = velocity of rain with respect to man
VM = velocity of man
For first case, rain appear vertical,
VR cos60° = 5
⇒ VR = 10 m/s
∴ VRM = VR sin 60°

42) Velocity of man is

Velocity of rain w.r.t. man is

or

43)

Distance, BC = (10cos37o + 3) 6 = 11 × 6 = 66 m
 44)
vB = Velocity of block B w.r.t ground
Ucosθ = V

45) For marble A, its speed increases more (in the dip), so it will reach earlier.

CHEMISTRY

46)

r= Å

⇒∴

47) K.E. = 13.6 × eV/atom

48)

Explanation

A. A (Isotope) - c ( ): Isotopes have the same atomic number (number of protons) but
different mass numbers (number of neutrons).

B. B (Isobar) - a ( ): Isobars have the same mass number but different atomic numbers.

C. C (Isotone) - b ( ): Isotones have the same number of neutrons.

D. D (Isosters) - e (CO2 & N2O): Isosters have the same number of atoms and electrons.

E. E (Isodiapheres) - d ( ): Isodiapheres have the same difference between the number of

neutrons and protons.

Answer option 4, (A-c, B-a, C-b, D-e, E-d).

49) Orbital angular momentum =
Number of orbitals in a sub-shells = 2ℓ + 1
Number of sub-shells in a shell = n.

50)

Formula based

51) E =
So A & B will eject photo electrons

52)

According to (n + ℓ) rule
configuration of K
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1

53)

54)

Theory based

55)

Fact based

56)
For H-atom Z = 1

57)

58)

n↓ KE↑

59)

Representation of orbital = Ψnℓm

∴ For Ψ320, n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 0
and orbital is

60) According to Bohr

mvr =

Time = distance/speed

61) Total number of nodes = n – 1

Correct order
6s > 5d > 4ƒ

62)

The orbitals which belong to same subshell and same shell are called degenerate orbitals.

and are the two sets of degenerate orbitals.

63)

Possible n + ℓ = 4 and 5
n + ℓ = 4 (3p , 4s) ⇒ total orbitals = 4
n + ℓ = 5 (3d , 4p, 5s) ⇒ total orbitals = 9
so possible no. of orbitals = 4 + 9 = 13

64)

I. E1 = – E1 =
1311.8 kJ/mol

65)

M–Z = no. of neutron.

atoms which have same number of neutrons are called isotones.

66)
67)

Be2+ : no. of e– = 4 – 2 = 2
Li+ : no. of e– = 3 – 1 = 2

68)

n = z + 1 (given )
n + z = 39
⇒ 2z + 1 = 39 ⇒ z = 19

69)

For p orbital

70)

mvr = J ⇒

KE =

71)

Theory based.

72) → Ist line Balmer series

→ last line paschen series

73)

IE1 = – E1 ⇒ E1 = – 16 eV

Ist E.E. = E2 – E1 = (–16)

= – 4 + 16 = 12 eV
st
I E.P. = 12 V

74)

Fact based
Based on black body radiation.
75)
⇒ 3080 = 3200 – 2x
⇒ x = 60

76)

Theory based
Based on Dalton's atomic theory.

77)

For anode rays ratio depend on nature of gas used in discharge tube.

78) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 46, Part-1

∵
⇒ λP = h (constant)

So plot will be a rectangular hyperbola.

79)

In the given diagram, there are four electron waves, so it is fourth orbit.

80)

Between Red, Green, Blue & Violet , Red has least energy (or maximum wavelength)
Hence 3 → 2 transition

81)

nλ = 2πr

82)

=
= 0.263 × 10–26 m/s
 83)

In 3rd orbit max.

18 e– can be present.

84)

Violation of Hund's rule means electrons are paired in an orbital before all orbitals in the
subshell have at least one electron with the same spin.

85)

4s has three radial node

86)

87) for n = 4
Number of electrons in a shell = 2n2
Number of electrons = 2 × (4)2 = 32

But with ms =
Number of electrons = 16

88)

A. Schrödinger Equation: The Schrödinger equation is a fundamental equation in quantum

mechanics that describes the wave-like behavior of particles. Solutions to the Schrödinger
equation for the hydrogen atom yield three quantum numbers: principal (n), azimuthal (l), and
magnetic (m).
B. Spin Quantum Number: The spin quantum number (s) arises from relativistic quantum
mechanics and is an intrinsic property of particles, not a solution to the non-relativistic
C. ​Schrödinger equation.

89)

Theory based on stability of half filled configuration.

90)

Proton 6 M →
Neutron 6 M → 6 × 2 M = 12 M
= 12 M + 3 M = 15 M = 15 amu
 % Change

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. # 45

92) NCERT Pg. # 45

93) NCERT Pg # 49

94) NCERT Pg # 49

95) NCERT Pg. # 42

96) NCERT Pg. # 43, 44, 45

97) NCERT Pg. # 40, 44, 45

98) NCERT Pg. # 46

99)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 49,50

100) NCERT, Pg. # 43

101)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 46

102)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 47

103)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 40

104)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 47,48,49

105)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 44

106)

Archaeopteryx connecting links reptiles and birds.

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 48, Para (4.1.6)

108) NCERT Pg. # 45

109) NCERT, Pg. # 41-43

110) NCERT Pg. # 45,48,49, 50

111)

NCERT Pg. # 43,45

112)

NCERT Pg. # 41,42,43,44

113) NCERT Pg. # 40,43,45

114) NCERT Pg. # 43

115) NCERT Pg..# 41,42,43,44

116) NCERT Pg. # 45

117) NCERT Pg. # 47-50

118) NCERT Pg. # 40, 41, 43, 45

119) NCERT Pg # 48,49

120) NCERT Pg # 48,49

121) NCERT Pg # 39

122) NCERT Pg # 42,43

123) NCERT Pg # 42,43,48

124) NCERT Pg # 43,44,46,47

125) NCERT, Pg. # 37-50

126) NCERT, Pg. # 38

127) NCERT, Pg. # 48

128) NCERT, Pg. # 39

129) NCERT, Pg. # 39

130) NCERT, Pg. # 44, 46

131) NCERT, Pg. # 37-51

132) NCERT, Pg. # 37-51

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 46-51

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44-45

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 37-51

136) Ernst Mayr is often referred to as the "Darwin of the 20th century" for his contributions
to evolutionary biology and his development of the modern synthesis of evolution.

137)
NCERT PG. 5

138) NCERT Pg. # 3 to 5

139)

NCERT XI, Pg # 4,5,6,8 ;

140) NCERT Page No. 29

141) NCERT Page No. # 5

142) NCERT-XI_P.No.23

143)

NCERT XI pg.# 29

144)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 6

145)

NCERT XI, Pg # 7

146) NCERT Pg # 6

147)

NCERT Pg. # 6

148) NCERT Pg. # 9, 10, 11, 12, 13

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 9

150) NCERT Pg.# 6

151) NCERT Pg.# 11

152) NCERT XI Page No. # 10

153)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 9, 10, 11, (B and D are correct)

154) NCERT Pg. # 10

155) NCERT Pg. # 9, 10

156)

NCERT Pg. # 10

157)

SOLUTION—

While some cyanobacteria can perform anoxygenic photosynthesis, it is not a universal

characteristic. Oxygenic chemotropism is not a feature of cyanobacteria; chemotrophs obtain
energy from chemical compounds, not light.

The correct answer is: OPTION(3) a and d

158)

Solution:

The correct answer is:

3. Linnaeus

Linnaeus is credited with the sexual classification of plants, where he classified plants based
on their reproductive organs (mainly Androecium and Gynoecium).

159)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 16

160) NCERT XI Pg. # 12

161)

Solution:

The correct answer is:

4. 3 domain system

The 16S r-RNA sequence is the basis of classification in the 3-domain system proposed by Carl
Woese, which divides organisms into Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.

162)

In Carl Woese's classification system, the kingdom that includes fungi is Eukarya.

The correct answer is: OPTION (2) Eukarya

163) NCERT XI Pg. # 17, 18 Para -1, 2, 1

164)

According to R.H. Whittaker's Five Kingdom Classification, the Kingdom Protista includes
organisms that can act as:

Producers – e.g., algae like Chlamydomonas, Euglena (photosynthetic protists)

Consumers – e.g., Amoeba, Paramecium (heterotrophic protozoans)

Decomposers – some slime molds and saprophytic protists

The correct answer is:OPTION(3)Protista

165)

NCERT-XI Page No.-19

166) NCERT-XI Pg# 129, para-02

167) NCERT-XI Pg# 128

168)

NCERT XI Page No. # 13

169) NCERT Pg. # 19, 20

170) NCERT Pg # 20

171) NCERT XI Pg. # 15

172) NCERT Pg. # 20

173)

NCERT Pg # 21

174) Explaining the Question:

Which diagram represent a slime mould.
Concept:
Protista - Slime mould.
Solution:

Final Answer:
Option (1)

175)

NCERT Pg. # 20, 21

176) NCERT-XI_ Pg. # 5, 6, 7

177) NCERT-XI_ Pg. # 6

178) NCERT-XI_Pg. # 12, 13, 14, Fig. 2.1, 2.2, 2.3

179) NCERT-XI Pg. # 11

180) NCERT-XI_Pg. # 11